Trauma Flashcards

1
Q

what is resuscitation?

A

the process of correcting physiological disorders in an acutely unwell or injured patient

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2
Q

what does resuscitation involve?

A

all trauma patients get high flow oxygen before ABCDE get general impression major trauma - blood is normally fluid of choice

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3
Q

what are the mechanisms of injury likely to result in resuscitation?

A

road traffic collisions
- account for 1/3 of all major trauma presentations
- falls
- interpersonal violence
- suicide
- work place accidents
- trauma
- most common in young men 18-40

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4
Q

What are the aims of treatment in high energy injuries?

A

e.g. road traffic accidents (RTA) or falling from heights save life prevent serious systemic complications secondary aims (not as important)preventing pain and loss of function from fractures and dislocations

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5
Q

what can quick medical and surgical treatment in the golden hour prevent death from?

A

-Airway compromise
-Severe head injuries
-Severe chest injuries
- internal organ rupture
- fractures associated with significant blood loss (pelvis and femur)

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6
Q

Airway assessment in trauma

A

sound of breathing can indicate blockage ability to speak indicates clear airway need to protect the C-spine

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7
Q

Breathing and ventilation assessment in trauma

A

high flow O2 and tight fitting mask for all major trauma patients pulse oximetry need to rule out pneumothorax (including tension)haemothorax pulmonary contusion flail chest

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8
Q

Circulation and bleeding control in trauma

A

pulse and ECG to assessurinary output for fluid balance (minimum 30ml/hr)do they look well perfused all major trauma patients given 2 litres of IV crystalloid initially get access - bilateral large bore peripheral venous access

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9
Q

Potential circulation issues in trauma

A

Hypovolaemic shock
- tachycardia, reduced BP, confusion/lethargy, fluid resuscitation exsanguinating haemothorax
- May need thoracotomy
- Blunt penetrating abdominal trauma
- Check for internal bleeding pelvic fracture
- Can cause substantial blood loss obvious external bleeding
- Major peripheral arterial/venous bleeding - temporary tourniquet
- Haemorrhagic shock - can be concealed in older people and children
- Often visible site of injury

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10
Q

Disability assessment in trauma

A

Glasgow trauma score 15 - best score 3 - worst score assesses motor response, verbal response and eye opening with a score from 1 to 5 used to prevent secondary brain injury, get early neurosurgical intervention

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11
Q

Exposure in trauma

A

make sure no injuries are missed - keep warm to avoid hypothermiawarmed IV fluids should be given

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12
Q

what tests are done in major trauma after the primary survey?

A

Trauma series of x-rays
Log roll patient look for signs of spinal fracture
PR exam
Check c-spine injury
Urinary catheter
NG tube blood tests

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13
Q

what is the secondary survey?

A

-After primary survey when patient is stable
- ABCDE 2ndry survey = head-to-toe examination to detect other injuries,
- (Whole body CT?)
- Get more thorough history, PMH and fasting status

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14
Q

What is polytrauma

A

-More than 1 major long bone injured

-Or major fracture is associated with significant chest/abdominal trauma
-Need early stabilisation to avoid SIRS, ARDS and hypovolaemia»

All of which can lead to MODS (multi-organ dysfunction syndrome) and potential death

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15
Q

what is a fracture?

A

a break in the bone can be because of direct trauma (direct blow) but normally indirect trauma e.g. twisting/bending forces

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16
Q

What are the 2 types of fracture?

A

partial/incomplete e.g. unicortical stress fracturecomplete breaks

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17
Q

what kind of mechanisms of injury cause high and low energy fractures?

A

High energy: RTA, GSW, blast, fall from height

Low energy - trip, fall, sports injury

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18
Q

Primary bone healing?

A

-Occurs when minimal fracture gap (less than 1mm)
Bone bridges the gap with new bone formed by osteoblasts this happens
Eg healing of hairline fractures and when the fractures are fixed with compression screws and plates

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19
Q

Secondary bone healing?

A

-Majority of fractures gap at the fracture site more than 1mm

Involves an inflammatory response - recruitment of pluropotential stem cells (can differentiate into any cell)

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20
Q

what is the process of secondary bone healing?

