Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Abnormal Psychology > CHILDHOOD & ADOLESCENCE > Flashcards

CHILDHOOD & ADOLESCENCE Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
AP® Psychology flashcards Psychology 101 flashcards GRE® Psychology flashcards
1
Q

what was the turning point that occured in which efforts to assess, treat and understand maladaptive behavior patterns in children and adolescents

A) young people mental health movement

B) mental health movement

C) child movement

D) none of the above

A

B) mental health movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the prevalence in which children and adolescents meet criteria for at least one mental disorder by the age of 18 years

A) 20%

B) 80%

C) 10%

D) 50%

A

D) 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what disorder has the earliest onset

A) mood disorders

B) substance use disorders

C) behaviour disorders

D) anxiety disorders

A

D) anxiety disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

at what age do suicidal thoughts and behaviors begin

A) 12

B) 8

C) 18

D) 5

A

A) 12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is an important factor when assessing childhood disorders

A) viewing a child’s behavior in the context of normal development

B) Focusing solely on current symptoms

C) Ignoring the child’s family background

D) Disregarding the child’s cultural background

A

A) viewing a child’s behavior in the context of normal development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what field focuses on determining what is abnormal at any point in the developmental process by comparing and contrasting it with normal and expected changes that occur

A) Abnormal psychology

B) Child psychology

C) Developmental psychopathology

D) Clinical psychology

A

C) developmental psychopathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which of the following is NOT an important consideration when evaluating the presence or extent of mental health problems in children and adolescents

A) they perception of immediately perceived threatening events

B) that they do not have a complex and realistic view of themselves and the world

C) their lack of experience in dealing with adversity

D) their level of intelligence and academic achievement

A

D) their level of intelligence and academic achievement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

the DSM-I was the first DSM to include emotional and behaviour problems in childhood and adolescence, what was a limitation of this DSM?

A) It lacked specificity and detailed criteria for childhood disorders

B) It only included 2 disorders for children and adolescents

C) It exclusively focused on physical health issues in children

D) It provided comprehensive coverage of all childhood disorders

A

B) it only included 2 disorders for children and adolescents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what was the greatest problem in the early system used for classifying disorders in childhood and adolescence

A) Lack of specificity in diagnostic criteria

B) Overemphasis on cultural factors

C) Limited focus on biological influences

D) Classification for adults was used for childhood problems

A

D) classification for adults was used for childhood problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is one limitation of the early classification system for disorders in childhood and adolescence

A) Ignored environmental factors

B) Placed too much emphasis on biological factors

C) Overemphasized cultural influences

D) Focused exclusively on cognitive factors

A

A) ignored environmental factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what important factor plays a role in the expression of symptoms in childhood and adolescence

A) Biological factors

B) Development

C) Environment

D) Cultural factors

A

C) environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which of the following disorder does NOT always have an onset in childhood and adolescence

A) mood disorders

B) oppositional defiant disorder

C) neurodevelopmental disorders

D) conduct disorder

A

A) mood disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

in relation to separation anxiety disorder, what is a clear identifying factor in childhood and adolescence

A) Psychosocial stressor

B) Genetic predisposition

C) Social isolation

D) Traumatic event

A

A) psychosocial stressor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what factors contribute to the development of anxiety disorders in children

A) Genetic factors

B) Social and cultural factors

C) Environmental factors

D) Physical health factors

A

B) social and cultural factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the most commonly prescribed medication for anxiety disorders in childhood and adolescence

A) SSRIs

B) benzodiazepines

C) SNRIs

D) no medication is used for childhood disorders

A

B) benzodiazepines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what psychosocial treatment has shown to be highly effective at reducing anxiety symptoms in young children

A) Desensitization therapy

B) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)

C) Psychodynamic therapy

D) Medication therapy

A

B) CBT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what modification has been made in the DSM for diagnosing depression in childhood and adolescence

A) Greater emphasis on environmental factors

B) Inclusion of irritability as a diagnostic criterion

C) Exclusion of family history

D) Requirement for prolonged duration of symptoms

A

B) Inclusion of irritability as a diagnostic criterion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

“irritability” is used in childhood depression diagnosis, what does this symptom substitute in relation to symptoms found in adult depression

A) diminished concentration

B) sadness

C) depressed mood

D) sleep problems

A

C) depressed mood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is one factor related to depression in children

