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Fundamentals of Zoology > Worksheet 12-15 > Flashcards

Worksheet 12-15 Flashcards

1
Q

has three functions: sensory, integrative, motor

A

nervous system

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2
Q

function of NS that senses changes (stimuli) within and outside the body

A

sensory

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3
Q

function of NS that analyzes the sensory information, store some aspects, and make decisions

A

integrative

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4
Q

function of NS that is responsible for responding to stimuli by initiating muscular contractions or glandular secretions

A

motor

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5
Q

function in the transmission of impulses and coordination of responses in a frog

A

nervous system

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6
Q

composed of the brain and the spinal cord

A

central nervous system

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7
Q

encased in vertebra, connect to parts of the body by spinal nerves

A

spinal cord

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8
Q

composed of spinal and cranial nerves

A

peripheral nervous system

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9
Q

connected from the brain to the parts of head and abdomen

A

cranial nerves

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10
Q

connects the spinal cord to parts of the body

A

spinal nerves

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11
Q

how many cranial nerves are there

A

10 pairs

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12
Q

how many pairs of spinal nerves are there

A

10 pairs

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13
Q

organs that perceive and transmit environmental changes to the CNS

A

sense organs

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14
Q

sense organ for sense of touch

A

skin

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15
Q

sense organ for sense of sight

A

eyes

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16
Q

sense organ for sense of smell

A

nose

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17
Q

sense organ for sense of hearing and equilibrium

A

ears

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18
Q

sense organ for sense of taste

A

tongue

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19
Q

function as the orchestrating and regulating centers of the nervous system, from anterior towards posterior:

A

central nervous system

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20
Q

enumerate parts of the brain from anterior towards posterior

A

Telencephalon
Diencephalon
Mesencephalon
Metencephalon
Myelencephalon

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21
Q

consist of paired olfactory lobes and cerebral hemispheres

A

telencephalon

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22
Q

each cerebral hemisphere contains a cavity known as this

A

lateral ventricles

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23
Q

Also known as the first and second ventricle

A

lateral ventricles

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24
Q

centers for association memory

A

cerebral hemisphere

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25
Q

located between the optic lobes and posterior to the cerebral hemispheres

A

diencephalon

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26
Q

Functions in balance, vision, and spontaneous movement

A

diencephalon

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27
Q

part of the diencephalon where there is a small epiphysis of the pineal gland

A

dorsal part

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28
Q

part of the diencephalon where there is a hypophysis of the pituitary gland

A

ventral part

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29
Q

formed by the crossing fibers of the optic nerves

A

optic chiasma

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30
Q

located posteriorly to the optic chiasma

A

infundibulum

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31
Q

the midbrain, the center for visual coordination

A

mesencephalon

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32
Q

part of the mesencephalon where there are rounded optic lobes with optic ventricle within

A

dorsal part

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33
Q

third and fourth ventricle along with the ventricles of the mesencephalon make up the

A

Aqueduct of Sylvius

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34
Q

Structurally a dorsal transverse fold ridge

A

metencephalon

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35
Q

funnctions in equilibrium and coordinated movements

A

metencephalon

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36
Q

where the medulla oblongata is located in this brain part

A

myelencephalon

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37
Q

Narrows toward the posterior end, forming the spinal cord

A

myelencephalon

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38
Q

continuation of the brain and is located in the trunk region

A

spinal cord

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39
Q


Short and contained in the neural canal of the vertebral column

A

spinal cord

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40
Q

label the frog brain (dorsal, ventral, longitudinal section)

A

grade yourself accordingly

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41
Q

label the frog brain (real photo)

A

grade yourself accordingly

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42
Q

consist the structures of the nervous system outside the CNS

A

peripheral nervous syste

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43
Q

Mainly made up of nerves that extend from the brain and the spinal cord

A

peripheral nervous system

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44
Q

connect the CNS to the receptors and effectors of the body

A

peripheral nerves

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45
Q

correction of sympathetic trunk to the PNS

A

ramus communicans

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46
Q

consist of two slender delicate
thread-like nerve cords (i.e. sympathetic trunk)

