TRAINING BULLETINS

Question 1

An Officer drilling on the use of Sound Powered Telephones at Under River tunnels was incorrect when he made which statement?

A) If using an amplifier to increase volume, place the talk level knob at the highest setting.

B) When dedicating members to a SPT, each member shall be paired with another member who will monitor HT communications.

C) An Under River tunnel system will include coverage in both tubes in both directions and one location on both sides of the tunnel, typically the newest emergency exit.

D) There is usually a connection from one SPT system to an adjacent system. (Example - Under River tunnel to a nearby subway station)

E) In Under River tunnels, the SPT connectors are found at standpipe outlets, about 200 feet apart. Notify the IC of the standpipe outlet number in order to identify the incident location.

Answer 1

ANSWER: D) There is usually a connection from one SPT system to an adjacent system. (Example - Under River tunnel to a nearby subway station. (INCORRECT STATEMENT)

• There is USUALLY NO CONNECTION from one SPT system to another.

(TB Tools 31)

Question 2

Members are drilling on the 6x9 tour on FAST Unit operations. When discussing the PAK Tracker, which statement made by the junior member was the only correct statement made?

A) The maximum range from an SCBA’s transmitter to a PAK Tracker handheld receiver is approximately 450 feet line of sight.

B) While the PAK Tracker can receive and store up to 48 SCBA identities, the LCD display screen is only large enough to display one line of information.

C) It is important to understand that a PAK Tracker receiver can only lock on to two SCBA’s at a time.

D) Use the PAK Tracker in a sweeping motion, very rapidly in a horizontal direction first.

E) Always pause 3 to 4 seconds for a reading when using the PAK Tracker.

Answer 2

ANSWER: E) Always pause 3 to 4 seconds for a reading when using the PAK Tracker.

A - Max range is 900 (NINE HUNDRED) feet line of sight

B - Can store up to 36 (THIRTY SIX) Identities / LCD screen can display 2 (TWO) lines of information

C - Can lock on to 1 (ONE) SCBA at a time

D - Use in a sweeping motion VERY SLOWLY horizontally first. Use vertically if signal may be coming from higher or lower floor

(TB SCBA Addendum 8 - 2.1, 5.3, 5.4, 7.8, 7.9)

Question 3

The new FRC Digital In-Line Pressure/Flow metering device has been designed specifically for standpipe operations. This device has many features that will help the control firefighter monitor the pressure and flow being delivered from the standpipe outlet to the nozzle team. Which feature below is listed incorrectly regarding this tool?

A) The gauge will allow the control FF to regulate the water flow into the hose line from the standpipe outlet.

B) A red LED readout of pressure in pounds per square inch (psi)

C) A blue LED readout of water flow in gallons per minute (gpm)

D) A built in 45 degree elbow to ease use in wall cabinets.

Answer 3

ANSWER: A) The gauge will allow the control FF to regulate the water flow into the hose line from the standpipe outlet. (INCORRECT STATEMENT)

(TB Tools 36 - 1.1 2.1)

• Allows member to MONITOR PRESSURE AND FLOW BEING DELIVERED FROM STANDPIPE OUTLET TO NOZZLE TEAM.

Question 4

The FRC Digital In-Line Gauge is powered by a rechargeable lithium ion 9 volt battery to provide optimal power and longevity for ________ hours of operation.

A) 2

B) 3

C) 4

D) 5

Answer 4

ANSWER: D) 5

TB Tools 36 2.1

Question 5

Captain Drake and his company are discussing the use of the FRC Digital In-Line pressure gauge. In how many of the following choices were they correct regarding the operation of this tool?

1. The gauge should be pre connected to the Control FF’s folded length of hose.
2. After connecting to the standpipe outlet, firmly press and hold the green on/off button for 4 to 5 seconds.
3. The goal is to obtain a residual pressure (nozzle open, water flowing) of approximately 70 psi for a 3 length stretch or 80 psi for a 4 length stretch with a flow of 225/250 gpm.
4. Suspect kinks if the pressure reading is normal or higher and the flow is reduced below normal.
5. Suspect a burst length if the pressure reading is normal or lower and the flow is increased above normal.
6. If the gauge fails to display upon initial start up, make another attempt to turn it on. If this attempt fails, immediately notify the officer and advise that water flow will be delayed. The gauge must be disconnected from the outlet and the hose reconnected directly to the outlet.

A) 6 B) 5 C) 4 D) 3

Answer 5

ANSWER: C) 4 (Choices 1 and 6 are incorrect)

TB Tools 36 (3.1)

1 = DO NOT HAVE PRE-CONNECTED

6 = If 2nd attempt fails, VERIFY with officer that nozzle team is
receiving proper pressure and flow / gauge DOES NOT regulate
water flow / hose line operations CAN CONTINUE without the
display functioning properly.

Question 6

After a run in a high rise multiple dwelling, Lt. Kelly decides to have a drill with her members on elevator operations during fires. Lt. Kelly would be correct to tell her junior members which one of the following choices?

A) When a fire is confirmed on the 8th floor or below, units should avoid the use of elevators.

B) Do not use an elevator in a bank which services the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within seven floors of the fire floor.

C) Not more than 6 members are permitted in any elevator car.

D) The elevator should be stopped every 10 floors (precautionary stops) to confirm that the elevator will respond to the selected floor.

Answer 6

ANSWER: C) Not more than 6 members are permitted in any elevator car.

TB Elevator Ops 6 (6.1.2 - 6.1.10)

A - SEVEN (7) or below avoid elevators (8 is great)

B - Do not use elevator in a bank which services fire floor is a lower
bank reaches within FIVE (5) floors of the fire floor.

C - Correct

D - Precautionary stops made EVERY FIVE (5) floors.

Question 7

You are drilling with your members on elevator operations. You made the following statements. In which statement were you incorrect?

A) Before leaving the lobby and at each precautionary stop, direct a flashlight up between the elevator car and the hoist way to determine if there is any smoke in the elevator shaft.

B) The “YOU ARE HERE” sign, which is required to be posted at each floor near the call button will show the relationship of the elevator to the stairway. This should be inspected at every precautionary stop as floor configuration may change.

C) If you are in a smoke filled hallway, remember, elevator doors will swing toward you and apartment doors will swing away from you.

D) In any situation where the elevator operates erratically, exit the car at the nearest safe floor.

Answer 7

ANSWER: B) The “YOU ARE HERE” sign, which is required to be posted at each floor near the call button will show the relationship of the elevator to the stairway. This should be inspected at every precautionary stop as floor configuration may change. (INCORRECT STATEMENT)

TB Elevator Ops 6 (6.1.11 - 6.1.15)

• Inspect sign at FIRST AND LAST precautionary stop.

Question 8

The guide to company apparatus care and maintenance shall be posted at the house watch area and used as a guide. Which inspection would not be required to be completed immediately after the 0900 and 1800 roll calls?

A) Fill fuel tank

B) Check seat belts for fraying

C) Check sirens, air horns, and warning lights for operability.

D) Inspect the wheel checks. Proper position is when they are not in sequence.

E) Check non response lights, and notify Fleet Services for replacement of all bulbs other than headlights.

Answer 8

ANSWER: D) Inspect the wheel checks. Proper position is when they are not in sequence. (INCORRECT)

• Inspect wheel checks DAILY. Proper position is when they are IN SEQUENCE.

EVERY TOUR: Fill fuel tank / check seat belts / check sirens & warning lights / check non response lights / purge air tanks

(TB Apparatus C-2 section 3.1.1)

Question 9

There are many numbers to remember when performing daily maintenance of the apparatus. Which one is incorrect?

A) Air loss of 1 lb. per 10 minutes, or a maximum of 10 lbs. per application does not require notification to fleet services.

B) Check the Engine oil when hot, or when the engine has been running for at least 30 minutes.

C) When the tread wear of the tire reaches 3/16” request replacement.

D) The antifreeze level should be about one inch below the radiator cap or to the full mark on the surge tank.

E) If during a short period of time (approximately 24 hours), a TL basket platform drifts downward excessively, notify Fleet Services.

Answer 9

ANSWER: B) Check the Engine oil when hot, or when the engine has been running for at least 30 minutes. (INCORRECT)

• Check oil when COLD or when the engine has been SHUT DOWN FOR AT LEAST FIFTEEN (15) minutes.

(TB Apparatus C-2 section 3.2.7)

Question 10

With various types of snowfall and icing conditions, snow chains should be applied at the discretion of the Officer. Choose the incorrect point about these snow chains.

A) Only full chains should be used (no strap style chains)

B) When chains are applied, apparatus must not exceed 15 mph.

C) When weather and road conditions improve, chains must be removed. The use of chains on dry pavement can cause severe damage to the apparatus.

D) When the apparatus is out of quarters for any reason, except while responding to fires or emergencies, and cross links of chains break or become loose, the Officer in command of the apparatus shall cause the apparatus to stop immediately.

Answer 10

ANSWER: B) When chains are applied, apparatus must not exceed 15 mph. (INCORRECT)

• Snow chains = no more than THIRTY (30) MPH.
• Regulations Ch. 11 (No turns in excess of 15 mph)

(TB Apparatus C-2 section 2)

Question 11

All marked FDNY apparatus/vehicles have been issued security decals. Which choice is wrong concerning these decals?

A) The decals are affixed adjacent to the driver’s side door or may be found on the driver’s side of the windshield. The Company Commander shall ensure the presence of the decals, and that the FD emblem is in an upright position.

B) If member’s observe a marked FDNY apparatus/vehicle that does not have a vehicle security decal, they shall approach the vehicle and challenge the driver.

