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Module 11 Sub Modules 11.1 - 11.10 > 11.5 > Flashcards

11.5 Flashcards

1
Q

if an aircraft is IFR certified what must be different about the captain and first officer?

A

systems fed separately i.e altimeter, horizon etc on different systems

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2
Q

where is the pfd found in a glass cockpit?

A

outboard on both captain and first officers side

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3
Q

how many screens are on a basic EFIS system?

A

6

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4
Q

what are the basic T arrangement instruments and what are their positions?

A

top left: asi
top middle: adi
top right: alt
bottom left: turn bank indicator
bottom middle: hsi
bottom right: vsi

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5
Q

EADI can also be referred to as?

A

PFD -> primary flight display

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6
Q

EHSI can also be referred to as?

A

ND -> navigation display

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7
Q

what is 1 atm in HPA and inches of mercury?

A

HPA -> 1013.25
Inches of mercury -> 29.92

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8
Q

what instruments use pressure to display headings?

A

ALT, ASI, VSI

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9
Q

how many degrees does temp decrease per 1000ft?

A

2 degrees

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10
Q

what is the standard temp at sea level?

A

15 degrees

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11
Q

what pressure do altimeter use to display altitude?

A

static pressure

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12
Q

what is the pressure at 18,000, 36,000 and 54,000 compared to sea level?

A

18,000 -> 50%
36,000 -> 25%
54,000 -> 12.5%

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13
Q

are altimeters more or less accurate at low alts?

A

less accurate

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14
Q

what is used at low altitude?

A

radio altimeter

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15
Q

what does the transducer do in the radio altimeter?

A

convert analogue to digital

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16
Q

what happens to the (aneroid) bellows as alt increases?

A

expand mechanically linked to a pointer

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17
Q

why are bellows corrugated?

A

more sensitive

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18
Q

where is static pressure fed in an altimeter?

A

the case

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19
Q

large aircraft don’t have bellows what is used instead?

A

air data computer

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20
Q

why does the barometric attitude need changing?

A

pressure differs locally

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21
Q

in cruise what should the Q code be changed to?

A

from QFE/QNH to QNE

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22
Q

what is being fed into the asi?

A

pitot and static

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23
Q

what is the pitot probe connected to?

A

bellows/aneroid capsule

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24
Q

where is the static pressured fed to in an asi?

A

the case

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25
Q

what do the green, yellow and white band mean on an asi?

A

Green -> normal op range
yellow -> caution range only in smooth air
white -> full flap op range

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26
Q

airspeed limit depends on what?

A

VMO -> velocity max
MMO -> max mach

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27
Q

how does a vsi work?

A

static pressure into case and calibrated metering unit. utilising differential pressure

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28
Q

what is the problem with a vsi?

A

there is a lag

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29
Q

what is a mach meter?

A

ration of true airspeed to speed of sound

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30
Q

what is another name for SAT and what is SAT?

A

outside air temp
temp of undisturbed air

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31
Q

where is the only place where TAT and SAT are the same?

A

TAT is usually higher
TAT+SAT same on ground

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32
Q

where would TAT and SAT be displayed?

A

ECAM

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33
Q

what instruments require pitot and/or static

A

ALT static
ASI pitot + static
VSI static

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34
Q

where are static points located?

A

area of smooth airflow to allow undisturbed measurements of static pressure

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35
Q

what is the difference between the measured and real static pressure?

A

static source error

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36
Q

what causes SSE

A

fuselage shape
speed
configuration

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37
Q

how is SSE rectified?

A

with an ADC

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38
Q

when would static ports be covered?

A

cleaning, painting

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39
Q

what is the combined adc and fru?

A

air data inertial reference unit

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40
Q

what effect does side slip have on the static port?

A

gives a higher than normal pressure

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41
Q

how is the static pressure difference corrected during a side slip?

A

via points on either side of the fuselage, cross porting tube averages the pressure

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42
Q

what does the baffle prevent in the pitot probe?

A

containment ingress

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43
Q

what are some additional features of a pitot probe?

A

drain hole, heater to prevent ice

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44
Q

what does the alternate static selector valve do?

A

allows captain to use co pilots flight controls in case of failure

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45
Q

aircraft that fly at higher speeds and altitudes require what extra instruments?

A

true airspeed
air temp indicator
mach meter

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46
Q

any data sent to ECAM is sent via what?

A

ARINC 429

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47
Q

some aircraft have a third adc what is the purpose of this?

