Unit 4 - Equine Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

What are the common causes of infectious respiratory disease in neonates (<2 mo)?

A

Contaminated amnion/meconium aspiration
EHV-1/EHV-4
Influenza
EVAV

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2
Q

What is the less common cause of infectious respiratory disease in neonates (<2 mo)?

A

Adenovirus

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3
Q

What are the infectious causes of respiratory disease in older foals (>2 mo)?

A

Rhodococcus equi

ERAV/ERBV

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4
Q

What are the non-infectious causes of respiratory disease in foals?

A

Pre-maturity/dysmaturity
Guttural pouch tympany
Congenital defects - choanal atresia

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5
Q

What are the common infectious causes of respiratory disease in adults?

A
EHV-1/EHV-4
Influenza
ERAV/ERBV
EVAV
Streptococcus equi ss equi
Aspiration
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6
Q

What are the less common infectious causes of respiratory disease in adults?

A

Sinusitis
EHV-5
Fungal infections
Lungworms

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7
Q

What respiratory FAD occur in adults?

A

African horse sickness
Glanders
Hendra

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8
Q

What are the non-infectious causes of respiratory disease in adults?

A
EIPH
RAO/IAD
DDSP
Neoplasia
Pulmonary edema
Nasopharyngeal cicatrix
Toxin-associated interstitial pneumonia
Acute respiratory distress syndrome
Acute hypersensitivities/adverse drug reactions
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9
Q

What is bronchopneumonia associated with in foals?

A

Aspiration of contaminated amniotic fluid or meconium aspiration
Hematogenous spread via sepsis

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10
Q

What are the common agents of bronchopneumonia in foals?

A

E. coli, Klebsiella, Pasteurella, Actinobacillus

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11
Q

What is bronchopneumonia in adults associated with?

A

Aspiration of upper respiratory or GI flora

Long distance transport, stress, and recent viral infection

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12
Q

What are the common agents of bronchopneumonia in adults?

A

Streptococcus equi ss zooepidemicus, Pasteurella, Actinobacillus

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13
Q

What may bronchopneumonia progress to in adults?

A

Pleuropneumonia

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14
Q

What agents are associated with pleuropneumonia in adults?

A

Bacteroides, Peptostreptococcus, Fusobacterium

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15
Q

What clinical signs are associated with bronchopneumonia?

A

Anorexia, fever, cough, depression, tachypnea, dyspnea, abnormal lung sounds, nasal discharge, weight loss, and pleural pain

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16
Q

What CBC abnormalities are associated with bronchopneumonia?

A

Leukocytosis, neutrophilia, hyperfibrinogenemia

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17
Q

How is bronchopneumonia diagnosed?

A

radiographs, U/S, and culture (TTW ideal)

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18
Q

How is bronchopneumonia treated?

A

Antibiotics - broad spectrum

NSAIDs

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19
Q

How is pleuropneumonia treated?

A

Pleural drainage, thoracotomy

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20
Q

What is the etiologic agent of rhinopneumonitis?

A

EHV1 and 4

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21
Q

How is rhinopneumonitis transmitted?

A

Inhalation (droplet/aerosol)

Occasional transmitted in utero

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22
Q

What clinical signs are associated with rhinopneumonitis?

A

Primarily respiratory syndrome (subclinical to mild) - mild fever, serous nasal discharge, depression

Also causes abortions and neurologic disease

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23
Q

When can there be severe disease associated with rhinopneumonitis?

A

Severe disease when secondary infection with bacteria occurs or when foals are infected at birth

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24
Q

How is rhinopneumonitis diagnosed?

A

PCR, virus isolation, FA on tissues, paired sera

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25
Q

How is rhinopneumonitis treated?

A

No specific treatment - typically self-limiting

Monitor for secondary bacterial infections

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26
Q

How is rhinopneumonitis prevented and controlled?

A

Prevent introduction of new virus strains

Vaccination

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27
Q

T/F: The Rhino/flu vaccine provides short lived immunity that is not completely protective.

A

True

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28
Q

What is the etiologic agent of equine multinodular pulmonary fibrosis (EMPF)?

A

Equine herpesvirus 5 (EHV-5)

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29
Q

What do we currently know about the epidemiology of EMPF?

