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CATA exam > Chap 17 > Flashcards

Chap 17 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following is a function of the meniscus?
    a. Absorption and dissipation of force
    b. Improve congruency of the joint surfaces
    c. Serve as soft tissue restraints that resist anterior tibial displacement
    d. Assist the ligaments and capsule in preventing hyperflexion
    e. All of the above
    f. A, B, C only
    g. B, C, D only
    h. A, C, D only
    i. None of the above
A

F

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2
Q
  1. Anteromedial instability indicates damage to all of the following structures except the
    a. ACL
    b. Vastusmedialis oblique
    c. Medial capsular ligament
    d. Tibial collateral ligament
A

B

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3
Q
  1. Posterior knee swelling may indicate all but which of the following?
    a. Baker cyst
    b. Gastrocnemius strain
    c. Biceps femoris strain
    d. Venous thrombosis
A

C

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4
Q
  1. The medial meniscus can often be injured in combination with a hamstring injury because
    a. The medial meniscus is firmly attached to the tibia
    b. The medial meniscus is mobile
    c. The medial meniscus is attached to fibers of the semimembranosus
    d. The medial meniscus is attached to fibers of the semitendinosus
A

C

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5
Q
  1. Deceleration and internal rotation of the tibia are primary mechanisms of injury for
    a. Straight ACL injuries
    b. Straight PCL injuries
    c. Anteromedial rotary instability
    d. Posteromedial rotary instability
A

C

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6
Q
  1. The unhappy triad involves which structure(s)?
    a. ACL
    b. MCL
    c. Medial Meniscus
    d. PCL
    e. All of the above
    f. A, B, C only
    g. B, C, D only
    h. A, C, D only
A

F

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7
Q
  1. Immediate swelling of the knee after acute injury usually indicates
    a. Fibular collateral ligament injury
    b. Intra-articular injury
    c. Tibial collateral ligament injury
    d. Extra-articular injury
A

B

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8
Q
  1. The screw-home mechanism occurs when the:
    a. Tibia rotates medially on the femur during the last degrees of knee extension
    b. Tibia rotates laterally on the femur during the last degrees of knee extension
    c. Patellofemoral joint rotates laterally during the last degrees of knee extension
    d. Fibula rotates medially on the femur during full knee extension
A

B

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9
Q
  1. After placing ice on an acutely injured knee, an athlete develops paresthesia down the lateral aspect of the injured knee. This could be attributed to what structure?
    a. Femoral artery
    b. Tibial nerve
    c. Common peroneal nerve
    d. Stiffness of the iliotibial band
A

C

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10
Q
  1. The arcuate complex supports
    a. Posterior knee stability
    b. Medial knee stability
    c. Anterior knee stability
    d. The iliotibial band
A

A

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11
Q
  1. An athlete has developed a synovial herniation in the popliteal space. This condition is termed
    a. Neoplasm
    b. Baker’s cyst
    c. Arthalgia
    d. Osteochondritis
A

B

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12
Q
  1. A meniscal tear in which an entire longitudinal segment is displaced medially toward the center of the tibia is termed as:
    a. Parrot beak tear
    b. Horizontal tear
    c. Bucket handle tear
    d. Linear tear
A

C

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following tests should be performed to confirm a suspected patellar dislocation?
    a. Anterior drawer test
    b. Apprehension test
    c. Ballotable patella test
    d. Patella compression test
A

B

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following is considered a closed chain exercise for the knee?
    a. Terminal knee extension
    b. Mini squats
    c. Leg curls
    d. Straight leg raises
    e. All of the above
    f. A, B, C only
    g. B, C, D only
    h. C, A, D
    i. None of the above
A

B

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15
Q
  1. The menisci are attached to the superior plateaus of the tibia by what structure?
    a. Arcuate ligaments
    b. Collateral ligaments
    c. Coronary ligaments
    d. Cruciate ligaments
A

C

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16
Q
  1. The largest bursa of the body is the:
    a. Deep infrapatellar
    b. Prepatellar
    c. Superficial infrapatellar
    d. Suprapatellar
A

D

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17
Q
  1. Which is the strongest knee ligament?
    a. ACL
    b. PCL
    c. MCL
    d. LCL
A

B

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18
Q
  1. Which nerve innervates the quadriceps?
    a. Common peroneal
    b. Femoral
    c. Obturator
    d. Sciatic
A

