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Chemistryyy > biology 3 - MABs, Nervous System And The Eye > Flashcards

biology 3 - MABs, Nervous System And The Eye Flashcards

1
Q

What are monoclonal antibodies produced from?

A

a single clone of cells

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2
Q

Why are monoclonal antibodies so helpful? (What are they specific to?)

A

the antibodies are specific to one binding site on one protein antigen so can target a specific chemical or cells in the body

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3
Q

5 steps to make monoclonal antibodies -
Step 1 - a mouse is ? with a specific antigen to stimulate the ? to make the mouse’s body make a ? antibody

A

injected, lymphocytes, specific

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4
Q

Step 2 - extracted lymphocytes are then combined with a ? kind of tumour ?, detergents are used to break down the cell ? of both cells to help them ?

A

specific, cell, membrane, fuse/combine

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5
Q

what does the fusion of a lymphocyte and tumour make/produce

A

a hybridoma

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6
Q

why is a tumour cell used in monoclonal antibodies?

A

because tumours divides and clone easily and quickly

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7
Q

3- a hybridoma cell is made which can ? and form antibodies

A

divide

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8
Q

hybridoma are screened to check for ? production. ? hybridoma cells are cloned to produce many ? cells that all produce the same ? , these are called monoclonal antibodies otherwise known as ???

A

antibody, single, identical, antibody, MABs

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9
Q

Step 5 - a large amount of ? are collected and ?

A

MABs, purified

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10
Q

MABs in pregnancy tests… positive tests! what happens in the reaction zone?

A

hCG in the urine binds to the specific mobile MABs specific for hCG (in reaction zone)

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11
Q

what is hCG

A

an early pregnancy hormone

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12
Q

positive result - what happens after the reaction zone - urine containing hCG and mobile ? ? complex moves up strip and ? binds to the fixed specific MABs in the ? zone. this binding activates a ? which is the first line on the ?

A

hCG-MAB, hCG , results, dye, test

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13
Q

what happens in the control zone - positive test - remaining hCG- MAB complexes move up into the ? zone where there are fixed ? which are specific to the ? MABs from the ? zone. this binding activates another ? - giving ? lines

A

control, MABs, mobile, reaction, dye, two

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14
Q

what happens in a pregnancy test - negative result - reaction zone

A

no hCG in urine so no binding to mobile MABs in reaction zone

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15
Q

what happens in a pregnancy test - negative result, in the results zone - unbound ? MABs run up the test into the ? zone. as there is no ? no binding happens, and so no ? is released

A

mobile, results, hCG, dye

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16
Q

what happens in a pregnancy test - negative result, control zone - mobile ? from the reaction zone bind with the ? MABs in the ? zone as they are ? to each other which activates a ? and forming one ?

A

MABs, fixed, control, specific, dye, line

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17
Q

what are 3 reasons for fake negatives?

A

urine has been diluted, it is too early to tell, not enough hCG in the urine

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18
Q

what are two reasons fake positives for pregnancy tests?

A

people who’ve had cancer in their sex organs have antigens that are very similar to hCG,
also because of IVF

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19
Q

how can MABs also be used?

A

in research and cancer

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20
Q

two uses for MABs in research

A

to measure the levels of hormones and chemicals in blood, or to locate or identify specific molecules or pathogens in the body by binding to them with a fluorescent dye

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21
Q

how to use MABs to detect specific pathogens or molecules in a cell?
1. Make MAB specific to the ?
2. attach a ? dye to MAB
3. in the body the MAB will ? to the antigen and when binding happens the dye ?
4. doctors can detect pathogens/ ?/ clot easily

A

antigen, fluorescent, bind, glows, tumour

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22
Q

how do MABs work in treating cancer?
1. doctors make MAB ? to the antigen on the cancer ?
2. attach the drug to the ?
3. in the body the MAB only binds to the antigens on the ? cells and directly delivers the ? to the tumour. drug can then work on destroying the ?

A

specific, cells, MAB, cancer, drug, tumour

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23
Q

what can MABs also do?

A

clump tumour cells together to be engulfed by phagocytes - which can help medics locate and operate on tumour

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24
Q

what are pros of MABs?

