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LA Infectious Disease > Unit 2 - Anaplasmosis, CNS, Tuberculosis, and Paratuberculosis > Flashcards

Unit 2 - Anaplasmosis, CNS, Tuberculosis, and Paratuberculosis Flashcards

1
Q

What are the common bovine CNS diseases?

A

Listeriosis, rabies, thrombotic meningoencephalitis, polio, nervous coccidiosis, acetonemia, severe anemia, and lead or organophosphate posioning

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2
Q

What clinical signs are indicative of a rabies infection?

A

Bellowing with an altered pitch
Aggression
Drooling, straining to defecate or urinate, relaxed rectum
Knuckling at fetlock, flaccid penis

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3
Q

What do clinical signs of rabies mimic?

A

indigestion, esophageal foreign bodies, or milk fever

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4
Q

If the brain is affected by rabies it is the _____ form. If the brainstem is affected by rabies it is the _____ form. If the spinal cord is affected by rabies it is the _____ form.

A

Furious, dumb, paralytic

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5
Q

How is rabies diagnosed?

A

Send a bovine head to D-lab (if you can)

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6
Q

To establish a negative rabies diagnosis, you have to have tissues from what two locations of the brain?

A

Cerebellum and brain stem (complete cross-section)

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7
Q

Do cattle typically get rabies vaccines?

A

no

AVMA recommends if they are going to be around people frequently or if they are valuable animals then vaccinate

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8
Q

What does the encephalitic form of listeriosis do?

A

Infects the brain stem following ascension of the trigeminal nerve

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9
Q

What clinical signs are associated with listeriosis?

A 
Depression, ataxia, disorientation
Tongue paralysis or paresis (unilateral)
Impacted food in the cheek
Unilateral ear droop
Trigeminal and facial nerve paralysis
Almost continuous salivation
Circling
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10
Q

How is listeriosis diagnosed?

A

IHC or histopath

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11
Q

How is listeriosis treated? Prognosis of treatment?

A

Penicillin or tetracycline

Only about 50% survival

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12
Q

What could be used to treat listeriosis but isn’t approved by AMDUCA and may not work because the clinically affected probably aren’t eating anyway?

A

Chlortetracycline

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13
Q

Where is anaplasmosis most common?

A

Southeast, intermountain west, and California

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14
Q

What is the etiologic agent of anaplasmosis?

A

Anaplasma marginale

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15
Q

How is Anaplasmosis treansmited?

A

Biting flies and ticks

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16
Q

What can aid in the spread of anaplasmosis?

A

Dehorning, castrating, and vaccinating

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17
Q

What clinical disease does anaplasmosis cause in calves?

A

Mild disease - they remain carrriers

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18
Q

What clinical disease does anaplasmosis cause in yearlings?

A

Severe disease but usually recover

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19
Q

What clinical disease does anaplasmosis cause in adults?

A

Most severe - mortalities can occur

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20
Q

What clinical signs are associated with anaplasmosis?

A

Depression, anorexia, fever up to 106 F, anemia, icterus, emaciation, +/- hyperexcitabiltiy, and death

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21
Q

How is anaplasmosis diagnosed?

A

Giemsa-stained blood smears, PCR, CF test, Rapid Card Agglutination Test

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22
Q

When in infection duration are Geimsa-stained blood smears the best at diagnosing anaplasmosis?

A

Acute disease - not reliable in chronic infections

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23
Q

The RCAT has (low/high) specificity and (low/high) sensitivity for anaplasmosis?

A

high; high

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24
Q

What differentials should be considered with anaplasmosis?

A

Anthrax, babesiosis, bacillary hemoglobinuria, leptospirosis, and poisoning

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25
Q

How is anaplasmosis treated?

A

Tetracycline, chlortetracycline in feed (it is approved)

26
Q

How is anaplasmosis controlled?

A

Control tick and fly population

27
Q

Is there a vaccination for anaplasmosis?

A

Not in the US - kind of
There is one that is licensed in 26 states and Puerto Rico but there have been no USDA controlled clinical trials for efficacy

28
Q

What carries Theileria orientalis?

A

A tick - Haemaphysalis longicornis

29
Q

What does Theileria orientalis cause 1-8 weeks post exposure? Do they recover?

A

Anemia - they recover in 1-2 weeks but remain carriers

30
Q

What is the mortality rate of Theileria orientalis infection?

A

10%

31
Q

T/F: Johne’s is reportable and quarantinable

A

False - it is reportable, but not quarantinable

32
Q

What is incorrect about this statement: The Johne’s disease eradication program is no longer funded by the USDA and is designed to lessen the impact of Johne’s disease.

A

It is a control program, not an eradication program

33
Q

Explain the (simplified) classification scheme for Johne’s.

