VIEWPOINTS Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

which of the following is not a psychological perspective?

A) psychodynamic

B) social

C) behavioural

D) humanistic

A

B) social

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

views human nature as inherently good, and emphasises present conscious processes and places strong emphasis on peoples inherent capacity for responsible self direction

A) psychosocial perspective

B) sociocultural perspective

C) humanistic perspective

D) existential perspective

A

C) humanistic perspective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

emphasize that values and the
process of choice are key in guiding our behavior and achieving meaningful and fulfilling lives

A) narrative perspective

B) needs and motives perspective

C) humanistic perspective

D) existential perspective

A

C) humanistic perspective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

places emphasis on their irrational ten-dencies and the difficulties inherent in self-fulfillment—particularly in a modern, bureaucratic, and dehumanizing mass society

A) narrative perspective

B) needs and motives perspective

C) humanistic perspective

D) existential perspective

A

D) existential perspective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

views living as much more of a “confrontation”

A) narrative perspective

B) needs and motives perspective

C) humanistic perspective

D) existential perspective

A

D) existential perspective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Our existence is a given, but what we make of it—our essence—is up to us. Our essence is created by our choices because our choices reflect the values on which we base and order our lives.

A) narrative perspective

B) needs and motives perspective

C) humanistic perspective

D) existential perspective

A

D) existential perspective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Non-being, or nothingness, which in its final form is death, is the inescapable fate of all human beings. The awareness of our inevitable death and its implications for our living can lead to existential anxiety, a deep concern over whether we are living meaningful and fulfilling lives

A) narrative perspective

B) needs and motives perspective

C) humanistic perspective

D) existential perspective

A

D) existential perspective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

focus on the importance of estab-lishing values and acquiring a level of spiritual maturity worthy of the freedom and dignity bestowed by one’s humanness.

A) narrative perspective

B) needs and motives perspective

C) humanistic perspective

D) existential perspective

A

D) existential perspective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Much of abnormal behavior is seen as the product of a failure to deal constructively with existential despair and frustration

A) narrative perspective

B) needs and motives perspective

C) humanistic perspective

D) existential perspective

A

D) existential perspective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

according to Freud, the id is the source of instinctual drives which are inherited and considered to be of two opposing types:

A) sexual instincts; subconscious instincts

B) life instincts; subconscious instincts

C) living instincts; death instincts

D) life instincts; death instincts

A

D) life instincts; death instincts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

life instincts are

A) unconscious processes that forms the adaptive measures of the ego

B) constructive drives primarily of sexual nature and which constitute the libido

C) destructive drives

D)

A

B) constructive drives primarily of sexual nature and which constitute the libido

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

a second-generation psychodynamic perspective that focuses on the importance of early experience, especially early experience with bonding, as laying the foundation for later functioning throughout childhood, adolescence, and adult-hood

A) interpersonal perspective

B) attachment theory

C) object relations theory

D) ego psychology

A

B) attachment theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

a second-generation psychodynamic perspective that focuses on psychopathology as rooted in the unfortunate tendencies we have developed while dealing with our interpersonal environments.

A) interpersonal perspective

B) attachment theory

C) object relations theory

D) ego psychology

A

A) interpersonal perspective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

a second-generation psychodynamic perspective that share a focus on individuals’ interactions with real and imagined other people and on the relationships that people experience between their external and internal symbolic representations of another person in their environment

A) interpersonal perspective

B) attachment theory

C) object relations theory

D) ego psychology

A

C) object relations theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

a second-generation psychodynamic perspective that views psychopathology as developsing when the ego does not function adequately to control or delay impulse gratification or does not make adequate use of defense mechanisms when faced with internal conflicts

A) interpersonal perspective

B) attachment theory

C) object relations theory

D) ego psychology

A

D) ego psychology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Freud believed that anxiety, when existing in our unconscious it can only be dealt with irrational protective measures known as what?

A) displacement

B) regression

C) reaction formation

D) ego defence mechanisms

A

D) ego defence mechanisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what did Freus believe played a key causal role in most forms of psychopathology?

A) the id

B) anxiety

C) the ego

D) displacement

A

B) anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Inner mental struggles resulting from the interplay of the id, ego, and superego when the three subsystems are striving for different goals.

A) Intrapsychic conflict

B) ego

C) id

D) reality principle

A

A) Intrapsychic conflict

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what part of Freuds structure of personality becomes an inner control system that deals with the uninhabited desires of the id

A) ego

B) reality principle

C) pleasure principle

D) superego

A

D) superego

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

secondary process thinking in Freuds structure of personality refers to what?

