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CATA exam > Chap 23 > Flashcards

Chap 23 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The functional unit of the spine is called the:
    a. Intervertebral disc
    b. Ligamentum nuchae
    c. Motion segment
    d. Vertebrae
A

C

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2
Q
  1. The vertebrae that consists of a bony ring with large, flat, superior articular facets on which the skull rests is the:
    a. Annulus
    b. Atlas
    c. Axis
    d. Dens
A

B

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3
Q
  1. The cumulative range of motion for the flexion/extension of the cervical spine is how many degrees?
    a. 4°–12°
    b. 8°–18°
    c. 12°–20°
    d. 18°–26°
A

B

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4
Q
  1. The ligament that connects the pedicles of adjacent vertebrae is the:
    a. Interspinous ligament
    b. Ligamentum flavum
    c. Posterior longitudinal ligament
    d. Supraspinous ligament
A

B

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5
Q
  1. A loss of cerebrospinal fluid around the spinal cord because of deformation of the spinal cord or a narrowing of the neural canal is called
    a. Spina bifida
    b. Scheurmann disease
    c. Spinal occlusion
    d. Spinal stenosis
A

D

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6
Q
  1. Bilateral sensory changes including burning pain, tingling, or total loss of sensation is referred to as:
    a. A burner
    b. Cervical subluxation
    c. Cervical fracture
    d. Neurapraxia
A

D

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7
Q
  1. If a unilateral cervical dislocation is present, the neck will be visibly tilted in what direction?
    a. Away from the dislocated side
    b. Toward the dislocated side
    c. Toward extension of the neck
    d. Toward flexion of the neck
A

B

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following signs or symptoms would NOT indicate a cervical spinal injury?
    a. Muscular weakness in extremities
    b. Absent or weak reflexes
    c. Sensory changes in the upper clavicular area
    d. Positive Babinski test result
A

D

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9
Q
  1. A brachial plexus injury usually affects what nerve roots of the plexus?
    a. C5–C6
    b. C6–C7
    c. C7–C8
    d. C8–T1
A

A

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10
Q
  1. The dermatome for C3 is the
    a. Supraclavicular fossa
    b. Acromioclavicular joint
    c. Lateral upper arm
    d. Lateral forearm, thumb, first finger
A

A

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11
Q
  1. After executing a tackle by leading with his head, a football player is down on the field. All of the following suggest an unstable neck EXCEPT:
    a. Patient is unconscious
    b. Patient is conscious and reports numbness in the extremities
    c. Patient is conscious and neurologically intact, but reports neck pain
    d. None of the above
A

D

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following characteristics would suggest a cervical sprain rather than strain?
    a. Restricted ROM
    b. Symptoms that persists for several days
    c. Pain
    d. Stiffness
A

B

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13
Q
  1. Grade II burners represent:
    a. Neurapraxia
    b. Axonotmesis
    c. Neurotmesis
    d. Cervical compression
A

B

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14
Q
  1. The Torg ratio aids in the assessment of:
    a. Cervical muscle strains
    b. Spinal stenosis
    c. Scoliosis
    d. Spondylolysis
A

B

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following signs and symptoms is not related to neurological deficits or damage?
    a. Radiating pain
    b. Loss of bladder control
    c. Referred pain
    d. Weakness in myotomes
    e. A, B
    f. B, C
    g. C, D
A

C

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following individuals is at greater risk for suprascapular nerve injury?
    a. Volleyball
A

A

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17
Q
  1. During a brachial plexus injury, muscular weakness is evident in the:
    a. Internal rotators and deltoid
    b. External rotators and deltoid
    c. External rotators, deltoid, and biceps
    d. Internal rotators, deltoid, and biceps brachii
A

C

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18
Q
  1. The most common mechanism of injury for a cervical fracture is:
    a. Rapid, forced lateral flexion of the neck
    b. A violent muscle contraction
    c. Forced hyperextension
    d. Axial loading and violent neck flexion
A

D

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19
Q
  1. Which condition results in incomplete loss of motor function, with upper extremity weakness being more pronounced than lower extremity weakness?
    a. Brown-Séquard syndrome
    b. Central spinal cord syndrome
    c. Anterior cord syndrome
    d. Posterior cord syndrome
A