C) If members observe a marked FDNY apparatus/vehicle that does not have a security decal, they shall contact the borough dispatcher after requesting a mixer off message.

D) If a decal on a fire apparatus becomes damaged, the Officer shall immediately notify Fleet Services, make a journal entry, and send a letterhead report to the Assistant Commissioner of Fleet/Tech Services. A copy of the report and remnants of the decal are forwarded to BFI.

Answer 11

ANSWER: B) If member’s observe a marked FDNY apparatus/vehicle that does not have a vehicle security decal, they shall approach the vehicle and challenge the driver. (INCORRECT)

• DO NOT APPROACH the vehicle (contact dispatch via mixer off)

(TB Apparatus C-2 Addendum 2 section 4.2)

Question 12

Vehicle recovery straps for FDNY vehicles are often used in snow conditions to aid in the recovery of Department vehicles. Choose the incorrect point concerning these straps.

A) The straps can be used to recover EMS ambulances and Battalion vehicles. They cannot be used to recover Engine & Ladder Apparatus.

B) The strap shall not be used for towing and lifting.

C) The straps shall never be attached to the front or rear bumper.

D) If the stuck vehicle is an ambulance with a patient, the patient may remain in the ambulance while the strap is used if the driver remains in the ambulance.

E) Members shall maintain a 35’ Safety zone around the strap when in use.

Answer 12

ANSWER: D) If the stuck vehicle is an ambulance with a patient, the patient may remain in the ambulance while the strap is used if the driver remains in the ambulance. (INCORRECT)

• The patient MUST BE REMOVED from the ambulance.

(TB Apparatus C-2 Addendum 3 section 3.15.2)

Question 13

FDNY 100’ Aerial ladders operate by utilizing two double acting hydraulic lift cylinders which provide smooth, precise elevation from ___________ degrees above horizontal.

A) 0 - 45

B) 0 - 60

C) 0 - 80

D) 0 - 100

Answer 13

ANSWER: C) 0 - 80

TB Apparatus L-7 1.2

Question 14

Two individually controlled stabilizers can be hydraulically extended out and down to provide a firm base for Aerial ladder operations. The load capacity varies from ____________ at the tip depending on the degree of elevation.

A) 200 - 1000

B) 250 - 750

C) 300 - 800

D) 350 - 1000

Answer 14

ANSWER: B) 250 - 750

• Aerial Ladder load capacity = 250 to 750 lbs at the tip
• Confined space high point anchor - Aerial (250) / TL (800)

(TB Apparatus L-7 1.4)

Question 15

During drill, an LCC is showing the members of the company the proper way to place the Aerial Ladder into Power Take Off (PTO). Of the following steps, which one was taken incorrectly?

A) He placed the automatic transmission is the PARK (P) position.

B) The MAXI-BRAKE was engaged.

C) He moved the FRONT BRAKE LOCK SWITCH to the ON position. The FRONT BRAKE LIGHT illuminated.

D) He opened the red cover of the PTO CONTROL SWITCH and flipped the switch to the UP position. The PTO light illuminated.

Answer 15

ANSWER: A) He placed the automatic transmission is the PARK (P) position. (INCORRECT)

• Place transmission into NEUTRAL (N) position.

(TB Apparatus L-7 2.2)

Question 16

Hydraulically operated “H” frame stabilizers are located behind the rear wheels of the Aerial Ladder. The controls for these stabilizers are located at the back of the apparatus, one handle for each stabilizer. The stabilizers each require __________ for full horizontal extension.

A) 3’ 6”

B) 4’ 0”

C) 5’ 2”

D) 6’ 3”

Answer 16

ANSWER: C) 5’ 2”

TB Apparatus L-7 3.1

Question 17

Aerial ladders are provided with an “Interlock Diverter Valve” (IDV) to help safeguard the stability of the apparatus. The IDV diverts the hydraulic fluid to power either the stabilizers or the Aerial Ladder. Should a function of the IDV system fail, the stabilizers or Aerial Ladder can be moved by accessing the override controls located where?

A) In the cab, on the officer’s side

B) In the cab, on the LCC’s side, near the PTO switch.

C) On the Aerial Ladder pedestal

D) At the rear of the apparatus

Answer 17

ANSWER: D) At the rear of the apparatus

• Only use IDV in an EMERGENCY SITUATION
• Notify IC if you use IDV

(TB Apparatus L-7 3.2.4)

Question 18

A Lt. Instructing member’s of her company on the proper way to extend and lower the stabilizers on Aerial Ladders was correct in all but which statement made below?

A) Always begin by extending and lowering the inboard stabilizer (working side) first.

B) Activate the HIGH IDLE switch to assist in faster operation.

C) Move the STABILIZER CONTROL HANDLE toward the OUT/DOWN position until the stabilizer is fully extended horizontally and begins to lower to the ground.

D) Pause the operation prior to contact with the ground in order to place the ground stabilizer pad. These pads must be used at all times. Once in place resume lowering the stabilizer until it reaches the end of its stroke.

Answer 18

ANSWER: A) Always begin by extending and lowering the inboard stabilizer (working side) first. (INCORRECT)

• Not always (For uneven surfaces such as a sloped street start by lowering the lower side first)

(TB Apparatus L-7 3.3)

Question 19

Which one of the following is an example of a plant used by am arsonist?

A) Cotton waste and rags found near the point of origin and spread throughout an apartment

B) Candles and matches found near the point of origin.

C) A gas line that was cut or disconnected near the point of origin.

D) Gasoline found in a can in a room next to where the fire started.

Answer 19

ANSWER: B) Candles and matches found near the point of origin.

A - Trailer

C and D - Accelerants

(TB Arson - 1.2.5)

Question 20

Possible indicators of the use of flammable accelerants at a fire are indicated by all of the following except which choice below?

A) Charring of the floor

B) Char in a broken pattern or puddle like cicle burns.

C) Low burn marks on a wall, under a door, or on the lower part of the door.

D) Heavy body of fire with a large amount of contents.

E) Burn marks on a civilian’s forehead, cheeks and under the chin and nose.

Answer 20

ANSWER: D) Heavy body of fire with a large amount of contents. (INCORRECT)

• Heavy body of fire with LITTLE AMOUNT of contents.

(TB Arson - 3.7)

Question 21

You are a company officer operating at a fully involved car fire where after the fire is knocked down, the owner of the car informs you she thnks the fire was intentionally set and wants to talk to you. In this situation, you would be correct to?

A) Let her talk freely, and interrogate if only necessary.

B) Listen to what she is stating about the fire, but do not record any information in writing.

C) Let her talk freely, record what she is saying, then request her name and address.

D) Because you are not an experienced investigator, be aware that she should only talk freely to the Fire Marshal.

Answer 21

ANSWER: C) Let her talk freely, record what she is saying, then request her name and address.

• DO NOT INTERROGATE (simply ask for name and address)

(TB Arson)

Question 22

You are a company officer in an Engine company maintaining a fire line that has been established at a multiple dwelling where there is an ongoing investigation extending over a long period of time. Several relatives and neighbors arrive at 1100 hours and they want to place flowers inside the area where the fire line was established. In this situation you would need the authorization of the _______________ to allow the people to cross the fire line?

A) Chief Fire Marshal and/or Division Commander

B) Chief Fire Marshal and/or Chief of Operations

C) Assigned Fire Marshal and/or Chief of Operations

D) Assigned Fire Marshal and/or Chief of Department

Answer 22

ANSWER: C) Assigned Fire Marshal and/or Chief of Operations.

• Chief of Operations Richardson

(TB Arson - 4.1)

Question 23

After fire is knocked down in an apartment, a ladder officer finds a 10-45 Code 1 victim on the mattress in a rear bedroom. Which indicator found on the victim should the officer find suspicious and thus notifying the IC of possible arson?

A) The victim is found in a pugilistic position

B) The victim has cherry red lips, eyelids and skin.

C) The victim has pink or red skin showing on the lowest horizontal area of their body.

D) The victim has soot in or around the nose or mouth.

E) The victim’s skull appears to have exploded.

Answer 23

ANSWER: C) The victim has pink or red skin showing on the lowest horizontal area of their body.

• Pink/red skin on lowest horizontal point on body represents LIVIDITY. (Don’t conufse with cherry red)

A - Pugilistic position DOES NOT indicate violence or a struggle. This is due to the contraction of the muscles that occurs during the fire.

B - Cherry lips, eyelids and skin represent CO in blood (victim was breathing/alive at the time of the fire)

D - Soot in nose or mouth indicates victim was breathing/alive at time of the fire.

E - Heat penetrating into the cranial cavity produces steam from the fluids of the body, which in turn produces pressure sufficient to cause an internal explosion.

(TB - Arson - 4.6)

Question 24

An officer conducting drill on evidence collection and preservation by members at the scene of a suspicious fire was correct to state that?

A) A clean, one gallon, metal can (like a clean paint can) is the preferred evidence packaging method.

B) If a one gallon metal can is not available, a clean glass jar with a tight fitting lid is the next best choice.

C) Plastic containers may never be used because vapors may escape through the plastic.

D) In an emergency, use of only a single, brand new, heavy gauge plastic bag can be justified if it is closed tighlty, until a can or jar can be found.

Answer 24

ANSWER: B) If a one gallon metal can is not available, a clean glass jar with a tight fitting lid is the next best choice.

A - This container should be a one (1) gallon metal can such as a NEW paint can. (Never use a can that was previously used.)