A

sympathetic nervous system

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47
Q

run beneath the vertebral column, one on either side of the dorsal aorta

A

sympathetic trunk

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48
Q

Has a series of 10 sympathetic ganglia

A

sympathetic trunk

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49
Q

composed of ten pairs in the brain

A

cranial nerves

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50
Q

arises from the anterior end of the olfactory lobe and innervates the cells of the olfactory sac

A

olfactory nerve

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51
Q

what type of nerve is I nerve

A

sensory

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52
Q

nerve fibers arise from the retina of the eye

A

optic nerve

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53
Q

these fibers generally cross or decussate out of the what

A

optic chiasma

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54
Q

cranial nerve II is purely

A

sensory

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55
Q

two optic nerves enter this of the opposite side

A

optic thalamus

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56
Q

Terminates in the thalamencephalon

A

optic thalamus

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57
Q

small nerve arising from the ventral side of the midbrain (crura-cerebri)

A

occulomotor nerve

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58
Q

divides into branches which supply the anterior, superior, and inferior recti muscles and inferior oblique muscle of the eyebal

A

occulomotor nerve

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59
Q

cranial nerve III is what

A

exclusively motor

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60
Q

two longitudinal bands of nerve fibers in the contracted region of the brain

A

crura-cerebri

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61
Q

small nerve arising from the dorsal side of the brain between the optic lobes and cerebellum and going to the superior oblique muscle of the eyeball

A

trochlear or pathetic nerve

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62
Q

cranial nerve IV is what

A

motor

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63
Q

largest of the cranial nerves arising from the sides of the anterior end of the medulla oblongata

A

trigeminal nerve

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64
Q

before the trigeminal nerve emerges from the skull it bears this

A

gasserian ganglion

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65
Q

cranial nerve V is what

A

mixed nerve

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66
Q

three branches of trigeminal nerve

A

ophthalmic superficialis
madibular
maxillary

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67
Q

nerves that passes along the dorsal border of the orbit and goes to the skin of the snout

A

ophthalmic superficialis

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68
Q

what type of nerve is ophthalmic superficialis

A

somatic sensory

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69
Q

two branches of the trigeminal nerve that arise from a common stem and separate

A

mandibular and maxillary

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70
Q

goes to the muscles of the lower jaw

A

mandibular

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71
Q

what type of nerve is mandibular

A

visceral motor nerve

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72
Q

what type of nerve is maxillary

A

somatic sensory

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73
Q

forms two branches going to the skin of the upper jaw and upper lip

A

maxillary nerve

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74
Q

arises from the ventral side of the medulla oblongata and enters the orbit and goes to the posterior rectus muscle of the eyeball

A

abducens nerve

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75
Q

what type of nerve is cranial VI

A

motor nerve

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76
Q

arises from the antero-lateral side of medulla oblongata close behind the fifth

A

facial nerve

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77
Q

what type of nerve is cranial VII

A

mixed nerve

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78
Q

Mixed nerve having both visceral sensory and visceral motor fibers

A

facial nerve

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79
Q

facial nerve is divided into two branches:

A

palatine
hyomandibular

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80
Q

branch of facial nerve that is going to the roof of the buccal cavity

A

palatine

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81
Q

branch of the facial nerve that is going to the tongue and muscles of the lower jaw

A

hyomandibular

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82
Q

somatic sensory arising from the medulla oblongata behind the seventh and goes to internal ear

A

auditory nerve

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83
Q

mixed nerve arising from the lateral side of medulla and goes to the tongue, hyoid, and pharynx

A

glossopharyngeal

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84
Q

mixed nerve arising from the lateral side of the medulla and goes as visceral branch to the larynx (laryngeal), esophagus and stomach (gastric), heart (cardiac), and lungs (pulmonary)

A

vagus or pneumogastric

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85
Q

ten pairs of nerves of the frog arising from the spinal cord

A

spinal nerves

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86
Q

Arises by a dorsal and ventral root

A

spinal nerve

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87
Q

dorsal root of the spinal nerves has these

A

dorsal ganglion

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88
Q

white calcareous body that surrounds the dorsal ganglion

A

gland of swammerdam

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89
Q

innervates the tongue and hyoid muscles

A

first spinal nerve

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90
Q

biggest, receives branches from the first spinal nerve

A

second spinal nerve

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91
Q

innervates the shoulder and forelimbs

A

third spinal nerve

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92
Q

Sends a branch to the second nerve and branch off to the external oblique, transversus and skin