A

Fracture occurs
>
Haematoma occurs with inflammation from damaged tissue .
>
macrophages and osteoclasts remove debris and reabsorb the bone ends fibroblasts and new blood vessels cause the formation of granulation tissue
>
chondroblasts form cartilage (soft callus, formed by the 2nd/3rd week)
>osteoblasts lay down bone matrix (type 1 collagen) - endochondral ossification immature woven bone (hard callus, takes 6-12 weeks to appear) is formed by calcium mineralisation remodelling, organisation along lines of stress into lamellar bone

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21
Q

Secondary bone healing needs…

A

good blood supply for oxygen nutrients and stem cells requires little movement or stress (compression or tension)

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22
Q

What causes atrophic non-union to occur?

A

lack of blood supply no movement - internal fixation with fracture gap fracture gap is too big tissue is trapped in the fracture gap

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23
Q

hypertrophic non-union occurs when

A

excessive movement (no chance for fracture to bridge the gap)abundant hard callus formation

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24
Q

things that impair fracture healing?

A

smoking (causes vasospasm)
vascular disease
chronic ill health
malnutrition

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25
Q

what is a transverse fracture?

A

due to bending force - may angulate or cause rotational malalignment

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26
Q

what is an oblique fracture?

A

due to sheer force - fall from height, deacceleration can be fixed by internal fragmentary screws tends to shorten may angulate

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27
Q

What is a spiral fracture?

A

due to torsional (twisting) forcescan be fixed with interfragmentary screws mostly unstable to rotational forces can also angulate

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28
Q

what is a comminuted fracture?

A

Fractures with 3 or more fragments generally due to high energy injury or poor bone quality
May be substantial soft tissue swelling and periosteal damage with reduced blood supply to the fracture site which impairs healing very unstable tend to be surgically stabilised

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29
Q

what is a segmental fracture?

A

bone is fractured into 2 separate places very unstable needs stabilised with long rods or plates

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30
Q

what does valgus and varus mean?

A

valgus - anything which goes away from the midline varus - anything which goes towards the midline

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31
Q

FOOSH

A

falling on outstretched hand- ask about hand dominance X-ray - look for rough edges, cortex break fracture can appear more white (bone on bone) or darker (space)

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32
Q

limb fracture management?

A

reduce - get as close to original position as possible retain - keep it there rehabilitate - restore function

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33
Q

Operative options for fracture (least - most invasive)

A

plaster cast - after reducing it fixation
- K-wire open reduction and internal fixation
- Plate and screw
- Application of an external fixator - only if infection or too swollen
- Eventually remove K-wires - leave plates and screws in

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34
Q

intra-articular fracture

A

look for any reduced joint space (impaction) may need bone graft

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35
Q

why do you want to get fractures involving the joint surface as they were

A

to avoid OA

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36
Q

BOAST guidelines for open fractures

A
  • limb should be realigned and splinted - remove gross contamination, dress with saline-soaked gauze and cover with occlusive film - combined orthoplastic response- debridement - definitive soft tissue closure/ coverage within 72 hrs of injury if it can’t be performed at time of the debridement
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37
Q

what is the initial management of a long bone fracture?

A

Analgesia (usually IV morphine)
Splintage/immobilisation of the limb
Investigation - X ray if fracture is grossly displaced, obvious dislocation or skin damage because of excessive pressure
- Do reduction of the fracture before waiting for an X-ray

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38
Q

definitive management for undisplaced, minimally displaced and minimally angulated fractures which are considered to be stable long bone fractures

A

non-operative with splintage/immobilisation then rehab

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39
Q

definitive management for displaced or angulated long bone fractures

A

reduce under anaesthetic - closed reduction and cast, serial X rays

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40
Q

definitive management for unstable injuries

A

surgical stabilisation K-wiresplates and screws intermedullary nails external fixation

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41
Q

definitive management for unstable extra-articular diaphyseal fractures

A

open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) -

Using plates or screws ORIF should be avoided when soft tissues are swollen, blood supply to fracture site is weak or where ORIF may cause extensive blood loss or plate fixation may be prominent e.g. tibia

Do a closed reduction and internal fixation with intramedullary nail or extenal fixation which aims for 2ndry bone healing - risk of infection and loosening

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42
Q

definitive management for displaced intra-articular fractures

A

ORIF using wires, screws and platesmay need joint replacement or arthrodesis

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43
Q

definitive management of long bone fractures in elderly people with osteoporosis and dementia