C - AVOID using plastic containers

D - In an emergency you can use TWO (2) heavy gauge plastic bags

(TB - Arson - 5.3.1)

Question 25

A ladder officer finds evidence at a car fire and after transmitting a 10-41 code 3 to the dispatcher, he is instructed to bring the evidence back to the firehouse as the fire marshals are unable to respond for quite some time. Regarding the continuity of evidence, the officer would be incorrect to think that evidence? A) Should be labeled or marked, but only after photos of it have been taken. B) Should never be left in the company office. C) May be left in the company office if it is locked up. D) May be left in the company office if someone else signs and stays with it.

Answer 25

ANSWER: B) Should never be left in the company office. (INCORRECT) * Evidence CAN BE left in company office. (TB Arson - 5.4.1.)

Question 26

A ladder company officer is trying to determine the point of origin at an apartment fire that has been knocked down by the engine company. In this situation, he would be incorrect to think that? A) V-pattern burns usually point toward the point of origin. B) Abscence of a v-pattern burn could mean an accelerant was used. C) Perpendicular burns on walls indicate normal fire travel. D) The deepest char will may be found at the point of origin. However, this is not always so, since the most intense heat and fire may have been above the point of origin.

Answer 26

ANSWER: C) Perpendicular burns on walls indicate normal fire travel. (INCORRECT) * Indicates POSSIBLE ACCELERANT. (TB - Arson 6.7.3)

Question 27

A fire officer should know that signs of a rapid fire buildup might assist with locating the point of origin. Which one of the following glass object indicators is indicative of rapid fire buildup? A) Heavy smoke stains found on glass remote from the point of origin. B) Medium crazing (cracking) of glass found remote to the point of origin. C) Checkering of glass (half-moon effects) found in the room of origin. D) Small crazing (cracking) found on glass near the point of origin.

Answer 27

ANSWER: D) Small crazing (cracking) found on glass near the point of origin. * This indicates RAPID fire buildup,indicative of accelerant. * Small crazing means intense and rapid heat build up and will be found closer to the point of origin. * Large crazing indicates remoteness from the point of origin and/or a relatively slow heat build up. A - Heavy smoke stains, remote from the point of origin, usually indicate a SLOW fire build up. Light smoke stains usually indicate a rapid build up of the fire, little fire damage and are found close to the point of origin. (Hydro-carbons or products thereof may be an exception to the above). B - Statement not written in our books C - Checkering of glass (half moon effects or marks) usually results from WATER BEING APPLIED to heated glass. (TB - Arson - 6.7.3)

Question 28

An engine and ladder respond to a report of fire in a PD. On arrival, they transmit a 10-18 for a small fire in a detached garage next to the house. There is no one in the garage, but the occupants of the associated house state they saw kids run away from the garage just before the fire started. In this case, it would be most correct to transmit a 10-41? A) Code 1 B) Code 2 C) Code 3 D) Code 4

Answer 28

ANSWER: D) Code 4 (Vacant buildings, buildings under construction / demolition, DETACHED GARAGES, sheds or similar structures) Code 1 - Occupied Structure or Vehicle Code 2 - Unoccupied Structure Code 3 - Unoccupied Vehicle Code 4 - Vacant Structure, or Structures NOT INTENDED for Dwelling Purposes. Note: If any of the above are occupied at the time of the fire transmit Code 1. (Communications 8)

Question 29

During Training at his newly assigned firehouse, probationary firefighter Smith made which incorrect comment regarding the closing of certain valves? A) A clockwise direction is used to close, makeup or tighten pressure cylinders such as oxygen and propane. B) A counterclockwise direction is used to close a hydrant operating nut. C) A clockwise direction is used to close a hydrant street shutoff. D) A clockwise direction is used to close, makeup or tighten sprinkler systems and water mains.

Answer 29

ANSWER: C) A clockwise direction is used to close a hydrant street shutoff. (INCORRECT) * COUNTERCLOCKWISE used to close a hydrant street shutoff. (TB Emergencies 3 - 2.1)

Question 30

Of the following choices, which is not a recommended option for mitigating a broken or leaking water pipe? A) If the shutoff is inaccessible and tubing is used, them simply crimp until flow stops. (Use pliers, tap with axe. etc.) B) For malleable metal, use a tapered piece of wood (shaved chock, pencil, chair leg, golf tee, etc. C) An emergency patch on a pipe can be made with a piece of rubber inner tube and held with duct tape, rubber tape, clamp or coat wire hanger etc. D) A screw plug can be used with a rubber gasket on pipes or water tanks.

Answer 30

ANSWER: B) For malleable metal, use a tapered piece of woof (shaved chock, pencil, chair leg, golf tee, etc. (INCORRECT) * Do this for NON MALLEABLE METAL. (TB Emergencies 3 - 3.3

Question 31

When dealing with water leaks, realize that sometimes the shutoff is located on the wall near the ceiling of the apartment directly below. Shutoffs may also be located on the riser line of apartments in basements. If no shutoff can be found, locate where the water main enters the building by using each of the following methods except? A) The main is usually near the rear building wall (often directly in the middle of the building) B) The main pipe will be the coldest pipe in the building and may also have condensation on the outside. C) Listen for the sound of running water and feel for vibration. D) Look for the armored ground cable which may be attached to the main from an electric meter.

Answer 31

ANSWER: A) The main is usually near the rear building wall (often directly in the middle of the building) (INCORRECT) * Usually near the FRONT of the building * Often found in CORNER of building. (TB Emergency 3 - 3.5)

Question 32

When dealing with a flooded roof, all of the following actions are acceptable except which? A) Used a glove hand to safely clear the blockage B) Clear the blockage with a 6' hook or applicable tool from the drain or scupper. C) Stretch an entire length of hose under water, allow it to fill and then kink one end. Drape the edge over the parapet, extending below roof level, and release the kink. D) Bring the booster line to the roof, charge the line and open the nozzle, Place line under water, shut down the pumps and disconnect the line at street, allowing it to drain.

Answer 32

ANSWER: A) Used a glove hand to safely clear the blockage. (INCORRECT) * DO NOT clear blockage with hand. (TB - Emergencies 3 5)

Question 33

Of the procedures listed below for utilizing th eHydrant Shut-off to shut down an open hydrant, which is incorrect? A) First remove the plate. After removed, you may have to direct some water to clear the chamber of mud and debris. B) Place the wrench on the fitting and turn counterclockwise 17 times. C) The nut is usually found off-center on the street side of the chamber. D) To facilitate the operation, water may have to be diverted by a board, garbage can cover, etc. Not until about 6 full turns is there a noticeable decrease in water flow.

Answer 33

ANSWER: D) To facilitate the operation, water may have to be diverted by a board, garbage can cover, etc. Not until about 6 full turns is there a noticeable decrease in water flow. (INCORRECT) * TWELVE (12) FULL TURNS (TB Emergencies 3 - 6.2)

Question 34

Immediately upon confiming that live electrical wires are down in the street and creating a situation that places human life in danger, the 1st arriving unit should take all of the following actions except? A) Contact the Fire Department dispatcher via department radio, indicating that life is in danger. Specify the location (address, pole number) of the downed wires. B) Stretch a hoseline with the fog nozzle. Use distance as a safety factor and keep at least 25 feet away from any downed wire while operating this handline. C) Safely attempt to disengage the wires from the victim using a 6' wooden hook from a dry, solid surface. D) Request the response of a BC if not already assigned.

Answer 34

ANSWER: C) Safely attempt to disengage the wires from the victim using a 6' wooden hook from a dry, solid surface. (INCORRECT) * DO NOT TOUCH WIRES. * Request forthwith power removal and notify utility company. (TB Emergencies 3 - 8.2)

Question 35

In which choice below is the action correct and in accordance with Fire Department policy for the related emergency? A) For an oil slick on the roadway immediately utilize a hoseline to apply water and dilute the spill. B) For a ring stuck on someone's finger, use soapy water or cool the finger to decrease swelling. A ring cutter will also safely cut the ring off the finger in a short period of time, less than a minute, and is the preferred method for rings made of stainless steel. C) Sulfur candles are usually found on the floor in a saucer of water. Searching members shall use their masks and vent as they search, using as few members as possible; preferably the Officer and one Firefighter. D) At an oil burner emergency, shut off electric power using the oil burner remote control which is generally painted red and located at the top of the interior cellar stairs in NLTs or apartment houses. In an OLT, Brownstone, frame buildings and private dwellings, it will generally be outside the boiler room.

Answer 35

ANSWER: C) Sulfur candles are usually found on the floor in a saucer of water. Searching members shall use their masks and vent as they search, using as few members as possible; preferably the Officer and one Firefighter. A - Water will make an oil slick worse. Use SAND/DIRT B - Ring cutter WILL NOT cut stainless steel D - NLT (switch located outside the oil burner room OLD / BS / Frame / PD (located at top of int. cellar stair) (TB Emergency 3 - 10.1)

Question 36

Which tactic below could be considered correct for its corresponding emergency? A) When the aquastat or low water cut-off is not functioning on a gas boiler in a residential building there may be a metallic odor and the sides of the boiler can be cherry red. In this case it is important to immediately add water to prevent the situation from getting worse. B) If gasoline is leaking from a vehicle involved in a motor vehicle collision, the battery should be disconnected, ground cable first. If the vehicle is required to be towed, use a cable instead of a chain due to its increased capacity for towing heavy objects. C) When dealing with a leaking gas tank in a car, one option is to use half of a rubber ball (tennis, spalding) propped with a stick to form an airtight seal with the suction side towards the leak. D) When a fish hook is embedded in someone's finger, always bandage the finger as found until a physician can remove it in a hospital setting. Members shall never remove a fish hook under any circumstances.