A

third spinal nerve

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93
Q

first, second, and third spinal nerve make up this

A

brachial plexus

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94
Q

are distributed to the muscles and skin of the body wall

A

fourth, fifth, and sixth spinal nerve

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95
Q

form the sciatic plexus, which innervates the hindlimbs

A

seven, eight, and ninth spinal nerve

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96
Q

is the sciatic nerve

A

ninth spinal nerve

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97
Q

innervates the urinary bladder and cloaca

A

tenth spinal nerve

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98
Q

label the spinal nerve

A

grade yourself accordingly

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99
Q

this spherical egg is partially pigmented

A

unfertilized egg

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100
Q

is polar

A

unfertilized egg

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101
Q

pigmented side which contains very little yolk

A

animal hemisphere

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102
Q

More cells than its counterpart and is smaller in size

A

animal hemisphere

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103
Q

is in the anterior side

A

animal hemisphere

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104
Q

hemisphere that synthesizes melanin

A

animal hemisphere

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105
Q

unpigmented yolky side

A

vegetal hemisphere

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106
Q

impedes division so there is a slow division of cells in this side

A

yolk

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107
Q

has bigger and fewer cells

A

vegetal hemisphere

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108
Q

hemisphere in the posterior side

A

vegegtal hemisphere

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109
Q

label the unfertilized egg

A

grade yourself accordingly

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110
Q

succession of rapid cell division that follows fertilization

A

cleavage

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111
Q

affected by the type of egg

A

cleavage

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112
Q

incomplete cleavage

A

meroblastic

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113
Q

cleavage in birds and fish

A

meroblastic

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114
Q

complete cleavage

A

holoblastic

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115
Q

cleavage seen in frogs and mammals

A

holoblastic

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116
Q

begins when the egg is fertilized by the sperm cell

A

cleavage stage

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117
Q

appearance of this is a distinct characteristic of the cleavage stage

A

first cleavage furrow

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118
Q

vertically oriented, produces a 2-celled stage embryo

A

first cleavage plane

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119
Q

follows the first cleavage plane that is also vertically oriented, which yields a 4-celled stage embryo

A

second cleavage

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120
Q

is in horizontal place produces 8 cells

A

third cleavage

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121
Q


in this stage of cleavage, the cells at the animal hemisphere are smaller than the cells at the vegetal hemisphere

A

third cleavage

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122
Q

smaller units that the cleavage produces

A

blastomeres

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123
Q

constriction that bisects the cell

A

cleavage furrow

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124
Q

smaller cells at the animal hemisphere

A

micromeres

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125
Q

bigger cells a the vegetal hemisphere

A

macromeres

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126
Q

contain yolk granules

A

macromeres

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127
Q

ball of cells that is solid

A

morula

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128
Q

cleavages that are regular

A

first cleavages

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129
Q

cleavages that become irregular

A

32-celled stage

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130
Q

the fertilized shifts this much degree toward the point of entry of sperm

A

30 degrees

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131
Q

formed when the fertilized egg shifts 30 degrees

A

gray crescent

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132
Q

Establishes the dorsal side

A

gray crescent

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133
Q

label the late cleavage

A

grade yourself accordingly

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134
Q

what stage is this accomplishment:

Increase in the number of cells

A

late cleavage

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135
Q

what stage is this accomplishment:

Establishment of organ-forming zones or presumptive germ layers

A

late cleavage

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136
Q

formed in cleavage, the space

A

blastocoel

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137
Q

embryo in cleavage

A

blastula

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138
Q

as cleavage continues, the blastomeres become arranged around the outside

A

blastula

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139
Q

Result of subsequent cleavages

A

blastula

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140
Q

observed consisting of many cells with smaller cells (micromeres) and larger cells (macromeres)

A

blastula

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141
Q

located at the animal hemisphere

A

micromeres

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142
Q

located at the vegetal hemisphere

A

macromeres

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143
Q

so-called this because of the development of the eccentric cavity known as the blastocoel at the animal hemisphere