B

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19
Q
  1. The muscle that unlocks the knee from its close-packed position is the:
    a. Gastrocnemius
    b. Popliteus
    c. Quadriceps
    d. Semimembranosus
A

B

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20
Q
  1. A kick or blow to the posterolateral aspect of the knee can contuse which nerve?
    a. Common peroneal
    b. Obturator
    c. Saphenous
    d. Tibial
A

A

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21
Q
  1. The bursa most commonly injured by compressive forces at the knee is the:
    a. Deep infrapatellar
    b. Prepatellar
    c. Superficial infrapatellar
    d. Suprapatellar
A

B

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22
Q
  1. A positive valgus instability test result at 30° of flexion indicates damage to what ligament?
    a. ACL
    b. LCL
    c. PCL
    d. MCL
A

D

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23
Q
  1. What ligament is often injured during a cutting maneuver, sudden deceleration, or landing in an off-balance position after a jump?
    a. ACL
    b. LCL
    c. PCL
    d. MCL
A

A

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24
Q
  1. When a force displaces the medial tibia condyle in an anterior externally rotated position, what is the primary ligamentous restraint to this motion?
    a. ACL
    b. LCL
    c. PCL
    d. MCL
A

D

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25
Q
  1. A condition in which the lateral retinaculum is tight or the vastusmedialis is weak, leading to lateral excursion and pressure on the lateral facet of the patella, is called:
    a. Chondromalacia patellae
    b. Iliotibial band friction syndrome
    c. Patellofemoral stress syndrome
    d. Subluxed patella
A

C

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26
Q
  1. A traction-type injury to the tibialapophysis where the patellar tendon attaches onto the tibial tuberosity is called:
    a. Larsen-Johansson disease
    b. Osgood-Schlatter disease
    c. Patellar tendinitis
    d. Tibial periostitis
A

B

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27
Q
  1. The patellar tap test is used to indicate:
    a. Intra-articular or extra-articular swelling
    b. Lateral patellar excursion
    c. Patellar fracture
    d. Patellar subluxation/dislocation
A

A

28
Q
  1. Which of the following tests should be used to confirm chondromalacia?
    a. McMurray
    b. Apley
    c. Clarke
    d. Lachman
A

C

29
Q
  1. Which of the following is not characteristic of patella plicasyndrome?
    a. Pseudolocking
    b. Significant joint effusion
    c. Positive stutter test
    d. Anterior knee pain aggravated by quadriceps exercises
A

B

30
Q
  1. Inflammation or partial avulsion of the apex of the patella due to traction forces is termed:
    a. Osgood-Schlatter disease
    b. Jumper’s knee
    c. Chondromalacia
    d. Sinding-Larsen-Johansson disease
A

A

31
Q
  1. A high-riding patella caused by a long patellar tendon is termed
    a. Patella alta
    b. Patella baja
    c. Squinting patella
    d. Frog eye patella
A

A

32
Q
  1. Which of the following tests is not used to assess straight posterior laxity?
    a. Posterior sag
    b. Reverse lachman
    c. Slocum drawer
    d. Posterior drawer
A

C

33
Q
  1. The pes anserine is the common attachment of the sartorius, gracilis, and ___________
A

a. Semitendinosis

34
Q
  1. The Q-angle is the angle between the line of quadriceps force and the ________
A

a. patellar tendon

35
Q
  1. An A-angle greater than ______ has been linked to increased patellofemoral pain.
A

a. 35°

36
Q
  1. The _______ nerve innervates all of the muscles in the hamstring group except the short head of the biceps.
A

a. Tibial

37
Q
  1. ______ bursitis is often associated with running and cycling and is routinely aggravated by knee flexion.
A

a. Pes anserine

38
Q
  1. Atrophy of the ________ is nearly always evident in patellofemoral dysfunction
A

a. Vastusmedialis oblique

39
Q
  1. When observing the knee during injury evaluation, the knee should be in _______ position to relieve any strain on the joint structure
A

a. 30 degrees flexion

40
Q
  1. Bursitis is most likely to result from________ force
A

a. Compressive

41
Q
  1. A Q-angle greater than ______ can predispose the individual to patellar injuries.
A

a. 22 degrees

42
Q
  1. The most frequently seen rotary instability at the knee is ________ instability.
A

a. Anterolateral

43
Q
  1. True or False: Ligaments provide the main source of stability in the knee.
A

F

44
Q
  1. True or False: Each of the bursa in the knee is contained within the joint capsule
A

F

45
Q
  1. True or False: The iliotibial band is a medial stabilizer of the knee
A

F

46
Q
  1. True or False: The knee is directly affected by motions and forces coming from the foot, ankle, and lower leg
A

