TRAINING BULLETINS Flashcards
An Officer drilling on the use of Sound Powered Telephones at Under River tunnels was incorrect when he made which statement?
A) If using an amplifier to increase volume, place the talk level knob at the highest setting.
B) When dedicating members to a SPT, each member shall be paired with another member who will monitor HT communications.
C) An Under River tunnel system will include coverage in both tubes in both directions and one location on both sides of the tunnel, typically the newest emergency exit.
D) There is usually a connection from one SPT system to an adjacent system. (Example - Under River tunnel to a nearby subway station)
E) In Under River tunnels, the SPT connectors are found at standpipe outlets, about 200 feet apart. Notify the IC of the standpipe outlet number in order to identify the incident location.
ANSWER: D) There is usually a connection from one SPT system to an adjacent system. (Example - Under River tunnel to a nearby subway station. (INCORRECT STATEMENT)
- There is USUALLY NO CONNECTION from one SPT system to another.
(TB Tools 31)
Members are drilling on the 6x9 tour on FAST Unit operations. When discussing the PAK Tracker, which statement made by the junior member was the only correct statement made?
A) The maximum range from an SCBA’s transmitter to a PAK Tracker handheld receiver is approximately 450 feet line of sight.
B) While the PAK Tracker can receive and store up to 48 SCBA identities, the LCD display screen is only large enough to display one line of information.
C) It is important to understand that a PAK Tracker receiver can only lock on to two SCBA’s at a time.
D) Use the PAK Tracker in a sweeping motion, very rapidly in a horizontal direction first.
E) Always pause 3 to 4 seconds for a reading when using the PAK Tracker.
ANSWER: E) Always pause 3 to 4 seconds for a reading when using the PAK Tracker.
A - Max range is 900 (NINE HUNDRED) feet line of sight
B - Can store up to 36 (THIRTY SIX) Identities / LCD screen can display 2 (TWO) lines of information
C - Can lock on to 1 (ONE) SCBA at a time
D - Use in a sweeping motion VERY SLOWLY horizontally first. Use vertically if signal may be coming from higher or lower floor
(TB SCBA Addendum 8 - 2.1, 5.3, 5.4, 7.8, 7.9)
The new FRC Digital In-Line Pressure/Flow metering device has been designed specifically for standpipe operations. This device has many features that will help the control firefighter monitor the pressure and flow being delivered from the standpipe outlet to the nozzle team. Which feature below is listed incorrectly regarding this tool?
A) The gauge will allow the control FF to regulate the water flow into the hose line from the standpipe outlet.
B) A red LED readout of pressure in pounds per square inch (psi)
C) A blue LED readout of water flow in gallons per minute (gpm)
D) A built in 45 degree elbow to ease use in wall cabinets.
ANSWER: A) The gauge will allow the control FF to regulate the water flow into the hose line from the standpipe outlet. (INCORRECT STATEMENT)
(TB Tools 36 - 1.1 2.1)
- Allows member to MONITOR PRESSURE AND FLOW BEING DELIVERED FROM STANDPIPE OUTLET TO NOZZLE TEAM.
The FRC Digital In-Line Gauge is powered by a rechargeable lithium ion 9 volt battery to provide optimal power and longevity for ________ hours of operation.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
ANSWER: D) 5
TB Tools 36 2.1
Captain Drake and his company are discussing the use of the FRC Digital In-Line pressure gauge. In how many of the following choices were they correct regarding the operation of this tool?
- The gauge should be pre connected to the Control FF’s folded length of hose.
- After connecting to the standpipe outlet, firmly press and hold the green on/off button for 4 to 5 seconds.
- The goal is to obtain a residual pressure (nozzle open, water flowing) of approximately 70 psi for a 3 length stretch or 80 psi for a 4 length stretch with a flow of 225/250 gpm.
- Suspect kinks if the pressure reading is normal or higher and the flow is reduced below normal.
- Suspect a burst length if the pressure reading is normal or lower and the flow is increased above normal.
- If the gauge fails to display upon initial start up, make another attempt to turn it on. If this attempt fails, immediately notify the officer and advise that water flow will be delayed. The gauge must be disconnected from the outlet and the hose reconnected directly to the outlet.
A) 6 B) 5 C) 4 D) 3
ANSWER: C) 4 (Choices 1 and 6 are incorrect)
TB Tools 36 (3.1)
1 = DO NOT HAVE PRE-CONNECTED
6 = If 2nd attempt fails, VERIFY with officer that nozzle team is
receiving proper pressure and flow / gauge DOES NOT regulate
water flow / hose line operations CAN CONTINUE without the
display functioning properly.
After a run in a high rise multiple dwelling, Lt. Kelly decides to have a drill with her members on elevator operations during fires. Lt. Kelly would be correct to tell her junior members which one of the following choices?
A) When a fire is confirmed on the 8th floor or below, units should avoid the use of elevators.
B) Do not use an elevator in a bank which services the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within seven floors of the fire floor.
C) Not more than 6 members are permitted in any elevator car.
D) The elevator should be stopped every 10 floors (precautionary stops) to confirm that the elevator will respond to the selected floor.
ANSWER: C) Not more than 6 members are permitted in any elevator car.
TB Elevator Ops 6 (6.1.2 - 6.1.10)
A - SEVEN (7) or below avoid elevators (8 is great)
B - Do not use elevator in a bank which services fire floor is a lower
bank reaches within FIVE (5) floors of the fire floor.
C - Correct
D - Precautionary stops made EVERY FIVE (5) floors.
You are drilling with your members on elevator operations. You made the following statements. In which statement were you incorrect?
A) Before leaving the lobby and at each precautionary stop, direct a flashlight up between the elevator car and the hoist way to determine if there is any smoke in the elevator shaft.
B) The “YOU ARE HERE” sign, which is required to be posted at each floor near the call button will show the relationship of the elevator to the stairway. This should be inspected at every precautionary stop as floor configuration may change.
C) If you are in a smoke filled hallway, remember, elevator doors will swing toward you and apartment doors will swing away from you.
D) In any situation where the elevator operates erratically, exit the car at the nearest safe floor.
ANSWER: B) The “YOU ARE HERE” sign, which is required to be posted at each floor near the call button will show the relationship of the elevator to the stairway. This should be inspected at every precautionary stop as floor configuration may change. (INCORRECT STATEMENT)
TB Elevator Ops 6 (6.1.11 - 6.1.15)
- Inspect sign at FIRST AND LAST precautionary stop.
The guide to company apparatus care and maintenance shall be posted at the house watch area and used as a guide. Which inspection would not be required to be completed immediately after the 0900 and 1800 roll calls?
A) Fill fuel tank
B) Check seat belts for fraying
C) Check sirens, air horns, and warning lights for operability.
D) Inspect the wheel checks. Proper position is when they are not in sequence.
E) Check non response lights, and notify Fleet Services for replacement of all bulbs other than headlights.
ANSWER: D) Inspect the wheel checks. Proper position is when they are not in sequence. (INCORRECT)
- Inspect wheel checks DAILY. Proper position is when they are IN SEQUENCE.
EVERY TOUR: Fill fuel tank / check seat belts / check sirens & warning lights / check non response lights / purge air tanks
(TB Apparatus C-2 section 3.1.1)
There are many numbers to remember when performing daily maintenance of the apparatus. Which one is incorrect?
A) Air loss of 1 lb. per 10 minutes, or a maximum of 10 lbs. per application does not require notification to fleet services.
B) Check the Engine oil when hot, or when the engine has been running for at least 30 minutes.
C) When the tread wear of the tire reaches 3/16” request replacement.
D) The antifreeze level should be about one inch below the radiator cap or to the full mark on the surge tank.
E) If during a short period of time (approximately 24 hours), a TL basket platform drifts downward excessively, notify Fleet Services.
ANSWER: B) Check the Engine oil when hot, or when the engine has been running for at least 30 minutes. (INCORRECT)
- Check oil when COLD or when the engine has been SHUT DOWN FOR AT LEAST FIFTEEN (15) minutes.
(TB Apparatus C-2 section 3.2.7)
With various types of snowfall and icing conditions, snow chains should be applied at the discretion of the Officer. Choose the incorrect point about these snow chains.
A) Only full chains should be used (no strap style chains)
B) When chains are applied, apparatus must not exceed 15 mph.
C) When weather and road conditions improve, chains must be removed. The use of chains on dry pavement can cause severe damage to the apparatus.
D) When the apparatus is out of quarters for any reason, except while responding to fires or emergencies, and cross links of chains break or become loose, the Officer in command of the apparatus shall cause the apparatus to stop immediately.
ANSWER: B) When chains are applied, apparatus must not exceed 15 mph. (INCORRECT)
- Snow chains = no more than THIRTY (30) MPH.
- Regulations Ch. 11 (No turns in excess of 15 mph)
(TB Apparatus C-2 section 2)
All marked FDNY apparatus/vehicles have been issued security decals. Which choice is wrong concerning these decals?
A) The decals are affixed adjacent to the driver’s side door or may be found on the driver’s side of the windshield. The Company Commander shall ensure the presence of the decals, and that the FD emblem is in an upright position.
B) If member’s observe a marked FDNY apparatus/vehicle that does not have a vehicle security decal, they shall approach the vehicle and challenge the driver.
C) If members observe a marked FDNY apparatus/vehicle that does not have a security decal, they shall contact the borough dispatcher after requesting a mixer off message.
D) If a decal on a fire apparatus becomes damaged, the Officer shall immediately notify Fleet Services, make a journal entry, and send a letterhead report to the Assistant Commissioner of Fleet/Tech Services. A copy of the report and remnants of the decal are forwarded to BFI.
ANSWER: B) If member’s observe a marked FDNY apparatus/vehicle that does not have a vehicle security decal, they shall approach the vehicle and challenge the driver. (INCORRECT)
- DO NOT APPROACH the vehicle (contact dispatch via mixer off)
(TB Apparatus C-2 Addendum 2 section 4.2)
Vehicle recovery straps for FDNY vehicles are often used in snow conditions to aid in the recovery of Department vehicles. Choose the incorrect point concerning these straps.
A) The straps can be used to recover EMS ambulances and Battalion vehicles. They cannot be used to recover Engine & Ladder Apparatus.
B) The strap shall not be used for towing and lifting.
C) The straps shall never be attached to the front or rear bumper.
D) If the stuck vehicle is an ambulance with a patient, the patient may remain in the ambulance while the strap is used if the driver remains in the ambulance.
E) Members shall maintain a 35’ Safety zone around the strap when in use.
ANSWER: D) If the stuck vehicle is an ambulance with a patient, the patient may remain in the ambulance while the strap is used if the driver remains in the ambulance. (INCORRECT)
- The patient MUST BE REMOVED from the ambulance.
(TB Apparatus C-2 Addendum 3 section 3.15.2)
FDNY 100’ Aerial ladders operate by utilizing two double acting hydraulic lift cylinders which provide smooth, precise elevation from ___________ degrees above horizontal.
A) 0 - 45
B) 0 - 60
C) 0 - 80
D) 0 - 100
ANSWER: C) 0 - 80
TB Apparatus L-7 1.2
Two individually controlled stabilizers can be hydraulically extended out and down to provide a firm base for Aerial ladder operations. The load capacity varies from ____________ at the tip depending on the degree of elevation.
A) 200 - 1000
B) 250 - 750
C) 300 - 800
D) 350 - 1000
ANSWER: B) 250 - 750
- Aerial Ladder load capacity = 250 to 750 lbs at the tip
- Confined space high point anchor - Aerial (250) / TL (800)
(TB Apparatus L-7 1.4)
During drill, an LCC is showing the members of the company the proper way to place the Aerial Ladder into Power Take Off (PTO). Of the following steps, which one was taken incorrectly?
A) He placed the automatic transmission is the PARK (P) position.
B) The MAXI-BRAKE was engaged.
C) He moved the FRONT BRAKE LOCK SWITCH to the ON position. The FRONT BRAKE LIGHT illuminated.
D) He opened the red cover of the PTO CONTROL SWITCH and flipped the switch to the UP position. The PTO light illuminated.
ANSWER: A) He placed the automatic transmission is the PARK (P) position. (INCORRECT)
- Place transmission into NEUTRAL (N) position.
(TB Apparatus L-7 2.2)
Hydraulically operated “H” frame stabilizers are located behind the rear wheels of the Aerial Ladder. The controls for these stabilizers are located at the back of the apparatus, one handle for each stabilizer. The stabilizers each require __________ for full horizontal extension.
A) 3’ 6”
B) 4’ 0”
C) 5’ 2”
D) 6’ 3”
ANSWER: C) 5’ 2”
TB Apparatus L-7 3.1
Aerial ladders are provided with an “Interlock Diverter Valve” (IDV) to help safeguard the stability of the apparatus. The IDV diverts the hydraulic fluid to power either the stabilizers or the Aerial Ladder. Should a function of the IDV system fail, the stabilizers or Aerial Ladder can be moved by accessing the override controls located where?
A) In the cab, on the officer’s side
B) In the cab, on the LCC’s side, near the PTO switch.
C) On the Aerial Ladder pedestal
D) At the rear of the apparatus
ANSWER: D) At the rear of the apparatus
- Only use IDV in an EMERGENCY SITUATION
- Notify IC if you use IDV
(TB Apparatus L-7 3.2.4)
A Lt. Instructing member’s of her company on the proper way to extend and lower the stabilizers on Aerial Ladders was correct in all but which statement made below?
A) Always begin by extending and lowering the inboard stabilizer (working side) first.
B) Activate the HIGH IDLE switch to assist in faster operation.
C) Move the STABILIZER CONTROL HANDLE toward the OUT/DOWN position until the stabilizer is fully extended horizontally and begins to lower to the ground.
D) Pause the operation prior to contact with the ground in order to place the ground stabilizer pad. These pads must be used at all times. Once in place resume lowering the stabilizer until it reaches the end of its stroke.