A

checks info and compare from adi 1 and adi 2 if one reads incorrect it is taken offline. “watch dogging” and “cross talking”

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48
Q

what is hot standby?

A

ready to use autopilot come online if needed

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49
Q

what do air data modules do?

A

pass air pressure directly into digital data word

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50
Q

why is the air data modules located near the static port?

A

save weight

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51
Q

what does the DME do?

A

display management computer takes data from ARINC 429 and converts to graphics

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52
Q

when would a leak test be performed?

A

after the system has been disturbed

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53
Q

when is the Q code changed to QNE?

A

transition level

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54
Q

what does encoding altimeter do?

A

sends a digital code to the aircrafts ATC transponder. it replies to ATC radar with altitude data gives who and how high

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55
Q

what does a servo altimeter work off?

A

induction pick off E and I bar

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56
Q

what is another example of the E and I bar?

A

linear variable differential transducer

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57
Q

calibrated metering unit is also called?

A

capillary tube

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58
Q

what is added to a VSI to alleviate lag (IVSI)?

A

dashpot -> weight between 2 springs

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58
Q

how long does it take a gyro to run down?

A

up to 20 mins

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59
Q

ADI’s utilise what type of gyro?

A

vertical axes gyro

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60
Q

what does vertical and horizontal refer to in vertical and horizontal gyro?

A

the axes the mass move around

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61
Q

HSI use what type of gyro?

A

horizontal/directional gyro

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62
Q

when would a rate gyro be used?

A

rate of turn indicator

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63
Q

how many laser rate gyros are needed for roll pitch and yaw info

A

3 gyros

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64
Q

what is the standard gyro powered by?

A

the battery

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65
Q

what 3 things affect the rigidity?

A

its mass
rotational speed
distance between the axis and the centre of mass

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66
Q

what factor is used to improve rigidity of the aircraft?

A

the rotational speed 20rpm to 24rpm

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67
Q

gyros have how many gimbles to provide an indication of aircrafts attitude?

A

one or two

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68
Q

what dictates the degrees of freedom?

A

number of gimbles

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69
Q

what gyros are needed on aircraft?

A

earth tied gyro

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70
Q

how many degrees of freedom does a rate gyro have?

A

one

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71
Q

a rate gyro will have how many degrees of freedom when held by springs?

A

1.5

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72
Q

what is a tied gyro?

A

gyro about a fixed axis

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73
Q

what is rigidity?

A

a gyros ability to maintain its axis

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74
Q

gyro precision depends on what?

A

axes that force is inputted to as reaction is 90 degrees to this
direction of spin precision felt 90 degrees to force some direction as spin

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75
Q

what type of gyro is a laser ring gyro?

A

rate gyro

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76
Q

how many gyros are in an ADIRU?

A

3 laser ring one for each axis

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77
Q
A
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78
Q

what is gyro wonder?

A

deviation from the fixed axis drift, topple depending on axis

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79
Q

what is gyro wonder caused by?

A

imbalances can be caused by wear and tear

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80
Q

what one the advantages of laser ring gyros?

A

less maintenance
no moving parts

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80
Q

What will disturb the back up compass on the aircraft?

A

Mag fields from systems

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80
Q

how does a laser ring gyro work?

A

difference in time of arrival at detectors, proportional to the aircraft movement

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80
Q

the IRS has how many RLG and accelerometers, where are these located?

A

3 RLG
3 accelerometers
longitudinal axis

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81
Q

what are the 3 methods of correcting wander?

A

pendulous vane
rotating balls
electrolytic switches

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82
Q

what is given on the HSI?

A

Heading
glidescope
localiser
weather (EHSI)
to from indicator
course selector point

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83
Q

how are turn and slip indicators powered?

A

28vdc

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84
Q

what does a turn and slip indicator not show?

A

pitch

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85
Q

how do you know you are in a co-ordinated turn?

A

the bubble will remain in the middle

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86
Q

standby compasses are known as what?

A

E2B

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87
Q

what does the lubber line show?

A

the point at which an aircraft is pointing

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88
Q

what are the two types of heading?

A

true north
magnetic north

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89
Q

what is variation?

A

difference between true north and magnetic north

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90
Q

what occurs to the magnets as their position with respect to magnetic north changes

A

inclination, retardant at certain angles

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90
Q

all compasses point to what?

A

magnetic north

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90
Q

how do you remember deviation and variation?

