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Wrong Pile. Flashcards

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1
Q

What is pitch related to in sound?

A

Pitch is related to frequency.

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2
Q

Relate K and G

A

Delta G = - RT lnk.

Therefore, if K is greater than one then the delta g is negative.

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3
Q

What is usually the first step of a acid catalyzed reaction for carbonyls?

A

Typically, the acid protonates the double bonded oxygen of the carbonyl. The protonation allows the formation of a resonance structure where the carbonyl carbon has a positive charge and is susceptible to attack.

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4
Q

What is the formula to calculate percent error?

A

experimental - theoretical / theoretical

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5
Q

On a heating curve, when is the average kinetic energy not changing?

A

Remember the temperature stays the same during a phase shift. The average kinetic energy will remain the same during a change in phase.

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6
Q

What is the IR Spectrum for OH?

A

Broad peak around 3000 to 3700.

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7
Q

What is a constitutional isomer?

A

Two compounds have the same formula, but different connectivity.

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8
Q

What does the Benedict’s solution test positive for?

A

It tests positive for aldehyde and alpha- hydroxyketones sugars.

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9
Q

What are alpha hydroxyketones?

A

A ketone where the exterior carbon has a hydroxyl group attached.

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10
Q

How is the mass of an object effected when you move it to another planet?

A

The mass is not effected.

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11
Q

What is acetic acid?

A

lone Carboxylic Acid (ketone)

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12
Q

What is formic acid?

A

Lone Carboxylic Acid (aldehyde)

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13
Q

Relate specific gravity, density, and buoyant force.

A

If the density is big, then the specific gravity is bigger, therefore the buoyant force is higher because the density is high.

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14
Q

What is nitrate?

A

NO3-

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15
Q

What is Carbonate?

A

CO3^2-

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16
Q

How does competitive inhibition affect the sigmoidal graph? Not line weaver.

A

Rightward shift with same vMax.

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17
Q

How does a noncompetitive inhibitor affect the sigmoidal graph? Not line weaver.

A

Decreased VMax level.

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18
Q

If you were to replace one element with another and attempt to exhibit then same effects, then which atom would you most likely choose?

A

The replacement atom should be in the same group because they have the same characteristics.

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19
Q

What is the definition of a carbohydrate

A

Must have the formula: CH2O, but must also have more than 2 carbon atoms.

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20
Q

Is combustion exothermic or endothermic?

A

Combustion gives off energy and heat so it is exothermic.

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21
Q

What is H2SO3?

A

Sulfurous acid

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22
Q

What is the carbonyl region of IR?

A

Around 1700-1800

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23
Q

How do you calculate the heat of vaporization for water given an enthalpy table?

A

Vaporization is liquid to gas.

Use products - reactants with the enthalpy values.

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24
Q

What is the explanation for why light travels slower through an optically dense medium.

A

The light is absorbed and re-emitted by the atomic structure of the optically sense medium.

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25
Q

What is a sulfonyl group?

A

Sulfur with at least two double bonded oxygens attached.

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26
Q

What is a urea group?

A

Carbonyl oxygen, carbon attached to two amine groups.

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27
Q

Relate adding volume to concentration & pH

A

pH is calculated by the -log(h) concentration. If the M is the same after adding a volume, then the pH must not change.

Solution chemistry tells us that if concentration remains the same, then volume changes will not affect pH.

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28
Q

What is Poiseuille’s Law for flow rate and what is the implication?

A

Flow = ΔPπr^4 / 8Lη.

Big take away from this equation is r^4. Changing the radius SIGNIFICANTLY changes the changes the flow rate.

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29
Q

What are the different formulas for power?

A 
Power = work (fd) / time. 
Power = force (time)
Power = Kinetic energy(.5mv^2) / time.
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30
Q

What is the area under/ in the PV graph?

A

Work.

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31
Q

What are the characteristics of a good nucleophile?

A

A good nucleophile must have lots of electrons to donate. Also, the nucleophile must not be sterically hindered.

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32
Q

What is the relative reactivity of carbonyl groups?

A

The relative reactivity is:

Acyl Halides > Anhydrides > Esters & Acids > Amides

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33
Q

What do amino groups do in term of polarity?

A

Amines make the molecule more polar.

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34
Q

Describe DNA Methylation, DNA Acetylation, and DNA Deacetylation.