ANSWER: A) Always begin by extending and lowering the inboard stabilizer (working side) first. (INCORRECT)
- Not always (For uneven surfaces such as a sloped street start by lowering the lower side first)
(TB Apparatus L-7 3.3)
Which one of the following is an example of a plant used by am arsonist?
A) Cotton waste and rags found near the point of origin and spread throughout an apartment
B) Candles and matches found near the point of origin.
C) A gas line that was cut or disconnected near the point of origin.
D) Gasoline found in a can in a room next to where the fire started.
ANSWER: B) Candles and matches found near the point of origin.
A - Trailer
C and D - Accelerants
(TB Arson - 1.2.5)
Possible indicators of the use of flammable accelerants at a fire are indicated by all of the following except which choice below?
A) Charring of the floor
B) Char in a broken pattern or puddle like cicle burns.
C) Low burn marks on a wall, under a door, or on the lower part of the door.
D) Heavy body of fire with a large amount of contents.
E) Burn marks on a civilian’s forehead, cheeks and under the chin and nose.
ANSWER: D) Heavy body of fire with a large amount of contents. (INCORRECT)
- Heavy body of fire with LITTLE AMOUNT of contents.
(TB Arson - 3.7)
You are a company officer operating at a fully involved car fire where after the fire is knocked down, the owner of the car informs you she thnks the fire was intentionally set and wants to talk to you. In this situation, you would be correct to?
A) Let her talk freely, and interrogate if only necessary.
B) Listen to what she is stating about the fire, but do not record any information in writing.
C) Let her talk freely, record what she is saying, then request her name and address.
D) Because you are not an experienced investigator, be aware that she should only talk freely to the Fire Marshal.
ANSWER: C) Let her talk freely, record what she is saying, then request her name and address.
- DO NOT INTERROGATE (simply ask for name and address)
(TB Arson)
You are a company officer in an Engine company maintaining a fire line that has been established at a multiple dwelling where there is an ongoing investigation extending over a long period of time. Several relatives and neighbors arrive at 1100 hours and they want to place flowers inside the area where the fire line was established. In this situation you would need the authorization of the _______________ to allow the people to cross the fire line?
A) Chief Fire Marshal and/or Division Commander
B) Chief Fire Marshal and/or Chief of Operations
C) Assigned Fire Marshal and/or Chief of Operations
D) Assigned Fire Marshal and/or Chief of Department
ANSWER: C) Assigned Fire Marshal and/or Chief of Operations.
- Chief of Operations Richardson
(TB Arson - 4.1)
After fire is knocked down in an apartment, a ladder officer finds a 10-45 Code 1 victim on the mattress in a rear bedroom. Which indicator found on the victim should the officer find suspicious and thus notifying the IC of possible arson?
A) The victim is found in a pugilistic position
B) The victim has cherry red lips, eyelids and skin.
C) The victim has pink or red skin showing on the lowest horizontal area of their body.
D) The victim has soot in or around the nose or mouth.
E) The victim’s skull appears to have exploded.
ANSWER: C) The victim has pink or red skin showing on the lowest horizontal area of their body.
- Pink/red skin on lowest horizontal point on body represents LIVIDITY. (Don’t conufse with cherry red)
A - Pugilistic position DOES NOT indicate violence or a struggle. This is due to the contraction of the muscles that occurs during the fire.
B - Cherry lips, eyelids and skin represent CO in blood (victim was breathing/alive at the time of the fire)
D - Soot in nose or mouth indicates victim was breathing/alive at time of the fire.
E - Heat penetrating into the cranial cavity produces steam from the fluids of the body, which in turn produces pressure sufficient to cause an internal explosion.
(TB - Arson - 4.6)
An officer conducting drill on evidence collection and preservation by members at the scene of a suspicious fire was correct to state that?
A) A clean, one gallon, metal can (like a clean paint can) is the preferred evidence packaging method.
B) If a one gallon metal can is not available, a clean glass jar with a tight fitting lid is the next best choice.
C) Plastic containers may never be used because vapors may escape through the plastic.
D) In an emergency, use of only a single, brand new, heavy gauge plastic bag can be justified if it is closed tighlty, until a can or jar can be found.
ANSWER: B) If a one gallon metal can is not available, a clean glass jar with a tight fitting lid is the next best choice.
A - This container should be a one (1) gallon metal can such as a NEW paint can. (Never use a can that was previously used.)
C - AVOID using plastic containers
D - In an emergency you can use TWO (2) heavy gauge plastic bags
(TB - Arson - 5.3.1)
A ladder officer finds evidence at a car fire and after transmitting a 10-41 code 3 to the dispatcher, he is instructed to bring the evidence back to the firehouse as the fire marshals are unable to respond for quite some time. Regarding the continuity of evidence, the officer would be incorrect to think that evidence?
A) Should be labeled or marked, but only after photos of it have been taken.
B) Should never be left in the company office.
C) May be left in the company office if it is locked up.
D) May be left in the company office if someone else signs and stays with it.
ANSWER: B) Should never be left in the company office. (INCORRECT)
- Evidence CAN BE left in company office.
(TB Arson - 5.4.1.)
A ladder company officer is trying to determine the point of origin at an apartment fire that has been knocked down by the engine company. In this situation, he would be incorrect to think that?
A) V-pattern burns usually point toward the point of origin.
B) Abscence of a v-pattern burn could mean an accelerant was used.
C) Perpendicular burns on walls indicate normal fire travel.
D) The deepest char will may be found at the point of origin. However, this is not always so, since the most intense heat and fire may have been above the point of origin.
ANSWER: C) Perpendicular burns on walls indicate normal fire travel. (INCORRECT)
- Indicates POSSIBLE ACCELERANT.
(TB - Arson 6.7.3)
A fire officer should know that signs of a rapid fire buildup might assist with locating the point of origin. Which one of the following glass object indicators is indicative of rapid fire buildup?
A) Heavy smoke stains found on glass remote from the point of origin.
B) Medium crazing (cracking) of glass found remote to the point of origin.
C) Checkering of glass (half-moon effects) found in the room of origin.
D) Small crazing (cracking) found on glass near the point of origin.
ANSWER: D) Small crazing (cracking) found on glass near the point of origin.
- This indicates RAPID fire buildup,indicative of accelerant.
- Small crazing means intense and rapid heat build up and will be found closer to the point of origin.
- Large crazing indicates remoteness from the point of origin and/or a relatively slow heat build up.
A - Heavy smoke stains, remote from the point of origin, usually indicate a SLOW fire build up. Light smoke stains usually indicate a rapid build up of the fire, little fire damage and are found close to the point of origin. (Hydro-carbons or products thereof may be an exception to the above).
B - Statement not written in our books
C - Checkering of glass (half moon effects or marks) usually results from WATER BEING APPLIED to heated glass.
(TB - Arson - 6.7.3)
An engine and ladder respond to a report of fire in a PD. On arrival, they transmit a 10-18 for a small fire in a detached garage next to the house. There is no one in the garage, but the occupants of the associated house state they saw kids run away from the garage just before the fire started. In this case, it would be most correct to transmit a 10-41?
A) Code 1
B) Code 2
C) Code 3
D) Code 4
ANSWER: D) Code 4 (Vacant buildings, buildings under construction / demolition, DETACHED GARAGES, sheds or similar structures)
Code 1 - Occupied Structure or Vehicle
Code 2 - Unoccupied Structure
Code 3 - Unoccupied Vehicle
Code 4 - Vacant Structure, or Structures NOT INTENDED for Dwelling Purposes.
Note: If any of the above are occupied at the time of the fire transmit Code 1.
(Communications 8)
During Training at his newly assigned firehouse, probationary firefighter Smith made which incorrect comment regarding the closing of certain valves?
A) A clockwise direction is used to close, makeup or tighten pressure cylinders such as oxygen and propane.
B) A counterclockwise direction is used to close a hydrant operating nut.
C) A clockwise direction is used to close a hydrant street shutoff.
D) A clockwise direction is used to close, makeup or tighten sprinkler systems and water mains.
ANSWER: C) A clockwise direction is used to close a hydrant street shutoff. (INCORRECT)
- COUNTERCLOCKWISE used to close a hydrant street shutoff.
(TB Emergencies 3 - 2.1)
Of the following choices, which is not a recommended option for mitigating a broken or leaking water pipe?
A) If the shutoff is inaccessible and tubing is used, them simply crimp until flow stops. (Use pliers, tap with axe. etc.)
B) For malleable metal, use a tapered piece of wood (shaved chock, pencil, chair leg, golf tee, etc.
C) An emergency patch on a pipe can be made with a piece of rubber inner tube and held with duct tape, rubber tape, clamp or coat wire hanger etc.
D) A screw plug can be used with a rubber gasket on pipes or water tanks.
ANSWER: B) For malleable metal, use a tapered piece of woof (shaved chock, pencil, chair leg, golf tee, etc. (INCORRECT)
- Do this for NON MALLEABLE METAL.
(TB Emergencies 3 - 3.3
When dealing with water leaks, realize that sometimes the shutoff is located on the wall near the ceiling of the apartment directly below. Shutoffs may also be located on the riser line of apartments in basements. If no shutoff can be found, locate where the water main enters the building by using each of the following methods except?
A) The main is usually near the rear building wall (often directly in the middle of the building)
B) The main pipe will be the coldest pipe in the building and may also have condensation on the outside.
C) Listen for the sound of running water and feel for vibration.
D) Look for the armored ground cable which may be attached to the main from an electric meter.
ANSWER: A) The main is usually near the rear building wall (often directly in the middle of the building) (INCORRECT)
- Usually near the FRONT of the building
- Often found in CORNER of building.
(TB Emergency 3 - 3.5)
When dealing with a flooded roof, all of the following actions are acceptable except which?
A) Used a glove hand to safely clear the blockage
B) Clear the blockage with a 6’ hook or applicable tool from the drain or scupper.
C) Stretch an entire length of hose under water, allow it to fill and then kink one end. Drape the edge over the parapet, extending below roof level, and release the kink.
D) Bring the booster line to the roof, charge the line and open the nozzle, Place line under water, shut down the pumps and disconnect the line at street, allowing it to drain.
ANSWER: A) Used a glove hand to safely clear the blockage. (INCORRECT)
- DO NOT clear blockage with hand.
(TB - Emergencies 3 5)
Of the procedures listed below for utilizing th eHydrant Shut-off to shut down an open hydrant, which is incorrect?
A) First remove the plate. After removed, you may have to direct some water to clear the chamber of mud and debris.
B) Place the wrench on the fitting and turn counterclockwise 17 times.
C) The nut is usually found off-center on the street side of the chamber.
D) To facilitate the operation, water may have to be diverted by a board, garbage can cover, etc. Not until about 6 full turns is there a noticeable decrease in water flow.
ANSWER: D) To facilitate the operation, water may have to be diverted by a board, garbage can cover, etc. Not until about 6 full turns is there a noticeable decrease in water flow. (INCORRECT)
- TWELVE (12) FULL TURNS
(TB Emergencies 3 - 6.2)
Immediately upon confiming that live electrical wires are down in the street and creating a situation that places human life in danger, the 1st arriving unit should take all of the following actions except?
A) Contact the Fire Department dispatcher via department radio, indicating that life is in danger. Specify the location (address, pole number) of the downed wires.
B) Stretch a hoseline with the fog nozzle. Use distance as a safety factor and keep at least 25 feet away from any downed wire while operating this handline.
C) Safely attempt to disengage the wires from the victim using a 6’ wooden hook from a dry, solid surface.
D) Request the response of a BC if not already assigned.
ANSWER: C) Safely attempt to disengage the wires from the victim using a 6’ wooden hook from a dry, solid surface. (INCORRECT)
- DO NOT TOUCH WIRES.
- Request forthwith power removal and notify utility company.
(TB Emergencies 3 - 8.2)
In which choice below is the action correct and in accordance with Fire Department policy for the related emergency?
A) For an oil slick on the roadway immediately utilize a hoseline to apply water and dilute the spill.
B) For a ring stuck on someone’s finger, use soapy water or cool the finger to decrease swelling. A ring cutter will also safely cut the ring off the finger in a short period of time, less than a minute, and is the preferred method for rings made of stainless steel.
C) Sulfur candles are usually found on the floor in a saucer of water. Searching members shall use their masks and vent as they search, using as few members as possible; preferably the Officer and one Firefighter.
D) At an oil burner emergency, shut off electric power using the oil burner remote control which is generally painted red and located at the top of the interior cellar stairs in NLTs or apartment houses. In an OLT, Brownstone, frame buildings and private dwellings, it will generally be outside the boiler room.
ANSWER: C) Sulfur candles are usually found on the floor in a saucer of water. Searching members shall use their masks and vent as they search, using as few members as possible; preferably the Officer and one Firefighter.
A - Water will make an oil slick worse. Use SAND/DIRT
B - Ring cutter WILL NOT cut stainless steel
D - NLT (switch located outside the oil burner room
OLD / BS / Frame / PD (located at top of int. cellar stair)
(TB Emergency 3 - 10.1)
Which tactic below could be considered correct for its corresponding emergency?
A) When the aquastat or low water cut-off is not functioning on a gas boiler in a residential building there may be a metallic odor and the sides of the boiler can be cherry red. In this case it is important to immediately add water to prevent the situation from getting worse.
B) If gasoline is leaking from a vehicle involved in a motor vehicle collision, the battery should be disconnected, ground cable first. If the vehicle is required to be towed, use a cable instead of a chain due to its increased capacity for towing heavy objects.
C) When dealing with a leaking gas tank in a car, one option is to use half of a rubber ball (tennis, spalding) propped with a stick to form an airtight seal with the suction side towards the leak.
D) When a fish hook is embedded in someone’s finger, always bandage the finger as found until a physician can remove it in a hospital setting. Members shall never remove a fish hook under any circumstances.
ANSWER: C) When dealing with a leaking gas tank in a car, one option is to use half of a rubber ball (tennis, spalding) propped with a stick to form an airtight seal with the suction side towards the leak.
A - DO NOT ADD WATER
B - CHAIN PREFERRED
D - If MEDICAL AID IS NOT AVAILABLE then push hook through until barb protrudes.