A

Cadburys - compass
dairy - deviation
milk - magnetic
very - variation
tasty - true

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91
Q

where will the flux detectors be found?

A

wing tips

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92
Q

how must all magnetic direction indicators be installed?

A

so that the accuracy is not excessively affected by aeroplanes magnetic fields or vibration

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93
Q

what can be said about hard iron magnetism?

A

permanent form of magnetism
hard to de-magnetise
easy to magnetise

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94
Q

what can be said about soft iron magnetism?

A

temporary magnetism

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95
Q

what does a direct reading compass contain?

A

all parts necessary to read magnetic heading
no electrical except light

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96
Q

why is the direct reading compass filled with fluid?

A

to dampen the compass scale movements

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96
Q

what is the purpose of the expansion unit direct reading compass?

A

compensates for fluid expansion by temperature changes

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97
Q

where is the direct reading compass located and why?

A

visible from each pilot seat

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98
Q

when does a direct reading compass read perfectly?

A

level flight
constant speed

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99
Q

what is the purpose of a compass deviation card?

A

for pilots to make adjustments in flight

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100
Q

the cable for the light in the compass is what to stop magnetism interference?

A

screened and trusted

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101
Q

what eliminates the problems with direct reading compasses?

A

directional gyro

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102
Q

what is the main component of a remote compass?

A

flux valve located at wing tips or vertical stabilisers

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103
Q

what do modern aircraft with IVS and GPS not require?

A

compass swing

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104
Q

where will a compass swing be performed?

A

designated compass swing base

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105
Q

what is the flux valve connected to?

A

remote compass

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106
Q

what compensates for SSE?

A

ADC

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107
Q

when will a stall warning go off?

A

before a stall

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108
Q

is alpha max a constant?

A

no charges with speed and configuration

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109
Q

where must the stall warning operate?

A

at least 5 kts or 5% above the stall speed

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110
Q

AOA info is taken from what?

A

AOA vane / Alpha vane

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111
Q

what are the warnings given?

A

audible and visual

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112
Q

what is the flight data shown on in a glass cockpit?

A

electronic flight instrument system

113
Q

how are MFD (multi functional displays) controlled?

A

by two multifunction keypads (MFR) one for each pilot

114
Q

how may the info be displayed?

A

Priority - warning over a caution etc

115
Q

how is the brightness of the EFIS controlled?

A

brightness control knob on the outboard side

116
Q

where are the display management computers located?

A

in the avionics bay

117
Q

Benefit to EFIS?

A

all data presented in a user friendly

118
Q

what does a basic EFIS require?

A

symbol generators
displays to show data
computer to process info
sensors

119
Q

what is a comparator unit?

A

compares info from captains and FO’s sensors

120
Q

what does the PFD show?

A

airspeed . heading
attitude . altitude
vertical speed
radio alt . flight guidance cures

121
Q

what does the ND show?

A

vor modes
approach modes
map modes

122
Q

what would a warning display show?

A

EICAS/ECAM - warnings
comms messages - cautions
memos - advisories

123
Q

what are the two types of map display?

A

rose and arc

124
Q

what display is the FMC shown?

A

EHSI

125
Q

when will the FLT DLR be used?

A

flying manually

126
Q

if there are no issues with autopilot, what will the autopilot/Autoland status be?

A

land 3 - fail operation mode

127
Q

what does the VOR stand for?

A

VHF omnidirectional range

128
Q

when is the weather data present?

A

when in expanded VOR and ILS modes

129
Q

how can an EFIS self test be conducted?

A

test switch, central maintenance comp (CMC) or central maintenance computing function (CMFC)

130
Q

when can an EFIS self test be conducted?

A

weight on wheels

131
Q

the colour bars in EFIS test mode are presented during what mode?

A

PLAN on the roster presentations

132
Q

in what order are cautions and warnings shown?

A

prioritise warnings over caution then chronologically

133
Q

what does each colour represent?

A

red - warning
amber - caution
cyan - advisory
white - statics
green - normal
magenta info

134
Q

what does green light mean in the landing gear system?

A

down and locked

135
Q

what is the purpose of auto pilot?

A

reduce pilots workload

136
Q

how many methods of disengaging autopilot must be available to the crew?

A

at least two

137
Q

what is the flight director system (FDS)?

A

guidance aid to the pilot during manual flight

138
Q

what does the auto trim system do?