B

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20
Q
  1. A classic sign of an acute burner is muscle weakness in actions involving:
    a. Shoulder adduction and internal rotation
    b. Shoulder abduction and external rotation
    c. Shoulder flexion
    d. Shoulder extension
    e. All of the above
    f. A or B
    g. B or C
    h. C or D
    i. None of the above
A

B

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21
Q
  1. Osteochondrosis of the spine because of abnormal epiphyseal plate behavior that allows for herniation of the disk into the vertebral body is termed:
    a. Scheuermann disease
    b. Intervertebral disk disease
    c. Spinal stenosis
    d. Brown-Séquard syndrome
A

A

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22
Q
  1. An acute process in which the nucleus pulposus herniates through the posterior annulus, resulting in signs and symptoms of cord or nerve root compression is termed:
    a. Spinal stenosis
    b. Scheuermann disease
    c. Soft-disc disease
    d. Hard-disc disease
A

C

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23
Q
  1. An athlete has sustained a sprain to the cervical region and is having radiating paresthesia down the left arm. What should be done for this athlete?
    a. Apply heat therapy
    b. Apply traction
    c. Immobilize the shoulder
    d. Refer to a physician
A

D

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24
Q
  1. The Spurling test is a
    a. Foraminal compression test
    b. Brachial plexus traction test
    c. Cervical compression test
    d. Cervical distraction test
A

A

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25
Q
  1. The cervical plexus consists of the ventral rami of spinal nerves:
    a. C1–C3
    b. C1–C4
    c. C2–C3
    d. C3–C5
A

B

26
Q
  1. A positive finding with the cervical distraction test indicates:
    a. Herniated disc
    b. Cervical fracture
    c. Compression of a cervical nerve
    d. Compression of a facet joint
    e. All of the above
    f. A or B
    g. B or C
    h. C or D
    i. None of the above
A

D

27
Q
  1. After executing a tackle by leading with his head, a football player is down on the field. Which of the following suggest the athlete could have an unstable neck?
    a. The player is unconscious
    b. The player is conscious and reports numbness in the upper extremities
    c. The player is conscious, neurologically intact, and reports neck pain
    d. All of the above
A

D

28
Q
  1. A classic symptom of acute torticollis is:
    a. Pain on one side of the neck that appears after waking from sleep
    b. Pain over the spinous process
    c. Muscle weakness in the extremities
    d. Absent or weak reflexes
A

A

29
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a component of an intervertebral disc?
    a. Nucleus
    b. Annulous
    c. Cerebral spinal fluid
    d. Meninges
    e. All are components of an intervertebral disc
    f. A, B
    g. B, C
    h. C, D
    i. None are components of an intervertebral disc
A

H

30
Q
  1. Which of the following tests is NOT used for thoracic outlet syndrome?
    a. Allen’s test
    b. Valsalva test
    c. Military brace test
    d. Upper limb tension test
    e. All are components of an intervertebral disc
    f. A, D
    g. B, D
    h. B, C
    i. C, D
    j. None are components of an intervertebral disc
A

G

31
Q

The middle finger is the dermatome for __________

A

a. C7

32
Q
  1. __________ is a localized conduction block that causes temporary loss of sensation and/or loss of motor function from selective demyelination of the axon sheath without true axonal disruption
A

a. Neurapraxia

33
Q
  1. In an injury involving the spinal cord, a transient loss of somatic and autonomic reflex activity below the level of neurological damage is called ___________
A

a. spinal shock

34
Q
  1. A crushing compression fracture that leaves a vertebra narrowed anteriorly is termed a _____ fracture
A

a. Wedge

35
Q
  1. Actions involving stimulation of a motor neuron by a sensory neuron in the spinal cord without involvement of the brain are called ____________
A

a. Reflexes

36
Q
  1. A deformity of the neck in which the head tilts toward one shoulder and, simultaneously, the chin rotates toward the opposite shoulder is termed________
A

a. Torticollis

37
Q
  1. Brachial plexus injuries are most likely a result of ______ forces
A

a. Tensile

38
Q
  1. Normal ROM for cervical flexion is ______ degrees
A

a. 80–90

39
Q
  1. Finger abduction assesses cervical nerve _________
A

a. T1

40
Q
  1. True or False: Approximately 70% to 90% of all cases of scoliosis can be directly linked to overdevelopment of muscles on the dominant side of the thorax or to a leg length discrepancy.
A