T

47
Q
  1. True or False: Longitudinal tears of the meniscus are due largely to degeneration
A

F

48
Q
  1. True or False: Normal passive glide of the patellofemoral joint should be restored before full flexion exercises, resisted exercises, or bicycling is initiated.
A

T

49
Q
  1. True or False: If the quadriceps tendon is ruptured from the superior pole of the patella and the extensor retinaculum is still intact, knee extension is still possible
A

T

50
Q
  1. True or False: An apophyseal fracture at the tibial tuberosity commonly results from a violent quadriceps contraction against a fixed foot
A

T

51
Q
  1. True or False: A patellar fracture will produce diffuse intra-articular swelling
A

F

52
Q
  1. True or False: If an anterior cruciate ligament injury is suspected, Lachman test should be performed before any other stress test.
A

T

53
Q
  1. True or False: The medial collateral ligament resists medially directed rotational forces at the knee and is separated from the joint capsule by a small fat pad
A

F

54
Q
  1. True or False: The tibial nerve innervates all of the hamstrings and continues down the leg to innervate all of the muscles in the posterior lower leg.
A

F

55
Q
  1. True or False: For flexion to be initiated from a position of full extension, the popliteus must first act to laterally rotate the femur with respect to the tibia, thereby unlocking, or freeing, the joint for motion
A

T

56
Q
  1. True or False: A soft tumorous mass that can be palpated in the medial popliteal space that may or may not be painful indicates a Baker cyst involving the semimembranosus bursa
A

T

57
Q
  1. True or False: If the anterior cruciate ligament is injured, joint effusion may not appear until 1 to 2 hours after the injury, even though an acute care protocol was followed
A

T

58
Q
  1. True or False: Damage to the posterior cruciate ligament commonly occurs during a cutting or turning maneuver, landing in an off-balance position after a jump, or during sudden deceleration
A

F

59
Q
  1. True or False: Peak incidence of meniscal injuries occurs in men and women between the ages of 21 and 40 years
A

F

60
Q
  1. True or False: Point tenderness over the lateral facet of the patella and intense pain and crepitus when the patella is manually compressed into the patellofemoral groove are signs of patellofemoral stress syndrome
A

T

61
Q
  1. A female cross-country runner is suspected of having iliotibial band friction syndrome. During a posture exam, what should be observed to determine if she is at risk for developing this condition?
A

a. The following should be observed: increased Q-angle, genu valgum, excessive foot pronation

62
Q
  1. What specific signs and symptoms associated with a MCL sprain suggest a grade 2 injury?
A

a. A positive valgus test in 30° of flexion with a positive end feel indicates at least a grade II injury to the middle third of the capsular ligament and MCL. The individual may be unable to fully extend the leg, and will often walk on the ball of the foot, unable to keep the heel flat on the ground.

63
Q
  1. Why is the medial meniscus more likely to be injured than the lateral meniscus?
A

a. The medial meniscus is more likely to be injured than the lateral because it is more securely attached to the tibia and therefore less mobile. In addition, because the medial meniscus attaches to the MCL, it can be damaged as a result of trauma involving the MCL.

64
Q
  1. A basketball player decelerated, set the left foot, then forcefully pushed off the left leg to perform a right-handed lay-up shot. The player felt a sudden popping sensation and intense pain, and then the knee collapsed. Initial evaluation revealed point tender on the anteromedial joint line. There is swelling but no signs of deformity. What structures might be involved with this injury? What stress and special tests should be performed?
A

a. The possible involved structures include: the medial meniscus, the anterior cruciate, and the medial collateral ligament. The special tests include Lachman, anterior drawer test, posterior sag or gravity test, valgus stress test, McMurray test, and Thessaly test.

65
Q
  1. Please explain the screw-home mechanism
A

a. Because the medial and lateral condyles of the femur differ somewhat in size, shape, and orientation, the tibia rotates laterally on the femur during the last few degrees of extension.

66
Q
  1. What does the NATA recommend regarding ACL injury prevention programs
A

a. The NATA recommends that ACL injury prevention programs include at least three of the following types of exercise: strength, agility, plyometrics, balance, and flexibility. Additionally, emphasis is placed on proper and safe exercise progressions and program compliance.

CATA exam (33 decks)

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