A

DNA Methylation blocks transcription by closing histones.
DNA Acetylation increases transcription by opening histones.
DNA Deacetylation blocks transcription by removing acetyl groups.

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35
Q

Contrast Mass spec and gas chromatography:

A

Mass spectrometry is used to measure the size of one molecule and would not be useful to carry out a separation of two molecules

Gas chromatography separates molecules based on affinity

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36
Q

What is another name of humoral immunity?

A

Adaptive immunity

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37
Q

Describe the different types of restriction enzymes:

A

Type 1: cuts at the restriction site.
Type 2: cleaves short distances, requires Magnesium.
Type 3: cleaves short distances, required ATP.
Type 4: targets modified DNA ( methylated, etc).

38
Q

What is an azide?

A

N3-, very powerful nucleophile.

39
Q

Describe smooth muscle:

A

not striated, mononucleated, under the control of the autonomic nervous system.

40
Q

Describe skeletal muscle:

A

striated, multinucleate, somatic control

41
Q

Describe cardiac muscle

A

striated, central nuclei, autonomic control.

42
Q

How can you increase the power of an experiment?

A
  1. increase alpha
  2. conduct one tailed test
  3. increase sample size
  4. decrease random error
  5. increase effect size
43
Q

What is instrumental support?

A

refers to the various types of tangible help that others may provide to an individual (e.g. help with childcare/housekeeping, provision of transportation or money).

44
Q

What is Informational support?

A

Informational support represents a third type of social support (one that is sometimes included within the instrumental support category) and refers to the help that others may offer through the provision of information.

45
Q

What is emotional support?

A

Emotional support refers to the things that people do that make us feel loved and cared for, and that bolster our sense of self-worth (e.g., talking over a problem, providing encouragement or positive feedback); such support frequently takes the form of non-tangible types of assistance.

46
Q

What is companionship support?

A

Companionship support is the type of support that gives someone a sense of social belonging. This can be seen as the presence of companions to engage in shared social activities.

47
Q

Contrast Homophily and heterophily:

A

Homophily is the tendency of individuals to associate and bond with others similar to themselves.

Heterophily is the tendency of individuals to collect in diverse groups; it is the opposite of homophily.

48
Q

Describe GABA:

A

GABA is the chief inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS. It plays the principal role in reducing neuronal excitability throughout the nervous system and is found in decreased levels in patients with anxiety disorders.

49
Q

What are Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?

A

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs outlines how people prioritize basic physiological needs (food, clothing, shelter) over other needs in life such as safety or love.

Physiological - > Safety -> Social (Love) -> Esteem -> Self Actualization.

50
Q

What are Kohlberg’s stages?

A

Kohlberg outlined stages of moral reasoning addressing how people reason their way through moral questions, and showed how this reasoning develops from children to adults.

51
Q

Contrast self - esteem and self- efficacy?

A

Self - esteem is respect someone has for himself.

Self- Efficacy is the belief one can succeed in the environment.

52
Q

What is the James Lange Theory of emotion?

A

Emotions are a result of physiological processes.

53
Q

What is the Cannon Bard Theory of emotion?

A

Emotion and arousal are simultaneous and independent

54
Q

What is Vygotsky’s Zone of proximal development theory?

A

Theory describes the differences between what an individual can do with assistance and what she can do without assistance.

55
Q

What are Erikson’s Stages of psychosocial development?

A

Relate to the development of self, trust, identity, and social independence.

56
Q

What is locus of control?

A

Locus of control refers to the extent to which individuals believe they can control events affecting them.

57
Q

What is the semantic network model?

A

Explains certain triggers that will activate associated memories.

58
Q

What part of the brain does epilepsy effect?

A

the temporal brain.

59
Q

What is bottom up processing?

A

Processing details first, then taking a look at the whole image.

60
Q

What is neuroplasticity?

A

The ability for the brain to make synaptic connections easier for certain information.

61
Q

Contrast procedural and declarative memory:

A

Procedural memory is how to do something.

Declarative memory is facts of nouns; person, place, or thing.

62
Q

What are the characteristics of secure attachment?

A

Able to separate from parents, able to come back to parents when scared, return is met with positive emotion, and prefers parents to strangers.

63
Q

What are the characteristics of ambivalent attachment?

A

Wary to strangers, upset when parent leaves, not comforted by the return of the parent.

Parent shows INCONSISTENT behavior to child.

64
Q

What are the characteristics of avoidance attachment?