A) Prenatal exposure to alcohol

B) High socioeconomic status

C) Positive life events

D) Lack of family history of depression

A

A) prenatal exposure to alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what has research suggested in relation to the effectiveness of medication to treat childhood and adolescent depression

A) its mixed

B) its effective

C) medication is not prescribed to children and adolescence

D) none of the above

A

A) its mixed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are anxiety and depressive disorders referred to as

A) adaptive disorders

B) maladaptive disorders

C) internalising disorders

D) externalising disorders

A

C) internalising disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the two most common externalising disorders

A) ADHD and conduct disorder

B) oppositional defiant disorder and conduct disorder

C) anxiety disorders and oppositional disorder

D) anxiety disorder and depressive disorders

A

B) oppositional defiant disorder and conduct disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

a disorder marked by recurrent pattern of negativistic, disobedient, and hostile behavior toward authority

A) conduct disorder

B) oppositional defiant disorder

C) juvenile delinquency

D) anxiety disorder

A

B) oppositional defiant disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

for a diagnosis of oppositional defiant disorder, the behaviour must persist for how long

A) 3 months

B) 2 weeks

C) 1 month

D) 6 month

A

D) 6 month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

which of the following is NOT a subtype of opposition defiant disorder

A) angry/irritable mood

B) violation of rules

C) vindictiveness

D) argumentative/defiant behavior

A

B) violation of rules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

. Prospective studies have found a developmental sequence from ODD to what disorder

A) ADHD

B) conduct disorder

C) impulse disorder

D) anxiety disorders

A

B) conduct disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

virtually all cases of conduct disorder are preceded developmentally by

A) ADHD

B) depressive disorder

C) impulse disorder

D) opposition defiant disorder

A

D) opposition defiant disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

disorder characterized by a persistent, repetitive violation of rules and a disregard for the rights of others

A) conduct disorder

B) oppositional defiant disorder

C) ADHD

D) depressive disorder

A

A) conduct disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

why is there a great deal of variability in the clinical presentation of this conduct disorder

A) because the DSM does not have specific criteria for conduct disorder

B) because any 3 combination of the 15 symptoms listed in the DSM can occur

C) because any 5 combination of the 15 symptoms listed in the DSM can occur

D) none of the above

A

B) because any 3 combination of the 15 symptoms can occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what disorder significantly increases the risk of pregnancy and substance abuse in teenage girls

A) ADHD

B) conduct disorder

C) oppositional defiant disorder

D) anxiety disorders

A

B) conduct disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is an effective treatment strategy for conduct disorder?

A) family therapy

B) behavioural training

C) cohesive family model

D) CBT

A

C) cohesive family model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

how does the cohesive family model conceptualise opposition defiant disorder and conduct disorder

A) learned through punishment

B) reinforced and maintained by ineffective parenting practices

C) purely genetic in origin

D) a result of neurological abnormalities

A

B) reinforced and maintained by ineffective parenting practices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

which of the following is an effective strategy in treating opposition defiant disorder and conduct disorder

A) family therapy

B) parent management training

C) CBT

D) talk therapy

A

B) parent management training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what treatment is used to teach parents how to effectively prompt and rein-force prosocial behaviors while ignoring aggressive or antisocial behaviors

A) family therapy

B) parent management training

C) CBT

D) talk therapy

A

B) parent management training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what do elimination disorders involve

A) Maladaptive patterns

B) A single outstanding symptom

C) Multiple symptoms related to elimination

D) Developmental delays

A

B) A single outstanding symptom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what term is used to refer to the habitual involuntary discharge of urine, usually at night

A) relief

B) enuresis

C) encopresis

D) elimination

A

B) enuresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is the term used in the DSM-5 to refer to an elimination disorder described as bed-wetting that is not organically caused

A) secondary enuresis

B) functional enuresis

C) primary enuresis

D) continence

A

B) functional enuresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is true regarding children who have primary functional enuresis

A) they have been continent

B) they have never been continent

C) They experienced a temporary phase of incontinence

D) They developed enuresis after a period of continence

A

B) they have never been continent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is true regarding children who have secondary functional enuresis

A) They have never achieved continence

B) They have experienced continuous bedwetting since birth

C) They consistently wet the bed throughout childhood without any breaks

D) They have been continent for a year but have regressed

A

D) they have been continent for a year but have regressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what has proved to be highly
effective treatment for enuresis

