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LA Infectious Disease > Unit 4 - Equine Skin and FAD > Flashcards

Unit 4 - Equine Skin and FAD Flashcards

1
Q

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis var. equi is a natural inhabitant of what?

A

the soil

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2
Q

How is Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis var. equi transmitted?

A

Via any break in the skin or biting insects

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3
Q

What are the three forms of disease/clinical signs caused by Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis var. equi?

A

External abscesses (Pigeon fever)
Internal abscesses
Ulcerative lymphangitis

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4
Q

What age group of horses are predisposed to pigeon fever?

A

young

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5
Q

What lesions are associated with pigeon fever?

A

Large pectoral abscesses and on the ventral abdomen

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6
Q

Where do internal abscesses due to Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis var. equi typically localize?

A

On the liver, lung, spleen, and kidney

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7
Q

Ulcerative lymphangitis is characterized by what?

A

Severe cellulitis of one or more limbs

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8
Q

How is Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis var. equi diagnosed?

A

Bacterial culture of lesions, peritoneal fluid, or draining tracts
Evidence of chronic infection on CBC
Synergistic hemolysis inhibition

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9
Q

How are the external abscesses caused by Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis var. equi treated?

A

Surgical drainage ofmature abscesses
Many abscesses will rupture and heal on their own
Antibiotics only in complicated cases

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10
Q

T/F: There is a low chance of recovery associated with pigeon fever.

A

False - it is high

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11
Q

How are internal abscesses and ulcerative lymphangitis caused by Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis var. equi treated?

A

Long term (minimum 4-6 weeks) of antibiotic therapy

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12
Q

How is Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis var. equi prevented and controlled?

A

Isolate infected animals
Contain abscess drainage
Fly control
Vaccination

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13
Q

What is the etiology of sporothricosis?

A

Sporothrix schenckii

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14
Q

What does sporothricosis present similarily to?

A

ulcerative lymphangitis

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15
Q

Where does Sporothrix schenckii grow?

A

In organic material - silvers and thorns

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16
Q

How is sporothricosis introduced?

A

Via trauma

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17
Q

What clinical signs are associated with sporothricosis?

A

Multiple abscesses along lymphatic vessels

Typically affects a single limb

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18
Q

How is Sporothricosis diagnosed?

A

Cytology
Culture
Lack of response to antibiotic therapy

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19
Q

What will you see on cytology in patients with sporothricosis?

A

Cigar bodies - elongated yeast cells

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20
Q

How is sporothricosis treated?

A

Sodium iodide with Ketoconazole (or similar drugs) OR amphoteracin B

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21
Q

What are the infectious causes of folliculitis/dermatitis?

A

Dermatophilosis
Dermatophytosis
Bacterial pyoderma
Parasitic - chorioptic and psoroptic mange

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22
Q

What are the most common etiologic agents of dermatophytosis?

A

Trichophyton equinum
T. mentagrophytes
Microsporum gypseum

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23
Q

What are the common etiologic agents of dermatophytosis if there is interaction with other infected animals?

A

T. verrucosum

M. canis

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24
Q

How does dermatophytosis colonize?

A

It requires some abrasion to skin to allow entry

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25
Q

What clinical signs are associated with dermatophytosis?

A

Regions of alopecia, frequently round, erythemic, crusted margins
Located on the head, neck, forelimbs, under saddle/girth

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26
Q

How is dermatophytosis diagnosed?

A

Culture is the best bet

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27
Q

How is dermatophytosis treated?

A 
Most cases are self-limiting
Can treat topically with antifungals or lime sulfur
\+/- systemic therapy
Separate from herd
Disinfect equipment
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28
Q

What is the etiologic agent of dermatophilosis?

A

Dermatophilus congolensis

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29
Q

How does Dermatophilus congolensis enter the body?

A

Skin abrasion and moisture

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30
Q

T/F: The crusts from dermatophilus infected individuals are contagious

A

True

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31
Q

What is another name for dermatophilosis?

A

Rain rot

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32
Q

What lesions are associated with dermatophilosis?

A

Papules that progress to thick crusts with an erosive underside (paint brush lesions)

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33
Q

How is dermatophilosis diagnosed?

A

Direct examination of crusts

Giemsa stain

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34
Q

How is dermatophilosis treated?

A

Dry environment
Crust removal
Topical chlorhexidine
+/- systemic therapy with abx

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35
Q

What is the etiologic agent of vesicualr stomatitis?

A

Vesicular stomatitis virus

36
Q

Where is vesicular stomatitis endemic?

A

In North, Central, and South America

37
Q

During what time of year is vesicular stomatitis common?

A

Spring to summer months - waterways

38
Q

How is vesicular stomatitis transmitted?

A

Via biting insects and direct contact once on property

39
Q

T/F: Vesicular stomatitis is zoonotic..

A

True

40
Q

What clinical signs are associated with vesicular stomatitis?

A

Excessive salivation with vesicles on the inner surface of the lips, gums, and tongue - occasional crusting on muzzle, lips, nostrils, ears, coronary band, sheath, ventral abdomen

41
Q

How is vesicular stomatitis diagnosed?