Answer 36

ANSWER: C) When dealing with a leaking gas tank in a car, one option is to use half of a rubber ball (tennis, spalding) propped with a stick to form an airtight seal with the suction side towards the leak. A - DO NOT ADD WATER B - CHAIN PREFERRED D - If MEDICAL AID IS NOT AVAILABLE then push hook through until barb protrudes. (TB EMERGECNIES 3 - 13.1)

Question 37

All NYC Transit Authority (NYCTA) buses are equipped with wheelchair lifts. When a lift malfunctions and traps a disabled passenger on the lift or inside the bus, a NYCTA bus maintainer will be dispatched to repair the lift and a FD unit will be dispatched to provide assistance with the removal of the disabled passenger. Of the following choices, which contained incorrect information regarding this procedure? A) Prior to starting removal operations, the keyed switch at the bus driver's seat that supplies power to the wheelchair lift, must be in the off position and the key removed. B) Prior to starting removal operations, the keyed switch located at the wheelchair lift that activates the lift must be in the off position and the key removed. C) The Officer shall ensure that the wheelchair lift is secured, chocked and stabilized so that the wheelchair lift will not move in the event of hydraulic or mechanical failure. D) In all cases, members shall remove power to the NYCTA bus by disconnecting the battery; negative terminal first, and exiting all passengers, prior to assisting the disabled passenger.

Answer 37

ANSWER: D) In all cases, members shall remove power to the NYCTA bus by disconnecting the battery; negative terminal first, and exiting all passengers, prior to assisting the disabled passenger. (INCORRECT) * This is a made up statement (TB Emergencies 3 - 22)

Question 38

Two officers assigned to Midtown Manhattan were discussing successful tactics for suspended scaffold emergencies. Which choice indicates the most correct comments made? 1. In all instances, units shall tape off the area below the scaffold to vehicular and pedestrian traffic. This marks the danger area for civilians. Only FD personnel may enter this danger area. 2. All apparatus shall be kept clear of the danger area and parked in a safe location. Enter the building from an entrance out of the danger area, if possible. 3. If arc welding is being performed from the scaffold, ensure that the unit has a proper secondary ground to avoid electrocution. 4. Clear away any loose materials that may blow around room or out the window prior to window removal. 5. Very rarely will workers be out on a scaffold without a co-worker inside. Seek out this person for possible assistance. 6. If necessary, secure the scaffold to the building to prevent further damage or collapse. However, it may be necessary to dismantle the scaffold to leave the area in a safe condition; this must be donw from the exterior of the building. 7. Ensure roof rigging/anchoring system is secure. 8. If the scaffold is occupied and the need for possible rescue exists, Ladder companies should respond with their search ropes. A) 1,2,5,6,8 B) 2,3,4,5,7 C) 2,3,4,6,7 D) 1,3,4,5,7

Answer 38

ANSWER: B) 2,3,4,5,7 (1,6,8 INCORRECT) 1 - Danger area is for CIVILIANS AND FD PERSONNEL. 6 - Dismantle scaffolding from the INTERIOR of building. 8 - Ladders should respond with their LSRs (Engines may also need LSRs) (TB Emergency 4 3.5)

Question 39

Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding FD operations at an unoccupied, swinging scaffold emergency? A) Members shall use extreme caution when going out onto an unoccupied scaffold; these members shall be tied off. B) Members operating near windows or the roof edge shall take precautions against falling, including utilizing safety lines. C) Locate the window nearest the scaffold and secure the scaffold with utility ropes to prevent movement. Inspect the exterior of the building for damaged or loose building/scaffold material that may fall. D) Survey the roof to determine if the scaffold anchoring system has been compromised due to excessive movement. If any roof rigging is suspect, attempt to secure with the utility rope.

Answer 39

ANSWER: A) Members shall use extreme caution when going out onto an unoccupied scaffold; these members shall be tied off. (INCORRECT) * AT NO TIME shall members go out on an unoccupied scaffold. (TB Emergencies 4 - 4.1)

Question 40

Occupied, stalled suspended scaffolding operations present many hazards to first responders as well as stranded workers. Which tactic below is not entirely correct? A) Locate the window nearest the scaffold. Communicate with stranded workers (if they are stranded on a windowless area of the building, consider loweing a handie-talkie from above) B) A team should be sent to the roof to inspect the scaffold rigging/anchoring systems and determine if they are secure. Inspect worker's safety lines to determine if properly tied off; if suspect, consider lowering a LSR to workers and have them attach it to their harness via the snap hook. C) Determine if the wire rope hoist line is jammed within the unit. If this has occurred, have the workers attempt to continue to operate the hoist, as this may free the jam. D) Determine if the hoist motor overheated due to an overloaded scaffold. As some electric hoists have reset buttons on them, if the hoist is overheated, allow it to cool for at least 15 minutes then have a worker push the reset button on the hoist.

Answer 40

ANSWER: C) Determine if the wire rope hoist line is jammed within the unit. If this has occurred, have the workers attempt to continue to operate the hoist, as this may free the jam. (INCORRECT) * If jammed, DO NOT LET the workers continue to operate the hoist, it will SEVER THE ROPE. (TB Emergency 4 - 5.4)

Question 41

During a critique of a recent off-level/hanging, suspended scaffold emergency where workers were stranded, which of the following comments had to be corrected? A) Locate a window nearest the scaffold and communicate with trapped workers to ascertain their physical and mental state. B) Send a team to the roof to inspect the roof anchoring systems, parapet and safety lines. Attempt to secure or backup these if necessary. C) Without going out onto the scaffold, attempt to attach the LSR snap hook onto the victim's harness (victims may be able to assist in this task). Anchor the other end of the rope to a substantial object either inside or on the roof. D) If possible, haul in the victims through a window or create mechanical advantage systems to raise victims in complete safety. A LSR evolution can be used to lower or raise a victim to the nearest window and is considered the safest option.

Answer 41

ANSWER: D) If possible, haul in the victims through a window or create mechanical advantage systems to raise victims in complete safety. A LSR evolution can be used to lower or raise a victim to the nearest window and is considered the safest option. (INCORRECT) * Generally, there is NO NEED for any firefighter to be lowered by a life saving rope to reach stranded workers. * RAISE victims in complete safety (NOT LOWER)

Question 42

The use of professionally trained dogs and the presence of dogs used as watch dogs or pets increase the possibility of FFs encountering these animals. What is an inaccurate statement below the concerning dogs at fires? A) Attack dogs are trained to attack anyone in the area besides their trainers. B) Watch dogs are trained to sound a warning by barking but not to attack. C) Command dogs are trained to attack only on command of their trainer. D) Dogs shouldn't be considered vicious; it is usually possible to predict how a particular type of dog will react.

Answer 42

ANSWER: D) Dogs shouldn't be considered vicious; it is usually possible to predict how a particular type of dog will react. (INCORRECT) * Under fire conditions, it is impossible to predict how a particular breed or type of dog will react. Members are to ASSUME ALL DOGS ARE VICIOUS. (TB Fires 2 - 2.2.1)

Question 43

Operations at fires with dogs can be challenging. Which statement below is incorrect? A) Members are to wear full PPC at all times, collars on bunker coats turned up, eye shields down, and gloves on. B) Before entering, shake the door vigorously to detecting the presence of a dog, this will cause the dog to bark or claw at the door. C) Dogs are not accustomed to smoke or heat. Smoke inhalation or high heat conditions will alter their behavior and their natural instincts will cause them to run for survival. D) Anytime when a dog is known to be on scene, members should try to push the dog into a room with a tool and close the door.

Answer 43

ANSWER: D) Anytime when a dog is known to be on scene, members should try to push the dog into a room with a tool and close the door. (INCORRECT) * Use of hand tools, appliances, or in the extreme, requesting police assistance to have the dog destroyed, should be considered only as a LAST RESORT when a civilian's or Firefighter's safety is involved. (TB Fires 2 - 4.3)

Question 44

When dealing with dangerous dogs, the following procedures should be adhered to except which one? A) If the dog appears dangerous, it is good practice to keep it at a distance by using a pressurized water extinguisher or a CO2 extinguisher if available. Direct the extinguisher stream into the dog's face; then, use short bursts of the extinguisher to back the dog into another room or out of the area entirely. B) push a chair or tool towards the animal and allow the dog to bite it. Offer resistance to the bite. Often the dog will hang on, giving you a chance to call for assistance or to move to safety. C) In junkyards and other facilities of that nature, the safest approach is to use a water stream. If a fire condition exists, a charged 2 1/2" line can be used for protection while an uncharged line is being advanced. D) The Animal Care Center can also be contacted through the dispatcher on a 24-hour basis

Answer 44

ANSWER: C) In junkyards and other facilities of that nature, the safest approach is to use a water stream. If a fire condition exists, a charged 2 1/2" line can be used for protection while an uncharged line is being advanced. (INCORRECT) * Charged 1 3/4" LINE. (TB Fires 2 - 4.8)

Question 45

You are an Officer operating at a water leak when one of your members is bitten by a dog in the apartment. The owner of the dog is very upset and apologizes to you profusely. In this situation you would be correct to notify all of the following except which? A) EMS B) NYPD C) Board of Health D) Animal Care Center E) FDNY Medical Officer

Answer 45

ANSWER: D) Animal Care Center (INCORRECT) "PBA ME" P - Police B - Board of Health A - Animal Control (if stray) M - Medical Officer E - EMS (TB Fires 2 4.12)

Question 46

Lexan Windows have 250 times more impact resistance than saftey glass, they will not shatter and they are half the weight of glass. LExan is also self-extinguishing and has one third the thermal conductivity of glass. Lexan is very difficult to ventilate since they cannot be broken by use of conventional forcible entry tools. Please choose the most correct statement concerning the forcing of Lexan windows. A) The air hammer (air chisel), Oxyacetylene torch and the pike axe are all ineffective. B) The chainsaw is safe but it tends to shatter the Lexan and throws chips like schrapnel. C) Lexan can be cut quickly and easily by using the sawzall, equipped with the carbide tip blade. D) The portable power saw, with the metal blade, is also effective on Lexan but it is slower than the sawzall.