(TB EMERGECNIES 3 - 13.1)
All NYC Transit Authority (NYCTA) buses are equipped with wheelchair lifts. When a lift malfunctions and traps a disabled passenger on the lift or inside the bus, a NYCTA bus maintainer will be dispatched to repair the lift and a FD unit will be dispatched to provide assistance with the removal of the disabled passenger. Of the following choices, which contained incorrect information regarding this procedure?
A) Prior to starting removal operations, the keyed switch at the bus driver’s seat that supplies power to the wheelchair lift, must be in the off position and the key removed.
B) Prior to starting removal operations, the keyed switch located at the wheelchair lift that activates the lift must be in the off position and the key removed.
C) The Officer shall ensure that the wheelchair lift is secured, chocked and stabilized so that the wheelchair lift will not move in the event of hydraulic or mechanical failure.
D) In all cases, members shall remove power to the NYCTA bus by disconnecting the battery; negative terminal first, and exiting all passengers, prior to assisting the disabled passenger.
ANSWER: D) In all cases, members shall remove power to the NYCTA bus by disconnecting the battery; negative terminal first, and exiting all passengers, prior to assisting the disabled passenger. (INCORRECT)
- This is a made up statement
(TB Emergencies 3 - 22)
Two officers assigned to Midtown Manhattan were discussing successful tactics for suspended scaffold emergencies. Which choice indicates the most correct comments made?
- In all instances, units shall tape off the area below the scaffold to vehicular and pedestrian traffic. This marks the danger area for civilians. Only FD personnel may enter this danger area.
- All apparatus shall be kept clear of the danger area and parked in a safe location. Enter the building from an entrance out of the danger area, if possible.
- If arc welding is being performed from the scaffold, ensure that the unit has a proper secondary ground to avoid electrocution.
- Clear away any loose materials that may blow around room or out the window prior to window removal.
- Very rarely will workers be out on a scaffold without a co-worker inside. Seek out this person for possible assistance.
- If necessary, secure the scaffold to the building to prevent further damage or collapse. However, it may be necessary to dismantle the scaffold to leave the area in a safe condition; this must be donw from the exterior of the building.
- Ensure roof rigging/anchoring system is secure.
- If the scaffold is occupied and the need for possible rescue exists, Ladder companies should respond with their search ropes.
A) 1,2,5,6,8
B) 2,3,4,5,7
C) 2,3,4,6,7
D) 1,3,4,5,7
ANSWER: B) 2,3,4,5,7 (1,6,8 INCORRECT)
1 - Danger area is for CIVILIANS AND FD PERSONNEL.
6 - Dismantle scaffolding from the INTERIOR of building.
8 - Ladders should respond with their LSRs (Engines may also need LSRs)
(TB Emergency 4 3.5)
Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding FD operations at an unoccupied, swinging scaffold emergency?
A) Members shall use extreme caution when going out onto an unoccupied scaffold; these members shall be tied off.
B) Members operating near windows or the roof edge shall take precautions against falling, including utilizing safety lines.
C) Locate the window nearest the scaffold and secure the scaffold with utility ropes to prevent movement. Inspect the exterior of the building for damaged or loose building/scaffold material that may fall.
D) Survey the roof to determine if the scaffold anchoring system has been compromised due to excessive movement. If any roof rigging is suspect, attempt to secure with the utility rope.
ANSWER: A) Members shall use extreme caution when going out onto an unoccupied scaffold; these members shall be tied off. (INCORRECT)
- AT NO TIME shall members go out on an unoccupied scaffold.
(TB Emergencies 4 - 4.1)
Occupied, stalled suspended scaffolding operations present many hazards to first responders as well as stranded workers. Which tactic below is not entirely correct?
A) Locate the window nearest the scaffold. Communicate with stranded workers (if they are stranded on a windowless area of the building, consider loweing a handie-talkie from above)
B) A team should be sent to the roof to inspect the scaffold rigging/anchoring systems and determine if they are secure. Inspect worker’s safety lines to determine if properly tied off; if suspect, consider lowering a LSR to workers and have them attach it to their harness via the snap hook.
C) Determine if the wire rope hoist line is jammed within the unit. If this has occurred, have the workers attempt to continue to operate the hoist, as this may free the jam.
D) Determine if the hoist motor overheated due to an overloaded scaffold. As some electric hoists have reset buttons on them, if the hoist is overheated, allow it to cool for at least 15 minutes then have a worker push the reset button on the hoist.
ANSWER: C) Determine if the wire rope hoist line is jammed within the unit. If this has occurred, have the workers attempt to continue to operate the hoist, as this may free the jam. (INCORRECT)
- If jammed, DO NOT LET the workers continue to operate the hoist, it will SEVER THE ROPE.
(TB Emergency 4 - 5.4)
During a critique of a recent off-level/hanging, suspended scaffold emergency where workers were stranded, which of the following comments had to be corrected?
A) Locate a window nearest the scaffold and communicate with trapped workers to ascertain their physical and mental state.
B) Send a team to the roof to inspect the roof anchoring systems, parapet and safety lines. Attempt to secure or backup these if necessary.
C) Without going out onto the scaffold, attempt to attach the LSR snap hook onto the victim’s harness (victims may be able to assist in this task). Anchor the other end of the rope to a substantial object either inside or on the roof.
D) If possible, haul in the victims through a window or create mechanical advantage systems to raise victims in complete safety. A LSR evolution can be used to lower or raise a victim to the nearest window and is considered the safest option.
ANSWER: D) If possible, haul in the victims through a window or create mechanical advantage systems to raise victims in complete safety. A LSR evolution can be used to lower or raise a victim to the nearest window and is considered the safest option. (INCORRECT)
- Generally, there is NO NEED for any firefighter to be lowered by a life saving rope to reach stranded workers.
- RAISE victims in complete safety (NOT LOWER)
The use of professionally trained dogs and the presence of dogs used as watch dogs or pets increase the possibility of FFs encountering these animals. What is an inaccurate statement below the concerning dogs at fires?
A) Attack dogs are trained to attack anyone in the area besides their trainers.
B) Watch dogs are trained to sound a warning by barking but not to attack.
C) Command dogs are trained to attack only on command of their trainer.
D) Dogs shouldn’t be considered vicious; it is usually possible to predict how a particular type of dog will react.
ANSWER: D) Dogs shouldn’t be considered vicious; it is usually possible to predict how a particular type of dog will react. (INCORRECT)
- Under fire conditions, it is impossible to predict how a particular breed or type of dog will react. Members are to ASSUME ALL DOGS ARE VICIOUS.
(TB Fires 2 - 2.2.1)
Operations at fires with dogs can be challenging. Which statement below is incorrect?
A) Members are to wear full PPC at all times, collars on bunker coats turned up, eye shields down, and gloves on.
B) Before entering, shake the door vigorously to detecting the presence of a dog, this will cause the dog to bark or claw at the door.
C) Dogs are not accustomed to smoke or heat. Smoke inhalation or high heat conditions will alter their behavior and their natural instincts will cause them to run for survival.
D) Anytime when a dog is known to be on scene, members should try to push the dog into a room with a tool and close the door.
ANSWER: D) Anytime when a dog is known to be on scene, members should try to push the dog into a room with a tool and close the door. (INCORRECT)
- Use of hand tools, appliances, or in the extreme, requesting police assistance to have the dog destroyed, should be considered only as a LAST RESORT when a civilian’s or Firefighter’s safety is involved.
(TB Fires 2 - 4.3)
When dealing with dangerous dogs, the following procedures should be adhered to except which one?
A) If the dog appears dangerous, it is good practice to keep it at a distance by using a pressurized
water extinguisher or a CO2 extinguisher if available. Direct the extinguisher stream into the dog’s face; then, use short bursts of the extinguisher to back the dog into another room or out of the area entirely.
B) push a chair or tool towards the animal and allow the dog to bite it. Offer resistance to the bite. Often the dog will hang on, giving you a chance to call for assistance or to move to safety.
C) In junkyards and other facilities of that nature, the safest approach is to use a water stream. If a fire condition exists, a charged 2 1/2” line can be used for protection while an uncharged line is being advanced.
D) The Animal Care Center can also be contacted through the dispatcher on a 24-hour basis
ANSWER: C) In junkyards and other facilities of that nature, the safest approach is to use a water stream. If a fire condition exists, a charged 2 1/2” line can be used for protection while an uncharged line is being advanced. (INCORRECT)
- Charged 1 3/4” LINE.
(TB Fires 2 - 4.8)
You are an Officer operating at a water leak when one of your members is bitten by a dog in the apartment. The owner of the dog is very upset and apologizes to you profusely. In this situation you would be correct to notify all of the following except which?
A) EMS
B) NYPD
C) Board of Health
D) Animal Care Center
E) FDNY Medical Officer
ANSWER: D) Animal Care Center (INCORRECT)
“PBA ME”
P - Police
B - Board of Health
A - Animal Control (if stray)
M - Medical Officer
E - EMS
(TB Fires 2 4.12)
Lexan Windows have 250 times more impact resistance than saftey glass, they will not shatter and they are half the weight of glass. LExan is also self-extinguishing and has one third the thermal conductivity of glass. Lexan is very difficult to ventilate since they cannot be broken by use of conventional forcible entry tools. Please choose the most correct statement concerning the forcing of Lexan windows.
A) The air hammer (air chisel), Oxyacetylene torch and the pike axe are all ineffective.
B) The chainsaw is safe but it tends to shatter the Lexan and throws chips like schrapnel.
C) Lexan can be cut quickly and easily by using the sawzall, equipped with the carbide tip blade.
D) The portable power saw, with the metal blade, is also effective on Lexan but it is slower than the sawzall.
ANSWER: A) The air hammer (air chisel), Oxyacetylene torch and the pike axe are all ineffective.
B - The chainsaw is UNSAFE to use since it tends to shatter the LEXAN and throws chips like shrapnel.
C - Sawzall equipped with COARSE TOOTH WOOD BLADE.
D - Power saw with CARBIDE TIP BLADE, quicker than Sawzall.
(TB Fires 4 - 3.1)
When responding to a NYC housing project, Engine 48 is met at the door by a maintenance worker who states he has seen smoke in the basement of the building. In this situation you would be correct to believe which of the following?
A) If the building has a compactor our operational priority should be to free the blockage.
B) A red door on the 1st floor should indicate a compactor.
C) A compactor fire is a structural fire, while an incinerator fire which does not extend from the shaft is an emergency.
D) Steel cans filled with trash may indicate an incinerator.
ANSWER: C) A compactor fire is a structural fire, while an incinerator fire which does not extend from the shaft is an emergency.
A - Compactor - Put the fire out.
Incinerator - Clear the blockage
B - RED for incinerator, GRAY for compactor
D - Steel cans filled with ASHES may indicate incinerator.
Large # bags on the sidewalk may indicate compactor.
(TB Fires 7 1.2)
While operating at an incinerator fire, a salty junior firefighter made the following statements. A knowleadgeable senior FF would recognize that the only correct statement can be found in which choice?
A) To free the blockage in an incinerator, it is never permissible to drop anything down the chute which is not attached to a rope.
B) It is never permissible to pull down the blockage from below.
C) If you open the chute door and smoke comes out, the blockage is generally below that floor.
D) If you open the chute door and the draft is drawn inward or there is little or no smoke the blockage is generally above that floor.
ANSWER: A) To free the blockage in an incinerator, it is never permissible to drop anything down the chute which is not attached to a rope.
B - If the blockage is between the incinerator and the first floor, a hook MAY HAVE TO BE USED TO PULL it down from below. (Shut off the auxiliary burner before commencing operations!)
C - If you open a chute door on a floor and smoke comes out, the blockage is generally ABOVE that floor.
D - When you open it, a draft goes inward or there is little smoke, the blockage is generally BELOW that floor or the blockage has freed itself.
(TB Fires 7 - 2.2)
As a good officer, safety of your members is of primary importance. You would be acting properly if you advised the member opening the chute door of all of the following with which exception?
A) Be sure to wear full firefighting gear, gloves on and eye shields down.
B) Stand to one side of the hopper door. If the door is hinged, stand opposite the hinged side.
C) Keep your eyes below the opening, face turned away.
D) Shining a light up or down the chute may aid in locating the blockage or observing smoke movement.
ANSWER: B) Stand to one side of the hopper door. If the door is hinged, stand opposite the hinged side. (INCORRECT)
- Stand to the side of the hopper door. If the door is hinged, STAND ON THE HINGED SIDE.
(TB Fires 7 - 3.2)
An Engine Company Officer is operating with her unit at an incinerator fire in a 27 story Class 1 Fireproof MD. This officer would be incorrect if she were to perform which action?
A) Request the ladder to shut off the auxiliary burner as soon as extinguishment operations are completed.
B) Realize that operating a hoseline to extinguish the fire from the floor above is the last resort
C) Report to lobby and stand fast with masks, roll ups and standpipe kit.
D) Members under your command may be detailed to assist the ladder company in search, vent etc. However, generally at least the officer and two members should remain in the lobby.
ANSWER: A) Request the ladder to shut off the auxiliary burner as soon as extinguishment operations are completed. (INCORRECT)
- Shut off the auxiliary burner BEFORE commencing operations.
(TB Fires 7 - 2.4)
The Roof FF has many duties at an incinerator fire. A good Roof FF would be operating incorrectly were he to realize which one of the following?
A) Proceed to the Roof to ventilate stairways and check the spark arrester for blockage.
B) Prior to leaving the lobby the Roof FF must insure that he chocks open the stairwell door at the ground floor level.
C) If there is a spark arrester, it should be checked for blockage.
D) If the incinerator has a fly ash collector, notify the officer and begin to force entry into the collector to clear the blockage. Fly ash collectors are required to have safeguards around the incinerator shaft.
ANSWER: D) If the incinerator has a fly ash collector, notify the officer and begin to force entry into the collector to clear the blockage. Fly ash collectors are required to have safeguards around the incinerator shaft. (INCORRECT)
- Use caution in the larger collectors because there may be an OPEN HOLE in the floor large enough to fall into.
