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LA Infectious Disease > Unit 2 - Small Ruminant Respiratory + CNS? > Flashcards

Unit 2 - Small Ruminant Respiratory + CNS? Flashcards

1
Q

What type of breeders are sheep and goats?

A

Seasonally polyestrous - short day breeders

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2
Q

When does breeding of sheep and goats typically start?

A

In July

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3
Q

When is maximum fertility for sheep and goats approximately?

A

October

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4
Q

How long is gestation in sheep?

A

144-151 days

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5
Q

How long is gestation in goats?

A

150 days

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6
Q

What are the main small ruminant respiratory diseases?

A 
Mannheimia haemolytica
Bibersteinia trehalosi
Pasteurella multocida
Histophilus somni (goats)
Mycoplasmas
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
Trueperella pyogenes
PI3
RSV
Adenoviruses
Reoviruses
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7
Q

What does Mannheimia haemolytica cause in lambs?

A

Neonatal lamb septicemia

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8
Q

What lesions will be found at post mortem in lambs with Mannheimia haemolytica infection?

A

Patchy or consolidated area in the lungs, hemorrhages on serosal surfaces, and areas of necrosis

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9
Q

What is the major predisposing factor to neonatal septicemia?

A

Poor ventilation

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10
Q

How is neonatal septicemia prevented?

A

Have good ventilation, bedding/cleanliness/moisture, and shearing ewes

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11
Q

How does shearing ewes aid in prevention of neonatal septicemia?

A

It reduces the moisture in the barn, makes teats more accessible, and allows for more ewes in lambing areas

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12
Q

How is neonatal septicemia treated?

A

Naxcel is approved for respiratory infections
Tilmicosin
LA200

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13
Q

What does Mannheimia haemolytica cause in feeder lambs?

A

Enzootic and sporadic pneumonia

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14
Q

What are the predisposing factors for feeder lamb pneumonia?

A

Crowding, processing, stress, and dust

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15
Q

What clinical signs are associated with feeder lamb pneumonia?

A

High fever, variable coughing, and rapid respiration

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16
Q

What will you find on necropsy in Mannheimia haemolytica pneumonia lambs?

A

Fibrino-hemorrhagic pneumonia, pleuritis, and pericarditis

Anterior and ventral areas in the lungs

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17
Q

How do you prevent respiratory disease in sheep and goats?

A

Decrease stress, crowding, dust, etc.
Improve air quality
Immunization for some agents

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18
Q

What antibiotics are approved in small ruminants?

A

Ceftiofur (Naxcel) - sheep and goat respiratory
Tilmicosin - sheep respiratory; kills goats
Procaine Pen-G- Sheep pneumonia
Aureomycin (doesn’t really work) - Campy abortion
Neomycin oral - enteritis in sheep and goats
Terramycin ophthalmic - sheep

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19
Q

What does Bibersteinia trehalosi cause in small ruminants?

A

Septicemia in feeder lambs

Respiratory disease in goats

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20
Q

What does Mycoplasma ovipneumoniae cause?

A

A chronic pneumonia/cough

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21
Q

What is M. ovipneumoniae often secondary to or vise-versa?

A

Mannheimia

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22
Q

What predisposes small ruminants to M. ovipneumoniae?

A

Poor ventilation

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23
Q

T/F: Persistent coughs can result in rectal prolapses in small ruminants.

A

True

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24
Q

How do you prevent and control M. ovipneumoniae?

A

Improve air quality

There is no immunization available

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25
Q

How is M. ovipneumoniae treated?

A

You can try antimicrobials, but the damage has already been done

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26
Q

What does M. capricolum subsp. capripneumoniae cause?

A

Contagious caprine pleuropneumonia (CCPP)

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27
Q

CCPP is a very ______ respiratory disease. Transmission is ______. CCPP is characterized by a severe __________ that is confined to the ______ cavity.

A

Aggressive
Rapid
Pleuropneumonia
Thoracic

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28
Q

What clinical signs are associated with peracute Mycoplasma mycoides subspecies mycoides LC infection in goats?