A

higher risk of complications of surgery failure of fixation failure to rehabilitate satisfactorily - elderly patients also tend to have a high functional demand so surgery is usually avoided

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44
Q

early local complications of fractures

A

Compartment syndrome
Vascular injury with ischaemia
Nerve compression/ injury
Skin necrosis

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45
Q

early systemic complications of fractures

A

Hypovolaemia
Fat embolism
Shock
ARDS
Acute renal failure
SIRS
MODS
Death

46
Q

late local complications of fractures

A

Stiffness
Loss of function
CRPS (chronic regional pain syndrome)
Infection
Non-union
Mal-union
Volkmann’s ischaemic contracture
Post-traumatic OA
DVT

47
Q

late systemic complications

A

PE

48
Q

what is compartment syndrome?

A

a serious complication and surgical emergency groups of muscles are bound in tight fascial compartments with limited capacity for swelling

49
Q

pathology of compartment syndrome

A

rising pressure compresses the venous system causing congestion within the muscle and secondary ischaemia as oxygenated arterial blood can’t supply the congested muscle

50
Q

what are the symptoms and signs of compartment syndrome

A

Severe pain
Parasthesiae
Sensory loss
Increased pain on passive stretching of the involved muscle
Severe pain outwith the anticipated severity of the clinical context
Limb will be tensely swollen and the muscle tender to touch

51
Q

What does loss of pulses mean in compartment syndrome?

A

end-stage ischaemia - diagnosed too late

52
Q

what is the treatment for compartment syndrome?

A

Removal of any tight bandages for temporary relief
Emergency fasciotomies involving incisions through skin and fascia to relieve

53
Q

what happens if compartment syndrome is left untreated?

A

ischaemic muscle will necrose causing fibrotic contracture (Volkmann’s ischaemic contracture) poor function

54
Q

what are the nerve injuries associated with a fracture?

A

neurapraxia axonotmesis

55
Q

what is neurotmesis?

A

complete transection of a nerve requiring surgical repair for any chance of recovery of function

56
Q

what is neurapraxia?

A

temporary conduction defect from compression/ stretch resolves over time with full recovery (can take up to 28 days)

57
Q

what is axantmesis?

A

nerve injury sustained due to compression/ stretch or from a higher degree of force with death of the long nerve cell axons distal to the point of injury die

58
Q

what nerve injury is associated with a colles fracture

A

acute medial nerve compression (carpal tunnel syndrome)

59
Q

anterior dislocation of the shoulder

A

axillary nerve palsy

60
Q

humeral shaft fracture

A

radial nerve palsy (in spiral groove)

61
Q

supracondylar fracture of the elbow

A

median nerve injury (usually anterior interosseous branch)

62
Q

posterior dislocation of the hip

A

sciatic nerve injury

63
Q

‘bumper’ injury to lateral knee

A

common peroneal (fibular) nerve palsy

64
Q

what are the vascular injuries which can be associated with fractures

A

Uncommon
-Significant causes can happen with both blunt and penetrating trauma

65
Q

potential management of a vascular injury caused by a fracture

A

May need an urgent angiography

Emergency can make temporary restoration of circulation with vascular shunt/repair with bypass graft or endoluminal stent need to do skeletal stabilisation with internal/external fixation to protect repair from shearing force

66
Q

vascular risk with knee dislocation

A

risk of popliteal artery injury

67
Q

vascular risk with paediatric supracondylar fracture of the elbow

A

risk of brachial artery injury

68
Q

vascular risk with shoulder trauma

A

risk of axillary artery injury

69
Q

vascular risk with pelvic fractures

A

Risk of life-threatening haemorrhage from arterial/ venous bleeding
Ongoing haemorrhage can be controlled by angiographic embolisation performed by interventional radiologists

70
Q
A
71
Q

how do you describe a fracture of the long bone?