A

Report any suspicious lesions to the state vet
PCR from lesions
Serology

42
Q

How is vesicular stomatitis treated?

A

supportive care

43
Q

How is vesicular stomatitis prevented and controlled?

A

Quarantine of any identified premises
Isolate any new horses for 21 days
Insect control programs
Individual feeders

44
Q

What transmits African horse sickness?

A

Biting midges

45
Q

What serves as reservoirs for African horse sickness?

A

Donkeys, mules, zebras, elephants, camels, and dogs

46
Q

what complicates the prevention of African horse sickness?

A

The antigenic variants

47
Q

Where is African horse sickness endemic?

A

Sub-Saharan Africa

48
Q

What cell does African horse sickness attack and what does that result in?

A

Vascular endothelium resulting in edema

49
Q

What are the forms of African horse sickness?

A

Pulmonary, cardiac, mixed, mild

50
Q

What clinical signs are associated with the pulmonary form of African horse sickness?

A

Severe pulmonary edema, frothing at the nares, high fever, and 95% case fatality rate

51
Q

What clinical signs are associated with the cardiac form of African horse sickness?

A

Pronounced edema of the head and neck, hydropericardium, and high case fatality rate

52
Q

What clinical signs are associated with the mild form of African horse sickness?

A

Fever only

53
Q

How is African horse sickness diagnosed?

A

Clinical signs
Virus isolation
PCR if available
Serology

54
Q

Is African horse sickness treatable?

A

Not really - supportive care is the best you can do because it is highly fatal

55
Q

How is African Horse sickness prevented and controlled?

A

Strict importation rules
Control biting midges
Screening/netting at night
Vaccination

56
Q

What is the reservoir of Hendra virus?

A

fruit bat

57
Q

How is Hendra virus transmitted between horses?

A

Direct contact only with respiratory secretions

58
Q

T/F: Hendra virus is highly fatal and zoonotic

A

True

59
Q

What clinical signs are associated with Hendra virus?

A

Fever, respiratory distress, and death
Severe bilateral pulmonary edema
Potential for neurologic signs

60
Q

Where does Hendra virus replicate? How does it spread?

A

Replicates in respiratory epithelium first, then spreads hematogenously to other organs

61
Q

How is Hendra virus diagnosed?

A

RNA virus - RT-PCR

Serology

62
Q

How is Hendra virus treated?

A

No treatment - euthanized to protect human health

63
Q

What is the etiologic agent of glanders?

A

Burkholderia mallei

64
Q

T/F: Burkolderia mallei lives in the soil and is zoonotic.

A

False - it is zoonotic but it is an obligate parasite of equidae and dies out in the environment fairly quickly

65
Q

How is Burkholderia mallei discharged from a horse?

A

Draining nodules and nasal mucosa

66
Q

How is glanders transmitted?

A

Feed, water, and direct contact

67
Q

What is a key to glanders transmission?

A

Recovered carriers

68
Q

What equidae species tend to develop chronic glanders? acute disease?

A

Chronic - horses

Acute - donkeys and mules

69
Q

What are the forms of glanders?

A

Respiratory and cutaneous

70
Q

What are the respiratory clinical signs of glanders?

A

Pneumonia
Small nodules on the nasal and pharyngeal mucosa that ulcerate and drain
Ulcers will heal and scars form (stellate scars)

71
Q

What are the cutaneous clinical signs of glanders?

A

Nodules on skin, subcutaneous tissues, and lymph nodes

Lymphangitis

72
Q

What form of glanders do humans get?

A

Primarily cutaneous but can get respiratory

73
Q

How is glanders diagnosed in acute cases?

A

Culture or PCR of lesions

Postmortem lesions and culture

74
Q

How are carriers of glanders detected?

A

Serology - CF (official test for import), ELISA, AGID

Mallein intradermal skin test

75
Q

How is glanders treated?

A

It is not recommended - don’t want carriers

76
Q

How is glanders prevented and controlled?

A

Test and slaughter is preferred - no vaccination

77
Q

What is the etiologic agent of dourine?

A

Trypanosoma eqiperdum

78
Q

T/F: Dourine is common in all hooved species.

A

False - only in equidae

79
Q

How is dourine transmitted?

A

venereally

80
Q

Where is dourine found?

A

Central and S. America, N. Africa, and the Middle East

81
Q

When is the onset of dourine?

A

Up to 20 weeks

82
Q

What acute signs are associated with dourine?

A

Initial low-grade fever and urethral or vaginal discharge
Edema, swelling, and ulceration of external genitalia
Occasional abortion

83
Q

What chronic signs are associated with dourine?

A

Peculiar raised plaques in skin of the flank that disappear and are replaced by plaques in other areas (pathognomonic)
CNS signs - incoordination, ataxia, paralysis
Loss of condition and progressive weakness

84
Q

How is dourine diagnosed?

A

Clinical signs
Serologic testing
Real-time PCR

85
Q

How is dourine treated?

A

Use of trypanosomal drugs is possible… but not practical

86
Q

How is dourine prevented and controlled?

A

Slaughter of all CF positive carrier animals

LA Infectious Disease (33 decks)

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