A) Individual’s delineation and awareness of his or her continuing identity as a person

B) Gratification of id demands by means of imagery or fantasy without the ability to undertake the realistic actions needed to meet those instinctual demands.

C) Reality-oriented rational processes of the ego for dealing with the external world and the exercise of control over id demands.

D) A person’s sense of his or her own identity, worth, capabilities, and limitations.

A

C) Reality-oriented rational processes of the ego for dealing with the external world and the exercise of control over id demands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what part of Freuds theory mediates between the demands of the id and the realities of the external world

A) ego

B) reality principle

C) pleasure principle

D) superego

A

A) ego

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

primary process thinking in Freuds structure of personality refers to what?

A) Individual’s delineation and awareness of his or her continuing identity as a person

B) Gratification of id demands by means of imagery or fantasy without the ability to undertake the realistic actions needed to meet those instinctual demands.

C) Reality-oriented rational processes of the ego for dealing with the external world and the exercise of control over id demands.

D) A person’s sense of his or her own identity, worth, capabilities, and limitations.

A

B) Gratification of id demands by means of imagery or fantasy without the ability to undertake the realistic actions needed to meet those instinctual demands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

the id operates on

A) intrapsychic conflicts

B) reality principle

C) behavioural principle

D) pleasure principle

A

D) pleasure principle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

death instincts are

A) unconscious processes that forms the adaptive measures of the ego

B) constructive drives primarily of sexual nature and which constitute the libido

C) destructive drives that tend toward aggression, destruction, and eventual death

D) instructive drives focused on selfish and pleasure-oriented behavior

A

C) destructive drives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Kagan, Fox, and their colleagues use what label for children who are fearful and hypervigilant in many novel or unfamiliar situations

A) anxious avoidant

B) behaviorally inhibited

C) behaviorally uninhibited

D) socially anxious

A

B) behaviorally inhibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

a psychological perspective that arose in the early 20th century in part as a reaction against the unscientific methods of psychoanalysis

A) social

B) behavioural

C) cultural

D) humanistic

A

B) behavioural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is a central theme of the behavioural perspective?

A) conditioning

B) learning

C) unconditioned response

D) conditioned response

A

B) learning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

a form of learning in which a neu-tral stimulus is paired repeatedly with an unconditioned stimulus that naturally elicits an unconditioned behavior

A) classical conditioning

B) operant conditioning

C) instrumental conditioning

D) observational learning

A

A) classical conditioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

the hallmark of this is that a formally neutral stimulus- the CS - acquires the capacity to elicit biologically adaptive responses through repeated pairings with the UCS

A) classical conditioning

B) operant conditioning

C) instrumental conditioning

D) observational learning

A

A) classical conditioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

a stimulus-stimulus expectancy explains what?

A) learning the information about what UCSs allow them to predict, or prepare for in an upcoming biologically significant event

B) learning the information about what CSs allow for predictiction, or preparation for in an upcoming biologically significant event (the UCS)

C) the gradual extinction of a conditioning response elicited by the CS after time passes

D) the learning that a response will lead to a reward outcome and will make the response that they have learnt as producing that outcome

A

B) learning the information about what CSs allow them to predict, or prepare for in an upcoming biologically significant event (the UCS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

this approach was developed through laboratory research rather than clinical practice with patients

A) behavioural

B) biological

C) psychodynamic

D) humanistic

A

A) behavioural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

a child gets excited every day when they hear the ice cream truck music because their mother always buys them ice cream. When their mother stops buying, the child gradually learns not to associate the ice cream truck music with eating ice cream. After the truck stops coming for a few days and then returns, the child gets excited again when they hear the truck music. This shows

A) spontaneous recovery

B) stimulus-stimulus expectancy

C) extinction

D) reinforcement

A

A) spontaneous recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

if a CS is repeatedly presented without the UCS, the conditioned response gradually

A) learned

B) recovers

C) conditioned

D) extinguishes

A

D) extinguishes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

when an individual learns how to achieve a desired goal

A) extinction

B) classical conditioning

C) spontaneous recovery

D) operant/instrumental conditioning

A

D) operant conditioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

a problem that arises in situations in which a subject has been conditioned to anticipate an aversive event and so consistently avoids those situations