A

blastula

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144
Q

central fluid filled cavity forming in the animal hemisphere

A

blastocoel

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145
Q

smaller cells of the animal hemisphere that form the roof of the blastocoel

A

micromeres

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146
Q

thin layer of brown pigment in the micromere that is observed at the external surface of the outermost cells

A

melanin

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147
Q

yolk-laden cells that form the floor of the blastocoel

A

macromeres

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148
Q

secondary membrane enveloping the embryo

A

fertilization membrane

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149
Q

makes the gastrula recognizable, a crescentric slit

A

blastopore

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150
Q

where the cell invaginates and later becomes circular in shape with a yolk plug

A

blastopore

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151
Q

gastrulation is completed when these are formed

A

3 germ layers

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152
Q

the cavity that is produced by the infolding of layer of surface cells

A

archenteron

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153
Q

Also known as the gastrocoel

A

archenteron

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154
Q

archenteron in future stages is known as the

A

primitive gut

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155
Q

Becomes the future digestive tract

A

archenteron

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156
Q

external opening of the archenteron

A

blastopore

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157
Q

upper margin of the blastopore is called this

A

dorsal lip

158
Q

the lower margin of the blastopore is called this

A

ventral lip

159
Q

rounded mass of yolk laden cells that blocks and protrudes from the blastopore

A

yolk plug

160
Q

outermost layer of cells

A

ectoderm

161
Q

innermost layer of cells

A

endoderm

162
Q

third layer of cells that develops between the ectoderm and endoderm at late gastrulation

A

mesoderm

163
Q

remnants of this cavity at the gastrulation stage may be seen as a narrow space between the ectoderm and endoderm

A

blastocoel

164
Q

may still be visible but is more loosely surrounding the embryo

A

fertilization membrane

165
Q

movements (interiorization) – the blastula becomes a gastrula through these movements

A

morphogenetic

166
Q

2-layered cell

A

early gastrula

167
Q

3-layered cell, tripoblastic

A

late gastrula

168
Q

morphogenetic movements in gastrulation

A

epiboly
emboly
involution

169
Q

overgrowth of the ectoderm-forming regions around the endoderm-forming regions

A

epiboly

170
Q

Micromeres grow downward covering macromeres

A

epiboly

171
Q

invagination where the ingrowth of the endoderm-forming zones under the ectoderm forming regions

A

emboly

172
Q

Macromeres inwardly push (creating a cavity)

A

emboly

173
Q

invaginated cells go sideward

A

involution

174
Q

which stage is this accomplishment

Formation of 2-layered gastrula (dipoblastic) with opening called blastopore

A

early gastrulation

175
Q

which stage is this accomplishment

Formation of the third gem layer (mesoderm) that came from both ectoderm and endodermal cells that migrate into space between ecto and endoderm

A

late gastrula

176
Q

where the remnant of the original blastocoel was

A

mesoderm

177
Q

Chordamesoderm differentiates into:

A

notochord
mesoderm

178
Q

stage is distinguished by having an elongated body and presence of 2 folds of ectoderm

A

neurula

179
Q

2 folds of ectoderm that grow upward on the dorsal side of the embryo

A

neural folds

180
Q

Give rise to the entire nervous system

A

neural folds

181
Q

label the neurula

A

grade yourself accordingly

182
Q

outer layer of cells surrounding the neurula is distinguished into:

A

ectoderm

183
Q

ectoderm that the outer layer of cells surrounding the neurula is distinguished into:

A

neural ectoderm
presumptive epidermis

184
Q

thickened broad strip of ectoderm along the future dorsal side of the embryo

A

neural plate

185
Q

Otherwise known as the medullary plate

A

neural plate

186
Q

Later changes to form the neural fold and finally becomes the neural tube

A

neural plate

187
Q

primordium of the brain and spinal cord

A

neural tube

188
Q

anterior side of the neural tube forms into

A

brain

189
Q

posterior side of the neural forms into

A

spinal cord

190
Q

columnar in shape

A

neural cells

191
Q

process of the ectoderm over the notochord thickens to form the neural plate, which elongates

A

thickening and elongation

192
Q

This thickening is induced by mesodermal cells in
the roof of the archenteron; this process is called

A

induction

193
Q

label the induction and folding process

A

grade yourself accordingly

194
Q

process in which he edges of the neural plate begin to raise, and the neural plate will
eventually roll itself into a neural tube (dorsal hollow nerve tube).