A) Medication

B) Psychoanalysis

C) Play therapy

D) Conditioning procedures

A

D) conditioning procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

at what age would the term enuresis be used

A) 3

B) 9

C) 5

D) 7

A

C) 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what term is used to describes a symptom disorder of children who have not learned appropriate toileting for bowel movements after age 4

A) relief

B) enuresis

C) encopresis

D) elimination

A

C) encopresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what are a group of conditions characterized by an early onset and persistent course that are believed to be the result of disruptions to normal brain development

A) Neurodevelopmental disorders

B) Psychotic disorders

C) Neurological disorders

D) Personality disorders

A

A) Neurodevelopmental disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

how many symptoms must be present for a diagnosis of ADHD

A) 3

B) 6

C) 4

D) 8

A

B) 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is the frequency in which symptoms must persist for a diagnosis of ADHD

A) 12 months

B) 3 weeks

C) 3 months

D) 6 months

A

D) 6 months

46
Q

when is autism usually identified

A) before age 2

B) at 6 months

C) after age 3

D) before 30 months of age

A

D) before 30 months of age

47
Q

at what age do children who were later diagnosed with autism start to show a decline in their focus on the eyes of others

A) 24 months

B) 2-6 months

C) 2 years

D) 3 years

A

B) 2-6 months

48
Q

what is the term used to describe the parrot like repetition of a few words found in childs with autism

A) echopraxia

B) palilalia

C) parrotalia

D) echolalia

A

D) echolalia

49
Q

Lovaas reported an intensive behavioural intervention administered one on one for children with autims provided positive results, what is the time frame in which this treatment is administered?

A) 30 hours per month for 1 year

B) 40 hours per week for 2 years

C) 30 hours per month for 2 years

D) 10 hours per week for 1 year

A

B) 40 hours per week for 2 years

50
Q

Lovaas (1987) intensive behavioural intervention administered to children with autism is based on what

A) pairing a neutral stimulus with a unconditioned response

B) punishment and negative reinforcement

C) reinforcement and extinction

D) reinforcement and punishment

A

D) reinforcement and punishment

51
Q

an intervention for autism involing intensive behavioral work with the child and parent(s) focused on interpersonal exchanges, verbal and nonverbal communication, and adult sensitivity to children’s cues.

A) Reinforcement and punishment model

B) Early Start Denver Model

C) Cognitive-behavioral therapy

D) Play therapy

A

B) Early start denver model

(occursmore more than 20 hours per week)

52
Q

Tic disorders are classified under what in the DSM-5

A) Anxiety disorders

B) Motor disorders

C) Neurodevelopmental disorders

D) Mood disorders

A

B) motor disorders

53
Q

Tics occur most frequently between the ages

A) 8-14

B) 14-28

C) 1-5

D) 5-8

A

A) 8-14

54
Q

what is true regarding tic disorders

A) they may sometimes be aware of the tic but usually the persons performs the act habitually and does not notice it

B) they come to attention when they occur

C) tics are always out of consciousness awareness

D) individuals are consciously aware of their tics

A

A) they may sometimes be aware of the tic but usually the persons performs the act habitually and does not notice it

55
Q

some individuals with Tourette’s disorder manifest coprolalia, which is a

A) Simple motor tic involving head movements

B) Involuntary vocalizations of animal sounds

C) Complex vocal tic that involves the uttering of obscenities

D) Repetitive blinking movements

A

C) Complex vocal tic that involves the uttering of obscenities

56
Q

what is tourette’s disorder

A) Extreme tic disorder involving multiple motor and vocal patterns.

B) A sleep disorder characterized by night terrors.

C) A form of obsessive-compulsive disorder specific to children.

D) A phobia related to loud noises.

A

A) extreme tic disorder involving multiple motor and vocal patterns.