(TB Fires 7 - 2.3 F)
A study group from Staten Island was reviewing FDNY compactor fire operations. The following statements were made. Which one was incorrect?
A) A compactor is designed to reduce the volume of raw refuse.
B) Most compactors do not reduce the volume of raw refuse significantly.
C) A water and hose outlet are required in the hallway outside of each compactor room.
D) The compactor room should be fire resistive, protected by a fire door and supplied with an automatic sprinkler.
ANSWER: C) A water and hose outlet are required in the hallway outside of each compactor room. (INCORRECT)
- Required INSIDE THE COMPACTOR ROOM.
(TB Fires 7 - 7.2)
According to the Department of Buildings, sprinkler heads shall be provided in compactor units. Electronically operated sprinkler heads should be thermostatically controlled to operate at approximately what temperature?
A) 135 degrees
B) 175 degrees
C) 210 degrees
D) 100 degrees over the average temperature normally encountered within the compactor unit.
ANSWER: A) 135 degrees
TB Fires 7 - 7.3
Ladder company 20 arrives 1st for a fire in a compactor unit. In this situation, their officer would be correct to do which of the following?
A) Proceed with the FE Team to the compactor room. Prior to commencing any operations, locate the electrical shutoff and shut down power to the unit.
B) If fire is located in the unit, open the unit’s access door prior to the engine opening the line.
C) Order the OV to search all floors above the fire for search and ventilation.
D) Replace the sprinkler head if the sprinkler has activated.
ANSWER: A) Proceed with the FE Team to the compactor room. Prior to commencing any operations, locate the electrical shutoff and shut down power to the unit.
B - AFTER the engine company has extinguished the fire, the ladder company may begin overhauling. BEFORE OPENING the compactor unit access door be sure the hoseline is SHUT DOWN and sprinkler OS&Y is closed
C - OV OPERATES WITH THE ENGINE to provide access to the chute and to check for extension.
D - The FDNY DOES NOT replace sprinkler heads.
(TB Fires 7 - 8.2)
FDNY Operations at compactor fires are governed by the location of the fire (chute, unit or room). As an Engine company officer operating at a compactor fire in a 17 story, Class 1 Fireproof MD, you would be incorrect if you were to perform which action?
A) For a fire which has extended out of the unit, you ordered a 2 1/2” line stretched to the cellar.
B) For a chute fire on the 15th floor, you ordered a line stretched from the standpipe to the 16th floor chute opening.
C) For a fire in the compactor unit, you ordered a line stretched to that 1st floor. This line was shut down prior to the ladder company opening up the compactor unit access door.
D) After the fire was extinguished, you explained to the members of your unit that the possibility of fire extension is greater in the chute than in the unit.
ANSWER: D) After the fire was extinguished, you explained to the members of your unit that the possibility of fire extension is greater in the chute than in the unit. (INCORRECT)
- The possibility of extension is GREATER THAN IN THE UNIT than in the chute.
(TB Fires 7 - 8.2)
You are an Engine company Lt. who has just operated at a compactor fire extinguishing a garbage bag on fire in the unit of a 6 story fireproof multiple dwelling. Originally built as an incinerator, the building was converted to a compactor in 1975. The BC was monitoring the box (he requested a 10-12) so you transmitted which signal?
A) 10-31
B) 10-27
C) 10-77
D) 10-22
ANSWER: B) 10-27
10-27 for Compactor / Incinerator Fire (has not extended from compactor or shaft)
(TB Fires 7 / Comm 8)
Immediately upon arrival at an operation at a highway, the Officer in command must take steps to prevent a secondary collision. Choose the incorrect point concerning these precautions.
A) Secondary collisions may be avoided by completely stopping traffic in all lanes of the highway on the side where the fire or emergency has occured, at least until the arrival of PD to control traffic.
B) The greatest danger of secondary collisions occurs during periods of heavy traffic.
C) A tractor trailer needs over 500 feet to stop at 50 mph after the driver perceives the danger.
D) A car traveling at 70 mph will need over 500 feet to stop.
E) Where weather conditions (snow, rain, fog, sleet etc.) or smoke blowing across the highway limit visibility, the highway must be closed.
ANSWER: B) The greatest danger of secondary collisions occurs during periods of heavy traffic. (INCORRECT)
- LIGHT TO MODERATE TRAFFIC
(TB Fires 8 - 4.2)
One Engine & one Ladder from each direction, and a BC will be assigned to all express highway incidents, and all EMS responses on highways involving accidents with injuries and/or pedestrians struck. Which statement is correct conerning these responses?
A) At a vehicle fire on an express highway, an Engine Company can be used to block traffic for the pumper being used to extinguish the fire.
B) If the incident has been deemed minor, a single unit can operate on an express highway.
C) When EMS units are on scene of a highway incident other than accidents with injuries and/or pedestrians struck, and they request a fire unit back-up, the nearest Engine or Ladder Company will be dispatched.
D) A unit that has been dispatched to back-up EMS on a highway incident shall remain on scene until PD assumes traffic control.
ANSWER: A) At a vehicle fire on an express highway, an Engine Company can be used to block traffic for the pumper being used to extinguish the fire.
B - NO FEWER THAN 2 UNITS shall operate on highway.
C - The nearest LADDER only
D - Remain on scene for DURATION OF FIRE OR EMS OP.
(TB Fires 8 - 5.1)
Which apparatus placement at a motor vehicle incident is incorrect?
A) Apparatus shall usually placed to the rear of the emergency at an angle to the incident.
B) At a fire in a flammable liquid tank truck located on a grade, the apparatus will have to be located uphill of the involved vehicle, and the highway closed at a sufficient distance from the incident.
C) Where placement of apparatus will expose it to the possibility of fire extension, the pumper may be placed beyond the fire vehicle, but the second apparatus shall always be placed between oncoming traffic and operating forces.
D) Blocking apparatus shall be placed at least 100 feet behind the 1st operating unit to create a safe working area.
ANSWER: D) Blocking apparatus shall be placed at least 100 feet behind the 1st operating unit to create a safe working area. (INCORRECT)
- FIFTY (50’) FEET behind
(TB Fires 8 - 6)
Choose the incorrect statement concerning the use of High Visibility Safety Vests.
A) Members are required to wear high visibility safety vests only when operating on express highways at night.
B) A member operating with donned bunker gear and SCBA working in close proximity to a source of heat during fire supression is exempted from wearing a vest.
C) Members who are operating with donned hazardous material PPE do not have to wear a vest.
D) A member operating with donned technical rescue PPE and/or equipment for a technical rescue incident is exempted from wearing a vest.
ANSWER: A) Members are required to wear high visibility safety vests only when operating on express highways at night. (INCORRECT)
- AT ALL TIMES (day or night)
- Choices BCD represent the exemptions where the vests are not required.
(TB Fires 8 - 7)
While operating at a two vehicle collision on Kings highway, which has a posted speed limit of 30 mph, members estimated the fastest expected speed to be 50 mph. What would be the minimum distance from the blocking apparatus from the futhest flare?
A) 150 feet
B) 250 feet
C) 310 feet
D) 420 feet
ANSWER: C) 310 feet
Highest EXPECTED speed X 1st Digit + 60
50 X 5 + 60 = 310
(TB Fires 8 - 8)
Although operating across a center divider shall be avoided, at times it is absolutely necessary. When encountering a barrier, divider or highway separation of any type (permanent or temporary) several steps must be taken. Which choice contains only correct points about this operation?
- Traffic shall be stopped in both directions and safety warning devices set up.
- The preferred area of crossing shall be visually identified.
- A member shall be directed to use a tool to test the surface on the opposite side of the barrier, divider or highway separation for the presence of a solid and stable surface.
- Once the presence of a solid and stable surface is verified, communicate the location to all members.
- This safe crossing corridor shall be the only means of access and egress utilized at this incident unless otherwise directed by the IC.
- Whenever a safe corridor crossing is established, it shall be clearly marked (cones/barrier tape). At night or whenever visibility is reduced, members shall use all available means of lighting to illuminate the area.
- If a safe crossing cannot be established, members shall not cross any barrier, divider or highway separation.
A) 1,3,5,7 only
B) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7
C) 1,2,3,4,6 only
D) 3,4,6,7 only
ANSWER:
B) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7
(TB Fires 8 - 9.1)
Prior to the opening of a recently renovated bridge in Staten Island, members noticed a hazardous separation between the NJ bound and the Staten Island bound travel lanes while conducting a familiarization drill. Which action taken should be corrected?
A) The Officer immediately called the SI Borough Command upon return to quarters in order to report the hazard.
B) The Officer forwarded an immediate letterhead report that included the name of the bridge.
C) The Officer forwarded an immediate letterhead report that included the location of the separation with the approximate size and direction of travel.
D) The Officer forwarded an immediate letterhead report to the Chief of Operations through the chain of command.
ANSWER: A) The Officer immediately called the SI Borough Command upon return to quarters in order to report the hazard. (INCORRECT)
Immediate letterhead report:
- Name of bridge
- Location of separation with approx. size and direction
- To Chief of Operations through chain of command
(TB Fires 8 - 9.1)
Which operating guideline at motor vehicle fires and emergencies is incorrectly described?
A) Never take a partial lane
B) Never allow traffic to come around both sides of an accident scene.
C) At a fire, position the line between the motor vehicle and exposures.
D) For a fire in the engine compartment where the hood is difficult to open, operate the line through the front grille.
E) When victims are trapped in the vehicle, use a fog stream to drive the fire away from the victim.
ANSWER: D) For a fire in the engine compartment where the hood is difficult to open, operate the line through the front grille. (INCORRECT)
- PRY SIDE OF HOOD & operate stream into that opening
(TB Fires 8 10)
FFs face many hazards at motor vehicle fires and emergencies. Which safety guideline is incorrect?
A) Use a coarse spray stream (partially open nozzle with tip removed) when magnesium parts are on fire.
B) The trunk must always be examined for victims or extension.
C) The battery must be disconnected, with the negative terminal removed 1st to eliminate sparks.
D) Keep onlookers from standing in front of or to the rear of vehicle fires for a distance of at least 25’.
E) When extinguishing a fire in a garbage truck that does not have a 2 1/2” female coupling, allow no one within 50’ of the rear of the truck when using a hydraulic system to raise the rear of the truck.
ANSWER: D) Keep onlookers from standing in front of or to the rear of vehicle fires for a distance of at least 25’. (INCORRECT)
- ONE HUNDRED (100’) FEET
(TB Fires 8 - 11.1)
Which choice is incorrect regarding safe operations at emegencies or fires involving hybrid vehicles?
A) Do not approach from the front or rear until the vehicle has been disabled, even if it is silent.
B) Never cut any orange cables, but blue cables can be cut if the vehicle is “OFF”
C) Make sure the ignition is “OFF” and key or key fob is at least 15 feet away from the vehicle.
D) Make sure the “READY” light is not on.
E) At a hybrid vehicle fire, always make sure that the high voltage battery case is cooled down to prevent reignition.
ANSWER: B) Never cut any orange cables, but blue cables can be cut if the vehicle is “OFF”
- DO NOT CUT ORANGE OR BLUE CABLES
(TB Fires 8 11.6)
A ladder company Lt. discussing FDNY elevator operations stated there are two types of elevator responses, Incidents & Emergencies. Of the following, which would be considered to be an emergency?
A) A passenger stuck in an elevator who is panicking.
B) A passenger stuck in an elevator car who is injured.
C) Fire endangering passengers that are stuck in an elevator.
D) All of the above
ANSWER: D) All of the above
TB - Elevators 2.4
A ladder company operating at a reported stuck elevator in a 6 story MD with a basement is attempting to locate the elevator car. Of the following techniques used, which was incorrect?
A) An intercom was used to contact the stuck car so passengers were able to give their approximate location.
B) The hoistway door was opened on the 1st floor with an elevator key and members looked up the shaft.
C) The location of the counterweight was used to approximate the position of the car. Since the counterweight was on the 1st floor, the car was assumed to be on the 6th floor.
D) The floor selector in the machinery room was examined. This will indicate the exact location of the elevator car.
ANSWER: C) The location of the counterweight was used to approximate the position of the car. Since the counterweight was on the 1st floor, the car was assumed to be on the 6th floor. (INCORRECT)
- The car would be on the FIFTH (5th) FLOOR.
(TB - Elevators 3.2.1)
Primary removal procedures are simple approaches performed without turning off the elevator power. There are 2 types of primary removal procedures. The order in which they are attempted is not important. One type is to check whether simple electrical contacts have been broken. Choose an incorrect point regarding this procedure?
A) Have a passenger press the Door Open button. This may open both the car and hoistway door if the car is level with the landing.
B) Have members press Lobby Call Button.
C) Have a passenger push the door towards the closed position to insure the car door is fully closed.
D) Since air movement in the shaft may have opened an interlock cutting power to the car, have members physically close all hoistway doors on the shaft beginning with hoistway doors on the 1st floor and proceeding up one floor at a time.
ANSWER: D) Since air movement in the shaft may have opened an interlock cutting power to the car, have members physically close all hoistway doors on the shaft beginning with hoistway doors on the 1st floor and proceeding up one floor at a time. (INCORRECT)
- Have members phsyically close all hoistway doors IN THE VICINITY OF THE STUCK CAR FIRST.
(TB - Elevator 3.3.1)
Ladder 21 requires the use of FE to gain access into a stalled elevator car with a slide type door. Of the following tools, which one is listed as the preferred FE method for these types of doors?
A) Maxi-Force Air Bags
B) FE Tool
C) Rabbit Tool
D) Hurst Tool Spreaders
ANSWER: A) Maxi-Force Air Bags
TB Elevator 3.7.3 B
Ladder 28 has attempted to use Primary Removal Procedures, which were unsuccessful. They are now moving onto Secondary Power Removal Procedures. They would be correct to take all of the following procedures with the exception of which one?
A) Members shall never operate in the shaft below an elevator car.