A) conditioned avoidance response

B) conditioned observational response

C) anticipatory response

D) response outcome expectancy

A

conditioned avoidance response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

when one has a conditioned avoidance response

A) a person learns a response–outcome expectancy

B) they will continue to place themselves in situations in which they anticipate an aversive event

C) an avoidance response is highly susceptible to extinction

D) an avoidance response is highly resistant to extinction

A

D) an avoidance response is highly resistant to extinction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

occurs when a stimulus that is similar to an already-conditioned stimulus begins to produce the same response as the original stimulus does

A) operant conditioning

B) generalization

C) discrimination

D) instrumental learning

A

B) generalization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

occurs when the organism learns to differentiate between the CS and other similar stimuli.

A) operant conditioning

B) generalization

C) discrimination

D) instrumental learning

A

C) discrimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

because red straw-berries taste good and green ones do not, a conditioned ___________ will occur if a person has experience with both

A) generalization

B) discrimination

A

B) discrimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

learning by the process of watching the behaviors of others without direct experience of an UCS or a reinforcer

A) operant conditioning

B) observational learning

C) modelled learning

D) associative learning

A

B) observational learning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Bandura stressed that we learn by

A) fear

B) punishment

C) external reinforcement

D) internal reinforcement

A

D) internal reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Bandura developed a theory of self efficacy, which is the belief

A) for your own value and worth and the ability to achieve and thrive in life

B) in your own abilities after achieving what is needed for survival

C) one can achieve desired goals through a belief in their capacity to execute behaviours necessary to produce specific performance attainments

D) none of the above

A

C) one can achieve desired goals through a belief in their capacity to execute behaviours necessary to produce specific performance attainments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what perspective on abnormal behavior generally focuses on how thoughts and information processing can become distorted and lead to maladaptive emotions and behavior

A) interpersonal

B) psychodynamic

C) behavioral

D) cognitive-behavioural

A

D) cognitive-behavioural

44
Q

what is one central concept of the cognitive behavioural perspective that was adapted by Aaron Beck

A) motive

B) schema

C) traits

D) knowledge

A

B) schema

45
Q

an underlying representation of knowledge that guides the current processing of information and often leads to distortions in attention, memory and comprehension

A) schizophrenia

B) schema

C) temperament

D) experiences

A

B) schema

46
Q

the process of working new experiences into our existing cognitive frameworks, even if the new information has to be reinterpreted or distorted to make it fit

A) assimilation

B) accommodation

C) appropriation

D) attribution

A

A) assimilation

47
Q

a process of changing our existing frameworks to make it possible to incorporate new information that doesn’t fit

A) assimilation

B) accommodation

C) appropriation

D) attribution

A

B) accommodation

48
Q

what is a basic goal of psychological therapies, explicitly in the case of the cognitive and cognitive behavioural therapies

A) assimilation

B) accommodation

C) appropriation

D) attribution

A

B) accommodation

49
Q

an important feature of information processing is that information is

A) processed nonconsciously

B) processed at an conscious level

C) processed only with awareness

D) processed unconsciously

A

A) processed nonconsciously

50
Q

the term unconscious mental activity refers to

A) the speed with what minds wok

B) controlled processing

C) mental processes occurring without awareness

D) primitive emotional conflicts

A

C) mental processes occurring without awareness

51
Q

attribution is the process of

A) attributing the cause of events to personal qualities/dispositions.

B) assigning explanations to things that happen and other people’s behaviour

C) making internal, stable, and global attributions for positive rather than negative events

D) assigning responsibility for others’ behaviors due to their inherent characteristics, such as their motives

A

B) assigning explanations to things that happen and other people’s behaviour

52
Q

who is considered the founder of cognitive therapy?

A) Tolman

B) Kohlberg

C) Piaget

D) Beck

A

D) Beck

53
Q

certain individuals with prominent danger schemas may be especially prone to the risk of

A) anxiety

B) depression

C) schizophrenia

D) nothing

A

A) anxiety

54
Q

what is true about the cognitive perspective?

A) attributions about events influence our feelings and behaviour

B) distorted and maladaptive behaviour can only be changed through expressing our thoughts

C) our emotional reactions to events are determined by our internal feelings

D) it is the events themselves that influence out feelings and behaviour

A

A) attributions about events influence our feelings and behaviour

55
Q

what are cognitive behavioural clinicians concerned with in terms of their clients?