A

folding

195
Q

process where the neural folds have fused to form the
neural tube

A

convergence nad fusion

196
Q

elevation of the ectoderm

A

neural fold

197
Q

formed by the fusion of the neural fold at the midline

A

neutral tube

198
Q

cavity that is created when the neural fold fuses

A

neurocoel

199
Q

Surrounded by neural cells

A

neurocoel

200
Q

the remaining outer layer of flattened cells become the future epidermis of the embryo

A

presumptive epidermis

201
Q

now broadened to form a distinct intermediate germ layer

A

mesoderm

202
Q

Extends on each side of the embryo between the ectoderm and endoderm

A

mesoderm

203
Q

Mesoderm in neurulation is differentiated as follows:

A

notochord
primary axial support

204
Q

rod shape of mass mesodermal cells lying in the midlin

A

notochord

205
Q

Primary axial support for the embryo

A

notochord

206
Q

block of mesoderm flanks the notochord on each side

A

epimere

207
Q

Gives rise to the somites

A

epimere

208
Q

gives rise to the vertebral column, some muscles, and the dermatome

A

somites

209
Q

known as the lateral plate that grows ventrally between the ectoderm and mesoderm

A

hypomere

210
Q

in this stage, the hypomere splits into an: outer somatic and inner splanchnic mesoderm with a cavity (coelom)

A

late neurula stage

211
Q

known as the intermediate mesoderm

A

mesomere

212
Q

Narrow region between the epimere and hypomere

A

mesomere

213
Q

Gives rise to the nephrotome

A

mesomere

214
Q

large cells are now completely surrounding the gastrocoel

A

endoderm

215
Q

formation of body organs/system from the three germ layers

A

organogenesis

216
Q

experimental procedure
to establish the ultimate
fate of the three germ
layers; use of a harmless
dye to label specific cells
and followed to a later
stage of development

A

fate mapping

217
Q

Formation of body
organs/systems from
the three germ layers

A

organogenesis

218
Q

made the first scientific study in the field of genetics in 1800

A

Gregor mendel

219
Q

Gregor Mendel studied heredity using these

A

garden peas

220
Q

scientific name for garden peas

A

pisum sativum

221
Q

Mendel discovered the laws of:

A

Law of dominance
Law of segregation
Law of independent assortment

222
Q

states that when an organism is hybrid for a pair of contrasting traits, only the dominant trait is expressed

A

law of dominance

223
Q

states that genes that occur in pairs are separated during gamete formation and are recombined at fertilization

A

law of segregation

224
Q

This discovery opened the way to modern gene-chromosome theory of heredity

A

law of segregation

225
Q

succeeding studies in the field of genetics lead to the discovery of this as the basic heredity material

A

DNA

226
Q

Passed on to succeeding generations and controls the traits inherited by organisms

A

DNA

227
Q

Non-Mendelian Genetics include

A

codominance
complete dominance
multiple alleles
polygenic inheritance
Pleiotropy
Sex linkage

228
Q

states that in the formation of gametes, the paired factors (alleles) affecting a trait will segregate from one another

A

Mendel’s principle of segregation

229
Q

contain homologous chromosomes with genes for te same traits

A

diploid

230
Q

location of gene on a chromosome

A

locus

231
Q

plural of locus

A

loci

232
Q

two genes at a homologous loci

A

gene pair

233
Q

when genes at the corresponding loci are different

A

alleles

234
Q

are haploid, containing only one of the homologues, and thus only one of the two alleles for a specific trait

A

gametes

235
Q

refers to an organism’s genetic constitution (or the alleles present)

A

genotype

236
Q

genes are alike

A

homozygous

237
Q

observable physical characteristic appearance

A

phenotype

238
Q

Determined primarily by a genotype and environmental factors

A

phenotype

239
Q

always expressed

A

dominant gene

240
Q

only expressed when a similar recessive gene is on the homologous chromosome

A

recessive gene

241
Q

involves one pair of characters, and doing this would demonstrate the principle of segregation, complete and incomplete dominance, and codominance