B) Members shall not remove passengers from the car until assured power has been removed.
C) When passengers are removed from a car between floors they should be taken up and out of the car if practical.
D) Members operating in the shaft are to be secured by a LSR.
ANSWER: A) Members shall never operate in the shaft below an elevator car. (INCORRECT)
- Members can operate in the shaft below an elevator car if RESCUE IS REQUIRED and power is turned off prior to entering the shaft.
(TB - Elevators 3.5.2)
TL 105 is operating at a stuck occupied elevator in a 12 story building with a two speed elevator system. The members of this company would be correct to take all but which one action listed?
A) If the emergency stop button has been activated have the passengers deactivate it.
B) Have members in the elevator machinery room shut power to the stuck car and turn it on again.
C) If the car is to restart it will do so within 10 seconds.
D) If this procedure fails, attempt to restart the elevator one additional time. If the 2nd attempt fails the power must be shut and not restored again.
ANSWER: D) If this procedure fails, attempt to restart the elevator one additional time. If the 2nd attempt fails the power must be shut and not restored again. (INCORRECT)
- Only shut the power and turn it back on ONCE. Do not attempt to restart the elevator an additional time.
(TB - Elevators 3.6.3)
Members of a Bronx Ladder company responded to a stalled occupied elevator. Upon arrival they find the car is stuck in a blind shaft on the 8th floor. The Officer orders the members to remove the occupants via a top hatch removal. The members would show proper knowledge in all but which choice?
A) Open a hoistway door or access panel on the floor above the stuck elevator car and ensure adequate lighting is provided.
B) Lower a straight portable ladder to the elevator roof. Extension ladders shall not be used.
C) Have members climb down on the car roof. A maximum of 2 FFs are to be permitted on the roof of the car at a time.
D) All members working in the shaft are to be secured by a LSR. In addition occupants that are removed from the car shall be secured by a LSR.
ANSWER: B) Lower a straight portable ladder to the elevator roof. Extension ladders shall not be used. (INCORRECT)
- Use straight ladder IF POSSIBLE.
- If an extension ladder is used TIE THE HALYARD AROUND THE RUNGS OF BOTH SECTIONS of the ladder.
- This will prevent the lower section from dropping on to the car roof.
(TB - Elevators 3.7.2)
A Captain is discussing elevator operations with his company. In how many of the following points was he correct?
- It maybe useful under conditions of partial power loss in multi-car hoistways. It may not be useful where a structural beam blocks a side exit or the rescue car can’t be brought level with the stuck car.
- Members must work from a car that is in the same bank and is adjacent to the stuck car. This will become the rescue car.
- Bring the rescue car even with the stuck elevator. If a mechanic is present, use his operating key to bring the car level with the stuck car.
- Once the rescue car is level with the stalled car, power is to be removed from the rescue car.
- Open the side exit of the stalled car. A key or forcible entry is required to open the panel from the shaft side of the car.
- A member equipped with a HT and secured to a LSR crosses into the stuck car and determines the order of occupant removal. Each passenger shall be secured with an LSR.
- 6’ or longer planks should be used to bridge between cars.
A) 7 B) 6 C) 5 D) 4
ANSWER: B) 6 (5 is INCORRECT)
5 - Side exit can be OPENED BY HAND from the shaftway.
(TB - Elevator 3.7.2 B)
There are 2 types of elevator pits that can be found at the lowest portion of the elevator shaft. Jump pits are usually found 4 - 6 feet from the lowest landing level to the base of the pit. Walk-In Pits are usually 6 - 10 feet from the lowest landing to the base of the pit. A unit operating in a Walk-In Pit would be incorrect in which action?
A) Shut power to the elevator via the power switch.
B) Entry is made into the pit via the pit door.
C) Under no circumstances shall members enter a Walk-In Pit prior to power removal.
D) If there is fire in the pit, be cautious of the buffers (a device designed to stop a descending elevator beyond the normal limits of travel), they may be filled with combustible or inflammable liquid.
ANSWER: C) Under no circumstances shall members enter a Walk-In Pit prior to power removal. (INCORRECT)
- IN AN EXTREME EMERGENCY TO SAVE LIFE.
(TB - Elevators 4.2.2)
You are a new Lieutenant and are out conducting BISP with your unit in a HROB. During the inspection you start to talk about firemen service elevators. You made the following four points and were incorrect in which one?
A) Phase 1, the recall phase, is the recall of all elevators in the bank to the street or terminal floor either automatically when there is an activation of a smoke detector or water flow from the sprinkler system or manually by use of a 1620 key.
B) During phase 1 recall an elevator traveling away from the street floor or from its lowest landing will reverse direction at the next landing without opening its doors, and return non-stop to the street lobby or terminal floor.
C) Doors opened at any floor will immediately close and the elevator shall return non-stop to the street or terminal floor. During Phase 1 the “Emergency Stop” buttons will be operational.
D) If Phase 1, the recall phase, has not been initiated upon arrival, Phase 1 should be initiated and all cars accounted for and examined as they arrive at the street lobby floor.
ANSWER: C) Doors opened at any floor will immediately close and the elevator shall return non-stop to the street or terminal floor. During Phase 1 the “Emergency Stop” buttons will be operational. (INCORRECT)
- Emergency stop button will be INOPERABLE in Phase 1
- Emergency stop works in PHASE 2
(TB - Elevators 5.3)
L100 has just arrived for a fire on the 14th floor of a 40 story HROB. As the members enter the lobby area they notice that there are 3 elevators serving the building and that all the elevators are closed. The building engineer says the elevators came down when the smoke detectors and sprinkler systems activated on the fire floor. This indicates that a Phase 1 was initiated automatically. The Officer of L100 would be most correct to take which action below?
A) Place the lobby key switch in the “Door Open” position so that the doors of the fireman service cars will then open.
B) Place the fireman service lobby keyed switch momentarily in the “Normal” (OFF) position and then return it to the fireman service position so that the elevator car doors will open.
C) Order your members to force open the elevator car doors since the 1620 does not work in this situation unless the doors are open.
D) Have your LCC go to the elevator machinery room and turn the power off and then back on to reset the system and open the elevator doors.
ANSWER: A) Place the lobby key switch in the “Door Open” position so that the doors of the fireman service cars will then open.
“MOO ADO”
Manual - Off/On
Automatic - Door open
(TB - Elevator 5.3.1 C)
Understanding how the fireman service controls work is important when fire department operations include the use of elevators. Which point below about the fireman service controls is not correct?
A) If the lobby keyed switch has three positions (normal, fireman service, and door open) the 1620 key is only removable in the normal and fireman service position.
B) When the elevator car switch is in the fireman service position it can still be overridden by the lobby keyed switch in the event of an emergency.
C) A fireman service keyed switch is provided inside each fireman service elevator car and has either two positions, normal and fireman service or a 3rd position, the “hold” button.
D) To operate the car, the switch must be placed in the fireman service position while the car is at the landing where the lobby keyed switch is located.
ANSWER: B) When the elevator car switch is in the fireman service position it can still be overridden by the lobby keyed switch in the event of an emergency. (INCORRECT)
- Once the car switch is in the Fire Service position it CAN NOT BE overridden by the lobby keyed switch.
(TB - Elevators - 5.2)
Listed below are some of the different buttons found inside of an elevator car. From the choices listed below please choose which button must be continuously held in order for it to carry out its function?
A) Door close button
B) Floor selection button
C) Call cancel (reset) button
D) Emergency stop button
E) Door open button
ANSWER: E) Door open button
TB - Elevators - 5
E99 & L100 have responded to a Class 3 alarm in a 30 story HRFPMD. The building has a total of 4 elevators in the lobby. L100 has recalled the elevators and are using one of the elevator cars to investigate an alarm activation on the 25th floor. L100 notifies E99 that the source of the alarm is a pull box in the hallway which someone pulled and then ran away. E99’s Officer then tells L100’s Officer that he is going to place the lobby keyed switch back into the “normal” position so that the building occupants can resume the use of the elevators. The Captain from L100 then tells the Engine Lieutenant not to do that or the car that L100 is using will be rendered inoperable. Do you agree or disagree with this statement?
A) Agree
B) Disagree
ANSWER: B) Disagree
- Once a Fire Service car has been placed in Phase II operation, it will continue in Phase II operation, REGARDLESS OF THE POSITION OF THE LOBBY KEYED SWITCH. This feature may be utilized to restore other cars in the elevator bank to normal operation, while the Fire Department continues to use the Fire Service car or cars.
(TB - Elevators - 5.3.2 11)
Members of L98 have just recalled and placed an elevator car into the fireman service mode so that they can investigate a reported smoke condition on the 10th floor of a HRFPMD. Upon entering the elevator the Officer from L98 presses the door close button and then selects the 8th floor. As soon as the elevator begins to move the Officer pushes the call cancel button. In this situation, you would expect what to happen?
A) The elevator car should stop at the 8th floor, the selected floor.
B) The elevator should stop at the next available landing with the doors remaining closed.
C) The elevator should return to the lobby and the doors should open.
D) Nothing should happen since the call cancel button is rendered inoperable in phase 2.
ANSWER: B) The elevator should stop at the next available landing with the doors remaining closed.
(TB - Elevators 5.3.2 A 3)
When using elevators at a fire operation there are some procedures that all members should be familiar with. Which point below shows correct information when using elevators at fire operations?
A) When it is confirmed that the fire is on the 8th floor or below units should avoids the use of elevators. It is safer to utilize the stairway to reach the fire floor.
B) Do not use an elevator in a bank that services the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within three floors of the fire floor.
C) Not more than seven members are to be permitted in any elevator car. This precaution is required to prevent overloading.
D) Before entering the elevator car, all members shall have donned their masks. The facepiece shall be maintained in the standby position and there must be a member equipped with a HT.
ANSWER: D) Before entering the elevator car, all members shall have donned their masks. The facepiece shall be maintained in the standby position and there must be a member equipped with a HT.
A - Fire on SEVENTH (7th) FLOOR OR BELOW should avoid the use of elevators (8 is great)
B - Do not use an elevator in a bank that services the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within FIVE (5) FLOORS of the fire floor.
C - Not more than SIX (6) MEMBERS are to be permitted in any elevator car. This precaution is required to prevent overloading.
(TB - Elevator 6.1)
Units have arrived at a 30 story HROB where a fire has been reported to be on the 27th floor. As members are entering the building, the building engineer tells them that there are only 2 elevators that serve the building. He also states that there is an access stair that goes from the 24th floor to the 27th floor and that the fire is on the 27th floor. In this situation, members using the elevators would be most correct to take the elevator to which floor?
A) 22nd floor
B) 23rd floor
C) 25th floor
D) 26th floor
ANSWER: A) 22nd floor
When it is necessary to use an elevator in a bank which serves the fire floor:
A. If Fire Service is available, use a car with the Fire Service feature.
B. Select a floor at least two floors below the fire floor or TWO FLOORS BELOW THE LOWER LEVEL OF AN ACCESS STAIR IN THE FIRE AREA, whichever is lowest.
(TB - Elevator - 6.1.4 B)
During a drill on a recent 9x6 tour, members of L100 were discussing elevator usage during fire operations and made the following four points. Which point contains incorrect information?
A) Elevators should be stopped every 5 floors (precautionary stops) to confirm that the elevator will respond to the selected floor. At each stop a new selection must be made.
B) Before leaving the lobby and at each precautionary stop, direct a flashlight up between the elevator car and the hoistway shaft to determine if there is any accumulation of smoke in the elevator shaft.
C) If you are in a smoke filled hallway, remember, elevator doors will swing away from you and apartment doors will swing toward you.
D) The relationship of the elevator to the stairway should be noted. This can be accomplished by inspecting the “YOU ARE HERE” sign which is required to be posted at each floor near the call button. This should be done at the 1st and last precautionary stop.
ANSWER: C) If you are in a smoke filled hallway, remember, elevator doors will swing away from you and apartment doors will swing toward you. (INCORRECT)
- Elevator doors - swing TOWARDS you / into the hall
- Apartment doors - swing AWAY from you / into apartment
(TB - Elevator - 6.1.15)
L100 has just arrived at a 30 story HRFPMD for a report of a stuck occupied elevator. When members enter the building the super tells them that the elevator is stalled around the 12th floor and is equipped with an emergency side exit door. When an emergency side exit door is found members can expect all of the following except?
A) It will have an electrical door contact that will prevent motion of the car when the door is open.
B) Must be hinged to open into the elevator shaft.
C) It must have a locking device that requires the use of a key inside the car.
D) A means of being opened by hand from the shaft side.
ANSWER: B) Must be hinged to open into the elevator shaft. (INCORRECT)
- Hinged to open INTO THE ELEVATOR CAR.
(TB - Elevator 7.3)
Lt. Backman and his members have just recalled the elevator in order to investigate an odor of smoke on the 22nd floor of a HROB. As they enter the elevator car they notice that there are two floor selector panels in the elevator car, one on each side of the elevator doors. The fireman service keyed switch is located one foot above and separate from the floor selector panel on the right side of the elevator doors. In this situation which floor selector panel should Lt. Backman and his members use?
A) They can use either floor selector panel
B) They should use the floor selector panel on the left side
C) They should ask the building’s superintendent
D) They should use the floor selector panel on the right side
ANSWER: D) They should use the floor selector panel on the right side
In some elevator cars there may be two floor selection panels. The one to use for Fire Service is the one NEAREST TO OR THE ONE WITH THE FIRE SERVICE KEYED SWITCH.
In this scenario the keyed switch was located on the right side of the elevator car so you would use the right side selector panel.
(TB - Elevator 5.3.2 A)
If members become trapped in a stalled elevator car during fire operation all of the following actions listed below would be correct to take except which one?
A) Check the emergency stop button as it may have been accidentally activated. Deactivate it by pushing it in, or if a switch type, moving switch to the on position.
B) In an extreme emergency, FD hose can be used to slide down to the floor below. If more than one length of hose is used, first tie the lengths together, then couple them.