A

May avoid parents, not much comfort or contact with parents, doesn’t care whether parent or stranger.

65
Q

What are the characteristics of disorganized attachment?

A

Mixture between avoidance and ambivalent attachment. Child is confused, dazed, and apprehensive.

66
Q

Describe the steps of attachment theory .

A

First three months a child will attach to any person.
4 to 6 months, a child will recognize caregivers but will still go to anyone.
6 to 8 months, a child will prefer a caregiver but it will depend on the attachment style.

67
Q

What is the drive reduction theory?

A

Satisfying need via a drive.

Need of water and the drive of thirst motivates you to drink water.

68
Q

Describe ABO blood types.

A

Co dominant.
Blood type A has A antigens and B antibodies.
Blood type B has B antigens and A antibodies.
Blood type o has no antigens so it has A and B antibodies

69
Q

Describe the three types of dominance:

A

Complete dominance: normal, Mendelian.
Incomplete dominance: blending effect
Co dominance: both expressed, blood.

70
Q

Contrast penetrance & expressivity:

A

Penetrance is more population based. It is the measure of individuals in a population who carry the allele and will actually express the phenotype. Basically, the proportion of the population with a given genotype who actually express the phenotype.

Expressivity is more individually based. What will be the phenotype from a particular genotype? It may be variable for some genes. The different manifestation of the same genotype across the population.

71
Q

What are the two ways co2 can travel in the body?

A

bind to hemoglobin and dissolve in the blood.

72
Q

Can prokaryotes undergo mitosis?

A

No, they undergo binary fission.

73
Q

After what stage of the cell cycle does the cell commit to mitosis?

A

After G1.

74
Q

Contrast conjugation, transduction, and transformation

A
  1. Conjugation: transfer of genetic material via bridge.
  2. Genes from host are transferred to virus to be placed into another host.
  3. Introduce foreign plasmid into bacteria.

NONE OF THESE ARE PROKARYOTIC REPRODUCTION.

75
Q

What is positron emission?

A

A proton is converted to a neutron and a positron.

76
Q

Relate genetic drift

A

Genetic drift is the change in the gene pool due to chance.

77
Q

What are the ratios for two heterozygotes?

A

Genotype: 1:2:1
Phenotype: 3:1

78
Q

What is a test cross?

A

Used to determine unknown genotype. The unknown is crossed with homozygous recessive.

79
Q

What is the ratio for a heterozygous dihybrid cross?

A

9: 3:3:1 - genotype
3: 1 - phenotype

80
Q

Sex linked concepts

A

A man with a sex linked trait will pass it down to his daughter. The daughter will either express it, or be a carrier. THE SON WILL NEVER GET THIS.

81
Q

Describe recombination frequency:

A

Tightly linked genes are around 0%
Loosely linked genes are around 50%
Map units correspond to the %.

82
Q

What are the Hardy Weinberg Equations?

A

P + Q = 1
P^2 + 2PQ + Q^2 = 1

P - dominant
Q - recessive

P^2 - homozygous dominant
2pq - heterozygous
Q^2 - homozygous recessive

83
Q

Describe the three types of selection:

A

Stabilizing selection: stabilize in the middle against extremes.
Directional selection: move towards one extreme over the other.
Disruptive selection: move away from the middle toward either extreme.

84
Q

Describe prezygotic and postzygotic mechanisms:

A

Pre doesn’t allow the zygote the form

Post allows an animal to be made, but it won’t be fertile (mule).

85
Q

How do you make a 1:1:1:1 phenotypic ratio?

A

AaBb x aabb

86
Q

What is operationalization?

A

Taking a phenomenon to be studied and creating a framework by which one measures it.

87
Q

What muscles is troponin in?

A

Cardiac and skeletal.

88
Q

Is split personality a symptom of schitzo?

A

NO.

89
Q

What is specificity in terms of research?

A

ability for a test to correctly predict the outcome.

90
Q

Contrast working and lower class.

A

Working class consists of less educated people who may perform skilled or unskilled work.

Lower class is characterized by unemployment, poverty, and lack of education.

91
Q

What is social cognitive theory?

A

Suggests that people learn much of their behavior through observing individuals around them.

92
Q

Biological factors of schizophrenia:

A

Genetic mutations causing abnormality in astrocyte glial cells.
Thinner temporal and frontal cortex.
Increased dopamine production.

MCAT Self Study (53 decks)

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