A

It is a disease of middle to older age horses

Everything else is unknown

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30
Q

What clinical signs are associated with EMPF?

A

Chronic progressive respiratory signs

Tachypnea, increased respiratory effort, dyspnea, intermittent fever and cough, weight loss

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31
Q

How is EMPF diagnosed?

A

Failure to respond to bronchodilators, antimicrobial therapy
Ultrasound and radiographic lesions
PCR

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32
Q

How is EMPF treated?

A

There is generally a poor response to treatment

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33
Q

What is the etiologic agent of rhinitis?

A

Equine rhinitis A virus (ERAV)

Equine rhinitis B virus (ERBV)

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34
Q

How is rhinitis transmitted?

A

Via respiratory secretions

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35
Q

What does infection of ERAV and ERBV result in (not rhinitis)?

A

Viremia with long-term fecal and urinary shedding

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36
Q

What are the clinical signs of ERAV infection?

A

Fever, anorexia, nasal discharge, coughing, pharyngitis, and swelling of the lymph nodes in the head and neck

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37
Q

What are the clinical signs of ERBV infection?

A

Mild - pharyngitis, respiratory signs, and depressed appeitte

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38
Q

Clinical signs caused by ERAV and ERBV is usually limited to how long?

A

2-3 days

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39
Q

How is rhinitis diagnosed?

A

PCR

Virus isolation

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40
Q

How is rhinitis treated?

A

No specific treatment, respiratory disease is typically self-limiting
Monitor for secondary bacterial infections

41
Q

How is rhinitis prevented and controlled?

A

Prevent introduction of new virus strains

Vaccination

42
Q

What is the lineage of Influenza virus that affects equine in the US?

A

Influenza A -> A/Equi 2 (H3N8) -> American lineage -> Florida clade (1 and 2)

43
Q

T/F: Influenza is not endemic in the horse population and is in fact rare.

A

False - it is endemic

44
Q

How is influenza transmitted?

A

Respiratory route - fomite, droplet, aerosol

45
Q

Rapid spread of influenza is associated with what?

A

Outbreaks in naiive populations

46
Q

What clinical signs are associated with influenza?

A

Fever, anorexia, depression
Harsh dry cough
Serous nasal discharge and lymphadenopathy
Conjunctivitis, corneal clouding

47
Q

What age group of animals are most often affected by infleunza?

A

young animals > older

48
Q

How is influenza diagnosed?

A

PCR, rapid ELISA, virus isolation and HI, and paired serum samples

49
Q

How is influenza treated?

A

No specific treatment - usually self limiting

Monitor for secondary bacterial infections

50
Q

How is influenza prevented and controlled?

A

quarantine clinical cases

Vaccination

51
Q

What is the vaccination protocol for influenza?

A

Vaccinate based on risk - revaccinate at 6-12 month intervals based on this

52
Q

What are the recommendations for the contents of the influenza vaccines?

A

They should contain both clade 1 and clade 2 viruses of the Florida sublineage

53
Q

What is the etiology of equine viral arteritis?

A

Equine viral arteritis virus

54
Q

Equine viral arteritis is an important differential for ______ respiratory disease.

A

Acute

55
Q

What non respiratory signs are associated with equine viral arteritis?

A

Conjunctivitis, keratitis, palpebral edema, edema in the ventral and distal regions, weakness, loss of weight, and dehydraton

56
Q

How is equine viral arteritis transmitted?

A

Either via respiratory secretions or venereal

57
Q

Rhodococcus equi is a gram _____, facultative intracellular parasite.

A

positive

58
Q

Where does R. equi live?

A

In the soil

59
Q

Where can R. equi be found in asymptomatic young and adult horses?

A

In the intestinal tract and feces

60
Q

How is R. equi transmitted?

A

Via inhalation of contaminated dust

61
Q

What gene is important to the pathology of R. equi?

A

The vap A gene

62
Q

What age group is commonly affected by R. equi?

A

Foals between 2-6 months of age

63
Q

What clinical signs are associated with R. equi?

A

Respiratory disease predominates - cough, low grade fever initially, +/- mucopurulent nasal discharge, remain BAR until severe lung compromise

64
Q

T/F: Subclinical R. equi infection is common.