C) Members can be lowered to the hoistway door interlock and exit at the floor landing below the fire.
D) A hoseline on the floor below can be used to spray a fog stream between the car and the hoistway door. A 30 degree fog pattern should be used to cool and protect trapped persons during the rescue operation.
ANSWER: A) Check the emergency stop button as it may have been accidentally activated. Deactivate it by pushing it in, or if a switch type, moving switch to the on position. (INCORRECT)
- Deactivate by PULLING OUT
- Switch type move to the OFF POSITION
(TB - Elevator 6.3)
At 1115 hours, 1st alarm units respond to a report of a 3 car vehicular accident on the BQE with reports of a possible pin. On arrival, the 1st arriving Ladder Officer finds the incident to be on the other side of the roadway requiring operations across a center divider. In this situation, the Officer as the initial IC, he would be incorrect to think?
A) Traffic shall be stopped in both directions and safety warning devices set up on both sides.
B) A member shall be directed to use a tool to test the surface on the opposite side of the center divider for the presence of a solid stable surface.
C) The IC may select an area for access to the incident and this safe crossing corridor, under all circumstances, shall be the only means of access and egress utilized.
D) The safe crossing corridor shall be clearly marked with cones or barrier tape to identify the designated area.
ANSWER: C) The IC may select an area for access to the incident and this safe crossing corridor, under all circumstances, shall be the only means of access and egress utilized. (INCORRECT)
- UNLESS OTHERWISE DIRECTED BY THE IC this shall be the only means of access and egress.
(TB Fires 8 - 9.1)
You are working as a Captain operating in the A-Wing of an H-type building where there is heavy fire in the cockloft. The IC orders you to use the cockloft nozzle in an attempt to control extension of the fire. In this situation, you would be incorrect to think that the cockloft nozzle?
A) Should be supplied by a 1 3/4” hose line.
B) Requires the same pressure as a standard 1 3/4” line
C) Delivers about 180 GPM
D) Has a configuration of the 1/2” Outer Stream Tips that eliminate back pressure.
ANSWER: C) Delivers about 180 GPM (INCORRECT)
- ONE HUNDRED AND TWENTY FIVE (125 GPM)
- The tips on the nozzle reduce the GPM.
(TB Tools 7)
1st alarm units are responding to a 10-77 in a 26 story HRFPMD. Fire is located on the 18th floor and is wind impacted. Regarding the use of the High Rise Nozzle, in this situation it would be correct to state that?
A) It is the responsibility of the 4th due Engine to bring the HRN to the Command Post.
B) The HRN will produce flows of 225-250 GPM at 50 psi nozzle pressure with water flowing.
C) A spotter equipped with a HT and a pair of binoculars will provide direction and progress reports to the IC and also members operating via the company officer supervising the HRN.
D) A shut off should be placed in the hose line one length from the standpipe outlet.
ANSWER: C) A spotter equipped with a HT and a pair of binoculars will provide direction and progress reports to the IC and also members operating via the company officer supervising the HRN.
A - FIFTH (5th) DUE brings HRN to Command Post
B - Flows of TWO HUNDRED to TWO TWENTY FIVE
(200 - 225 GPM with water flowing)
D - Shut off placed one length from NOZZLE.
(TB Tools 7)
Engine 92 arrives at a fire reported in the cellar of a MD. Ladder 44 has determined there is an oil burner fire that is out of the pit and requests a foam handline be stretched. The stretch will require about 8 lengths of hose to reach the oil burner area. In this situation, Engine 92 would be most correct to take which action?
A) Place the foam eductor one length from the pumper
B) Stretch 8 lengths of 2 1/2” hose
C) Supply the foam line with 150 psi
D) Insure they use AR-AFFF foam concentrate, which has a brown band on the container.
ANSWER: B) Stretch 8 lengths of 2 1/2” hose
A - Place eductor ON THE PUMPER OUTLET
C - 200 PSI
D - AR-AFFF has a RED BAND
- When stretching 1 ¾” hose not more than SIX (6) lengths are to be used off of the eductor.
- When using 2 ½” hose not more than TEN (10) lengths of 2 ½” hoseare to be used off of the eductor.
(TB Foam - Addendum 3 - 1.2)
You are a company Officer that just extinguished a car fire that you deem to be suspicious in nature. The car is a brand new 2020 Mercedes Benz, but has no plates, and was unoccupied at the time of the fire. Additionally, you find evidence that you want to bring back to the firehouse for the Fire Marshals. In this case, you would be most correct to transmit a _________________?
A) 10-23, 10-41 Code 3, and place the evidence in two, new, heavy gauge plastic bags.
B) 10-24, 10-41 Code 2, and place the evidence in a clean glass jar with a tight fitting lid.
C) 10-23, 10-41 Code 3, and place the evidence in a clean glass jar with a tight fitting lid.
D) 10-24, 10-41 Code 3, and place the evidence in a new paint can.
ANSWER: D) 10-24, 10-41 Code 3, and place the evidence in a new paint can.
- 10-24 for having value greater than salvage
- 10-41-3 for Unoccupied Vehicle
- Best method of evidence collection is NEW paint can
(TB Arson 5.3 - Comm 8 Radio Codes)
A Lt. from Ladder 111 is conducting drill on the Combination Metal / Concrete Diamond Blade at 3 AM in the kitchen. In which point was he incorrect?
A) When operating the saw, it should be frequently backed out of the cut, so that air can cool the blade.
B) If the blade begins to heat up and glow red during use, discontinue using that blade until it has cooled down.
C) The blade is uni-directional, ensure you follow the directional arrows when cutting.
D) During prolonged cutting, using a gentle stream of water on the blade at the point of contact with the material being cut to prevent overheating.
ANSWER: C) The blade is uni-directional, ensure you follow the directional arrows when cutting. (INCORRECT)
- Blade is BI-DIRECTIONAL
- DISREGARD any directional arrows on older blades
(TB Tools 9 - App 1)
You are an officer conducting drill on the 30 foot Vehicle Recovery Strap. You would be most correct to state?
A) The maximum weight of the vehicle to be recovered shall not exceed 25,000 pounds
B) Vehicle recovery straps shall never be attached to the front or rear bumper.
C) Recovery from the rear is the preferred method of vehicle recovery.
D) A Safety Zone of at least 30 feet should be maintained while using the strap.
ANSWER: B) Vehicle recovery straps shall never be attached to the front or rear bumper.
A - Max weight 20,000 pounds
C - Recovery from FRONT is preferred
D - Safety Zone of at least 35 feet
(TB App C2 - Addendum 3 2.2)
Engine 65 is operating at a fire on the 28th floor of a HRFPMD where the control FF is utilizing the Digital In-line gauge at the standpipe outlet. In this situation, the Control FF would be most correct to think that?
A) An effective firefighting stream for a 2 1/2” line with a 1 1/8” MST is approximately 200 gallons per minute.
B) If the pressure reading on the gauge is normal, and the water flow is reduced below normal, he should suspect a burst length.
C) Pressure alerts or flow alerts are not a direct indication of an unsafe condition.
D) If the gauge fails to display any readings after two attempts to start it, the gauge must be removed from the standpipe outlet as water flow will be impacted.
ANSWER: C) Pressure alerts or flow alerts are not a direct indication of an unsafe condition.
A - 225 - 250 GPM
B - Suspect KINKS
C - DO NOT REMOVE / Leave gauge on
(TB Tools 36)
You are a Ladder Officer supervising operations at an elevator emergency where forcible entry will be required on a sliding type elevator door. In this situation, you should know that the preferred method of forcible entry is the ______________________.
A) Hydra Ram
B) Maxi-Force Air Bag
C) Rabbit Tool
D) Halligan and Axe
ANSWER: B) Maxi-Force Air Bag
TB - Elevator 3.7.3
Engine 75 is operating at a 10-75 for a fire on the top floor of an H-Type building. While using the thermal imaging camera at this fire, the Engine Officer would be correct to think that the focal point of the TIC is approximately _____ feet from the camera lens?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
ANSWER: B) 3
TB Tools 27
A company Officer is operating at a 10-75 when he notices that the HUD inside of his facepiece is slowly flashing yellow. He should know that this indicates that the level or air supply in his cylinder is?
A) One quarter
B) One half
C) Three Quarters
D) Full
ANSWER: B) One half
TB SCBA 3.8.9
A Company Officer conducting drill on the Pak-Tracker was correct that when searching?
A) The Pak-Tracker should be held at chest height out in front of the operating member.
B) The bottom of the hand-held receiver should be pointed toward the target.
C) Always pause 3-4 seconds for a reading and always move toward the highest relative signal strength.
D) The signal from the SCBA to the Pak-Tracker will usually pass through and penetrate through glass, wood, brick and concrete.
ANSWER: C) Always pause 3-4 seconds for a reading and always move toward the highest relative signal strength.
A - WAIST height
B - TOP of hand-held receiver should be pointed to target
D - Can only pass through LIGHT BUILDING MATERIALS
(NOT BRICK AND CONCRETE)
(TB SCBA - Addendum 8)
Of the many extinguishing agents found and used throughout NYC, Purple K is among the most effective. All of the following choices are correct except which?
A) Purple K has demonstrated a superior extinguishing capability in combating methanol fires. It is also effective on gasoline, diesel and compressed gas fires.
B) When operating, direct the Purple K extinguisher stream at the base of the flames using a side to side motion. Hold the extinguisher upright with the nozzle held in the member’s strongest hand.
C) Three hundred pound Purple K, or dry chemical, wheeled units are extensively used in industrial complexes throughout the city of New York.
D) Hose, whether on Purple K wheeled units or on reels found on dry chemical trucks, should be stretched after charging to ensure the sodium bicarbonate or Purple K can be immediately discharged.
ANSWER: D) Hose, whether on Purple K wheeled units or on reels found on dry chemical trucks, should be stretched after charging to ensure the sodium bicarbonate or Purple K can be immediately discharged. (INCORRECT)
- Stretch BEFORE CHARGING to eliminate the binding of the hose to the reel.
(TB PK 1 2.3.3)
The Purple K dry chemical handheld extinguisher has a capacity of 27 lbs. All of the following choices are correct except which?
A) The discharge range is 19’ to 20’
B) The discharge time is 60 seconds
C) Coverage is approximately 30 square feet
D) The extinguisher can be used between minus 40 and 120 degrees.
ANSWER: B) The discharge time is 60 seconds (INCORRECT)
- ELEVEN (11) SECONDS
(TB PK 1 2.2)
Proper maintenance of the Purple K handheld extinguisher is essential in ensuring this tool is effectively utilized when needed. Which choice below is incorrect?
A) The extinguisher shall be checked at the beginning of each tour and thoroughly examined semi-annually.
B) Every tour, ensure the extinguisher is in its designated place and is accessible for immediate use.
C) Every tour, examine the extinguisher shall for evidence of physical damage, corrosion or other impairments.
D) If the extinguisher is defective for any reason, attach an RT-2 and forward it to Technical Services for replacement.
ANSWER: A) The extinguisher shall be checked at the beginning of each tour and thoroughly examined semi-annually. (INCORRECT)
- Examined ONCE A MONTH
(TB PK 1 2.4)
The Department’s Purple K Units are completely self-contained firefighting units. The Purple K is contained in a sphere and is expelled by two pressurized nitrogen cylinders. Of the following choices, which contains correct information regarding these units?
A) They have two electric hose reels containing 100’ of 1” hose, with special nozzles for expelling the product.
B) It is possible to attach 2 lengths of hose together, but discharge pressure may be reduced.
C) Discharge range is approximately 30-40 feet. Start the attack about 20-30 feet from the fire, wind at your back, and use a side to side sweeping motion.
D) The Purple K truck mounted system will last approximately 5 minutes.
ANSWER: D) The Purple K truck mounted system will last approximately 5 minutes. (INCORRECT)
- LESS THAN TWO (2) MINUTES
(TB PK Addendum 1 1.3.3)
The Life Safety Rope (LSR) is a nylon rope that is stronger than manila rope of the same size. Which fact is true regarding the LSR?
A) It is 5/16” in diameter with a working load of 600 pounds.
B) It is 200 feet in length however it may shrink 8 to 10 feet over time due to natural shrinkage.
C) It can lose 10% to 15% of its strength when wet.
D) It will begin to melt when exposed to heat over 300 degrees.
ANSWER: C) It can lose 10% to 15% of its strength when wet.
A - 9/16” in diameter with a working load of 600 pounds. SEARCH ROPE is 5/16” in diameter.
B - 150 feet in length / may shrink 8 to 10 feet over time
D - LOSES STRENGTH at 300 degrees / MELTS at 482 degrees
(TB Rope 1 - 4.4)
The LSR should be placed out of service for how many of the following situations?
- When the rope is subjected to the weight of 1 person
- When the rope is submerged in water.
- When the rope becomes frozen.
- When any doubt exist regarding its serviceability
- Anytime a strand hockle or kink is found.
- If the rope comes in contact with acids or their fumes.
- If the rope has been exposed to highly heated surfaces
- When any rust is found on the rope.
A) 7 B) 6 C) 5 D) 4
1 - WEIGHT OF TWO (2) PEOPLE
ANSWER: D) 4 (3/4/6/7 are CORRECT)
Choices 1/2/5/8 are INCORRECT.
“Deputy Tony Hit A Home Run Far Away”
D - Doubt T - Two people (weight of) H - Hockle A - Acid or acid fumes H - Heat (exposed to highly heated surfaces) R - Rust (persistent rust stains) F - Frozen A - Abrasion
(TB Rope 1 Section 4)
Lt. Kramer must put his company’s LSR out of service after a defect was found. He filled out an RT-2 and took marks in the Company Journal, Office Record Journal and on the Rope Card (RP-100). He also completed an Out of Service Life Safety Equipment Report (SCF-2) and forwarded it through the chain of command to whom?
A) The Chief of Safety
B) The Chief of research and development
C) The Chief of Operations
D) The Chief of Department
ANSWER: A) The Chief of Safety
TB Rope 1 - 5.3
A member that is repacking the LSR into the rope carrying case should begin by placing the hook of the LSR in the _____________ front corner of the carrying case and make a _____________ circle one half of the width of the bottom of the case.