A

monohybrid cross

242
Q

some alleles interact with each other in a dominant and recessive manner whereby the dominant mask the recessive allele

A

principle of complete dominance

243
Q

dominant trait (free/attached earlobes)

A

free earlobe

244
Q

recessive trait (free/attached earlobes)

A

attached earlobe

245
Q

identical alleles are present in a nucleus

A

homozygous

246
Q

having both dominant alleles

A

homozygous dominant

247
Q

having both recessive alleles

A

homozygous recessive

248
Q

both dominant and recessive alleles are present within a single nucleus

A

heterozygous

249
Q

which is dominant and recessive? curly or straight hair

A

d - curly
r- straight

250
Q

which is dominant and recessive?

roll tongue
can’t roll tongue

A

d - roll tongue
r - can’t roll tongue

251
Q

which is dominant and recessive?

brown/black hair
blonde hair

A

d - brown/black
r - blonde

252
Q

which is dominant and recessive?

hitchhiker’s thumb
straight thumb

A

d - straight thumb
r - hitchhiker’s thumb

253
Q

a type of inheritance with two contrasting alleles contributes to the individual a trait of exactly either the parent

A

incomplete dominance

254
Q

Phenotype of a heterozygote is ____ between the two homozygotes

A

intermediate

255
Q

homozygous dominant genotype (HbAHbA) in sickle-cell anemia

A

normal hemoglobin

256
Q

homozygous recessive (HbSHbS) in sickle cell anemina

A

have recessive sickle-cell anemia

257
Q

appear healthy but have minor problems with anemia

A

heterozygous HbAHbS

258
Q

produce both normal and sickle-cell hemoglobin

A

heterozygous HbAHbS

259
Q

determined by multiple alleles, and there is more than two possible alleles and any one can occupy a locus

A

ABO blood group

260
Q

Three allelic form in the ABO blood group system:

A

IA
IB
i

261
Q

code for the production of antigen A

A

allele A

262
Q

code for the production of antigen B

A

allele B

263
Q

codominants in the ABO blood group

A

Allele A and B

264
Q

recessive in the ABO blood group

A

Allele i

265
Q

genotype for blood type O

A

ii

266
Q

antigens present in blood type O

A

neither A or B

267
Q

antibody present in blood type O

A

a and b

268
Q

antigens present in blood type A

A

A

269
Q

antibody present in blood type A

A

B

270
Q

genotype for blood type A

A

IAIA or IAi

271
Q

antigens present in blood type B

A

B

272
Q

antibody present in blood type B

A

A

273
Q

genotype for blood type B

A

IBIB or IBi

274
Q

antigens present for blood type AB

A

AB

275
Q

antibody present for blood type AB

A

none

276
Q

genotype in AB

A

IAIB

277
Q

single gene controlling or influencing multiple (and possibly unrelated) phenotypic traits.

A

pleiotropy

278
Q

determined by special sex chromosomes

A

sex

279
Q

sex chromosome of females

A

XX

280
Q

sex chromosome of male

A

XY

281
Q

X-linked trait

A

red-green color blindness

282
Q

There is a deficiency in either red or green cones and the color red and green are the same color

A

red-green color blindless

283
Q

Y-linked disease

A

Stature and height promoting genes
spermatogenesis
skeletal abnormalities
SRY-testes-determining factor

284
Q

composed of deoxyribose, a phosphate group, and four nitrogen containing bases

A

DNA

285
Q

purine bases

A

adenine and aguanine

286
Q

pyrimidine bases

A

cytosine and thymine

287
Q

replicates by separating the nitrogen bases and attaching new complementary bases to the exposed bases to form a new strand of DNA

A

DNA

288
Q

developed in order to understand relationships among animals

A

systems of classification

289
Q

– Swedish naturalist and recognized as the father of taxonomy developed the first of three systems

A

Carl Linnaeus

290
Q

naming of organisms was composed of two parts:

