Unit 4 - Equine Hepatic/Blood Borne Flashcards

1
Q

What are the common infectious causes of anemia?

A

Equine granulocytic anaplasmosis

Equine infectious anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the FAD cause of anemia?

A

Piroplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the non-infectious causes of anemia?

A
Neonatal isoerythrolysis
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Drug induced - Penicillin, TMS
Toxin induced - red maple leaf
Liver failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the etiologic agent of equine anaplasmosis?

A

Anaplasma phagocytophilum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is equine anaplasmosis transmitted?

A

Bloodborne, primarily ticks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does A. phagocytophilum infect?

A

Neutrophils and eosinophils resulting in the development of morulae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What clinical signs are associated with A. phagocytophilum infection?

A

Fever of unknown origin, anorexia initially
Depression, reluctance to move
Petechiae, icterus, and edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What age group of horses typically gets equine anaplasmosis more often?

A

Older horses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What will you see on CBC in a horse with anaplasmosis?

A

Pancytopenia - leukopenia due to neutropenia and lymphopenia, thrombocytopenia, and anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is equine anaplasmosis diagnosed?

A

Blood smear
PCR
IFA - 4 fold increase in titers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What will you see on blood smear in a patient with anaplasmosis?

A

Morulae present in the neutrophils or eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How is equine anaplasmosis treated?

A

Disease is generally self-limiting if no complications develop
Supportive care
Oxytetracycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is equine anaplasmosis prevented and controlled?

A

Tick control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the etiologic agent of equine infectious anemia?

A

Equine infectious anemia virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How is EIA transmitted?

A

Bloodborne, primarily blood-sucking insects but can be iatrogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the forms of EIA?

A

Acute, common, inapparent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the most common form of EIA?

A

Inapparent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What clinical signs are associated with acute EIA?

A

Fever, depression, weight loss, and edema
Thrombocytopenia
Hemolytic anemia
Initial attack lasts 3-5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What clinical signs are associated with chronic EIA?

A

Short episodes of acute disease
Development of hyperglobulinemia
May develop emaciation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What clinical signs are associated with inapparent EIA?

A

Recurrent or persistent episodes of viremia without obvious clinical disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How is EIA diagnosed?

A

Serology (definitive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What serologic tests can be used to diagnose EIA?

A
Coggins test (AGID)
Competitive ELISA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the requirement for EIA diagnosis?

A

Must be done by USDA accredited veterinarians and sent to USDA accredited labs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How is EIA treated?

A

There is no treatment - euthanize, slaughter, or lifetime quarantine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How is EIA prevented and controlled?

A

Quarantine the premises
Never reuse needles, syringes
Use blood products from test negative animals
Clean and disinfect dental and surgical equipement
General fly control and sanitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

T/F: EIA is not reportable

A

False- it is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the etiologic agent of equine piroplasmosis?

A

Babesia caballi or Theileria equi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

T/F: Equine piroplasmosis is considered a FAD even though it was ‘eradicated’ in the US

A

True - it is still frequently identified

29
Q

How is equine piroplasmosis transmitted?

A

Bloodborne - primarily ticks

30
Q

What cells does equine piroplasmosis infect?

A

RBCs

31
Q

What are the forms of equine piroplasmosis disease?

A

Acute, subclinical, chronic

32
Q

What clinical signs are associated with acute equine piroplasmosis?

A

Fever, lethargy, inappetence, anemia, icterus, hemoglobinuria, incoordination, swelling of the eyelids, and death

33
Q

How are chronic equine piroplasmosis patients developed?

A

The survivors remain chronic carriers

34
Q

Which form of equine piroplasmosis is the most commonly identified in the US?

A

Chronics

35
Q

How is equine piroplasmosis diagnosed?

A

Presence of organism on blood smears
PCR
cELISA (positive with chronic)
CF

36
Q

What are the options for treatment of equine piroplasmosis?

A

Permanent quarantine
Euthanasia
Export from the country
Long-term quarantine and enrollment in USDA-approved high-dose imidocarb treatment program

37
Q

T/F: Equine piroplasmosis is reportable

A

True

38
Q

What are the requirements for all horses entering the US in regards to equine piroplasmosis?