Answer 46

ANSWER: A) The air hammer (air chisel), Oxyacetylene torch and the pike axe are all ineffective. B - The chainsaw is UNSAFE to use since it tends to shatter the LEXAN and throws chips like shrapnel. C - Sawzall equipped with COARSE TOOTH WOOD BLADE. D - Power saw with CARBIDE TIP BLADE, quicker than Sawzall. (TB Fires 4 - 3.1)

Question 47

When responding to a NYC housing project, Engine 48 is met at the door by a maintenance worker who states he has seen smoke in the basement of the building. In this situation you would be correct to believe which of the following? A) If the building has a compactor our operational priority should be to free the blockage. B) A red door on the 1st floor should indicate a compactor. C) A compactor fire is a structural fire, while an incinerator fire which does not extend from the shaft is an emergency. D) Steel cans filled with trash may indicate an incinerator.

Answer 47

ANSWER: C) A compactor fire is a structural fire, while an incinerator fire which does not extend from the shaft is an emergency. A - Compactor - Put the fire out. Incinerator - Clear the blockage B - RED for incinerator, GRAY for compactor D - Steel cans filled with ASHES may indicate incinerator. Large # bags on the sidewalk may indicate compactor. (TB Fires 7 1.2)

Question 48

While operating at an incinerator fire, a salty junior firefighter made the following statements. A knowleadgeable senior FF would recognize that the only correct statement can be found in which choice? A) To free the blockage in an incinerator, it is never permissible to drop anything down the chute which is not attached to a rope. B) It is never permissible to pull down the blockage from below. C) If you open the chute door and smoke comes out, the blockage is generally below that floor. D) If you open the chute door and the draft is drawn inward or there is little or no smoke the blockage is generally above that floor.

Answer 48

ANSWER: A) To free the blockage in an incinerator, it is never permissible to drop anything down the chute which is not attached to a rope. B - If the blockage is between the incinerator and the first floor, a hook MAY HAVE TO BE USED TO PULL it down from below. (Shut off the auxiliary burner before commencing operations!) C - If you open a chute door on a floor and smoke comes out, the blockage is generally ABOVE that floor. D - When you open it, a draft goes inward or there is little smoke, the blockage is generally BELOW that floor or the blockage has freed itself. (TB Fires 7 - 2.2)

Question 49

As a good officer, safety of your members is of primary importance. You would be acting properly if you advised the member opening the chute door of all of the following with which exception? A) Be sure to wear full firefighting gear, gloves on and eye shields down. B) Stand to one side of the hopper door. If the door is hinged, stand opposite the hinged side. C) Keep your eyes below the opening, face turned away. D) Shining a light up or down the chute may aid in locating the blockage or observing smoke movement.

Answer 49

ANSWER: B) Stand to one side of the hopper door. If the door is hinged, stand opposite the hinged side. (INCORRECT) * Stand to the side of the hopper door. If the door is hinged, STAND ON THE HINGED SIDE. (TB Fires 7 - 3.2)

Question 50

An Engine Company Officer is operating with her unit at an incinerator fire in a 27 story Class 1 Fireproof MD. This officer would be incorrect if she were to perform which action? A) Request the ladder to shut off the auxiliary burner as soon as extinguishment operations are completed. B) Realize that operating a hoseline to extinguish the fire from the floor above is the last resort C) Report to lobby and stand fast with masks, roll ups and standpipe kit. D) Members under your command may be detailed to assist the ladder company in search, vent etc. However, generally at least the officer and two members should remain in the lobby.

Answer 50

ANSWER: A) Request the ladder to shut off the auxiliary burner as soon as extinguishment operations are completed. (INCORRECT) * Shut off the auxiliary burner BEFORE commencing operations. (TB Fires 7 - 2.4)

Question 51

The Roof FF has many duties at an incinerator fire. A good Roof FF would be operating incorrectly were he to realize which one of the following? A) Proceed to the Roof to ventilate stairways and check the spark arrester for blockage. B) Prior to leaving the lobby the Roof FF must insure that he chocks open the stairwell door at the ground floor level. C) If there is a spark arrester, it should be checked for blockage. D) If the incinerator has a fly ash collector, notify the officer and begin to force entry into the collector to clear the blockage. Fly ash collectors are required to have safeguards around the incinerator shaft.

Answer 51

ANSWER: D) If the incinerator has a fly ash collector, notify the officer and begin to force entry into the collector to clear the blockage. Fly ash collectors are required to have safeguards around the incinerator shaft. (INCORRECT) * Use caution in the larger collectors because there may be an OPEN HOLE in the floor large enough to fall into. (TB Fires 7 - 2.3 F)

Question 52

A study group from Staten Island was reviewing FDNY compactor fire operations. The following statements were made. Which one was incorrect? A) A compactor is designed to reduce the volume of raw refuse. B) Most compactors do not reduce the volume of raw refuse significantly. C) A water and hose outlet are required in the hallway outside of each compactor room. D) The compactor room should be fire resistive, protected by a fire door and supplied with an automatic sprinkler.

Answer 52

ANSWER: C) A water and hose outlet are required in the hallway outside of each compactor room. (INCORRECT) * Required INSIDE THE COMPACTOR ROOM. (TB Fires 7 - 7.2)

Question 53

According to the Department of Buildings, sprinkler heads shall be provided in compactor units. Electronically operated sprinkler heads should be thermostatically controlled to operate at approximately what temperature? A) 135 degrees B) 175 degrees C) 210 degrees D) 100 degrees over the average temperature normally encountered within the compactor unit.

Answer 53

ANSWER: A) 135 degrees | TB Fires 7 - 7.3

Question 54

Ladder company 20 arrives 1st for a fire in a compactor unit. In this situation, their officer would be correct to do which of the following? A) Proceed with the FE Team to the compactor room. Prior to commencing any operations, locate the electrical shutoff and shut down power to the unit. B) If fire is located in the unit, open the unit's access door prior to the engine opening the line. C) Order the OV to search all floors above the fire for search and ventilation. D) Replace the sprinkler head if the sprinkler has activated.

Answer 54

ANSWER: A) Proceed with the FE Team to the compactor room. Prior to commencing any operations, locate the electrical shutoff and shut down power to the unit. B - AFTER the engine company has extinguished the fire, the ladder company may begin overhauling. BEFORE OPENING the compactor unit access door be sure the hoseline is SHUT DOWN and sprinkler OS&Y is closed C - OV OPERATES WITH THE ENGINE to provide access to the chute and to check for extension. D - The FDNY DOES NOT replace sprinkler heads. (TB Fires 7 - 8.2)

Question 55

FDNY Operations at compactor fires are governed by the location of the fire (chute, unit or room). As an Engine company officer operating at a compactor fire in a 17 story, Class 1 Fireproof MD, you would be incorrect if you were to perform which action? A) For a fire which has extended out of the unit, you ordered a 2 1/2" line stretched to the cellar. B) For a chute fire on the 15th floor, you ordered a line stretched from the standpipe to the 16th floor chute opening. C) For a fire in the compactor unit, you ordered a line stretched to that 1st floor. This line was shut down prior to the ladder company opening up the compactor unit access door. D) After the fire was extinguished, you explained to the members of your unit that the possibility of fire extension is greater in the chute than in the unit.

Answer 55

ANSWER: D) After the fire was extinguished, you explained to the members of your unit that the possibility of fire extension is greater in the chute than in the unit. (INCORRECT) * The possibility of extension is GREATER THAN IN THE UNIT than in the chute. (TB Fires 7 - 8.2)

Question 56

You are an Engine company Lt. who has just operated at a compactor fire extinguishing a garbage bag on fire in the unit of a 6 story fireproof multiple dwelling. Originally built as an incinerator, the building was converted to a compactor in 1975. The BC was monitoring the box (he requested a 10-12) so you transmitted which signal? A) 10-31 B) 10-27 C) 10-77 D) 10-22

Answer 56

ANSWER: B) 10-27 10-27 for Compactor / Incinerator Fire (has not extended from compactor or shaft) (TB Fires 7 / Comm 8)

Question 57

Immediately upon arrival at an operation at a highway, the Officer in command must take steps to prevent a secondary collision. Choose the incorrect point concerning these precautions. A) Secondary collisions may be avoided by completely stopping traffic in all lanes of the highway on the side where the fire or emergency has occured, at least until the arrival of PD to control traffic. B) The greatest danger of secondary collisions occurs during periods of heavy traffic. C) A tractor trailer needs over 500 feet to stop at 50 mph after the driver perceives the danger. D) A car traveling at 70 mph will need over 500 feet to stop. E) Where weather conditions (snow, rain, fog, sleet etc.) or smoke blowing across the highway limit visibility, the highway must be closed.