A

High fever, opisthotonus, death within 1-3 days, polysynovitis, and CNS signs in young kids

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29
Q

What clinical signs are associated with acute to subacute cases of M. mycoides subsp. mycoides LC in goats?

A

Polysynovitis and polyserositis

Fibrinous interstitial, broncho-or pleuropneumonia +/- mastitis

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30
Q

What differential should be considered with peractue forms of M. mycoides LC infection?

A

CAEV

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31
Q

What differential should be considered with acute to subacute forms of M. mycoides LC infection?

A

CCPP

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32
Q

What clinical disease has C. abortus been associated with in small ruminants?

A

Respiratory disease, conjunctivitis, and polyarthritis

Abortions as well, but we will get to that later

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33
Q

T/F: Ovine adenovirus causes severe respiratory disease in sheep

A

False - it produces a mild or inapparent disease in lambs that is most likely to predispose them to an infection with another agent

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34
Q

What does Parainfluenza 3 cause?

A

Acute respiratory disease in sheep

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35
Q

T/F: The bovine vaccine provides some protection against PI-3 in small ruminants

A

True

36
Q

T/F: Respiratory syncytial virus is a serious respiratory pathogen where death is sudden and immunity is rare

A

False - Up to 50% of sheep have antibody

It may predispose small ruminants to respiratory disease

37
Q

What does Respiratory syncytial virus do on a cellular level?

A

Syncytia in alveoar macrophages

38
Q

What does Reovirus cause?

A

Experimental rhinitis, conjunctivitis, diarrhea with development of catarrhal or purulent pneumonia, pleuritis and pericarditis

39
Q

What causes ovine progressive pneumonia (OPP)?

A

Non-onogenic lentivirus

40
Q

What clinical signs are associated with OPP?

A

Progressive loss of condition, emaciation, and dyspnea
Fatal once they develop clinical signs
Hard bag
Encephalitic disease - slowly progressive ataxia, head tilt, and trembling of the lips

41
Q

What lesions does OPP cause?

A

Massive lymphocytic infiltration of the lungs that may weigh 2-3x normal

42
Q

How is OPP diagnosed?

A

Clinical signs, AGID test, cELISA, and PCR

43
Q

What OPP diagnostic method is good for screening whole flocks?

A

AGID

44
Q

What OPP diagnostic method may miss early infections?

A

cELISA

45
Q

What OPP diagnostic method detects viral RNA and is expensive?

A

PCR

46
Q

How is OPP prevented/controlled?

A

Test and cull

Prevent colostral transmission from positive ewes to lambs

47
Q

How is caprine arthritis-encephalitis (CAEV) spread?

A

Colostrum and milk

48
Q

What population of goats gets the encephalitic form of CAEV?

A

Young kids - you first see clinical signs 1-4 months of age

49
Q

What lesions does the encephalitic form of CAEV cause?

A

Loss of white matter architecture and replacement with gitter cells, lymphocytes, and debris

50
Q

What clinical signs does the encephalitic form CAEV cause?

A

Ataxia, posterior paresis, tremors, abnormal posture, tetraparesis or paralysis
They may be stunted and have interstitial pneumonia

51
Q

What population of goats get the arthritic form of CAEV?

A

Adults > 1 year of age

52
Q

What lesions does the arthritic form of CAEV cause?

A

Proliferative synovitis - villous hypertrophy, synovial cell hyperplasia, and infiltration by mononuclear cells
Less severe CNS

53
Q

How is CAEV diagnosed?

A 
Characteristic lesions
cELISA
IHC
AGID
PCR
54
Q

How do you treat the CNS form of CAEV? Arthritic form?

A

CNS - not very successful

Arthritic - supportive care and good nutrition

55
Q

How do you control CAEV?

A

Test and cull

Prevent colostral transmission

56
Q

What is the etiologic agent of pulmonary adenomatosis?

A

Type D Retrovirus

57
Q

What population of small ruminants is affected by pulmonary adenomatosis?

A

Sheep of all ages - slow onset, CS of all ages are susceptible
Rare in goats

58
Q

How is pulmonary adenomatosis transmitted?