57
Q

what is true regarding tourettes

A) Usually matures out

B) Frequently persists into adulthood

C) Occurs exclusively in females

D) Linked to intellectual disability

A

B) frequently persists into adult-hood

58
Q

what Behavioral intervention for tics involves several sequential elements, beginning with awareness training, relaxation training, and the development of incompatible responses, and then progressing to cognitive therapy and modification of the individual’s overall style of action

A) CBT

B) habit reversal training

C) habit reinforcement training

D) modelling

A

B) habit reversal training

59
Q

what are most effective medication for the treatment of Tourette’s and tic disorders

A) antipsychotic and noradrenergic

B) SSRIs and SNRIs

C) benzodiazepines

D) anticonvulsants

A

A) antipsychotic and noradrenergic

60
Q

disorders characterized by delays in cognitive development in the areas of language, speech, mathematical, or motor skills that are not necessarily due to any demonstrable physical or neurological defect

A) intellectual disorders

B) learning disorders

C) ADHD

D) depression

A

B) learning disorders

61
Q

of the learning disorders, what is the best known and researched disorder

A) Dyscalculia

B) Dyslexia

C) Expressive language disorder

D) Auditory processing disorder

A

B) dyslexia

62
Q

a disorder in which the individual has problems in word rec-ognition and reading comprehension; often he or she is markedly deficient in spelling and memory

A) Dyscalculia

B) Dyslexia

C) Expressive language disorder

D) Auditory processing disorder

A

B) dyslexia

63
Q

what diagnosis of disorders are restricted to those cases in which there is clear impairment in school performance or (if the person is not a student) in daily liv-ing activities

A) learning disorders

B) intellectual disorders

C) dyslexia

D} ADHD

A

A) learning disorders

64
Q

what is true regarding learning disorders

A) they do not lack in motivation, cooperativeness, or eagerness to please their teachers and parents

B) they lack in motivation, cooperativeness, or eagerness to please their teachers and parents

C)

D)

A

A) they do not lack in motivation, cooperativeness, or eagerness to please their teachers and parents

65
Q

what is the most widely held view of the causes of specific learning disorders

A) Overemphasis on environmental factors

B) Strictly genetic factors

C) Subtle central nervous system (CNS) impairments

D) Absence of any biological basis

A

C) subtle CNS impairments

66
Q

phonics instruction is used for learning disorders, what does this involve

A) Teaching only sight words

B) Teaching children letter–sound correspondence as well as how to decode and create syllables

C) Ignoring phonemic awareness

D) Focusing exclusively on reading comprehension skills

A

B) teaching children letter–sound correspondence as well as how to decode and create syllables

67
Q

a treatment for learning disorder which teaches children letter–sound correspondence as well as how to decode and create syllables

A) Behavioral therapy

B) Phonics instruction

C) Medication

D) Psychoanalytic therapy

A

B) phonics instruction

68
Q

disorder characterized by deficits in general mental abilities, such as reasoning, problem solving, planning, abstract thinking, judgment, academic learning, and learning from experience

A) intellectual disability

B) learning disorders

C) ADHD

D) dyslexia

A

A) intellectual disability

69
Q

what is defined in terms of both intelligence and level of performance

A) intellectual disability

B) learning disorders

C) ADHD

D) dyslexia

A

A) intellectual disability

70
Q

Intellectual disability is defined in terms of both intelligence and level of performance, and for the diagnosis to apply, these problems must begin before the age of

A) 40

B) 30

C) 5

D) 18

A

D) 18

71
Q

any functional equivalent of intellectual disability that has its onset after age 17 is considered to be

A) Dementia

B) Learning disorder

C) Acquired cognitive impairment

D) Neurodevelopmental disorder

A

A) dementia

72
Q

Individuals with mild intellectual disability have IQ scores ranging from

A) 20-40

B) 50 to 70

C) below 20

D) 35 to 55

A

B) 50 to 70

73
Q

what do most people score between in IQ

A) 20-40

B) 50 to 70

C) 70 to 130

D) 34 to 55

A

C) 70 to 130

74
Q

what level of intellectual disability is the most common?

A) prfound

B) moderate

C) severe

D) mild

A

D) mild

75
Q

Individuals with moderate intellectual disability have IQ scores ranging from

A) 20-40

B) 50 to 70

C) 70 to 130

D) 34 to 55

A

D) 34 to 55

76
Q

Individuals with severe intellectual disability have IQ scores ranging from

A) 20-40

B) 50 to 70

C) 70 to 130

D) 34 to 55

A

A) 20-40

77
Q

Most indi-viduals with profound intellectual disability have IQ scores below

A) 55

B) 35

C) 45

D) 25

A

D) 25

78
Q

In phenylketonuria (PKU), a baby appears normal at birth but lacks a liver enzyme needed to break down phenylalanine, an amino acid found in many foods, what does this genetic error result in