A) right / clockwise
B) right / counterclockwise
C) left / clockwise
D) left / counterclockwise
ANSWER: D) left / counterclockwise
TB Rope 1 Data Sheet 1 - 3.3
A Captain and Lt. discussing the LSR Training Rope would be correct to state which choice?
A) The length of the training rope is 125 feet.
B) It shall not be carried on the apparatus except when being transported to drill sites, at which time it must be under the complete control of a designated firefighter.
C) the maximum number of times this rope may be used is 100 per end, for a total of 200 slides.
D) The history of every LSR Training Rope shall be maintained on the same Rope Record Care (RP-100) as the assigned LSR.
ANSWER: C) the maximum number of times this rope may be used is 100 per end, for a total of 200 slides.
A - ONE HUNDRED FEET (100’) IN LENGTH.
B - Must be under the complete control of THE OFFICER
D - History of every LSR Training Rope shall be maintained ON ITS OWN RECORD CARD RP-101 (NOT the same card as the LSR)
(TB Rope 1 Data Sheet 3 - 3.1.4)
Of the following choices, which shows incorrect information regarding the care and maintenance of the Life Belt?
A) The life belt should be inspected weekly when the LSR is repacked and before and after each use.
B) Whenever a Life Belt is subjected to an impact load, it shall be placed out of service and forwarded to R and D for evaluation. Life Belts subject to an impact load will be destroyed.
C) A member free falling 3 feet or more is considered a sufficient impact load to warrant placing the Life Belt out of service.
D) When a Life Belt is placed out of service the officer shall notify the administrative Division by telephone and fax and have it replaced immediately.
ANSWER: B) Whenever a Life Belt is subjected to an impact load, it shall be placed out of service and forwarded to R and D for evaluation. Life Belts subject to an impact load will be destroyed. (INCORRECT)
- Forward to SAFETY COMMAND
(TB Rope 2 - 2.1)
The Officer of Ladder 16 must place his personal harness out of service due to a defect found during inspection. While waiting for a replacement harness from the Division Depot, if a response is received, the Officer should notify the dispatcher that?
A) Ladder 16 is out of service
B) Ladder 16 is responding understaffed.
C) Ladder 16 is responding with 4 firefighters.
D) No notification to the dispatcher is required. Upon arrival at the scene notify the IC that the Officer may not enter an IDLH.
ANSWER: A) Ladder 16 is out of service
- If Officer bag is OOS then the unit is OOS.
- If a FFs bag is OOS then they cannot enter the IDLH.
(TB Rope 3 6.10)
Captain Doyle is holding a drill on cutting with the Combination Metal/Concrete Diamond Blade. He asked the Proby to state four facts about this blade. Which is the only correct piece of information the Proby gave?
A) The blade is bi-directional and will cut evenly in either direction. The blade should be flipped weekly to ensure both sides of the blade receive equal wear.
B) To prevent overheating of the blade it is permissible to use a stream of water such as a hoseline at the point of contact with the material.
C) The blade can be used for wet and dry cutting.
D) Place disc out of service if diameter is 8” or less.
ANSWER: C) The blade can be used for wet and dry cutting.
A - Flipped after EACH USE
B - Use gentle stream of water such as an EXTINGUISHER
D - True for old ABRASIVE DISC
(TB Tools 9 - Appendix 1)
The Personal Safety System (PSS) is part of member’s equipment that is vital to their safety. Which choice about the PSS is correct?
A) The length of the rope is 75 feet.
B) The PSS shall be properly connected to the right side of the personal harness at all times.
C) The PSS can be used by members to remove themselves or victims from untenable positions.
D) After Use, The PSS shall be inspected before being placed back in service.
ANSWER: B) The PSS shall be properly connected to the right side of the personal harness at all times.
A - Length of rope is FIFTY (50) FEET
C - PSS is for removal of MEMBERS ONLY (not victims)
D - PSS is a ONE USE SYSTEM / Place OOS after use
(TB Rope 4 - 2.2)
Inspecting the PSS is extremely important to ensure it works properly when needed. Which is the incorrect point regarding inspections?
A) The PSS shall be inspected at the start of the tour and semi-annually.
B) If the bag (or any component of the PSS) shows signs of heat exposure (discoloration, degradation, melting, charring, etc.) The entire system (PSS bag, rope, EXO and harness) should be placed out of service.
C) When dark shading of the rope is noted during semi-annual inspection, the PSS is to be placed out of service.
D) Upon completion of the semi-annual inspection, and repacking, the Officer shall update the “PSS Checklist Application” on the intranet and ensure the EXO and harness serial number assigned to each member are correct.
E) The sewn eye is only to be used with the issued hook. No other hardware or device should be placed into the sewn eye.
ANSWER: C) When dark shading of the rope is noted during semi-annual inspection, the PSS is to be placed out of service. (INCORRECT)
- The inside liner of the rope bag is dyed black. Over time the rope can be discolored in spots by contact with the liner indicated by dark shading to the rope.
- This discoloration due to the DYE DOES NOT AFFECT the load bearing capacities of the rope.
(TB Rope 4 - 5.3)
While working in an Engine Company in Battalion 23, a member approached you and states that while performing semi-annual inspection of their PSS, they noticed fraying and cut fibers, and need to place their PSS OOS. Which is the only correct action to take?
A) Instruct the member to use the spare PSS repacking kit issued to the unit while awaiting a replacement PSS.
B) Make telephone notification to the Battalion and request a replacement PSS.
C) Prepare an RT-2 but do not make any journal entries.
D) Complete an out of service Life a Safety Equipment Report and forward it directly to the Chief of Department without immediate endorsements.
ANSWER: A) Instruct the member to use the spare PSS repacking kit issued to the unit while awaiting a replacement PSS.
B - Telephone DIVISION for replacement
C - RT2 and a mark in COMPANY JOURNAL AND OFFICE RECORD JOURNAL
D - Form SCF-2 to the CHIEF OF SAFETY through the chain of command
(TB Rope 4 6.1)
When a member’s PSS has been placed OOS, and the Member is not equipped with a PSS and a response is received before a replacement is obtained there are several points to remember. Which choice is incorrect?
A) The member without the PSS shall not respond.
B) If the member is in a Ladder Company, the officer shall transmit to the dispatcher “we are responding with 4 FFs” and the member shall not enter an IDLH area.
C) If the member is in a 4 FF Engine, the Officer shall transmit to the dispatcher “we are responding understaffed” and state the number of FFs responding. The member shall not enter the IDLH.
D) If the Officer is not equipped with a PSS, the unit shall be placed OOS until a replacement PSS is obtained.
ANSWER: A) The member without the PSS shall not respond. (INCORRECT)
- Member responds but does not enter IDLH.
(TB Rope 4 - 6.15)
While discussing the Search Rope during a study group, several statements were made. Which one was incorrect?
A) The Search Rope is to be used as a supervisory tool to maintain search team integrity under difficult circumstances.
B) The Search Rope should be deployed only in heavy heat and smoke conditions in large, complex and below grade areas.
C) The thermal imaging camera, if available should be used in conjunction with the search rope.
D) The Search Rope is to be used only for search or guide purposes, not for lifting or lowering.
ANSWER: B) The Search Rope should be deployed only in heavy heat and smoke conditions in large, complex and below grade areas. (INCORRECT)
- Search rope should be deployed in large and complex areas and below grade areas even in LIGHT AND MODERATE HEAT AND SMOKE CONDITIONS.
(TB Rope 6 - 1.2)
Which is the incorrect statement concerning the Search Rope?
A) The Search Rope is made of either 5/16” diameter white nylon or a 7.5mm diameter Kernmantle design.
B) The rope is 200 feet long and has a snap hook at each end. Newly issued Kernmantle ropes have a double action snap hook at the working end and a snap hook that secures the rope to the bag.
C) The rope is packed in a yellow carrying bag marked “Search Rope”
D) Each Search Rope will have a Company ID tag attached to the rope and another to the bag.
E) The nylon rope shall be coiled into the case counter clockwise.
ANSWER: C) The rope is packed in a yellow carrying bag marked “Search Rope” (INCORRECT)
- Marked with the COMPANY NUMBER
(TB Rope 6 - 2.3)
While searching a Mill Loft building with a search rope and unable to determine the run of the finished flooring, a member attempts to use the knots on the search rope to orient themselves. Which thought concerning these knots is correct?
A) The first distance knot is tied at 25 feet, and the last distance knot is tied at 175 feet.
B) Spacing between the distance knots is approximately 18 inches.
C) A single direction knot is located 6 inches before all of the distance knots.
D) The distance and direction knots do not affect the length of the rope.
ANSWER: A) The first distance knot is tied at 25 feet, and the last distance knot is tied at 175 feet.
B - Spacing between distance knots is approximately SIX (6) INCHES
C - A single directional knot is located EIGHTEEN (18) INCHES before all of the distance knots. This knot is ALWAYS closer to the tie off or exit.
D - Due to shrinkage and the installation of distance and directional knots, nylon search ropes may be short by TWENTY FIVE (25) FEET OR MORE.
(TB Rope 6 - 2.3)
Lt. Bradford was correct when he took which action while deploying the search rope at a fire in a factory?
A) He notified the IC when deploying the rope, and notified the members searching on the rope and the IC the amount of search rope deployed.
B) He secures the end of the rope to a forklift inside the building.
C) He maintained the rope 2 inches off the ground, ensuring sufficient slack to maintain maneuverability.
D) Voice contact was not maintained with members searching off the rope due to them being under functional supervision.
E) When searching members were required to leave the building prior to completing the search, Lt. Bradford ensured the rope was repacked while proceeding to the exit.
ANSWER: A) He notified the IC when deploying the rope, and notified the members searching on the rope and the IC the amount of search rope deployed.
B - Must secure rope to a SUBSTANTIAL NON MOVEABLE OBJECT in a clear, safe environment (Not a forklift)
C - Maintain rope ONE TO TWO FEET ABOVE GROUND.
D - Voice contact SHALL BE MAINTAINED with all search members
E - If search is interrupted, TIE OFF LINE AND LEAVE THE BAG WITH THE REMAINDER OF THE ROPE. Another unit can continue the search using this rope.
(TB Rope 6 - 8.2)
Often the search using a search rope is completed by a unit other than the one that initially deployed the rope. Which choice is incorrect in this situation?
A) Under most conditions, the number of members assigned to the search rope team should be limited to three.
B) A unit, other than the first alarm unit, receiving orders to search an area requiring a search rope shall maintain unit integrity and perform this function with all members.
C) When a Unit other than a first alarm unit performs a search with the search rope, the officer and 2 FFs will operate as the 1st search team, and the remaining members will remain at the tie off point to standby as the backup team.
D) When a unit is being relieved on a search rope, they shall exit the IDLH with their left hand in contact with the rope if possible, and the relieving unit shall enter the area with their left hand in contact with the rope, if possible.
ANSWER: D) When a unit is being relieved on a search rope, they shall exit the IDLH with their left hand in contact with the rope if possible, and the relieving unit shall enter the area with their left hand in contact with the rope, if possible. (INCORRECT)
- Exit area with RIGHT HAND on rope
- Relieving unit enters area with RIGHT HAND on rope
(TB Rope 6 - 8.2)
Selected Ladder companies have been trained in the use and issued the EZ Don Harness. Which is the incorrect point about this harness?
A) The harness is only designed for technical removals of civilians. It is not to be used for members.
B) The harness replaces the LSRs bowline on a bright for removal purposes.
C) After tightening the shoulder, chest and leg straps, a closed fist should be able to be placed between the victim’s chest and the tri-link.
D) The harness shall only be used for removal of one person at a time.
ANSWER: A) The harness is only designed for technical removals of civilians. It is not to be used for members. (INCORRECT)
- Designed for NON TECHNICAL removals
- Can be used for VICTIMS OR FIREFIGHTERS
(TB Rope 9 - 2.1)
The fire window blanket shall be inspected weekly. The blanket is of natural color and the weight is approximately 40 lbs. The blanket dimensions are 10 feet wide by 12 feet long and big enough to cover 2 windows. The ropes are long enough to lower the blanket from two floors above. As a good student you would know who would bring the fire window blanket to the Fire Sector at a HRFPMD.
A) 1st Roof FF
B) 3rd Roof FF
C) Rescue Company
D) Squad Company
ANSWER: D) Squad Company
TB Tools 3 - 3.3
The Officer on duty needing a replacement KO Curtain should notify who to get the replacement?
A) Battalion
B) Division
C) Research and Development during normal business hours or SOC at Roosevelt Island during non-business hours.
D) Tech Services
ANSWER: B) Division
- Research and Development during normal business hours or SOC at Roosevelt Island during non-business hours is correct for the WINDOW BLANKET.
(TB Tools 2 - 6.3)
Which statement concerning the pressurized water extinguisher is incorrect?
A) The 2 1/2 gallons water extinguisher weighs approximately 30 pounds. The operating pressure is 100 psi at 70 degrees F and the water is expelled in 55 seconds.
B) Direct the straight stream at the base of the fire. A gloved finger placed lightly over the nozzle tip can help produce a fine spray. This spray pattern is also useful at fires to obtain the maximum cooling effect and extended application time.
C) Using the extinguisher with a finger over the nozzle should only be used at very small or smoldering fires where there is no thermal draft created by the fire. Thermal draft may cause the spray to become steam and possibly burn the user or others in close proximity.
D) Check hydrostatic test date. If it is over 3 years, the extinguisher must be placed OOS.
ANSWER: D) Check hydrostatic test date. If it is over 3 years, the extinguisher must be placed OOS. (INCORRECT)
- Hydrostatic test date over FIVE (5) YEARS / place OOS
(TB Tools 1)
During routine maintenance of the water extinguisher, safety is of the upmost importance. Which choice below is incorrect?
A) The pressurized water extinguisher shall be inspected daily and after each use.