Answer 57

ANSWER: B) The greatest danger of secondary collisions occurs during periods of heavy traffic. (INCORRECT) * LIGHT TO MODERATE TRAFFIC (TB Fires 8 - 4.2)

Question 58

One Engine & one Ladder from each direction, and a BC will be assigned to all express highway incidents, and all EMS responses on highways involving accidents with injuries and/or pedestrians struck. Which statement is correct conerning these responses? A) At a vehicle fire on an express highway, an Engine Company can be used to block traffic for the pumper being used to extinguish the fire. B) If the incident has been deemed minor, a single unit can operate on an express highway. C) When EMS units are on scene of a highway incident other than accidents with injuries and/or pedestrians struck, and they request a fire unit back-up, the nearest Engine or Ladder Company will be dispatched. D) A unit that has been dispatched to back-up EMS on a highway incident shall remain on scene until PD assumes traffic control.

Answer 58

ANSWER: A) At a vehicle fire on an express highway, an Engine Company can be used to block traffic for the pumper being used to extinguish the fire. B - NO FEWER THAN 2 UNITS shall operate on highway. C - The nearest LADDER only D - Remain on scene for DURATION OF FIRE OR EMS OP. (TB Fires 8 - 5.1)

Question 59

Which apparatus placement at a motor vehicle incident is incorrect? A) Apparatus shall usually placed to the rear of the emergency at an angle to the incident. B) At a fire in a flammable liquid tank truck located on a grade, the apparatus will have to be located uphill of the involved vehicle, and the highway closed at a sufficient distance from the incident. C) Where placement of apparatus will expose it to the possibility of fire extension, the pumper may be placed beyond the fire vehicle, but the second apparatus shall always be placed between oncoming traffic and operating forces. D) Blocking apparatus shall be placed at least 100 feet behind the 1st operating unit to create a safe working area.

Answer 59

ANSWER: D) Blocking apparatus shall be placed at least 100 feet behind the 1st operating unit to create a safe working area. (INCORRECT) * FIFTY (50') FEET behind (TB Fires 8 - 6)

Question 60

# Choose the incorrect statement concerning the use of High Visibility Safety Vests. A) Members are required to wear high visibility safety vests only when operating on express highways at night. B) A member operating with donned bunker gear and SCBA working in close proximity to a source of heat during fire supression is exempted from wearing a vest. C) Members who are operating with donned hazardous material PPE do not have to wear a vest. D) A member operating with donned technical rescue PPE and/or equipment for a technical rescue incident is exempted from wearing a vest.

Answer 60

ANSWER: A) Members are required to wear high visibility safety vests only when operating on express highways at night. (INCORRECT) * AT ALL TIMES (day or night) * Choices BCD represent the exemptions where the vests are not required. (TB Fires 8 - 7)

Question 61

While operating at a two vehicle collision on Kings highway, which has a posted speed limit of 30 mph, members estimated the fastest expected speed to be 50 mph. What would be the minimum distance from the blocking apparatus from the futhest flare? A) 150 feet B) 250 feet C) 310 feet D) 420 feet

Answer 61

ANSWER: C) 310 feet Highest EXPECTED speed X 1st Digit + 60 50 X 5 + 60 = 310 (TB Fires 8 - 8)

Question 62

Although operating across a center divider shall be avoided, at times it is absolutely necessary. When encountering a barrier, divider or highway separation of any type (permanent or temporary) several steps must be taken. Which choice contains only correct points about this operation? 1. Traffic shall be stopped in both directions and safety warning devices set up. 2. The preferred area of crossing shall be visually identified. 3. A member shall be directed to use a tool to test the surface on the opposite side of the barrier, divider or highway separation for the presence of a solid and stable surface. 4. Once the presence of a solid and stable surface is verified, communicate the location to all members. 5. This safe crossing corridor shall be the only means of access and egress utilized at this incident unless otherwise directed by the IC. 6. Whenever a safe corridor crossing is established, it shall be clearly marked (cones/barrier tape). At night or whenever visibility is reduced, members shall use all available means of lighting to illuminate the area. 7. If a safe crossing cannot be established, members shall not cross any barrier, divider or highway separation. A) 1,3,5,7 only B) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7 C) 1,2,3,4,6 only D) 3,4,6,7 only

Answer 62

ANSWER: B) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7 (TB Fires 8 - 9.1)

Question 63

Prior to the opening of a recently renovated bridge in Staten Island, members noticed a hazardous separation between the NJ bound and the Staten Island bound travel lanes while conducting a familiarization drill. Which action taken should be corrected? A) The Officer immediately called the SI Borough Command upon return to quarters in order to report the hazard. B) The Officer forwarded an immediate letterhead report that included the name of the bridge. C) The Officer forwarded an immediate letterhead report that included the location of the separation with the approximate size and direction of travel. D) The Officer forwarded an immediate letterhead report to the Chief of Operations through the chain of command.

Answer 63

ANSWER: A) The Officer immediately called the SI Borough Command upon return to quarters in order to report the hazard. (INCORRECT) Immediate letterhead report: 1. Name of bridge 2. Location of separation with approx. size and direction 3. To Chief of Operations through chain of command (TB Fires 8 - 9.1)

Question 64

Which operating guideline at motor vehicle fires and emergencies is incorrectly described? A) Never take a partial lane B) Never allow traffic to come around both sides of an accident scene. C) At a fire, position the line between the motor vehicle and exposures. D) For a fire in the engine compartment where the hood is difficult to open, operate the line through the front grille. E) When victims are trapped in the vehicle, use a fog stream to drive the fire away from the victim.

Answer 64

ANSWER: D) For a fire in the engine compartment where the hood is difficult to open, operate the line through the front grille. (INCORRECT) * PRY SIDE OF HOOD & operate stream into that opening (TB Fires 8 10)

Question 65

FFs face many hazards at motor vehicle fires and emergencies. Which safety guideline is incorrect? A) Use a coarse spray stream (partially open nozzle with tip removed) when magnesium parts are on fire. B) The trunk must always be examined for victims or extension. C) The battery must be disconnected, with the negative terminal removed 1st to eliminate sparks. D) Keep onlookers from standing in front of or to the rear of vehicle fires for a distance of at least 25'. E) When extinguishing a fire in a garbage truck that does not have a 2 1/2" female coupling, allow no one within 50' of the rear of the truck when using a hydraulic system to raise the rear of the truck.

Answer 65

ANSWER: D) Keep onlookers from standing in front of or to the rear of vehicle fires for a distance of at least 25'. (INCORRECT) * ONE HUNDRED (100') FEET (TB Fires 8 - 11.1)

Question 66

Which choice is incorrect regarding safe operations at emegencies or fires involving hybrid vehicles? A) Do not approach from the front or rear until the vehicle has been disabled, even if it is silent. B) Never cut any orange cables, but blue cables can be cut if the vehicle is "OFF" C) Make sure the ignition is "OFF" and key or key fob is at least 15 feet away from the vehicle. D) Make sure the "READY" light is not on. E) At a hybrid vehicle fire, always make sure that the high voltage battery case is cooled down to prevent reignition.

Answer 66

ANSWER: B) Never cut any orange cables, but blue cables can be cut if the vehicle is "OFF" * DO NOT CUT ORANGE OR BLUE CABLES (TB Fires 8 11.6)

Question 67

A ladder company Lt. discussing FDNY elevator operations stated there are two types of elevator responses, Incidents & Emergencies. Of the following, which would be considered to be an emergency? A) A passenger stuck in an elevator who is panicking. B) A passenger stuck in an elevator car who is injured. C) Fire endangering passengers that are stuck in an elevator. D) All of the above

Answer 67

ANSWER: D) All of the above | TB - Elevators 2.4

Question 68

A ladder company operating at a reported stuck elevator in a 6 story MD with a basement is attempting to locate the elevator car. Of the following techniques used, which was incorrect? A) An intercom was used to contact the stuck car so passengers were able to give their approximate location. B) The hoistway door was opened on the 1st floor with an elevator key and members looked up the shaft. C) The location of the counterweight was used to approximate the position of the car. Since the counterweight was on the 1st floor, the car was assumed to be on the 6th floor. D) The floor selector in the machinery room was examined. This will indicate the exact location of the elevator car.

Answer 68

ANSWER: C) The location of the counterweight was used to approximate the position of the car. Since the counterweight was on the 1st floor, the car was assumed to be on the 6th floor. (INCORRECT) * The car would be on the FIFTH (5th) FLOOR. (TB - Elevators 3.2.1)

Question 69

Primary removal procedures are simple approaches performed without turning off the elevator power. There are 2 types of primary removal procedures. The order in which they are attempted is not important. One type is to check whether simple electrical contacts have been broken. Choose an incorrect point regarding this procedure? A) Have a passenger press the Door Open button. This may open both the car and hoistway door if the car is level with the landing. B) Have members press Lobby Call Button. C) Have a passenger push the door towards the closed position to insure the car door is fully closed. D) Since air movement in the shaft may have opened an interlock cutting power to the car, have members physically close all hoistway doors on the shaft beginning with hoistway doors on the 1st floor and proceeding up one floor at a time.

Answer 69

ANSWER: D) Since air movement in the shaft may have opened an interlock cutting power to the car, have members physically close all hoistway doors on the shaft beginning with hoistway doors on the 1st floor and proceeding up one floor at a time. (INCORRECT) * Have members phsyically close all hoistway doors IN THE VICINITY OF THE STUCK CAR FIRST. (TB - Elevator 3.3.1)

Question 70

Ladder 21 requires the use of FE to gain access into a stalled elevator car with a slide type door. Of the following tools, which one is listed as the preferred FE method for these types of doors? A) Maxi-Force Air Bags B) FE Tool C) Rabbit Tool D) Hurst Tool Spreaders

Answer 70

ANSWER: A) Maxi-Force Air Bags | TB Elevator 3.7.3 B

Question 71

Ladder 28 has attempted to use Primary Removal Procedures, which were unsuccessful. They are now moving onto Secondary Power Removal Procedures. They would be correct to take all of the following procedures with the exception of which one? A) Members shall never operate in the shaft below an elevator car. B) Members shall not remove passengers from the car until assured power has been removed. C) When passengers are removed from a car between floors they should be taken up and out of the car if practical. D) Members operating in the shaft are to be secured by a LSR.