A) learning disability for life

B) intellectual disability for life

C) intellectual disability only when significant amounts of phenylketonuria are ingested

D) learning disability only when significant amounts of phenylketonuria are ingested

A

C) intellectual disability only when significant amounts of phenylketonuria are ingested

79
Q

what is true of phenylketonuria (PKU)

A) It has no impact on cognitive functioning

B) It is reversible

C) It is not reversible

D) It primarily affects physical health

A

B) it is reversible

80
Q

if phenylketonuria goes undetected and untreated what can occur

A) brain damage

B) severe intellectual disability

C) slow growth

D) enlarged brain

A

A) brain damage

81
Q

how does a baby inherit phenylketonuria

A) Only through maternal inheritance

B) Only through paternal inheritance

C) Both parents must carry the recessive gene

D) It is exclusively acquired through environmental factors

A

C) both parents must carry the
recessive gene

82
Q

what is the rare condition known as macrocephaly

A) cerebrospinal fluid within the cranium causes damage to the brain tissues and enlargement of the skull

B) increase in the size and weight of the brain, an enlargement of the skull

C) head circumference that is more than three standard deviations below that of children of the same age and sex

D) none of the above

A

B) increase in the size and weight of the brain, an enlargement of the skull

83
Q

what is the rare condition known as microcephaly

A) cerebrospinal fluid within the cranium causes damage to the brain tissues and enlargement of the skull

B) increase in the size and weight of the brain, an enlargement of the skull

C) head circumference that is more than three standard deviations below that of children of the same age and sex

D) none of the above

A

C) head circumference that is more than three standard deviations below that of children of the same age and sex

84
Q

what does Primary microcephaly refer to

A) decreased brain growth during pregnancy

B) decreased brain growth during infancy

C) increased brain growth during pregnancy

D) increased brain growth during infancy

A

A) decreased brain growth during pregnancy

85
Q

what does secondary microcephaly refer to

A) decreased brain growth during pregnancy

B) decreased brain growth during infancy

C) increased brain growth during pregnancy

D) increased brain growth during infancy

A

B) decreased brain growth during infancy

86
Q

Children with microcephaly fall within the what categories of intellectual disability

A) mild

B) moderate

C) moderate to profound

D) mild to moderate

A

C) moderate to profound

87
Q

what is the most common cause of microcephaly

A) environmental factors

B) genetic factors

C) brain damage after birth

D) nutrient deficiencies

A

B) genetic factors

88
Q

The condition referred to as hydrocephaly is a rela-tively rare disorder in which what occurs

A) cerebrospinal fluid within the cranium causes damage to the brain tissues and enlargement of the skull

B) increase in the size and weight of the brain, an enlargement of the skull

C) head circumference that is more than three standard deviations below that of children of the same age and sex

D) none of the above

A

A) cerebrospinal fluid within the cranium causes damage to the brain tissues and enlargement of the skull

89
Q

in In chronic cases of hydrocephaly what is the chief symptom

A)

B)

C) gradual decreases of the upper part of the head out of proportion to the face and the rest of the body

D) gradual enlargement of the upper part of the head out of proportion to the face and the rest of the body

A

D) gradual enlargement of the upper part of the head out of proportion to the face and the rest of the body

90
Q

Hydrocephaly can be treated by what procedure

A) surgical removal of excess fluid from the brain

B) shunting devices are inserted to drain cerebrospinal fluid

C) medication therapy

D) lifestyle and dietary changes

A

B) shunting devices are inserted to drain cerebrospinal fluid

91
Q

Placement of children with intellectual disabilities in regu-lar school classrooms for all or part of the day.

A) inclusion

B) exclusion

C) segregation

D) mainstreaming

A

D) mainstreaming

92
Q

what has been found to be associated with the vulnerability of children to the development of psychological disorders

A) socioeconomic status

B) genetic factors

C) parental substance abuse

D) cultural background

A

C) parental substance abuse

93
Q

children from homes with harsh discipline and physical abuse are more likely to be aggres-sive and to have what disorder

A) oppositional defiant disorder

B) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder

C) anxiety disorder

D) conduct disorder

A

D) conduct disorder

94
Q

all family therapies view a child’s problems in part as an

A) independent and isolated occurrence

B) an outgrowth of pathological interaction patterns within the family

C) solely influenced by genetic factors

D) unrelated to family dynamics

A

B) an outgrowth of pathological interaction patterns within the family

95
Q

what provides protective care and custody for young victims of abuse, neglect, and related conditions.