A

maintain pitch stability during all phases of flight by changing the THS angle

139
Q

the yaw damper will deflect in what direction to counteract dutch roll?

A

opposite

140
Q

what does flight envelope protection do?

A

prevents abnormal flight conditions during auto flight

141
Q

does auto throttle actually move the levers?

A

no

142
Q

what are the engines controlled by in auto throttle?

A

full authority digital engine control

143
Q

how quick is a correction control inputted after a disturbance?

A

50ms

144
Q

what are the sensors for ailerons?

A

lateral control circuit actuators

145
Q

how is feedback sent?

A

via electrical signals

146
Q

for full flight profiled auto pilot requires sensors for what?

A

attitude
rate info
lateral movement
heading
speed and height
radio coupling

147
Q

what is a duplex auto pilot system?

A

3 channel are for pitch, yaw and roll

148
Q

what is the redundancy in a duplex?

A

signals are duplicated

149
Q

what is the redundancy in a triplex?

A

signals are 3x and votes if there is dependency

150
Q

why are closed loop systems used on aircraft?

A

as inputs require feedback

151
Q

what does the outer loop system do?

A

gives signals to the inner loop in manual flight to pilot the auto loop controls if not autopilot controls the auto

152
Q

what does the inner loop do?

A

control the flight surface

153
Q

how do you know an aircraft is not properly trimmed?

A

lots of input from pilot required

154
Q

how does the autopilot negate the position of the control surface?

A

feedback due to closed loop

155
Q

what does altitude hold mode utilise?

A

anaeroid capsule
e and i transducer

156
Q

what happens when autopilot is disengaged?

A

visual warning light
aural warning

157
Q

what are two types of auto throttle?

A

auto throttle
auto thrust

158
Q

what auto throttle mode uses the FADEC and what one moves the levers?

A

FADEC - auto thrust
more levers - auto throttle

159
Q

when can auto throttle modes be used?

A

all flight phases

160
Q

what does fail operational mean?

A

one failure can occur but leave the whole system still functioning

161
Q

what is radio telephony?

A

exchange of info using radio waves

162
Q

what is the name for taking an audible frequency and converting it to a carrier frequency?

A

modulation

163
Q

when would HF frequency be used?

A

long range comms

164
Q

when would VHF be used?

A

short range (line of sight) comms. ATC or other aircraft

165
Q

what is the spacing between comms channels?

A

8.33 KHz

166
Q

what is the frequency and the wavelength for:
HF
VHF

A

HF - 3MHz - 30MHz - 10m - 100m
VHF - 30MHz - 300MHz - 1m - 10m

167
Q

what frequency are comms and what are nav?

A

Comms - 118 - 137MHz
Nav - 108 - 118MHz

168
Q

what affects HF transmissions?

A

time of day and ionosphere

169
Q

what are the two types of radio equipment?

A

transmitting
receiving

170
Q

what does the length of the ariel depend on?

A

wavelength - 1/4

171
Q

what antennas may be fitted in the radome?

A

weather radar
glideslope capture
localiser track

172
Q

where would the SATCOM ariel be located?

A

on the top of the aircraft

173
Q

what are the types of modulation?

A

frequency (FM)
amplitude (AM)

174
Q

what is the ELT frequency?

A

121.50 MHz

175
Q

what is the cabin interphone used for?

A

flight deck and cabin crew to talk

176
Q

what is the service interphone used for?

A

flight crew and ground staff at maintenance points

177
Q

what is a SELCAL?

A

private transmission sent to people that share the code

178
Q

when can the flight interphone be used?

A

weight on wheels

179
Q

what does ACARS stand for?

A

aircraft communicating and report system

180
Q

what is VHF used for?

A

data and voice transmission

181
Q

what affects the distance between VHF comms?

A

altitude cup to like 240 miles

182
Q

what are the 3 VHF radios used for onboard?

A

captain
first officer
acars

183
Q

how many frequencies can be selected at once?

A

2 - one is the active and the other is standby. to change press transfer button

184
Q

what does acars do?

A

receives and transmits messages to company ops

185
Q

what is the purposed of the electrical tuning unit in HF?

A

changes the operating length of the HF ariel

186
Q

how many HF systems are fitted to long haul and short haul aircraft?

A

2 for long
1 for short

187
Q

where is the HF ariel located?

A

vertical stabilisers

188
Q

what are some safety precautions for HF?