A

Via virus in nasal secretions

59
Q

What clinical signs are associated with pulmonary adenomatosis?

A

Progressive respiratory signs with fatal secondary pneumonia

60
Q

What lesions are associated with pulmonary adenomatosis?

A

Lungs that are extensively infiltrated with tumors

61
Q

How is pulmonary adenomatosis diagnosed?

A

Clinical signs

Histopath - adenocarcinomas from type 2 alveolar epithelial cells

62
Q

How do you treat pulmonary adenomatosis?

A

There is no treatment

63
Q

How is pulmonary adenomatosis controlled?

A

Slaughter

64
Q

What causes enzootic nasal adenocarcinoma in sheep? Goats?

A

Sheep - ENTV1

Goats - ENTV2`

65
Q

How are enzootic nasal tumor viruses spread?

A

By contact with nasal secretions of infected animals

66
Q

T/F: Enzootic nasal adenocarcinomas tend not to metastasize, but are routinely fatal.

A

True

67
Q

How are enzootic nasal adenocarcinomas diagnosed?

A

Radiograph or endoscopic exam
PCR
IHC

68
Q

What codons determine the susceptibility of a sheep to developing the most common strains of Scrapie?

A

Codon 136 and 171

69
Q

What genotypes for codon 136 are susceptible to Scrapie? Not susceptible?

A

AV and VV

AA is not susceptible

70
Q

What genotypes for codon 171 are susceptible to scrapie? Not susceptible?

A

QQ, QH, and HH are susceptible

RR, RQ, and RH are not susceptible

71
Q

In what population of sheep are variant scrapie strains found?

A

In sheep with ‘resistant’ genotypes

72
Q

How may variant scrapie strains arise?

A

From spontaneous mutation

73
Q

Goats with serine at codon ______ and lysine at ______ have been recognized as more resistant or immune to scrapie.

A

146, 222

Those w/o are highly susceptible

74
Q

How is scrapie transmitted?

A

Transplacental

Contact with fetal membranes is considered to be the highest risk factor

75
Q

What disease is similar to Scrapie, transmits easier, and can be transmitted via the fecal-oral route, urine, saliva, carcass decomposition, and possibly semen transmission?

A

Chronic Wasting Disease of Deer and Elk

76
Q

Why are extensive decontamination methods required to control CWD?

A

Because prions can build up in confinement facilities

77
Q

What clinical signs are associated with Scrapie?

A 
Insidious onset of subtle behavior changes
Rubbing wool off behind elbows and base of tail
Nibbling of the legs
Ataxia/unsteadiness
Hopping gait
Wasting
Unable to rise
Blindness
78
Q

How is Scrapie prevented and controlled?

A

Use RR rams and S146/K122 bucks
Do not add ewes to a flock unless genotyped
Slaughter and proper disposal of positive sheep
Trace-back

79
Q

What initiates the scrapie flock certification program?

A

Sheep producers

80
Q

Who controls the scrapie eradication program?

A

State-federal cooperative program

81
Q

What are the basic rules for scrapie animal ID tags?

A

An ID is required for the following:
When sheep leave a farm
All sheep over 18 months of age
All ewe lambs not sold directly to slaughter
All breeding animals except low-risk commercial goats
Goats in contact with sheep
Sheep and goats going to exhibitions/fairs except wethers

When in doubt - tag

82
Q

How is scrapie diagnosed?

A

Clinical signs
Histopath on the brain stem and spinal cord
Blood test
IHC on rectal biopsy

83
Q

How does the Protein Misfolding Cyclic Amplification (PMCA) work?

A

The sample is mixed with normal brain tissue
If present, prion protein acts as a template and chains of abnormal protein form
Sample is exposed to ultrasound to break up protein chains
Sample has many more templates and is allowed to form new chains (amplification)

84
Q

What sampling programs are available for Scrapie?

A

Regulatory Scrapie Slaughter Surveillance
Vets and owners can submit samples for testing
Scrapie Flock Certification program

85
Q

Is the US scrapie free?

A

Not according to OIE

LA Infectious Disease (33 decks)

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