A

They must test negative via both cELISA and CF prior to entry

39
Q

What prevention and control methods are recommended for equine piroplasmosis?

A

Never reuse syringes
Only use blood products from negative test animals
Clean and disinfect dental and surgical equipment
Tick control

40
Q

What are the bacterial infectious causes of hepatitis?

A
Ascending cholangiohepatitis
Clostridium piliforme (foals
41
Q

What are the viral infectious causes of hepatitis?

A

Theiler’s disease

Equine parvovirus-hepatitis

42
Q

What are the non-infectious causes of hepatitis?

A

Toxin induced
Metabolic
Idiopathic
Neoplasia

43
Q

What is the etiologic agent of Tyzzer’s disease?

A

Clostridium piliforme

44
Q

What is the suspect mode of transmission of Tyzzer’s disease?

A

Suspect fecal-oral

45
Q

What clinical signs are associated with Tyzzer’s disease?

A

Acute hepatitis of foals <2 months of age - depression, fever, icterus, and diarrhea progressing to seizures, coma, and death

46
Q

How is Tyzzer’s diagnosed?

A

Post-mortem - acute multifocal hepatitis

47
Q

How is Tyzzer’s treated?

A

It is challenging - antibiotic and aggressive supportive care

48
Q

What is theiler’s disease also known as?

A

Serum hepatitis

49
Q

T/F: Theiler’s disease is the most common cause of acute hepatitis and liver failure

A

True

50
Q

How is Theiler’s disease transmitted?

A

It is associated with administration of equine biologic products and also associated with contact with serum hepatitis cases

51
Q

T/F: There are 4 causes of Theiler’s disease

A

true

52
Q

What are the four viruses recently reported to be associated with Theiler’s disease?

A

Equine parvovirus-hepatitis
Non-primate hepacivirus
Theiler’s disease associated virus
Equine pegivirus

53
Q

What clinical signs are associated with Theiler’s disease?

A

Acute onset of hepatic failure
Depression, inappetence, icterus, photoactive dermatitis, hepatic encephalopathy

Acute death is possible

54
Q

What chemistry abnormalities are associated with Theiler’s disease?

A

Increased bilirubin, bile acids, and liver enzymes

55
Q

How is Theiler’s disease diagnosed?

A

Liver biopsy
PCR panel
Necropsy

56
Q

What will the liver look like at necropsy in a Theiler’s disease patient?

A

Dish-rag liver

57
Q

How is Theiler’s disease treated?

A

Supportive care only

58
Q

How is Theiler’s disease prevented and controlled?

A

Screening of commercial blood products/donors

Close monitoring of contact cases

59
Q

What is the etiologic agent of Lyme Disease?

A

Borrelia burgdorfori

60
Q

Where is lyme disease widespread?

A

In the northern hemisphere

61
Q

What transmits lyme disease?

A

Larval and nymph stages of Ixodes ticks

62
Q

What clinical signs are associated with lyme disease?

A

Non-specific signs

Most commonly reported signs are lameness in multiple limbs, hyperesthesia

63
Q

When do clinical signs of lyme disease occur?

A

During the chronic disease stage - 2-5 months or longer after infection

64
Q

What rare clinical syndromes have the most evidence to be caused by lyme disease?

A

Neuroborrellosis, uveitis, cutaneous pseudolymphoma

65
Q

How is lyme disease diagnosed?

A

Serology: IFAT, ELISA, Western blot, C6 SNAP test, multiplex ELISA

66
Q

What is the confirmatory diagnostic test for lyme disease?

A

Western blot

67
Q

T/F: A positive test without vaccination proves causation while a negative result is highly suggestive that it is not the cause of disease.

A

False- all of the statement is correct except that a positive test without vaccination means there has been exposure but that it was not the cause of the disease

68
Q

How is lyme disease treated?

A

Ideal treatment is unknown - tetracyclines, B-lactams

Neuroborreliosis has a poor response

69
Q

How is lyme disease prevented and controlled?

A

Tick control

Extra-label vaccination