A

don’t operate during refuel, defuel and oxygen charging
no ops in hangar
couplers are pressurised
no personnel in vicinity

189
Q

what has HF widely been replaced by?

A

SATCOM

190
Q

what is a SELCAL code?

A

4 letters made of letters A through M excluding i

191
Q

how is the pilots altered of a message?

A

audible chime
visual light

192
Q

do pilots have to continuously monitor SELCAL?

A

No

193
Q

what does SELCAL use?

A

VHF
HF - predominantly

194
Q

what does each letter in SELCAL represent?

A

a chime 300 to 1000Hz

195
Q

what can SATCOM be used for?

A

data transmissions
voice transmissions

196
Q

what is done to SATCOM signals before transmission?

A

encrypted

197
Q

what does SATCOM allow?

A

calls, emails and internet
pilot contact to atc
real time weather
most fuel efficient route

198
Q

what orbit do international meantime satellites have?

A

3 of them

199
Q

how many ground earth stations (GES) can an aircraft earth station (AES) be logged into at once?

A

one at a time

200
Q

does a satcom antenna move?

A

yes, to always point towards the satellite via beam steering unit

201
Q

what boosts the signal if the antenna is struggling to lock on?

A

high power amp

202
Q

how does it know where the aircraft is?

A

how does it know where the aircraft is?

203
Q

what one the 3 components in a satcom network?

A

ADIRU

204
Q

what are the 3 components in a satcom network?

A

AES
GES
satellite

205
Q

what VHF channel does aircraft communication, addressing and reporting system (ACARS) use?

A

VHF 3

206
Q

are ACARS transmissions auto or manual?

A

Both

207
Q

what are the two main ACARS networks?

A

SITA
ARINC

208
Q

in flight what is used for ACARS transmission if VHF is out of range?

A

satcom

209
Q

how do you know that ACARS is being used?

A

comms panel - data or acars

210
Q

where are flight data recorders (FDR)/cockpit voice recorders (VCR) found what they look like?

A

behind rear pressure bulkhead
orange

211
Q

what does the FDR record?

A

flight data lots of different parameters general times a second

212
Q

what do modern CVR and FDR use to record?

A

solid state drives

213
Q

how many flight hours must the CVR and FDR store?

A

the last 25 flight hours

214
Q

what can the CVR and FDR withstand?

A

impact of 3400G
temps over 1000 degrees
6000m depth

215
Q

when does the CVR and FDR come online?

A

oil pressure signal
airspeed signal

216
Q

what does the CVR use to record voice?

A

cockpit area mic

217
Q

what are the 4 channels the CVR records?

A

cockpit area mic
captain mic audio
FO mic audio
PA audio

218
Q

how many DC power supplies do FDR + CVR have?

A

two supplies

219
Q

what do emergency locater transmitters (ELT) transmit and at what intervals?

A

single output that incorporates longitude and latitude info. transmits signal every 50 seconds on a frequency of 406MHz for 24 hours

220
Q

where are fixed ELT’s located?

A

upper aft section of fuselage

221
Q

when would portable ELT be used?

A

removal on life raft

222
Q

what do ELTs transmit to?

A

SARSAT

223
Q

what frequency do the portable ELT’s operate on?

A

121.5MHz - 243MHz

224
Q

what should ELT’s be set too?

A

armed position

225
Q

what 3 things must the pilot know in rotation to the aircraft position?

A

longitude
latitude
altitude

226
Q

how many satellites must 3D nav have to give alt, lat and longitudinal?

A

min 4 satellites

227
Q

how often is the FMC updated?

A

every 28 days

228
Q

what is the slant range?

A

DME STN, distance to its hypotenuse

229
Q

if there is no wind what is the track the same as?

A

the heading

230
Q

what do ground based radio beacons give?

A

relative bearing

231
Q

what is automatic direction finding used to determine?

A

ADF used to determine the relative bearing of an aircraft to a ground station

232
Q

what is the relative bearing?

A

angle between the aircrafts nose and the ground station

233
Q

what is another name for an ADF beacon

A

Non-directional beacons

234
Q

what is ADF used for?

A

en route navigation

235
Q

what is the ADF displayed on?

A

EHSI or radio magnetic indicator

236
Q

what types of antenna is an ADF antenna?

A

continued loop

237
Q

what are the frequencies for ADU’s inputted into?

A

control display unit (MCDU)

238
Q

what are the two types of bearings?