A

All herds are considered infected
Herds that are classified at levels 1-3 are at the highest risk
Herds that are classified at levels 4-6 are at the lowest risk
Herds that are not in the program are defined as maximum risk herds

34
Q

What testing is done for Johne’s?

A

PCR
Liquid cultures
ELISA, AGID, CF – not on vax animals

35
Q

What tests need to be done for super shredders?

A

qPCR or agar culture with colony counts

They can excrete as many organisms as thousands of lower shedding cows

36
Q

How often are herds tested if they are in levels 1-3 for Johne’s? 4-6?

A

1-3: annual

4-6: 2 years

37
Q

What samples can be used to detect Johne’s?

A

Feces, serum, tissues, milk

38
Q

In herds of 300 or less, what is the testing protocol for Johne’s?

A

All cows 36 months or greater of age need to be tested

39
Q

What does a Johne’s certified veterinarian do in the Johne’s control program?

A

Provide client education
Conduct testing
Develop a risk assessment for each farm enrolled
Develop a management plan to lessen the risk of spread

40
Q

What is the etiologic agent of Johne’s?

A

M. avium subsp. paratuberculosis

41
Q

What biosecurity measures need to be taken against Johne’s?

A

Additions from only low risk herds
Minimize exposure of young stock to manure
Minimize exposure of feed, water, equipment to manure
Minimize exposure to infected animals
Manage colostrum

42
Q

T/F: You should not keep calves from Johne’s positive cows.

A

True - there is transplacental transmission (even though it is not of concern apparently… )

43
Q

What dairy calf management measures need to be taken against Johne’s?

A

Clean, dry maternity area separate from other cows
Immediate weaning of calf
Colostrum needs to be from a single cow that is negative or a healthy low-risk cow
Calves should be fed milk replacer or pasteurized milk

44
Q

What beef herd management needs to be taken against Johne’s?

A

Clean, dry calving area
Minimize cow and calf density
Feeding practices and equipment that minimize exposure of feed to manure
Colostrum from a single source
Raise weaned replacements separate from older animals
Test cows and bulls and cull positives

45
Q

Where does immunization against Johne’s have the biggest impact?

A

In heavily infected herds - it has been demonstrated that the vaccine can dramatically reduce the rate of fecal shedding

46
Q

T/F: The Johne’s vaccination is readily available on the market

A

False- you must obtain it through the state veterinarian

47
Q

Where should the Johne’s vaccination be injected and at what age?

A

<1 month into the brisket

48
Q

What causes bovine tuberculosis?

A

Mycobacterium bovis

49
Q

How is bovine tuberculosis diagnosed?

A

Caudal fold test - used by practicing veterinarians
Comparative cervical
Single cervical
Necropsy and culture

50
Q

The Bovine Tuberculosis _______ program is a state-federal cooperative program where caudal fold testing is done in ______ (population) in ___ year intervals. Testing is also done prior to ____ or _______ inter-or intra-state. Inspection for lesions is done at ______.

A 
Eradication
Dairies
3
Sale or shipment
Slaughter
51
Q

Once reactors to the caudal fold test are found, what must be done?

A

The comperative cervical test is done within 10 days to differentiate between other mycobacterium. If this is positive, the herd moves onto the following step:
Quarantine the herd, test all animals and slaughter positives (or depopulate)
There must be 2 consecutive negative tests at 60-90 day intervals plus a negative test 6 months later

52
Q

What is a tuberculosis accredited free state?

A

There has been no evidence of tuberculosis for 5 consecutive years

53
Q

What is a tuberculosis accredited free herd?

A

They annually have 2 consecutive negative tests on all animals over 24 months of age and any purchased animals under 24 months of age

54
Q

What test is done for cervids (looking for tuberculosis)?

A

Cervid TB Stat-Pak test

Single Cervical Test

55
Q

Who can perform Cervid TB Stat-Pak tests?

A

Trained veterinarians

56
Q

What cervids is the Cervid TB Stat-Pak test approved for?

A

Elk, red deer, white-tailed deer, fallow deer, and reindeer

57
Q

If you do a Cervid TB Stat-Pak test, the cervids are handled (once/twice). If you do a single cervical TB test for cervids, they have to be handled (once/twice).

A

once, twice

58
Q

How many times do non-negatives need to be handled when you do the single cervical TB test for cervids?

A

4x

59
Q

If you have a non-negative result with the Cervid TB Stat-Pak test, what is done?

A

The same serum is used to test with the cervid dual path platform (DPP test).

60
Q

T/F: You cannot do the Stat-Pak and follow up with the single cervical.

A

True

61
Q

T/F: You cannot do the single cervical test and follow up with the Stat-Pak or DPP

A

True

LA Infectious Disease (33 decks)

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