A

the site of the bone - proximal, middle, distal 3rd type of bone involved - diaphyseal (shaft), metaphyseal, epiphyseal

72
Q

intra-articular fracture

A

fracture at the end of the long bone (metaphyseal/epiphyseal) which extends into the joint greater risk of stiffness, pain and post-traumatic OA esp. if residual displacement resulting in an uneven articular surface or extra-articular

73
Q

translation fracture displacement

A

of the distal fragment can be described as anteriorly or posteriorly (volar/palmar or dorsal in the forearm and hand)medially or laterally (ulnar and radial in the forearm)can be estimated in relation to the width of the bone 25% etc 100% displaced - an off-ended fracture

74
Q

angulation fracture displacement

A

direction in which the distal fragment points towards and the degree of deformity can be described as anteriorly or posteriorly or medially or laterally measures in degrees from the longitudinal axis of the diaphysis of the long bone gives info of the direction of forces involved in the injury and info about the reversed direction of forces required to reduce a fractureresidual displacement and angulation can cause deformity - loss of function and abnormal pressure leads to post-traumatic OA minor degrees of displacement/ angulation may be alright depending on the bone involved and the site of fracture

75
Q

rotation displacement of fracture

A

of distal fragment relative to the proximal fragment clinically important rotational malalignment is poorly tolerated and needs to be corrected fracture is more unstable

76
Q

what is optimum fracture management dependent on?

A

site of fracture position stability related to the fracture pattern and degree of initial displacement

77
Q

what are the clinical signs of a fracture?

A

localised bony (marked) tenderness NOT diffused mild tendernessswelling deformity crepitus (bone ends grating with an unstable fracture)

78
Q

when to x ray a suspected fracture?

A

if a patient can’t weight bear on an injured lower limb then x-ray painful area x-ray if any clinical signs

79
Q

How is a fracture assessed?

A

Radiographs (X-rays)
-usually an AP and lateral view,
Tomogram - moving X-ray, takes images of complex bones not really used anymore except for diagnosing mandibular fractures
CT - assess fractures of complex bones can help to determine the degree of articular damage and help surgical planning for complex intra-articular fractures
MRI - used to detect occult fractures where there is a clinical suspicion but a normal
X-ray Technetium bone scans: used to detect stress fractures, usually fail to show up on an X-ray until a hard callus begins to appear

80
Q

signs a fracture is healing?

A

resolution of pain/function no point tenderness no local oedema resolution of movement at fracture site

81
Q

signs of fracture non-union?

A

ongoing pain/function ongoing oedema movement at fracture site may see bridging callus on X-ray may need CT to confirm

82
Q

what is a delated union?

A

fracture that has not healed within the expected time many factors affect the rate of healing - tibia is one of the slowest healing bones - femoral shaft fractures take 3-4 months to heal, metaphyseal fractures tend to heal more quickly than cortical fractures infection can delay union antibiotics might help union - might not

83
Q

what is hypertrophic non-union?

A

due to instability and excessive motion at the fracture site

84
Q

what is atrophic non-union?

A

due to rigid fixation with a fracture gap, lack of blood supply to the fracture site, chronic disease or soft tissue interposition

85
Q

what can cause fracture non-union?

A

infection some fractures are prone to problems with healing due to poor blood supply e.g. scaphoid wrist fractures, distal clavicle fractures, subtrochanteric fractures of the femur, Jones fracture of the fifth metatarsalSome intra-articular fractures may not unite due to synovial fluid inhibiting healing if a fracture gap exists (intracapsular hip fracture, scaphoid fracture)

86
Q

who is likely to get a local DVT?

A

after pelvic/major lower limb fractures with a period of immobility prophylaxis (LMWH) to all at-risk patients suspected DVT needs duplex scanning and anticoagulation

87
Q

what is fracture disease?

A

Stiffness and weakness due to the fracture and splintage in cast, self-limitingmay need physiotherapy

88
Q

where does AVN occur post fracture?

A

fractures in the femoral neck, scaphoid and talus not all cases are symptomatic but many cases need surgery (THR if hip, athrodesis)

89
Q

what is post-traumatic OA?

A

can occur due to intra-articular fracture ligamentous instability or fracture malunion treated with analgesia bracing/splinting arthrodesis joint replacement

90
Q

what is CRPS?

A

chronic pain response after injury
Burning/throbbing sensitivity to stimuli which isn’t usually painful
Chronic swelling
Stiffness
Painful movement
Skin colour changes

Type 1 - caused by a peripheral nerve injury Type 2 - not caused by a peripheral nerve injury, most cases

91
Q

what is the management of CRPS?

A

anlagesics antidepressants anticonvulsants steroids TENS machines physio lidocaine patches sympathetic nerve blocking injections

92
Q

how is infected fracture fixation managed?