A
  • they are an effective treatment for diseases
  • can treat a wide range of diseases
  • bind to damaged cells or specific diseases that need treatment
  • goes directly to disease, doesn’t go through body/ cells
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25
Q

cons of MABs

A
  • side effects- like chills, fever rashes and nausea
  • very expensive
  • difficult to get the right antibodies
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26
Q

what’s the cns?

A

the central nervous system - the brain and spinal chord

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27
Q

what’s the pns?

A

the peripheral nervous system - neurons that carry electrical impulses to and from the CNS

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28
Q

reflex actions is a way for the body to ? and rapidly respond to a stimulus to ? and further damage to the ?. it follows a ? sequence and does not involve the ? part of the brain

A

automatically, minimize, body, general, conscious

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29
Q

what is the general sequence of reflex actions?

A

stimulus -> receptor -> sensory neurons -> CNS (relay neurons - spinal chord only!!) -> motor neurone -> effector -> response

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30
Q

nerve pathway after a ? action is called a reflex ?, a reflex ? is a lot ? because of this and is initially only involved in ? pathway

A

reflex, arc, action, quicker, one

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31
Q

how does the myelin sheath impact reaction time?

A

messages react quicker because of electrical impulses ‘jumping’ between nodes of Ranvier, so people react quicker and their reaction time decreases

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32
Q

why does reaction time increase if the myelin sheath is damaged?

A

because the electrical impulses cannnot jump as far

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33
Q

what is the myelin sheath?

A

and insulator

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34
Q

what is a synapse?

A

a gap between neurones

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35
Q

synapses - how they work :
1. the electrical ? arrived at the ? - synaptic terminal at the end of one ?
2. this causes vesicles (containing a chemical called a ? - transmitter) to be released in the ? cleft
3. neurotransmitters diffuse across the ? and quickly bind to receptors on the post synaptic ? on the dendrite of the other ?
4. the receptor molecules on the ? neurone bind to the ? neurotransmitter released from the first ? - which stimulates the second neurone to transmit the ? Impulse

A

impulse, pre, neurone, neuro, synaptic, cleft, terminal, neurone, second, specific, neurone, electrical

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36
Q

what 4 things to include in a 6 marker - to plan an investigation to test the effect of drinking coffee on reaction time?

A

the control variable, method, grouping (how many people), and analysis

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37
Q

what are some control variables in the coffee - reaction time experiment

A

amount of coffee consumed, ruled marked at 0cm, same arm from Sam’s height, similar age, sleep environment, diet, have to stare across the room so can’t see when dropping it

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38
Q

what are some grouping examples in the coffee - reaction time experiment

A

each person has to measure the before and after variable, as well as a large no of people need to do the experiment - large test group (100+)

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39
Q

what are some elements of the metjod in the coffee - reaction time experiment

A
  • drop ruler into friends hand
    catch ruler with thumb and forefinger from 0cm, drop randomly and use non dominant hand
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40
Q

what are some analysis points in the coffee - reaction time experiment

A

take a mean of reaction time before and after and compare means - on a graph or by statistical analysis and also compare to initial hypothesis

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41
Q

what do the number of fold in the brain tell someone

A

how intelligent the animal is, the more folded the more intelligent

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42
Q

are humans more closely related to chimpanzees than gorillas?

A

chimpanzees

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43
Q

what is the body mass : cranial capacity in humans, A.Aferensis and Chimpanzees

A

1:25, 1:11.5, 1:10

44
Q

what are functions and features of the cerebrum

A

largest part of the brain, contains most of the neurons that carry out the cerebral functions, functions include consciousness, intelligence, memory, language and emotional responses

45
Q

cerebral cortex has how many hemispheres which are how big?

A

contains two hemispheres - left and right, and they are 2-5 mmm, fine and folded

46
Q

what is the cerebellum responsible for?

A

2nd largest part of beain, DOESNT initiate movement but helps coordination, precision and accurate timing. it also receives input from sensory systems mostly in the cpu

47
Q

what is the medulla oblongata involved in

A

unconscious activities, eg : controlling heartbeat, gut, breathing, vomiting and blood pressure

48
Q

what is the hypothalamus?