A) foster care placements

B) community juvenile facilities

C) psychiatric hospitals

D) child protective services

A

B) community juvenile facilities

96
Q

what is a crucial determinant of whether the child’s problems will be alleviated or made worse in relation to being placed somewhere other than the parents home

A) financial stability of the new caretakers

B) quality of new home

C) distance from the biological parents

D) educational opportunities in the new environment

A

B) quality of new home

97
Q

in terms of facilities for children to be placed after protective care, what home placement has the most positive effects

A) county or state institutions

B) home of relatives

C) foster home

D) group home

A

C) foster home

98
Q

One of the most troublesome and widespread problems in child-hood and adolescence is

A) perfectionism

B) delinquent behavior

C) academic achievement

D) self-esteem issues

A

B) delinquent behaviour

99
Q

a small group of “continuous” delinquents actually evolve from oppositional defiant behavior to conduct disorder and then to

A) depression

B) adult antisocial personality disorder

C) generalized anxiety disorder

D) learning disabilities

A

B) adult antisocial personality disorder

100
Q

most people who engage in delinquent acts as adolescents will

A) face legal consequences in adulthood

B) not go on to develop a delinquent disorder

C) will develop a personality disorder

D) most likely develop conduct disorder

A

B) not go on to develop a delinquent disorder

101
Q

The individuals who show adolescence-limited delinquency are thought to do so as a result of

A) spite

B) neglect

C) family issues

D) social mimicry

A

D) social mimicry

102
Q

in a distinct minority of delinquency cases (an estimated 1 percent or less), brain pathology results in

A) heightened need for dominance

B) lowered inhibitory control

C) increased empathy and emotional regulation

D) heightened cognitive abilities

A

B) lowered inhibitory control

103
Q

Many habitual delinquents appear to share the traits typical of

A) antisocial personalities

B) anxiety disorders

C) obsessive-compulsive disorder

D) mood disorders

A

A) antisocial personalities

104
Q

Delinquency appears to be much more common among youths from homes in which parents have

A) strong communication skills

B) separated/divorced

C) low socioeconomic status

D) died

A

B) separated/divorced

105
Q

Adolescents who experience ______ from both parents have been found to be more prone to delinquent behavior

A) belongingness

B) alienation and rejection

C) hatred

D) separation

A

B) alienation and rejection

106
Q

who are most likely to have a constant friend or companion in delinquency

A) females

B) both males and females

C) adults

D) males

A

A) females

107
Q

Interrelated factors that appear to be of key importance for producing or supporting
delinquency include all of the following EXCEPT

A) Family ties

B) Alienation and rebellion

C) Social rejection

D) Gang belongingness

A

A) Family ties

108
Q

what has received some attention as a means of intervening in the delinquency process

A) community service programs

B) juvenile boot camps

C) increased law enforcement presence

D) psychiatric hospitalization

A

B) juvenile boot camps

109
Q

which of the following is not recognised in the DSM-5

A) narcissism

B) antisocial personality disorder

C) conduct disorder

D) juvenile delinquency

A

D) juvenile delinquency

110
Q

a comprehensive intervention in which the clinician attempts to make changes in several of the systems that influence delinquent behavior, including the adolescent’s family, peer network, school, and community

A) multisystemic therapy (MST)

B) mainstreaming

C) juvenile boot camps

D) family therapy

A

A) multisystemic therapy (MST)

111
Q

a therapy that has been shown to significantly decrease delinquency, and also to improve a range of other outcomes such as psychopathology, substance use, family functioning, and the rate of out-of-home placements

A) multisystemic therapy (MST)

B) mainstreaming

C) juvenile boot camps

D) family therapy

A

A) multisystemic therapy (MST)

112
Q

several key variables seem to play a part in the genesis of delinquency. They fall into the gen-eral categories of

A) socioeconomic status, cultural background, and educational opportunities

B) genetic predisposition, parenting styles, and community resources

C) personal pathology, pathogenic family patterns, and undesirable peer relationships

D) neurological abnormalities, environmental toxins, and substance abuse

A

C) personal pathology, pathogenic family patterns, and undesirable peer relationships

Abnormal Psychology (48 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions