Chap 12 Flashcards
1
Q
- During initial evaluation of an athlete who complains of breathlessness, you find the athlete to have wheezing-like breathing. What might this indicate?
a. Spasms of the larynx
b. Asthma
c. Chest injury
d. Hypoxia
A
b
2
Q
- A bluish cast seen in the mucous membranes of a dark-skinned person might indicate
a. heart failure or respiratory disorder.
b. hypertension.
c. heat exhaustion.
d. fever.
A
A
3
Q
- Which of the following would require an immediate summons of EMS?
a. Minor or simple fracture
b. Loss of sensation or diminished or absent reflexes
c. Severe heat illness
d. Noticeable muscular weakness in the extremities
A
C
4
Q
- The immediate assessment occurring on the field when a life-threatening injury is present is called
a. Babinski test.
b. CPR.
c. primary survey.
d. secondary survey.
A
C
5
Q
- The leading cause of loss of consciousness in a sports activity is
a. head injuries.
b. heat stroke.
c. metabolic disturbances.
d. spinal injuries.
A
A
6
Q
- In medical situations, consciousness is determined through
a. level of stupor.
b. tactile stimuli.
c. verbal stimuli.
d. verbal and sensory stimuli.
A
D
7
Q
- Which of the following is NOT considered a vital sign?
a. Pupillary response to light
b. Pulse
c. Respirations
d. Skin temperature
A
A
8
Q
- Decorticate rigidity is posturing characterized by
a. marked extension of all four extremities.
b. marked extension of the elbows, wrists, and fingers and marked flexion in the toes.
c. marked extension of the legs and marked flexion of the elbows, wrists, and fingers.
d. marked extension of the legs only.
A
C
9
Q
- Internal hemorrhage is characterized by a
a. rapid and strong pulse.
b. rapid and weak pulse.
c. slow and strong pulse.
d. slow and weak pulse.
A
B
10
Q
- Hyperventilation is characterized by
a. rapid and deep breathing.
b. rapid and shallow breathing.
c. slow and deep breathing.
d. slow and shallow breathing.
A
A
11
Q
- Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with red skin color?
a. Hypertension
b. Diabetic coma
c. Hyperventilation
d. Heart failure
A
D
12
Q
- Hypotension is caused by each of the following except
a. shock.
b. heart attack.
c. oral contraceptives.
d. internal injury.
A
C
13
Q
- Dilated pupils are associated with each of the following conditions except
a. use of opiate-based drug.
b. shock.
c. cardiac arrest.
d. hemorrhage.
A
A
14
Q
- The emergency action plan should be practiced
a. annually.
b. every 2 years.
c. every 3 years.
d. every 5 years.
A
A
15
Q
- An example of a “red flag” indicating a serious medical injury is
a. shoulder pain.
b. loss of consciousness.
c. chills.
d. hunger.
A
B
16
Q
- A secondary survey is performed to identify
a. the type and extent of any injury and the immediate disposition of the condition.
b. if the patient is breathing.
c. the level of consciousness.
d. the number of patients.
A
A
17
Q
- Level of responsiveness can be categorized as
a. alert.
b. awake.
c. oriented.
d. unconscious.
A
A
18
Q
- The primary survey should determine whether the
a. patient has sustained a fracture.
b. scene is safe.
c. disposition of the patient.
d. airway is open.
A
D
19
Q
- The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses function in the following areas:
a. name, location, time, and what happened.
b. alert, voice, pain, unresponsive.
c. eye opening, verbal response, motor response.
d. body function, posturing, memory.
A
C
20
Q
- Pinpoint pupil size is commonly observed in
a. poisoning, brainstem dysfunction, and opiate use.
b. darkness or after seizures.
c. ipsilateral uncal herniation.
d. epidural hematoma.
A
A
21
Q
- What injury can cause cerebrospinal fluid to leak from the ear or nose?
a. Concussion
b. Ear infection
c. Basilar skull fracture
d. Frontal bone fracture
A
C
22
Q
- On-site neurological testing that includes a cranial nerve assessment would evaluate
a. cutaneous sensation.
b. motor function.
c. memory.
d. reflexes.
A
B
23
Q
- When assessing respiratory rate and quality, frothy blood may indicate
a. asthma.
b. spasm of the larynx.
c. stroke.
d. lung damage.
A
D
24
Q
- When assessing skin color, a blue or cyanotic appearance may indicate
a. anemia.
b. liver disease.
c. heat stroke.
d. heart failure.
A
D
25
25. Diplopia occurs when an individual
a. sees two images instead of one.
b. has unequal pupil size.
c. cannot track movement equally with both eyes.
d. cannot see far away.
A
26
26. True or False? An emergency plan for any facility should be developed cooperatively by the facility manager, athletic trainer, sports supervisor, and physician working together with the local emergency medical service.
T
27
27. True or False? The pads for an AED should be placed over the apex of the heart and inferior to the right clavicle.
T
28
28. True or False? Systolic pressure is the residual pressure that exists in the arteries when the heart is at rest.
F
29
29. True or False? Normal respiration for a child is 10 to 25 respirations per minute.
F
30
30. True or False? The pupils are extremely sensitive to conditions that affect the CNS.
T
31
31. True or False? A dental injury such as a loose tooth warrants a referral to a physician or dentist.
T
32
32. True or False? When there is a suspected fracture, the clinician should always assess the pulse proximal to the fracture location.
F
33
33. True or False? Appropriate prehospital management of the spine-injured athlete may include removal of the athletic equipment prior to transportation.
t
34
34. True or False? It is essential that prevention of spine injuries in athletics be a priority and requires collaboration between the medical team, coaching staff, and athletes.
T
35
35. True or False? It takes three qualified medical personnel for proper helmet removal in the spine-injured athlete.
T
36
36. True or False? Manual conveyance should be used when the athlete has an antalgic gait.
F
37
37. True or False? Spinal motion restriction is intended to immobilize the spine.
F
38
38. True or False? Due to the potentially harmful effects of being placed on the traditional long spine board for prolonged periods of time, it is recommended that alternative rigid immobilization devices be considered in place of the long spine board.
T
39
39. True or False? Best practices recommend using a five-person team to lift the spine-injured athlete.
F
40
40. True or False? A patient presenting with moderate acute asthma exacerbation presents with 40% to 69% of his or her baseline peak expiratory flow.
T
41
41. True or False? Focal brain injuries include hematoma, cerebral contusion, or intracranial bleeding.
T
42
42. True or False? There are seven cervical vertebrae and eight cervical nerve roots.
T
43
43. True or False? Blood glucose levels below 70 mg per dL is considered severe hypoglycemia.
F
44
44. True or False? To successfully treat exertional heat stroke, the core body temperature must be dropped to 102°F within 30 minutes.
T
45
45. True or False? Patients suffering from exertional sickling may present with fatigue, difficulty breathing, leg and low back cramps.
T
46
46. Identify five red flags indicating serious emergency and activation of EMS.
Answer: Airway obstruction; respiratory failure; severe shock; severe chest or abdominal pains; excessive bleeding; suspected spinal injury; head injury with loss of consciousness; severe heat illness; fractures involving several ribs, the femur, or pelvis
47
47. Identify five nonlife threatening conditions that warrant immediate referral to a physician.
Answer: Eye injuries, dental injuries in which a tooth has been knocked loose or knocked out, minor or simple fractures, lacerations that may require suturing, injuries in which a functional deficit is noticeable, loss of normal sensation or diminished or absent reflexes, noticeable muscular weakness in the extremities, any injury if you may have doubts about its severity or nature
48
48. Describe the proper procedure for removing a football helmet.
Answer: One individual will maintain in-line stabilization of the head and neck to minimize cervical spine movement; another individual should first, cut the chin strap or straps; a flat object is slid between the helmet and cheek pad; the object is twisted to unsnap and separate the cheek pad from the helmet; this action is repeated on the other side and both cheek pads are removed; the individual in charge of maintaining in-line stabilization should then slip a finger in each ear hole and spread the helmet; as the helmet is slowly slipped off the head, the other individual should reach behind the neck and provide firm support to the cervical spine and head.
49
49. Describe the proper procedure for removing a football shoulder pads.
Answer: The athlete's shirt is cut to expose the shoulder pads (This can be done by cutting the anterior portion of both sleeves); next, the rib straps are cut or unfastened on the sternal portion of the pads and the laces holding together the anterior portions of the pad are cut; the halves are then spread to expose the sternum; if possible, the cervical spine should be immobilized with a firm or hard collar; the helmet is then removed; next, the anterior and axillary shoulder straps are cut, followed by spreading the two halves of the shoulder pads apart.
As one individual continues to support the athlete's head, the shoulder pads are slid off the shoulders over the head.