A

binomial nomenclature

291
Q

generic name

A

genus

292
Q

specific name

A

species

293
Q

combined latinized generic and specific names make up this

A

specific name

294
Q

Linnaeus also designed this that groups species into categories of increasing inclusiveness:

A

Hierarchial system

295
Q

enumerate the hierarchy

A

Kingdom
Phylum
Class
Over
Family
Genus
Species

296
Q

utilizes information from both phenetics (numerical taxonomy) and cladistics (evolutionary relatedness(

A

taxonomy

297
Q

highest level has grouped all living organisms into three general categories:

A

domain

298
Q

three general catogries of domain

A

Bacteria
Archaea
Eukarya

299
Q

level further grouped organisms in each domain that were recognized with their fundamental differences

A

kingdom

300
Q

Eight kingdom system

A

Eubacteria
Archaebacteria
Archezoa
Protista
Chromista
Fungi
Plantae
Animalia

301
Q

kingdom belong in the domain bacteria

A

Eubacteria

302
Q

kingdom belong in the domain archaea

A

Archaebacteria

303
Q

primary division of a kingdom ranking above a class

A

phylum

304
Q

taxonomic category ranking below a phylum and may comprise different orders

A

class

305
Q

ranks below the class and may comprise different families

A

order

306
Q

taxonomic category ranked below the order and above genus

A

family

307
Q

taxonomic category ranked below the family

A

genus

308
Q

taxonomic level consisting of groups of interbreeding or potentially interbreeding organisms having common descent and sharing intergrading characteristics that are distinctly different from other groups

A

species

309
Q

retain notochord

A

cephalocordata

310
Q

means tail

A

nura

311
Q

without tail

A

anurans

312
Q

6 footed (3 pairs)

A

insects

313
Q

6 pair

A

spider

314
Q

Hoplobatrachus rugolosus (Taiwanese frog)

specify the kingdom

A

animalia

315
Q

Hoplobatrachus rugolosus (Taiwanese frog)

specify the phylum

A

chordata

316
Q

Hoplobatrachus rugolosus (Taiwanese frog)

specify the class

A

amphibia

317
Q

Hoplobatrachus rugolosus (Taiwanese frog)

specify the order

A

anura

318
Q

Hoplobatrachus rugolosus (Taiwanese frog)

specify the family

A

dicroglossidae

319
Q

Hoplobatrachus rugolosus (Taiwanese frog)

specify the genus

A

Hoplobatrachus

320
Q

Hoplobatrachus rugolosus (Taiwanese frog)

specify the species

A

H. rugolosus

321
Q

Skyphos means

A

cup

322
Q

tubular or bell-shaped animals that reside mainly in shallow coastal waters

A

phylum cnidaria

323
Q

specialized stinging cells with nematocysts

A

cnidocytes

324
Q

Gastros means

A

stomach

325
Q

podos means

A

foot

326
Q

Largest class of molluscs include slugs, snails, whelks, conchs, limpets, and nudibranchs

A

gastropoda

327
Q

adapted to terrestrial environments

A

marine, slugs, and garden snails

328
Q

like the cnidarians, they have a sac body plan and only one opening, the mouth

A

flatworms

329
Q

flatworms are under

A

class turbellaria

330
Q

No body cavity, third germ layer, mesoderm, fills the space between their organs

A

flatworms

331
Q

flatworms have this kind of digestive tract

A

incomplete digestiive tract

332
Q

among flatworms, these are free-living

A

plenarians

333
Q

are parasitic flatworms

A

fluke and tapeworms

334
Q

includes clams, oysters, shipworms, mussels, and scallops with a two-part shell that is hinged and closed by powerful muscles

A

class bivalvia

335
Q

example of two-spotted octopus, bigfin reef squid

A

class cephalopoda

336
Q

Gk. Echinos means

A

spiny

337
Q

derma means

A

skin

338
Q

sea urchins under what class

A

Class echinoidea

339
Q

has 5 pairs of head appendages

A

class crustacea

340
Q

how many antennae does class crustacea have

A

2 pairs

341
Q

1st pair of crustacea

A

antennules

342
Q

2nd pair of crustacea

A

antennae

343
Q

how many pair of mandiblles and maxillae does class crustacea have

A

2 maxillae
1 mandible

344
Q

how many pairs of maxillipeds and walking legs does class crustacea have in their thoracic appendages