Answer 71

ANSWER: A) Members shall never operate in the shaft below an elevator car. (INCORRECT) * Members can operate in the shaft below an elevator car if RESCUE IS REQUIRED and power is turned off prior to entering the shaft. (TB - Elevators 3.5.2)

Question 72

TL 105 is operating at a stuck occupied elevator in a 12 story building with a two speed elevator system. The members of this company would be correct to take all but which one action listed? A) If the emergency stop button has been activated have the passengers deactivate it. B) Have members in the elevator machinery room shut power to the stuck car and turn it on again. C) If the car is to restart it will do so within 10 seconds. D) If this procedure fails, attempt to restart the elevator one additional time. If the 2nd attempt fails the power must be shut and not restored again.

Answer 72

ANSWER: D) If this procedure fails, attempt to restart the elevator one additional time. If the 2nd attempt fails the power must be shut and not restored again. (INCORRECT) * Only shut the power and turn it back on ONCE. Do not attempt to restart the elevator an additional time. (TB - Elevators 3.6.3)

Question 73

Members of a Bronx Ladder company responded to a stalled occupied elevator. Upon arrival they find the car is stuck in a blind shaft on the 8th floor. The Officer orders the members to remove the occupants via a top hatch removal. The members would show proper knowledge in all but which choice? A) Open a hoistway door or access panel on the floor above the stuck elevator car and ensure adequate lighting is provided. B) Lower a straight portable ladder to the elevator roof. Extension ladders shall not be used. C) Have members climb down on the car roof. A maximum of 2 FFs are to be permitted on the roof of the car at a time. D) All members working in the shaft are to be secured by a LSR. In addition occupants that are removed from the car shall be secured by a LSR.

Answer 73

ANSWER: B) Lower a straight portable ladder to the elevator roof. Extension ladders shall not be used. (INCORRECT) * Use straight ladder IF POSSIBLE. * If an extension ladder is used TIE THE HALYARD AROUND THE RUNGS OF BOTH SECTIONS of the ladder. * This will prevent the lower section from dropping on to the car roof. (TB - Elevators 3.7.2)

Question 74

A Captain is discussing elevator operations with his company. In how many of the following points was he correct? 1. It maybe useful under conditions of partial power loss in multi-car hoistways. It may not be useful where a structural beam blocks a side exit or the rescue car can't be brought level with the stuck car. 2. Members must work from a car that is in the same bank and is adjacent to the stuck car. This will become the rescue car. 3. Bring the rescue car even with the stuck elevator. If a mechanic is present, use his operating key to bring the car level with the stuck car. 4. Once the rescue car is level with the stalled car, power is to be removed from the rescue car. 5. Open the side exit of the stalled car. A key or forcible entry is required to open the panel from the shaft side of the car. 6. A member equipped with a HT and secured to a LSR crosses into the stuck car and determines the order of occupant removal. Each passenger shall be secured with an LSR. 7. 6' or longer planks should be used to bridge between cars. A) 7 B) 6 C) 5 D) 4

Answer 74

ANSWER: B) 6 (5 is INCORRECT) 5 - Side exit can be OPENED BY HAND from the shaftway. (TB - Elevator 3.7.2 B)

Question 75

There are 2 types of elevator pits that can be found at the lowest portion of the elevator shaft. Jump pits are usually found 4 - 6 feet from the lowest landing level to the base of the pit. Walk-In Pits are usually 6 - 10 feet from the lowest landing to the base of the pit. A unit operating in a Walk-In Pit would be incorrect in which action? A) Shut power to the elevator via the power switch. B) Entry is made into the pit via the pit door. C) Under no circumstances shall members enter a Walk-In Pit prior to power removal. D) If there is fire in the pit, be cautious of the buffers (a device designed to stop a descending elevator beyond the normal limits of travel), they may be filled with combustible or inflammable liquid.

Answer 75

ANSWER: C) Under no circumstances shall members enter a Walk-In Pit prior to power removal. (INCORRECT) * IN AN EXTREME EMERGENCY TO SAVE LIFE. (TB - Elevators 4.2.2)

Question 76

You are a new Lieutenant and are out conducting BISP with your unit in a HROB. During the inspection you start to talk about firemen service elevators. You made the following four points and were incorrect in which one? A) Phase 1, the recall phase, is the recall of all elevators in the bank to the street or terminal floor either automatically when there is an activation of a smoke detector or water flow from the sprinkler system or manually by use of a 1620 key. B) During phase 1 recall an elevator traveling away from the street floor or from its lowest landing will reverse direction at the next landing without opening its doors, and return non-stop to the street lobby or terminal floor. C) Doors opened at any floor will immediately close and the elevator shall return non-stop to the street or terminal floor. During Phase 1 the "Emergency Stop" buttons will be operational. D) If Phase 1, the recall phase, has not been initiated upon arrival, Phase 1 should be initiated and all cars accounted for and examined as they arrive at the street lobby floor.

Answer 76

ANSWER: C) Doors opened at any floor will immediately close and the elevator shall return non-stop to the street or terminal floor. During Phase 1 the "Emergency Stop" buttons will be operational. (INCORRECT) * Emergency stop button will be INOPERABLE in Phase 1 * Emergency stop works in PHASE 2 (TB - Elevators 5.3)

Question 77

L100 has just arrived for a fire on the 14th floor of a 40 story HROB. As the members enter the lobby area they notice that there are 3 elevators serving the building and that all the elevators are closed. The building engineer says the elevators came down when the smoke detectors and sprinkler systems activated on the fire floor. This indicates that a Phase 1 was initiated automatically. The Officer of L100 would be most correct to take which action below? A) Place the lobby key switch in the "Door Open" position so that the doors of the fireman service cars will then open. B) Place the fireman service lobby keyed switch momentarily in the "Normal" (OFF) position and then return it to the fireman service position so that the elevator car doors will open. C) Order your members to force open the elevator car doors since the 1620 does not work in this situation unless the doors are open. D) Have your LCC go to the elevator machinery room and turn the power off and then back on to reset the system and open the elevator doors.

Answer 77

ANSWER: A) Place the lobby key switch in the "Door Open" position so that the doors of the fireman service cars will then open. "MOO ADO" Manual - Off/On Automatic - Door open (TB - Elevator 5.3.1 C)

Question 78

Understanding how the fireman service controls work is important when fire department operations include the use of elevators. Which point below about the fireman service controls is not correct? A) If the lobby keyed switch has three positions (normal, fireman service, and door open) the 1620 key is only removable in the normal and fireman service position. B) When the elevator car switch is in the fireman service position it can still be overridden by the lobby keyed switch in the event of an emergency. C) A fireman service keyed switch is provided inside each fireman service elevator car and has either two positions, normal and fireman service or a 3rd position, the "hold" button. D) To operate the car, the switch must be placed in the fireman service position while the car is at the landing where the lobby keyed switch is located.

Answer 78

ANSWER: B) When the elevator car switch is in the fireman service position it can still be overridden by the lobby keyed switch in the event of an emergency. (INCORRECT) * Once the car switch is in the Fire Service position it CAN NOT BE overridden by the lobby keyed switch. (TB - Elevators - 5.2)

Question 79

Listed below are some of the different buttons found inside of an elevator car. From the choices listed below please choose which button must be continuously held in order for it to carry out its function? A) Door close button B) Floor selection button C) Call cancel (reset) button D) Emergency stop button E) Door open button

Answer 79

ANSWER: E) Door open button | TB - Elevators - 5

Question 80

E99 & L100 have responded to a Class 3 alarm in a 30 story HRFPMD. The building has a total of 4 elevators in the lobby. L100 has recalled the elevators and are using one of the elevator cars to investigate an alarm activation on the 25th floor. L100 notifies E99 that the source of the alarm is a pull box in the hallway which someone pulled and then ran away. E99's Officer then tells L100's Officer that he is going to place the lobby keyed switch back into the "normal" position so that the building occupants can resume the use of the elevators. The Captain from L100 then tells the Engine Lieutenant not to do that or the car that L100 is using will be rendered inoperable. Do you agree or disagree with this statement? A) Agree B) Disagree

Answer 80

ANSWER: B) Disagree * Once a Fire Service car has been placed in Phase II operation, it will continue in Phase II operation, REGARDLESS OF THE POSITION OF THE LOBBY KEYED SWITCH. This feature may be utilized to restore other cars in the elevator bank to normal operation, while the Fire Department continues to use the Fire Service car or cars. (TB - Elevators - 5.3.2 11)

Question 81

Members of L98 have just recalled and placed an elevator car into the fireman service mode so that they can investigate a reported smoke condition on the 10th floor of a HRFPMD. Upon entering the elevator the Officer from L98 presses the door close button and then selects the 8th floor. As soon as the elevator begins to move the Officer pushes the call cancel button. In this situation, you would expect what to happen? A) The elevator car should stop at the 8th floor, the selected floor. B) The elevator should stop at the next available landing with the doors remaining closed. C) The elevator should return to the lobby and the doors should open. D) Nothing should happen since the call cancel button is rendered inoperable in phase 2.