A) what emotional reaction is expressed in terms of events

B) how to change their clients behaviour

C) their clients self statements

D) how their clients intrapsychic conflicts are limited

A

C) their clients self statements

56
Q

one central issue of cognitive therapy is

A) difficulties in a person’s past and present relationships

B) how best to alter distorted and maladaptive cognitions, including the underlying maladaptive schemas that lead to different disorders and their associated emotions

C)

D) both A and B

A

B) how best to alter distorted and maladaptive cognitions, including the underlying maladaptive schemas that lead to different disorders and their associated emotions

57
Q

Many children institutionalized in infancy and early childhood show

A) severe emotional, behavioral, and learning problems

B) are at risk for disturbed attachment relationships and psychopathology

C) do not show reduced brain development

D) both A and B

A

D) both A and B

58
Q

causes of psychopathology that focus on the behavioural tendencies a child acquires in the course of early social interactions with others

A) psychological viewpoints

B) cognitive viewpoints

C) object relations theory

D) ego psychology

A

A) psychological viewpoints

59
Q

Parenting style vary in the degree of parental warmth and parental control, in terms of parental control, what does this include?

A) amount of support, encouragement and affection

B) shame, rejection and hostility

C) rewards and punishment

D) expression of approval vs disapproval or guild induction

A

BOTH C & D

60
Q

what parenting style is associated with the most positive early social development?

A) authoritarian

B) permissive/indulgent

C) authoritative

D) neglectful/uninvolved

A

C) authoritative

61
Q

children who usually have secure attachment relationships and show high levels of overall well-being as well as good performance when followed into late adulthood most likely had

A) authoritarian parents

B) permissive/indulgent parents

C) authoritative parents

D) neglectful/uninvolved parents

A

C) authoritative parents

62
Q

what kind of parenting style promotes resilience in children living in highly stressful contexts?

A) authoritarian

B) permissive/indulgent

C) authoritative

D) neglectful/uninvolved

A

C) authoritative

63
Q

parents who are high on control but low on warmth

A) authoritarian

B) permissive/indulgent

C) authoritative

D) neglectful/uninvolved

A

A) authoritarian

64
Q

when followed into adolescence, children with ______ parents tend to be lower in social and academic competence

A) authoritarian

B) permissive/indulgent

C) authoritative

D) neglectful/uninvolved

A

A) authoritarian

65
Q

Children tend to be conflicted, irritable, and moody. When followed into adolescence, these children have more negative outcomes, the boys doing particularly poorly in social and cognitive skills. these children most likely had _____ parents

A) authoritarian

B) permissive/indulgent

C) authoritative

D) neglectful/uninvolved

A

A) authoritarian

66
Q

parents who are high on warmth but low in discipline and control

A) authoritarian

B) permissive/indulgent

C) authoritative

D) neglectful/uninvolved

A

B) permissive/indulgent

67
Q

for children raised with _____ parents, confusion and difficulty in adjustment may occur when “reality” forces them to reassess their assumptions about themselves and the world

A) authoritarian

B) permissive/indulgent

C) authoritative

D) neglectful/uninvolved

A

B) permissive/indulgent

67
Q

this style of parenting is associated with impulsive and aggressive behaviour in children and adolescents

A) authoritarian

B) permissive/indulgent

C) authoritative

D) neglectful/uninvolved

A

B) permissive/indulgent

68
Q

Children with these parents tend to be impulsive and aggressive. Overly indulged children are characteristically spoiled, selfish, impatient, inconsiderate, and demanding.

A) authoritarian

B) permissive/indulgent

C) authoritative

D) neglectful/uninvolved

A

B) permissive/indulgent

69
Q

moody and to have low self-esteem and conduct problems later in childhood. They also have problems with peer relations and with academic performance.

A) authoritarian

B) permissive/indulgent

C) authoritative

D) neglectful/uninvolved

A

D) neglectful/uninvolved

70
Q

parenting style in which the parents are low in warmth and low on control

A) authoritarian

B) permissive/indulgent

C) authoritative

D) neglectful/uninvolved

A

D) neglectful/uninvolved

71
Q

This style of parenting is associated with disruptions in attachment during early childhood and with moodiness, low self-esteem, and conduct problems later in childhood

A) authoritarian

B) permissive/indulgent

C) authoritative

D) neglectful/uninvolved

A

D) neglectful/uninvolved

72
Q

what of the following is NOT TRUE?