A

small part of brain- big job - links nervous system to pituitary gland, also involved in instinctive behaviours : feeding, fleeing, fighting and mating, also contains a lot of receptors

49
Q

pituitary gland - what is it and what is it called? x

A

the ‘master gland’ - releases hormones that causes other glands to release hormone which brings about a response. released hormones also because of the hypothalamus releasing hormones, two parts of these hormones

50
Q

what are the two types of hormones the pituitary gland (initiated from the hypothalamus) produces anterior - adrenal cortex, bone and muscle, skin thyroid and posterior - testis, ovaries, breats, kidneys!

A

anterior - adrenal cortex, bone and muscle, skin thyroid and posterior - testis, ovaries, breats, kidneys!

51
Q

pros and cons of MRIs :
pros - can detect cancer ?, clots and abnormal blood ?, uses magnetic ? and radio waves to produce very detailed ?, as well as it’s not ? and doesn’t use ionizing ?

A

cells, flow, fields, images, invasive, radiation

52
Q

cons of MRIs? very ?, can’t distinguish between benign and ? tumours, and the person is in an enclosed ?

A

expensive, malignant, space

53
Q

pros of CT scans - not ?, can easily diagnose conditions, and also ? these conditions, not as ? as MRIs, can guide further ? or treatment , eg location of ?

A

invasive, monitor, invasive, tests, tumour

54
Q

cons of CT scans? - some risk from ? radiation and the injection of ? which can lead to a metallic ? in the mouth and some ? effects

A

ionizing, dye, taste, side

55
Q

how does an EEG work?

A

it works by attaching small sensors all over the scalp to detect electrical signals produced when the brain’s cells send messages to one another

56
Q

pros of EEGs - can be used to detect things such as memory problems, epilepsy or ?, is very safe - ? electricity is put into body, and these can be read to detect any ? activity
cons of EEGs - can’t be used to detect cancer or any other ? that doesn’t alter electrical ? , as well as this you need a highly ? specialist to read the EEG

A

fits, no, unusual, disease, signals, trained

57
Q

cons of using monoclonal antibodies as treatment?

A

can cause skin changes, such as itchy and sore skin or an itchy rash

58
Q

pros and cons of brain surgery?

A

can remove as much of tumour as possible, but at a high risk to the patient as it can cause brain damage, infection and increase possibility of a stroke

59
Q

pros and cons of a brain implant?

A

implants ab electrode into parts of brain where it might not receive natural stimulation - which can help early Parkinson’s disease, but the brain may get damaged in the process

60
Q

what is the right cerebral hemisphere?

A

it is 6 layers of cerebral cortex containing cell bodies of neurons is part of the brain that processes grey matter - right brain functions are art awareness creativity imagination etc

61
Q

what does the size of pupil control?

A

how much light enters the eyes

62
Q

what happens if too much or too little light enters the eyes

A

too much- retinal damage, too little - can’t see

63
Q

what is accommodation?

A

the process of changing the shape of the lense to focus on near or distant objects (using cilliary muscles and suspensory ligaments)

64
Q

what happens if the object is distant?
rays of light from objects are almost ?, so not much needs to be done to focus the ? on the retina - meaning the cilliary muscles ? and the suspension ? are pulled tight - meaning the lens is pulled ? and refracts the light rays less ?

A

parallel, light, relax, ligaments, thin, strongly

65
Q

what is different in nearby objects to seeing distant objects?

A

the light diverges, so the cilliary muscles contract, suspension ligaments relax and loosen and the lens is thicker enabling it to refract the light more strongly

66
Q

what happens to the pupils in dim light?

A

they dilate to allowe more light into eyes, radial muscles contact, and circular muscles relax

67
Q

what happens to the pupils in bright light?

A

they shrink to provide protection from retinal damage, meaning less light is let in and the radial muscles relax which the circular ones contract

68
Q

if you’re short sighted what do you call it and what can you and can’t see

A

it’s called myopia and you CAN see short distances but struggle to see long ones

69
Q

what is hyperopia?

A

when you can see long distances but struggle to see short distances ; being long sighted

70
Q

why do more people have to get glasses as they get older?

A

because the lens in their eye is less elastic than before and their cilliary muscles are weaker and it’s harder to make the lens round and thick

71
Q

where is the image formed in myopia (relative to the retina) - why, and what can solve this?

