Unit 2 - Anaplasmosis, CNS, Tuberculosis, and Paratuberculosis Flashcards
What are the common bovine CNS diseases?
Listeriosis, rabies, thrombotic meningoencephalitis, polio, nervous coccidiosis, acetonemia, severe anemia, and lead or organophosphate posioning
What clinical signs are indicative of a rabies infection?
Bellowing with an altered pitch
Aggression
Drooling, straining to defecate or urinate, relaxed rectum
Knuckling at fetlock, flaccid penis
What do clinical signs of rabies mimic?
indigestion, esophageal foreign bodies, or milk fever
If the brain is affected by rabies it is the _____ form. If the brainstem is affected by rabies it is the _____ form. If the spinal cord is affected by rabies it is the _____ form.
Furious, dumb, paralytic
How is rabies diagnosed?
Send a bovine head to D-lab (if you can)
To establish a negative rabies diagnosis, you have to have tissues from what two locations of the brain?
Cerebellum and brain stem (complete cross-section)
Do cattle typically get rabies vaccines?
no
AVMA recommends if they are going to be around people frequently or if they are valuable animals then vaccinate
What does the encephalitic form of listeriosis do?
Infects the brain stem following ascension of the trigeminal nerve
What clinical signs are associated with listeriosis?
Depression, ataxia, disorientation Tongue paralysis or paresis (unilateral) Impacted food in the cheek Unilateral ear droop Trigeminal and facial nerve paralysis Almost continuous salivation Circling
How is listeriosis diagnosed?
IHC or histopath
How is listeriosis treated? Prognosis of treatment?
Penicillin or tetracycline
Only about 50% survival
What could be used to treat listeriosis but isn’t approved by AMDUCA and may not work because the clinically affected probably aren’t eating anyway?
Chlortetracycline
Where is anaplasmosis most common?
Southeast, intermountain west, and California
What is the etiologic agent of anaplasmosis?
Anaplasma marginale
How is Anaplasmosis treansmited?
Biting flies and ticks
What can aid in the spread of anaplasmosis?
Dehorning, castrating, and vaccinating
What clinical disease does anaplasmosis cause in calves?
Mild disease - they remain carrriers
What clinical disease does anaplasmosis cause in yearlings?
Severe disease but usually recover
What clinical disease does anaplasmosis cause in adults?
Most severe - mortalities can occur
What clinical signs are associated with anaplasmosis?
Depression, anorexia, fever up to 106 F, anemia, icterus, emaciation, +/- hyperexcitabiltiy, and death
How is anaplasmosis diagnosed?
Giemsa-stained blood smears, PCR, CF test, Rapid Card Agglutination Test
When in infection duration are Geimsa-stained blood smears the best at diagnosing anaplasmosis?
Acute disease - not reliable in chronic infections
The RCAT has (low/high) specificity and (low/high) sensitivity for anaplasmosis?
high; high
What differentials should be considered with anaplasmosis?
Anthrax, babesiosis, bacillary hemoglobinuria, leptospirosis, and poisoning
How is anaplasmosis treated?
Tetracycline, chlortetracycline in feed (it is approved)
How is anaplasmosis controlled?
Control tick and fly population
Is there a vaccination for anaplasmosis?
Not in the US - kind of
There is one that is licensed in 26 states and Puerto Rico but there have been no USDA controlled clinical trials for efficacy
What carries Theileria orientalis?
A tick - Haemaphysalis longicornis
What does Theileria orientalis cause 1-8 weeks post exposure? Do they recover?
Anemia - they recover in 1-2 weeks but remain carriers
What is the mortality rate of Theileria orientalis infection?
10%
T/F: Johne’s is reportable and quarantinable
False - it is reportable, but not quarantinable
What is incorrect about this statement: The Johne’s disease eradication program is no longer funded by the USDA and is designed to lessen the impact of Johne’s disease.
It is a control program, not an eradication program
Explain the (simplified) classification scheme for Johne’s.
All herds are considered infected
Herds that are classified at levels 1-3 are at the highest risk
Herds that are classified at levels 4-6 are at the lowest risk
Herds that are not in the program are defined as maximum risk herds
What testing is done for Johne’s?