A) adolescents perceptions of their social status are strongly linked to higher rates of mental disorders

B) antisocial personality disorder is strongly related to SES

C) the lower the SES class, the higher the incidence of mental disorders

D) unemployment is not associated with enhanced vulnerability to psychopathology

A

D) unemployment is not associated with enhanced vulnerability to psychopathology

73
Q

what are the two types of popular children?

A) antisocial popular; loved popular

B) prosocial popular & antisocial popular

C) social popular; feared popular

D) feared popular; antisocial popular

A

B) prosocial popular & antisocial popular

74
Q

these types of popular children communicate with their peers in a friendly and assertive yet cooperative ways

A) antisocial popular

B) jocks

C) attractive popular

D) prosocial popular

A

D) prosocial popular

75
Q

these popular children are usually boys, who may be athletically skilled but who do poorly academically

A) antisocial popular

B) jocks

C) attractive popular

D) prosocial popular

A

A) antisocial popular

76
Q

what are the two types of children who become chronic victims of rejection?

A) antisocial; withdrawn

B) aggressive; withdrawn

C) aggressive; anxious

D) antisocial; aggressive

A

B) aggressive; withdrawn

77
Q

these type of rejected children are excessively demanding, take offense too readily and attribute hostile intent to the teasing of their peers, thus escalating confrontations

A) antisocial

B) anxious

C) withdrawn

D) aggressive

A

D) aggressive

78
Q

the tendency to attribute hostile intent to others in grade 8 has been shown to predict

A) withdrawn behaviour in grade 9

B) antisocial behaviour in grade 11

C) anxious behaviour in adulthood

D) maltreatment in future relationships

A

B) antisocial behaviour in grade 11

79
Q

for these children, when expecting maltreatment they approach social situations with hyperarousal, anxiety and angry reactivity

A) antisocial

B) social

C) withdrawn

D) aggressive

A

D) aggressive

80
Q

in the workplace, a common type of discrimination in the workplace wherein members of a certain group are not hired because of their personal characteristics

A) age discrimination

B) sex discrimination

C) treatment discrimination

D) access discrimination

A

D) access discrimination

81
Q

a common type of discrimination in the workplace wherein certain types of people are given a job but are paid less and receive fewer opportunities for promotion

A) age discrimination

B) sex discrimination

C) treatment discrimination

D) access discrimination

A

C) treatment discrimination

82
Q

studies have shown that the experience or perception of discrimination leads to increases of

A) risk taking behaviour and anger

B) employment due to being in a minority group

C) self development and adaptation of their environment

D) none of the above

A

A) risk taking behaviour and anger

83
Q

from a cultural perspective,what factors often influence which disorders develop, what forms they take, how prevalent they are and their courses?

A) culture

B) sociocultural

C) social

D intrapersonal

A

B) sociocultural

84
Q

in what country is the experience of stress expressed as physical problems such fatigue and weakness

A) Brazil

B) Australia

C) United States

D) China

A

D) China

85
Q

in what country would depression a frequent reaction to individual stress?

A) Brazil

B) Pakistan

C) United States

D) China

A

C) United States

86
Q

what term does the DSM-5 to refer to the clusters of clinical symptoms that often appear together within people from specific cultures?

A) cultural explanations

B) cultural concepts of distress

C) cultural syndromes

D) cultural idioms of distress

A

C) cultural syndromes

87
Q

what term does the DSM-5 to refer to the culture-specific ways of expressing distress to others?

A) cultural explanations

B) cultural concepts of distress

C) cultural syndromes

D) cultural idioms of distress

A

D) cultural idioms of distress

88
Q

when taking an eclectic approach, a psychologist would

A) ensure consistency in the approach to ones practice

B) accept working ideas from several viewpoints and incorporate whichever they find useful

C) revise an existing perspective and modify it to fit what they believe

D) advocate for a single viewpoint

A

B) accept working ideas from several viewpoints and incorporate whichever they find useful

89
Q

a psychologist who combines techniques from a cognitive behavioral approach with those from an interpersonal approach would be said to be taking a

A) theoretical consistent approach

B) purist approach

C) eclectic approach

D) biopsychosocial approach

A

C) eclectic approach

90
Q

Albert Bandura developed an early cognitive-behav-ioral perspective and placed considerable emphasis on the cognitive aspects of learning. Bandura stressed that human beings regulate behavior by

A) Internal symbolic processes

B) Attributions

C) Passive observation only

D) Introjection

A

A) internal symbolic processes

91
Q

internal reinforcement explains

A) Rewards or positive consequences that come from within oneself.