A

in front of the retina, normally because the lens is too strong, the eyeball is too long, or the cornea refracts too curved light - this can all be solved by a concave lens which diverges the light

72
Q

where is the image formed in hyperopia (relative to the retina) - why, and what can solve this?

A

behind the retina, normally because the lens is not thick enough to refract the light, or the eyeball is too short, and this can all be solved by a convex lens

73
Q

what is a stimulus? and give an example

A

a change in the environment, eg a flash of light

74
Q

what is a receptor ? and give an example

A

a detection of the change, eg a photoreceptor - in the eye

75
Q

what is a co-ordinator? and give an example

A

it’s an integration of information that processes and coordinates a response, eg : the brain!! x

76
Q

what is an effector?

A

a muscle or gland that brings about a response

77
Q

what is a response? and give an example

A

a contraction or secretion, eg blinking or sweat

78
Q

what is the stimulus, sense organ and receptor of sight

A

change in light, eyes, photo receptors

79
Q

what is the stimulus, sense organ and receptor of hearing

A

sound, vibrations, cochlea (auditory receptors)

80
Q

what is the stimulus, sense organ and receptor of taste

A

chemical, tongue, chemicals in the air etc

81
Q

what is the stimulus, sense organ and receptor of smell

A

chemicals in the air, nose, chemoreceptor

82
Q

what is the stimulus, sense organ and receptor of touch

A

mechanical forces, skin, and mechanoreceptors

83
Q

what is the stimulus, sense organ and receptor of body positioning

A

change in position, ears eyes - any sense, proprioreceptor

84
Q

what is a Schwann cell?

A

an individual cell on a neurone

85
Q

what are the nodes of Ranvier ?

A

the gaps in between schwann cells

86
Q

what is the axon?

A

the post cell body

87
Q

what is the dendron?

A

pre cell body

88
Q

what is the myelin sheath?

A

collection of Schwann cells

89
Q

what makes up the cell body in a neurone?

A

nucleus, mitochondria, ribosomes

90
Q

what are dendrites?

A

look like little spindly nerve endings

91
Q

2 differences between sensory and motor neurons

A

in the sensory neurone the dendrites are at the end of the neurone - to the left of the cell body, whereas in the motor neurone the dendrites are at the tips of the cell body. in the motor neurone it is at the end of the cell whereas in the sensory neurone it is more in the middle of the cell. they are also different shapes - the sensory neurone more of an oval shape and the motor neurone more of a star shape. (also motor neurone has no sende on only axon but sensory has both.)

92
Q

what does the retina contain?

A

rods and cones which are sensitive to light

93
Q

what are found in the fovea?

A

max density of cone cells - most of light is refracted here

94
Q

what’s the sclera

A

tough outer coating to protect the eye

95
Q

what’s the cornea?

A

where 70% of the light is refracted into the eye

96
Q

optic nerve?

A

nerve impulses from retina are carried to brain

97
Q

iris..?

A

controls amount of light entering the eye!!!

98
Q

what’s the pupil?

A

a hole which lets light into the eye

99
Q

lens?

A

refracts light into the retina!

100
Q

cilliary muscles and suspensory ligaments do what?

A

change the shape of the lens

101
Q

bio required practical bacteria and Petri dish- why sterilize the forceps?

A

to remove any pathogens, to make sure there’s no contamination

102
Q

bio required practical bacteria and Petri dish - why work next to a lot Bunsen burner?

A

so the airs sterilized and doesn’t contaminate the experiment

103
Q

bio required practical bacteria and Petri dish - why open the bacteria plays towards the Bunsen Burner?

A

it’s the most sterile direction

104
Q

bio required practical bacteria and Petri dish - why only tape in 4 places not all the way round?

A

to allow some air so no anaerobic bacterium - which is more dangerous

105
Q

bio required practical bacteria and Petri dish - why store the dish upside down?

A

any moisture/ condensation from bacterial respiration settles on lid not afar, otherwise bacteria could die

106
Q

bio required practical bacteria and Petri dish - why incubate at roughly 30 degrees?

A

warm enough - around room temp to allow bacterial division/growth

107
Q

bio required practical bacteria and Petri dish - why label with date and type of bacteria?

A

knew when to remove it and know what level of danger it is

Chemistryyy (47 decks)

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