PCR
Liquid cultures
ELISA, AGID, CF – not on vax animals
What tests need to be done for super shredders?
qPCR or agar culture with colony counts
They can excrete as many organisms as thousands of lower shedding cows
How often are herds tested if they are in levels 1-3 for Johne’s? 4-6?
1-3: annual
4-6: 2 years
What samples can be used to detect Johne’s?
Feces, serum, tissues, milk
In herds of 300 or less, what is the testing protocol for Johne’s?
All cows 36 months or greater of age need to be tested
What does a Johne’s certified veterinarian do in the Johne’s control program?
Provide client education
Conduct testing
Develop a risk assessment for each farm enrolled
Develop a management plan to lessen the risk of spread
What is the etiologic agent of Johne’s?
M. avium subsp. paratuberculosis
What biosecurity measures need to be taken against Johne’s?
Additions from only low risk herds
Minimize exposure of young stock to manure
Minimize exposure of feed, water, equipment to manure
Minimize exposure to infected animals
Manage colostrum
T/F: You should not keep calves from Johne’s positive cows.
True - there is transplacental transmission (even though it is not of concern apparently… )
What dairy calf management measures need to be taken against Johne’s?
Clean, dry maternity area separate from other cows
Immediate weaning of calf
Colostrum needs to be from a single cow that is negative or a healthy low-risk cow
Calves should be fed milk replacer or pasteurized milk
What beef herd management needs to be taken against Johne’s?
Clean, dry calving area
Minimize cow and calf density
Feeding practices and equipment that minimize exposure of feed to manure
Colostrum from a single source
Raise weaned replacements separate from older animals
Test cows and bulls and cull positives
Where does immunization against Johne’s have the biggest impact?
In heavily infected herds - it has been demonstrated that the vaccine can dramatically reduce the rate of fecal shedding
T/F: The Johne’s vaccination is readily available on the market
False- you must obtain it through the state veterinarian
Where should the Johne’s vaccination be injected and at what age?
<1 month into the brisket
What causes bovine tuberculosis?
Mycobacterium bovis
How is bovine tuberculosis diagnosed?
Caudal fold test - used by practicing veterinarians
Comparative cervical
Single cervical
Necropsy and culture
The Bovine Tuberculosis _______ program is a state-federal cooperative program where caudal fold testing is done in ______ (population) in ___ year intervals. Testing is also done prior to ____ or _______ inter-or intra-state. Inspection for lesions is done at ______.
Eradication Dairies 3 Sale or shipment Slaughter
Once reactors to the caudal fold test are found, what must be done?
The comperative cervical test is done within 10 days to differentiate between other mycobacterium. If this is positive, the herd moves onto the following step:
Quarantine the herd, test all animals and slaughter positives (or depopulate)
There must be 2 consecutive negative tests at 60-90 day intervals plus a negative test 6 months later
What is a tuberculosis accredited free state?
There has been no evidence of tuberculosis for 5 consecutive years
What is a tuberculosis accredited free herd?
They annually have 2 consecutive negative tests on all animals over 24 months of age and any purchased animals under 24 months of age
What test is done for cervids (looking for tuberculosis)?
Cervid TB Stat-Pak test
Single Cervical Test
Who can perform Cervid TB Stat-Pak tests?
Trained veterinarians
What cervids is the Cervid TB Stat-Pak test approved for?
Elk, red deer, white-tailed deer, fallow deer, and reindeer
If you do a Cervid TB Stat-Pak test, the cervids are handled (once/twice). If you do a single cervical TB test for cervids, they have to be handled (once/twice).
once, twice
How many times do non-negatives need to be handled when you do the single cervical TB test for cervids?
4x
If you have a non-negative result with the Cervid TB Stat-Pak test, what is done?
The same serum is used to test with the cervid dual path platform (DPP test).
T/F: You cannot do the Stat-Pak and follow up with the single cervical.
True
T/F: You cannot do the single cervical test and follow up with the Stat-Pak or DPP
True