A

3 pairs of maxillipeds
5 pairs of walking legs

345
Q

how many pairs of swimmerets does the class crustacea have in their abdominal appendages

A

5 pairs

346
Q

1st pair of swimmerets is called

A

gonopods

347
Q

last pair of swimmerets is called

A

uropods

348
Q

has the class arachnida

A

subphylum chelicerata

349
Q

ticks and mites

A

order acari

350
Q

Fused cephalothorax and abdomen

A

order acari

351
Q

tiny 1mm or less, some feed on plant juices and can be major pests

A

mites

352
Q

several species of these carry disease such as Lyme disease

A

ticks

353
Q

why are insect abundant

A

Feeding specializations
Dispersal capabilities
Predator-avoidance possibilities

354
Q

Arachne means

A

spider

355
Q

Ticks, mites, scorpions, spider, and harvestmen

A

Class arachnida

356
Q

they have no mandibles and no antennae

A

class arachnida

357
Q

cephalothorax

A

prosoma

358
Q

abdomen

A

opisthosoma

359
Q

how many cephalothoracic appendages does class arachnida have

A

6 pairs

360
Q

cephalothoracic appendages is made up of

A


1 pair chelicerae

1 pair pedipalps

4 pair walking legs

361
Q

hundred leggers

A

class chilopoda centpides

362
Q

Each segment except the one behind the head and last two, bears a pair of jointed legs which serves as sensory function

A

class chilopoda centipedes

363
Q

Class arachnida, Order Opiliones

A

chelicerata

364
Q

Abdomen and cephalothorax are broadly joined rather than constricted

A

harvestment

365
Q

Abdomen shows segmentation and only two eyes

A

harvestment

366
Q

long legs end in tiny claws and nocturnal

A

harvestmen

367
Q

ossified skeleton with swim bladders

A

class osteichthytes

368
Q

chordates and have a notochord, a dorsal hollow nerve chord, a pituitary gland, pharyngeal gill slits, and a post-anal tail. Ray-finned fish are characterized by the presence of paired ray fins.

A

actinopterygii

369
Q

characterised by their fleshy pectoral and pelvic (paired) fins that articulate with the pectoral (shoulder) and pelvic (hip) girdles via a single bone.

A

sarcopterygii

370
Q

caudal fin composed of two lobes of equal proportion

A

homocercal tail fish

371
Q

a caudal fin composed of two asymmetrical lobes.

A

heterocercal tail

372
Q

tetrapods with an amniotic membrane in embryos

A

class reptilia

373
Q

has dry skin

A

class reptilia

374
Q

Ectothermic tetrapods covered by epidermal scales

A

class reptilia

375
Q

ectothermic tetrapod

A

class amphibia

376
Q

Respiration by lungs, gills, or skin

A

class amphibia

377
Q

Skin moist containing mucous glands and lacking scales

A

class amphibia

378
Q

one of the major extant orders of the class Amphibia. It includes salamanders and newts.

A

class caudata/urodela

379
Q

otal group of amphibians that includes the order Anura, the frogs and toads, and various extinct proto-frogs

A

class anura/ salientia

380
Q

one of the three major extant orders of the class Amphibia. Its members are known as caecilians, a name derived from the Latin word caecus, meaning “sightless” or “blind.”

A

class gymnophiona/apoda

381
Q

endothermic tetrapod with front limbs modified as wings

A

class aves

382
Q

body covered in feathers

A

class aves

383
Q

endothermic tetrapods with an amniotic membrane in embryos possessing mammary glands

A

class mammalia

384
Q

mamma means

A

breast

385
Q

Body covered in hair

A

class mammalia

386
Q

White-tailed deer

A

Odocoileus virginianus

387
Q

African lioness

A

Panthera leo

388
Q

Squirel monkey

A

Saimiri sciureus

389
Q

killer whale

A

Orcinous orca

390
Q

duckbill platypus

A

Ornithorhynchus anatinus

391
Q

virginia opossum

A

(Didelphis virginianus

392
Q

Phascolarctos cinereus)

A

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Fundamentals of Zoology (23 decks)

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