A

antibiotics with/without surgical washout may need surgery to remove implants and for debridement of the infected bone

93
Q

causes of open fractures

A

spike of fractured bone from within puncturing the skin laceration of the skin from tearing/penetrating injury

94
Q

why is treatment of an open fracture to avoid infection is so important

A

Infection can result in non-union, and is difficult to get rid offBone infection of open fracture of a long bone often needs extensive removal of bone with shortening which may require complex surgery to lengthen the bone Some infected non-unions lead to amputation (presence of vascular injuries increases the risk of amputation)

95
Q

how is infection of an open fracture prevented initially?

A

IV broad spectrum antibiotics in A&E
-Flucloxacillin:gram +ve
-Gentamicin:gram -ves
-Metronidazole: anaerobes (if soil contamination)

Sterile/antiseptic soaked dressing before fracture is splinted

96
Q

how is an open fracture managed ongoingly?

A

Need frequent wound inspections

Open fractures usually stabilised with internal/external fixation

Wounds may require skin graft
Skin graft will NOT take on bare tendon, bone or any exposed metalwork, also might not take fat (due to poor vascularisation)

Muscle, fascia, granulation tissue, paratenon and periosteum can accept a skin graft if there is doubt over viability of soft tissues/if the wound is heavily contaminated then leave the wound open to allow ongoing infection to drain out and then return to theatre for further debridement in 48 hrs (necrotic tissue will have declared itself by this time)

97
Q

what is a mangled extremity?

A

limb with injury to 3/4 systems in the extremity many damaging outcomes may need early amputation

98
Q

how should dislocations be managed?

A

Any dislocation should be REDUCED as soon as possible. Most are done by closed manipulation under sedation and analgesia/sometimes general/local anaesthetics. Delayed presentations (e.g. in alcoholics) increases the risk of needing an open reduction and recurrent instability.

99
Q

who gets dislocations?

A

May occur after significant trauma but people with hyper mobility (inc. Ehlers Danlos and Marfan’s) might get a dislocation with an innocuous injury, some can voluntarily dislocate joints (e.g. shoulder). Dislocations can occur with associated injuries: tendon tears, nerve injury, vascular injury, compartment syndrome.

100
Q

management of recurrent dislocation?

A

soft tissue repair/reconstruction or bony surgical procedures

101
Q

how to manage fracture-dislocations?

A

may reduce with closed reduction ORIF may be needed if reduction cannot be achieved due to a bony fragment preventing congruent reduction or joint instability

102
Q

grading ligament ruptures

A

grade 1 - sprain
grade 2 - partial tear
grade 3 complete tear

103
Q

how to treat soft tissue injuries

A

RICE
followed by early movement to prevent stiffness

104
Q

tendon tears able to be conservatively treated?

A

Achilles tendon, rotator cuff, long head of biceps brachia, distal biceps) though may need repair to restore function

105
Q

complete tears of… need surgical repair

A

-tendons for function: quadriceps tendon, patellar tendon

tendon injuries in the hand - need surgical repair

106
Q

what is septic arthritis?

A

an emergency
Bacterial infections can irreversibly damage hyaline cartilage within days

107
Q

who gets septic arthritis?

A

Uncommon in adults but important so should be excluded with any unexplained acute mono arthritis

Young, elderly, IVDUs and immunocompromised patients

108
Q

What is the pathology of septic arthritis?

A

pathogens usually spread to the joint via the blood/from infection of adjacent tissuesSuspect endocarditis esp. if more than one joint/bone is involved (due to septic emboli)

109
Q

how does septic arthritis present?

A

Acute onset
Severe painful red hot swollen and tender joint
Severe pain on any movement
Sometimes history of direct penetration with a sharp object, can also occur following intra-articular surgery

110
Q

pathogens causing septic arthritis

A

Staph aureus = most common cause in adults

Streptococci = second most common cause

Haemophilus influenzae = most common in children

Nesseria gonorrhoea = in young adults, rare

Escherichia coli - in the elderly, IVDUs, very ill patients

111
Q

how is septic arthritis diagnosed?

A

aspirate under aseptic technique before giving antibiotics to confirm it and to identify causative organism

112
Q

how is septic arthritis treated?

A

surgical washout either via open surgery or arthroscopically, can do repeat aspirations esp. in children, response to treatment is based on clinical findings and serial CRP