A

True

65
Q

How is R. equi definitively diagnosed?

A

TTW - culture or PCR

66
Q

What can be used for a presumptive/subclinical diagnosis of R. equi?

A

Regular screening with ultrasound

Radiographs for clinical disease

67
Q

How is R. equi treated?

A

Most subclinical will spontaneously resolve

When warranted - extended therapy for 2-12 weeks

68
Q

How is R. equi prevented and controlled?

A
Dust reduction, rotating paddocks/pastures, move foals out of problem facilities
Close monitoring via ultrasound
Vaccination
Hyperimmune plasma
Chemoprophylaxis
69
Q

T/F: There are 2 commercially available vaccines for R. equi available in the US right now.

A

False - that is Europe. There are none in the US

70
Q

What is the etiologic agent of strangles?

A

Streptococcus equi ss equi

71
Q

T/F: Strangles is highly contagious.

A

True

72
Q

How is Strangles transmitted?

A

Via ingestion or inhalation of bacteria from lymph node discharge or respiratory secretions or contact with contaminated fomites

73
Q

How does S. equi enter the system?

A

Via mucosa or tonsils

74
Q

Convalescent S. equi carriers shed for how long?

A

> 4 weeks

75
Q

Chronic carriers of S. equi result in what?

A

guttural pouch infections

76
Q

What is the first clinical sign associated with strangles?

A

Sudden onset of fever followed by mucopurulent nasal discharge and inappetence

77
Q

What clinical signs follow sudden onset of fever with strangles?

A

Acute swelling of the submandibular and retropharyngeal lymph nodes resulting in abscess formation

78
Q

What are the rare sequelae of strangles?

A

Bastard strangles - metastatic abscessation
Purpura hemorrhagica
Myositis

79
Q

How are acute cases of strangles diagnosed?

A

Presumptive diagnosis based on clinical signs

Definitive with culture or PCR

80
Q

How are chronic strangles carriers diagnosed?

A

Culture or PCR of a guttural pouch wash

81
Q

What does serology for SeM protein titers detect?

A

Previous infection

82
Q

What does serology for SeM diagnose?

A

Bastard strangles and purpura hemorrhagica

83
Q

What is serology for SeM protein titers used to determine?

A

the need for vaccination

84
Q

What is the first step in the treatment of strangles?

A

Isolate to prevent spread

85
Q

How are uncomplicated acute cases of strangles treated?

A

Supportive care only - soft feeds, hot pack, and drain abscesses

86
Q

When is antibiotic therapy for treatment of strangles indicated?

A

In cases of bastard strangles

87
Q

How are cases of purpura hemorrhagica treated?

A

Steroids

88
Q

How are chronic carriers of strangles treated?

A

Flush the guttural pouches and topical and systemic antimicrobials

89
Q

Generally, how is strangles prevented and controlled?

A

Quarantine all new arrivals for 3 weeks

Vaccination

90
Q

How is strangles prevented and controlled in outbreak situations?

A

Quarantine premise for 3 weeks past the last clinical case
Monitor twice daily for fever
Separate feed and equipment for suspect cases
Chore from clean to dirty
Guttural pouch testing following outbreak to ID carriers

91
Q

What are the most common organisms associated with guttural pouch infections?

A

S. equi, S. zoopidemicus

Aspergillus or other fungi are found

92
Q

Guttural pouch infections can be due to failure of what?

A

Normal drainage

93
Q

Guttural pouch infections are common sequelae to what?

A

Strangles

94
Q

When can guttural pouch infections be fatal?

A

If corrosion into the internal carotid or branches of the external carotid artery occurs

95
Q

What clinical signs are associated with guttural pouch infections?

A

Persistent mucopurulent drainage
Epistaxis due to damaged blood vessels
Damage to cranial nerves - dysphagia and facial nerve paralysis

96
Q

How are guttural pouch infections diagnosed?

A

Endoscopy and culture +/- PCR

97
Q

How are bacterial guttural pouch infections treated?

A

Flushing and antibiotics

98
Q

How are fungal guttural pouch infections treated?

A

Flushing
Topical and systemic antifungal agents
May need to occlude the carotid artery proximal and distal to any lesions