B) External rewards provided by others.

C) That we prepare ourselves for difficult tasks, by visualizing what the consequences would be if we did not perform them.

D) Social approval and acceptance from others.

A

C) that we prepare ourselves for difficult tasks, by visualizing what the consequences would be if we did not perform them.

92
Q

animals and people actively acquire information about what CSs allow them to predict, expect, or prepare for an upcoming biologically significant event (the UCS)

A) Response–outcome expectancy

B) Stimulus-stimulus expectancy

C) Passive learning

D) Random associations

A

B) Stimulus-stimulus expectancy

93
Q

a stimulus-stimulus expectancy occurs in

A) observational learning

B) classical conditioning

C) operant conditioning

D) generalisation

A

B) classical conditioning

94
Q

when a person learns that a response will lead to a reward outcome, the person will make the response that he or she has learned produces the outcome

A) Response–outcome expectancy

B) Stimulus-stimulus expectancy

C) Passive learning

D) Random associations

A

A) Response–outcome expectancy

95
Q

a response–outcome expectancy occurs in

A) observational learning

B) classical conditioning

C) operant conditioning

D) generalisation

A

C) operant conditioning

96
Q

the focus of therapy is on changing specific behaviors and emotional responses—eliminating undesirable reactions and learning desirable ones

A) behavioural

B) psychodynamic

C) cognitive - behavioural

D) object relations

A

A) behavioural

97
Q

A criticism of the the behavioral approach

A) failing to consider motives toward personal growth and fulfillment.

B) oversimplifies human behavior and is unable to explain all of its complexities

C) we cannot observe phenomena and, as such, cannot be relied on as solid empirical data

D) all the above

A

B) oversimplifies human behavior and is unable to explain all of its complexities

98
Q

This approach has also been greatly advanced by the accumulation of sophisticated informa-tion-processing studies of the effects of emotion on cogni-tion and behavior

A) behavioural

B) psychodynamic

C) cognitive - behavioural

D) social

A

C) cognitive - behavioural

99
Q

the DSM-5 uses the term cultural syndromes to refer to

A) clusters of clinical symptoms that often appear together within people from specific cultures.

B) Cultural idioms of distress refer to culture-specific ways of expressing distress to others (e.g., “feeling down” for “depressed”). And cultural expla-nations

C) refer to different ways of explaining the causes of different symptoms or disorders

D) A general term with no specific meaning in the context of the DSM-5

A

A) clusters of clinical symptoms that often appear together within people from specific cultures.

100
Q

the DSM-5 uses the term Cultural idioms of distress to refer to

A) clusters of clinical symptoms that often appear together within people from specific cultures.

B) different ways of explaining the causes of different symptoms or disorders

C) A general term with no specific meaning in the context of the DSM-5

D) culture-specific ways of expressing distress to others

A

D) culture-specific ways of expressing distress to others

101
Q

the DSM-5 uses the term Cultural explanations to refer to

A) clusters of clinical symptoms that often appear together within people from specific cultures.

B) culture-specific ways of expressing distress to others

C) different ways of explaining the causes of different symptoms or disorders

D) A general term with no specific meaning in the context of the DSM-5

A

C) different ways of explaining the causes of different symptoms or disorders

102
Q

Purists in the field—those who advocate a single viewpoint—are skeptical about eclecticism, claiming that an eclectic approach tends to

A) Overemphasize the importance of a singular theoretical perspective

B) Lack integrity and produce a “crazy quilt” of inconsistent practice with little rationale

C) Embrace a well-defined and rigid set of principles

D) Result in a more coherent and unified approach to therapy

A

B) Lack integrity and produce a “crazy quilt” of inconsistent practice with little rationale

103
Q

a psychologist who accepts causal explanations from psychodynamic theory while applying techniques of anxiety reduction from behavior therapy

A) Psychoanalytic purist

B) Behaviorist traditionalist

C) Integrative

D) Eclectic

A

D) Eclectic

104
Q

The biopsychosocial approach is promising, but in many ways it is merely a

A) Descriptive acknowledgment of the complex interactions rather than a clearly articulated theory of how they interact

B) Comprehensive framework explaining all aspects of human behavior

C) Reductionist explanation focusing solely on biological factors

D) Well-established and universally accepted theoretical model

A

A) Descriptive acknowledgment of the complex interactions rather than a clearly articulated theory of how they interact