B) To prevent injury, always ensure all pressure is properly relieved from extinguisher prior to recharging. Also eye protection should be worn when recharging the extinguisher.
C) Regulated extinguisher pressurization source should never be set higher than 100 psi.
D) Never stand directly in front of extinguisher gauge or stand over the valve during pressurization.
ANSWER: C) Regulated extinguisher pressurization source should never be set higher than 100 psi. (INCORRECT)
- Never higher than ONE HUNDRED AND TWENTY FIVE (125 PSI)
(TB Tools 1 - 6)
The KO curtain and ropes have been tested to 2000 degrees F. The KO Curtain survived 50 mph winds and 60 minutes of fire exposure. It weights 26.5 pounds and its dimensions are 8’ x 6’. The KO Curtain shall be inspected weekly during MUD and after each use. When the KO Curtain is deployed, the Ladder Company Officer of the confiscated KO Curtain will prepare a brief letterhead report to _________________ detailing the use of the device and a description of any damage that may have occurred from the deployment of the device at the incident. The Officer shall also include any additional information that may be important to the future use of this device and forward a report via the chain of command with a copy to the ________________.
A) Chief of Operations / Chief of the Fire Academy
B) Chief of Safety / Chief of the Fire Academy
C) Chief of the Fire Academy / Research and Development
D) Chief of the Fire Academy / Chief of Safety
ANSWER: A) Chief of Operations / Chief of the Fire Academy
- Chief of Operations - Richardson
(TB Tools 2 - 6.2)
The FDNY has issued a Digital In-Line Pressure/Flow metering device that has been designed specifically for standpipe operations. Choose the incorrect statement made.
A) The gauge does not regulate water flow
B) The red LED readout indicates pressure in psi
C) The blue LED readout indicates water flow in gpm
D) The Digital In-Line gauge must be pre-connected to a folded length of hose
ANSWER: D) The Digital In-Line gauge must be pre-connected to a folded length of hose. (INCORRECT)
- The gauge is not to be pre-connected to a folded length of hose
(Training Bulletins Tools 36 sec 3.1)
A- It provides members with the ability to monitor the pressure and flow delivered from the standpipe outlet to the nozzle team.
The incorrect statement made in regards to the “Beluga Auto Glass Knife” can be found in which choice?
A) Designed to cut Tempered Safety Glass found in automobile windshields, hurricane windows and both commercial and residential construction glass
B) The Beluga Glass Cutter attaches to any 3/8”- 1/2” drill or 1/4” nut driver
C) The connected drill and Beluga cutting head can swivel 360 degrees at the chuck so you can steer around obstructions such as the A-Post
D) The blade is ground and polished hardened steel, it will not wear out while cutting glass
ANSWER: A) Designed to cut Tempered Safety Glass found in automobile windshields, hurricane windows and both commercial and residential construction glass. (INCORRECT)
- Designed to cut LAMINATED SAFETY GLASS found in automobile windshields, hurricane windows and both commercial and residential construction glass
(Training Bulletins 39 secs 2.1, 3.2, 3.3, 3.10)
The most effective way to extinguish a combustible metal fire can be found in which choice?
A) Class A extinguisher
B) Class B extinguisher
C) Class C extinguisher
D) Class D extinguisher
ANSWER: D) Class D extinguisher
- The FDNY currently has two class D extinguishers with a slightly different capabilities available for use; they are MET-L-X and the LITH-X
(Training Bulletins 34 sec 1.2)
The only correct procedure when using the Vehicle Recovery Strap can be found in which choice?
A) The Vehicle Recovery Strap is only to be used on Department and Civilian vehicles when stuck in deep snow
B) The Vehicle Recovery Strap can be used to remove Engine or Ladder apparatus when stuck in deep snow
C) If the stuck vehicle is an ambulance with a patient, recovery may be attempted as long as the patient is not Critical
D) The Vehicle Recovery Strap shall never be attached to the front or rear bumper
ANSWER: D) The Vehicle Recovery Strap shall never be attached to the front or rear bumper.
(Training Bulletins Apparatus C-2 / Addendum 3)
A- Department vehicles ONLY
B- Shall not exceed 20,000 lbs (Battalion vehicles and ambulances are under 20,000 lbs) / Engine and Ladder exceed this amount.
C- Patient shall be offloaded to a secondary ambulance prior to vehicle recovery use.
The service life of a SCBA air cylinder can be found in which choice?
A) 5 years
B) 10 years
C) 15 years
D) 20 years
ANSWER: C) 15 years
- The date of manufacture is listed on the SCOTT label by month and year. The service life of an air cylinder is 15 years. If a manufacture date is greater than 15 years, the cylinder must be removed from service, bled down, tagged, and returned to MSU
(Training Bulletins SCBA sec 3.2.3)
After an identity appears on the LCD display, a Pak-tracker receiver can then be locked onto the PASS signal of an individual SCBA and used as a tracking device to find a member in distress. It is important to understand that a Pak-Tracker receiver can lock onto how many SCBA(s) at a time?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 5
D) 10
ANSWER: A) 1
Training Bulletins SCBA add 8 sec 5.4
The incorrect information about the pressurized water extinguisher can be found in which choice?
A) Water expelled in 55 seconds
B) Shall be hydro-statically tested at 5 year intervals or at any time an extinguisher shows evidence of corrosion or mechanical damage
C) In freezing weather, the extinguisher should be placed in an apparatus cab or other warm area if the unit will be operating for an extended period
D) Pressurized water extinguishers shall be inspected at the beginning of each tour and after each use
ANSWER: D) Pressurized water extinguishers shall be inspected at the beginning of each tour and after each use
- Pressurized water extinguishers shall be inspected DAILY and after each use
- Note the difference between this an TB Purple K Dry Chemical Extinguishers (Inspected EACH TOUR and thoroughly examined once a month)
(Training Bulletins Tools 1 sec 4)
When supervising the mixture of Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF) concentrate to the AFFF extinguisher, the correct amount of concentrate to be added can be found in which choice?
A) 2 ounces
B) 5 ounces
C) 10 ounces
D) 20 ounces
ANSWER: C) 10 ounces
- An AFFF extinguisher not used within 1 year after charging must be emptied, refilled and recharged
- Note: this is a recent change
- Also: inspected Daily
(Training Bulletins Foam add 2 sec 5)
Designated training air cylinders for SCBAs have what color top?
A) Red
B) White
C) Blue
D) Green
ANSWER: C) Blue
(Training Bulletins SCBA sec 3.2.15)
- Designated training cylinders are identified with a blue top and/or a polymer protective sleeve
- These cylinders are not to be used for firefighting purposes
All marked FDNY apparatus/vehicles, and voluntary hospital ambulances that have FDNY EMS 911 participant logos have security decals affixed to them. Where is the security decal located?
A) Drivers side of windshield
B) Passenger side of windshield
C) Passenger side of cab door area
D) Drivers side of cab door area
ANSWER: D) Drivers side of cab door area.
(Training Bulletins C-2 add 2 sec 3)
- This is a new change
- Look at picture…test writers often go to pictures.
When setting up the Care and Maintenance schedule for the company apparatus, there are duties that should be done tourly vs daily. Choose the Care and Maintenance that was set up incorrectly.
A) Fill the fuel tank tourly
B) Check the seat belts daily
C) Purge air tanks tourly
D) Check oil level daily
ANSWER: B) Check the seat belts daily (INCORRECT)
(Training Bulletins C2 sec 3)
- Seatbelts TOURLY (immediately after the 0900 and 1800 roll calls)
- Tourly: fill fuel tank, seatbelts, warning devices, regular lights, purge air tanks “FLAWS”
- Daily: apparatus cleaning, door handles/latches, wipers/mirrors/glass, battery maintenance, air loss in brake system, engine oil, tires, suspension, upholstery, radiator
The pump pressure gauge will read when the apparatus is at its lowest RPMs. With the engine set for volume, and the hydrant producing 50 psi, the pump pressure gauge will read which correct psi?
A) 105 psi
B) 160 psi
C) 110 psi
D) 50 psi
ANSWER: A) 105 psi
(Training Bulletins app P3 sec 1.2)
- Pump idle pressure when in volume mode is 55 psi (55 psi + 50 psi for the hydrant = 105 psi)
- Pump idle pressure when in pressure mode is 110 psi (110 psi + 50 psi for the hydrant = 160 psi when in pump idle pressure)
The High Rise Nozzle (HRN) may be used as an alternate attack strategy when standard interior handline attack methods are not possible, such as conditions caused by wind driven fires. Which feature described below is incorrect regarding the HRN?
A) The HRN is an eight foot long aluminum pipe with a 68 degree two foot bend.
B) Prior to use, a 2 1/2” FDNY shutoff must be attached to the HRN.
C) The 1 1/8” MST attached to the HRN is removable and should be checked at MUD.
D) Supplied by 2 1/2” hose line, the HRN will produce flows of 200-225 GPM at 50 psi nozzle pressure with water flowing.
ANSWER: B) Prior to use, a 2 1/2” FDNY shutoff must be attached to the HRN. (INCORRECT)
(TB Tools 7 / Data Sheet 17 4.1)
- The Shut-off is PERMANENTLY ATTACHED
Captain Smith is working in Engine Company 231 in Brooklyn. At roll call, his members are discussing a stubborn wind impacted fire in a HRFPMD that units operated at the night before which required the use of the high rise nozzle. They make the following comments regarding the nozzle, but were only correct in which one?
A) The HRN will only be placed into operation at the direction of a Chief Officer.
B) The supply line must be attached to the HRN before it is slid out the window sill for use.
C) The firefighter operating the HRN will initiate and maintain HT contact with the spotter to make sure the nozzle is being operated effectively and the stream is knocking down the fire.
D) Putting the HRN into operation will require the services of one Engine company equipped with rollups, standpipe kit, FE tools and the HRN.
ANSWER: B) The supply line must be attached to the HRN before it is slid out the window sill for use.
(TB Tools 7 / Data Sheet 17 5.1)
A - HRN only placed into operation if authorized by IC.
C - OFFICER SUPERVISING HRN initiates and maintains HT contact with the spotter.
D - Requires services of TWO (2) ENGINES
Every Battalion has at least one Engine company who is assigned a High Rise Nozzle and all FDNY members have been trained in putting this tool into operation. Dispatch policy dictates that every 10-77 will have at least one HRN equipped Engine company assigned. It is the responsibility of the _______ due Engine to bring the HRN to the Command Post.
A) 2nd
B) 3rd
C) 4th
D) 5th
ANSWER: D) 5th
TB Tools 7 / Data Sheet 17 2.3
Engine 5 is the 5th assigned Engine Company operating at a 10-77 in Manhattan. They are ordered to take the High Rise Nozzle to the floor below to knockdown a wind impacted fire. After gaining access to the apartment below the fire, Engine 5’s Officer hears reports that multiple rooms are involved in fire. Engine 5 performed the following tactics but was only correct in which one?
A) In this situation, E5 started with the window that the wind was blowing into and extinguished the fire in this room first. Then, they moved to the other windows upwind of the original fire room and completed knockdown of the fire.
B) A shut-off was placed two lengths back from the nozzle. When repositioning the HRN, the supply line was shut down at this shut-off and the nozzle opened to bleed the line.
C) Once repositioned, Engine 5’s Officer ordered water started.
D) The nozzle was operated when Engine 5’s Officer gave approval.
ANSWER: C) Once repositioned, Engine 5’s Officer ordered water started.
(TB Tools 7 / Data Sheet 17 5.12)
A - Move to other windows DOWNWIND of the original fire room and complete knockdown of the fire.
B - Shut-off placed ONE LENGTH back.
D - Nozzle operated when IC gives approval.
The cockloft nozzle is a 6’3” aluminum pipe with two 1/2” OSTs. It has standard 1 1/2” female threads enabling connection to a controlling nozzle. Which additional feature of a cockloft nozzle mentioned below is correct?
A) The two 1/2” OSTs are not to be removed. These tips increase the reach of the stream in excess of 60 feet and facilitate the generation of steam that enables a more rapid extinguishment of the fire.
B) The discharge rate of the cockloft nozzle is approximately 180 GPM.
C) The cockloft nozzle is to be supplied by a 2 1/2” handline with the same pressure normally supplied to a 2 1/2” handling.
D) The cockloft nozzle is carried by all squad companies and battalion vehicles.
ANSWER: A) The two 1/2” OSTs are not to be removed. These tips increase the reach of the stream in excess of 60 feet and facilitate the generation of steam that enables a more rapid extinguishment of the fire.
(TB Tools 7 / Data Sheet 18 1.2)
B - Discharge rate is 125 GPM.
C - Supplied by 1 3/4” with the same pressure normally supplied to an 1 3/4” line.
D - Carried by Squad and DIVISION vehicles.
The cockloft nozzle is designed to extinguish fires in the confined space of any building with a cockloft. The IC shall consider the use of the cockloft nozzle at any incident where its unique capabilities may be beneficial. Which procedures outlines below involving the cockloft nozzle is correct?
A) A hole approximately 2’ x 2’ is needed in the ceiling in order for the cockloft nozzle to fit. The clearing between the top of the ceiling joists and the bottom of the roof joists must be a minimum of 6” to enable the operation of the cockloft nozzle.
B) Prior to using the cockloft nozzle in a NFPMD, a vent hole must be cut over the main body of fire.
C) When using a cockloft nozzle in a NFPMD, the preferred location for operation is immediately outside the apartment door. This is to provide members with a degree of protection provided by the public hallway.
D) The cockloft nozzle shall only be placed into operation at the direction of a Chief Officer.
ANSWER: D) The cockloft nozzle shall only be placed into operation at the direction of a Chief Officer.
(TB Tools 7 / Data Sheet 18 4.1)
A - A hole THREE FEET BY THREE FEET (3’ x 3’) is needed in the ceiling / Minimum of FOUR (4) INCHES to enable cockloft operation.
B - CONSIDER cutting a vent hole prior to cockloft nozzle operation (NOT MANDATED)
C - Preferred located is immediately INSIDE apt. door