F

41
Q
  1. True or False: Cervical fractures occur more frequently than cervical dislocations.
A

F

42
Q
  1. True or False: Fractures and dislocations commonly occur at the 4th, 5th, and 6th cervical vertebrae.
A

T

43
Q
  1. True or False: In a brachial plexus injury, pain is usually transient and resolves itself in 5 to 10 minutes.
A

T

44
Q
  1. True or False: Extension exercises reduce load on the intervertebral disks and allow self-mobilization of the motion segments.
A

T

45
Q
  1. True or False: The right and left pedicles have notches on their superior and inferior borders, providing openings for the spinal nerves to pass through.
A

T

46
Q
  1. True or False: The thoracic curve is convex posteriorly.
A

T

47
Q
  1. True or False: The spinal nerve is composed of two roots. One root is responsible for motor function; the other root is responsible for sensory function.
A

T

48
Q
  1. True or False: A cervical fracture or dislocation automatically produces signs of a serious neck injury, namely, sensory or motor problems
A

F

49
Q
  1. True or False: An individual with a cervical fracture will not be able to walk under their own power.
A

F

50
Q
  1. True or False: Because the intervertebral disks are avascular, they rely on changes in posture and body position to produce a pumping action to bring in nutrients.
A

T

51
Q
  1. True or False: Axial compression loading has been identified as the leading mechanism of injury for severe cervical spine injuries.
A

T

52
Q
  1. True or False: A positive Hoffman sign is indicative of an upper motor neuron lesion.
A

T

53
Q
  1. True or False: A positive sign of a first thoracic nerve root stretch is pain in the scapular area or arm.
A

T

54
Q
  1. True or False: The bony landmark associated with the first thoracic vertebra is the base of the spine of the scapula.
A

F

55
Q
  1. What is the immediate management for spear tackler’s spine? Why?
A

a. Because the condition is a potentially catastrophic neck injury, the emergency plan should be activated, including summoning of EMS. This individual requires transport on a spine board.

56
Q
  1. What is the clinical significance of Erb point?
A

a. It is the most superficial position of the brachial plexus

57
Q
  1. Identify five “red flags” that warrant immobilization and immediate referral to a physician
A

a. Severe pain, point tenderness, or deformity along the vertebral column
b. Pain radiating into the extremities
c. Trunk or abdominal pain that may be referred from the visceral organs
d. Loss or change in sensation anywhere in the body
e. Paralysis or inability to move a body part
f. Any injury for which you are uncertain about the severity or nature
g. Diminished or absent reflexes
h. Muscle weakness in a myotome

58
Q
  1. What is the criterion for return to play following a burner?
A

a. No neck pain, arm pain, or dysesthesia (impairment of sensation)
b. Full pain-free range of motion in the neck and upper extremity
c. Normal strength on manual muscle testing as compared to preseason measurements
d. Normal deep tendon reflexes
e. Negative brachial plexus traction test

59
Q
  1. What is the primary nonimpact axial load on the cervical spine?
    a
A

. The primary axial load on the cervical spine during nonimpact situations is caused by the weight of the head. Holding the head in other than an upright position tends to elevate the tension required of the cervical paraspinal muscles

60
Q
  1. When and why should a scan examination be used as part of a cervical spine assessment?
    .
A

a. The response should include the following: Active movement should not be performed when pain is present over the vertebrae or when motor/sensory deficits are present. If there is no pain over the vertebrae or motor/sensory deficits, a scan exam can be used to assess general motor function. It can potentially rule out injury at other joints that may be overlooked because of intense pain or discomfort at the primary injury site

61
Q
  1. Explain the use of passive range of motion as part of an evaluation of a cervical spine injury.
A

a. The response should include the following: Passive movement should not be performed in an individual with an acute injury when motor and sensory deficits are present. These deficits indicate a spinal injury, and any movement could be catastrophic. In other injuries involving the presence of motor and sensory deficits, passive ROM can be performed if the individual does not have full ROM. In performing passive motion, the individual is placed in a supine position. The cervical region is moved passively through the various movements. The normal end feel for the cervical spine is tissue stretch in all four movements.

CATA exam (33 decks)

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