A

to and from

239
Q

what are some of the VOR frequencies shared with?

A

ILS

240
Q

how is the relative bearing determined from VOR?

A

to signals reference and variable. the phase difference is the relative bearing

241
Q

what does the DME give the flight crew?

A

slant range to and from a DME NDB

242
Q

what is the DME range?

A

0 to 400 NM’s

243
Q

how is the slant range computed?

A

elapsed time interval between the instant of interrogation to the instant of reply

244
Q

if a DME is out of range what is displayed?

A

4 dashes

245
Q

what are the 3 points of ILS?

A

monitor beacon
localiser
glideslope

246
Q

what is autotuned into when you tune into the localiser?

A

the glideslope

247
Q

what frequencies are ILS signals found on?

A

108-112 MHz but only on odd tenths

248
Q

if you are on the centreline what is the amplitude of the AM signals?
to the left?
to the right?

A

on centre line amplitudes are equal
to the left 90Hz
to the right 150Hz

249
Q

how does this work for glideslope?

A

same but in the vertical plane

250
Q

what does one dot on a localiser represent?

A

10

251
Q

what is the corner frequency of the marker beacon system?

A

75 MHz

252
Q

what do marker beacons represent?

A

how far you are from the runway

253
Q

what colour and frequency is:
outer marker?
middle marker?
inner marker?

A

outer - blue 400 Hz
middle - amber 1300 Hz
inner - white 3000 Hz

254
Q

do you need to tune the marker beacon system?

A

no

255
Q

how is the pilot alerted of the marker beacon?

A

visual
audio

256
Q

what are some primary radar systems?

A

radio alt
weather
primary surveillance atc

257
Q

what do primary radars rely on?

A

the radio wave reflection

258
Q

what principle does secondary radar work off?

A

interrogation response

259
Q

what are the two components of secondary radar?

A

integrator
transponder

260
Q

what are the 3 secondary radar modes?

A

mode A - ident
mode C - ident + alt
mode S - ident + additional data

261
Q

what is the mode used for TCAS?

A

mode S

262
Q

how are radio waves transmitted?

A

waveguides

263
Q

what is co axial used for?

A

comms

264
Q

what is the basic ATC transponder system often referred to when communicating on rlt?

A

known as a squawk

265
Q

for the TCAS system to work what mode transponder is required?

A

mode s

266
Q

what is the ident in mode s?

A

24 bit address

267
Q

what does tcas provide?

A

resolution advisory
vertical manoeuvres displays
info to flight crew
traffic advisory’s

268
Q

what is the difference between TA and RA?

A

-ta alert of traffic
-ra warning and gives avoidance manoeuvres

269
Q

where may tcas advisories be shown?

A

vsi
nd
may be eadi

270
Q

what alt does the rad alt display height?

A

2500ft to 0ft

271
Q

why is rad alt used?

A

as barometric is inaccurate at low alts

272
Q

how many rad alt antennas are there and where?

A

2 under side of fuselage

273
Q

what are the main onboard users of gps?

A

FMC
IRS

274
Q

what are the 3 segments of gps?

A

user
satellite
central

275
Q

what are the two main gps services?

A

precision positioning services
standard positioning service

276
Q

what does the IRS rely on to find speed and distance?

A

3 accelerometers on each plane. intergrate values to go from a-v-d

277
Q

the lru and adiru uses data from the FMC to do what function?

A

calculate the gyros and accelerometers
initialise the aircraft position

278
Q

what does the adiru do initially?

A

verifies the validity of the entered initial position
compares initial to gps

279
Q

when would the align reset mode be used?

A

movement during alignment

280
Q

what does FANS utilise?

A

GPS
satcom

281
Q

whats CFIT?

A

controlled flight into terrain

282
Q

the grand proximity warning system (GPWS) provides the pilots with visual and audible warning of what?

A

aircrafts closeness to terrain

283
Q

what may be used to inhibit the gwps?

A

landing gear flap position

284
Q

what is EGPWS?

A

enhanced GPWS

285
Q

what is the additional mode of EGPWS?

A

terrain mapping

286
Q

how many modes are there in GPWS?

A

6

287
Q

what does the fms calculate?

A

economy speeds
best flight alt
top of descent point

287
Q

what does the FMS give?

A

nav
performance
display
guidance

288
Q

what guidance does the fms give?

A

LNAV and VNAV

Module 11 Sub Modules 11.1 - 11.10 (82 decks)

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