Answer 81

ANSWER: B) The elevator should stop at the next available landing with the doors remaining closed. (TB - Elevators 5.3.2 A 3)

Question 82

When using elevators at a fire operation there are some procedures that all members should be familiar with. Which point below shows correct information when using elevators at fire operations? A) When it is confirmed that the fire is on the 8th floor or below units should avoids the use of elevators. It is safer to utilize the stairway to reach the fire floor. B) Do not use an elevator in a bank that services the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within three floors of the fire floor. C) Not more than seven members are to be permitted in any elevator car. This precaution is required to prevent overloading. D) Before entering the elevator car, all members shall have donned their masks. The facepiece shall be maintained in the standby position and there must be a member equipped with a HT.

Answer 82

ANSWER: D) Before entering the elevator car, all members shall have donned their masks. The facepiece shall be maintained in the standby position and there must be a member equipped with a HT. A - Fire on SEVENTH (7th) FLOOR OR BELOW should avoid the use of elevators (8 is great) B - Do not use an elevator in a bank that services the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within FIVE (5) FLOORS of the fire floor. C - Not more than SIX (6) MEMBERS are to be permitted in any elevator car. This precaution is required to prevent overloading. (TB - Elevator 6.1)

Question 83

Units have arrived at a 30 story HROB where a fire has been reported to be on the 27th floor. As members are entering the building, the building engineer tells them that there are only 2 elevators that serve the building. He also states that there is an access stair that goes from the 24th floor to the 27th floor and that the fire is on the 27th floor. In this situation, members using the elevators would be most correct to take the elevator to which floor? A) 22nd floor B) 23rd floor C) 25th floor D) 26th floor

Answer 83

ANSWER: A) 22nd floor When it is necessary to use an elevator in a bank which serves the fire floor: A. If Fire Service is available, use a car with the Fire Service feature. B. Select a floor at least two floors below the fire floor or TWO FLOORS BELOW THE LOWER LEVEL OF AN ACCESS STAIR IN THE FIRE AREA, whichever is lowest. (TB - Elevator - 6.1.4 B)

Question 84

During a drill on a recent 9x6 tour, members of L100 were discussing elevator usage during fire operations and made the following four points. Which point contains incorrect information? A) Elevators should be stopped every 5 floors (precautionary stops) to confirm that the elevator will respond to the selected floor. At each stop a new selection must be made. B) Before leaving the lobby and at each precautionary stop, direct a flashlight up between the elevator car and the hoistway shaft to determine if there is any accumulation of smoke in the elevator shaft. C) If you are in a smoke filled hallway, remember, elevator doors will swing away from you and apartment doors will swing toward you. D) The relationship of the elevator to the stairway should be noted. This can be accomplished by inspecting the "YOU ARE HERE" sign which is required to be posted at each floor near the call button. This should be done at the 1st and last precautionary stop.

Answer 84

ANSWER: C) If you are in a smoke filled hallway, remember, elevator doors will swing away from you and apartment doors will swing toward you. (INCORRECT) * Elevator doors - swing TOWARDS you / into the hall * Apartment doors - swing AWAY from you / into apartment (TB - Elevator - 6.1.15)

Question 85

L100 has just arrived at a 30 story HRFPMD for a report of a stuck occupied elevator. When members enter the building the super tells them that the elevator is stalled around the 12th floor and is equipped with an emergency side exit door. When an emergency side exit door is found members can expect all of the following except? A) It will have an electrical door contact that will prevent motion of the car when the door is open. B) Must be hinged to open into the elevator shaft. C) It must have a locking device that requires the use of a key inside the car. D) A means of being opened by hand from the shaft side.

Answer 85

ANSWER: B) Must be hinged to open into the elevator shaft. (INCORRECT) * Hinged to open INTO THE ELEVATOR CAR. (TB - Elevator 7.3)

Question 86

Lt. Backman and his members have just recalled the elevator in order to investigate an odor of smoke on the 22nd floor of a HROB. As they enter the elevator car they notice that there are two floor selector panels in the elevator car, one on each side of the elevator doors. The fireman service keyed switch is located one foot above and separate from the floor selector panel on the right side of the elevator doors. In this situation which floor selector panel should Lt. Backman and his members use? A) They can use either floor selector panel B) They should use the floor selector panel on the left side C) They should ask the building's superintendent D) They should use the floor selector panel on the right side

Answer 86

ANSWER: D) They should use the floor selector panel on the right side In some elevator cars there may be two floor selection panels. The one to use for Fire Service is the one NEAREST TO OR THE ONE WITH THE FIRE SERVICE KEYED SWITCH. In this scenario the keyed switch was located on the right side of the elevator car so you would use the right side selector panel. (TB - Elevator 5.3.2 A)

Question 87

If members become trapped in a stalled elevator car during fire operation all of the following actions listed below would be correct to take except which one? A) Check the emergency stop button as it may have been accidentally activated. Deactivate it by pushing it in, or if a switch type, moving switch to the on position. B) In an extreme emergency, FD hose can be used to slide down to the floor below. If more than one length of hose is used, first tie the lengths together, then couple them. C) Members can be lowered to the hoistway door interlock and exit at the floor landing below the fire. D) A hoseline on the floor below can be used to spray a fog stream between the car and the hoistway door. A 30 degree fog pattern should be used to cool and protect trapped persons during the rescue operation.

Answer 87

ANSWER: A) Check the emergency stop button as it may have been accidentally activated. Deactivate it by pushing it in, or if a switch type, moving switch to the on position. (INCORRECT) * Deactivate by PULLING OUT * Switch type move to the OFF POSITION (TB - Elevator 6.3)

Question 88

At 1115 hours, 1st alarm units respond to a report of a 3 car vehicular accident on the BQE with reports of a possible pin. On arrival, the 1st arriving Ladder Officer finds the incident to be on the other side of the roadway requiring operations across a center divider. In this situation, the Officer as the initial IC, he would be incorrect to think? A) Traffic shall be stopped in both directions and safety warning devices set up on both sides. B) A member shall be directed to use a tool to test the surface on the opposite side of the center divider for the presence of a solid stable surface. C) The IC may select an area for access to the incident and this safe crossing corridor, under all circumstances, shall be the only means of access and egress utilized. D) The safe crossing corridor shall be clearly marked with cones or barrier tape to identify the designated area.

Answer 88

ANSWER: C) The IC may select an area for access to the incident and this safe crossing corridor, under all circumstances, shall be the only means of access and egress utilized. (INCORRECT) * UNLESS OTHERWISE DIRECTED BY THE IC this shall be the only means of access and egress. (TB Fires 8 - 9.1)

Question 89

You are working as a Captain operating in the A-Wing of an H-type building where there is heavy fire in the cockloft. The IC orders you to use the cockloft nozzle in an attempt to control extension of the fire. In this situation, you would be incorrect to think that the cockloft nozzle? A) Should be supplied by a 1 3/4" hose line. B) Requires the same pressure as a standard 1 3/4" line C) Delivers about 180 GPM D) Has a configuration of the 1/2" Outer Stream Tips that eliminate back pressure.

Answer 89

ANSWER: C) Delivers about 180 GPM (INCORRECT) * ONE HUNDRED AND TWENTY FIVE (125 GPM) * The tips on the nozzle reduce the GPM. (TB Tools 7)

Question 90

1st alarm units are responding to a 10-77 in a 26 story HRFPMD. Fire is located on the 18th floor and is wind impacted. Regarding the use of the High Rise Nozzle, in this situation it would be correct to state that? A) It is the responsibility of the 4th due Engine to bring the HRN to the Command Post. B) The HRN will produce flows of 225-250 GPM at 50 psi nozzle pressure with water flowing. C) A spotter equipped with a HT and a pair of binoculars will provide direction and progress reports to the IC and also members operating via the company officer supervising the HRN. D) A shut off should be placed in the hose line one length from the standpipe outlet.

Answer 90

ANSWER: C) A spotter equipped with a HT and a pair of binoculars will provide direction and progress reports to the IC and also members operating via the company officer supervising the HRN. A - FIFTH (5th) DUE brings HRN to Command Post B - Flows of TWO HUNDRED to TWO TWENTY FIVE (200 - 225 GPM with water flowing) D - Shut off placed one length from NOZZLE. (TB Tools 7)

Question 91

Engine 92 arrives at a fire reported in the cellar of a MD. Ladder 44 has determined there is an oil burner fire that is out of the pit and requests a foam handline be stretched. The stretch will require about 8 lengths of hose to reach the oil burner area. In this situation, Engine 92 would be most correct to take which action? A) Place the foam eductor one length from the pumper B) Stretch 8 lengths of 2 1/2" hose C) Supply the foam line with 150 psi D) Insure they use AR-AFFF foam concentrate, which has a brown band on the container.

Answer 91

ANSWER: B) Stretch 8 lengths of 2 1/2" hose A - Place eductor ON THE PUMPER OUTLET C - 200 PSI D - AR-AFFF has a RED BAND * When stretching 1 ¾" hose not more than SIX (6) lengths are to be used off of the eductor. * When using 2 ½" hose not more than TEN (10) lengths of 2 ½" hoseare to be used off of the eductor. (TB Foam - Addendum 3 - 1.2)

Question 92

You are a company Officer that just extinguished a car fire that you deem to be suspicious in nature. The car is a brand new 2020 Mercedes Benz, but has no plates, and was unoccupied at the time of the fire. Additionally, you find evidence that you want to bring back to the firehouse for the Fire Marshals. In this case, you would be most correct to transmit a _________________? A) 10-23, 10-41 Code 3, and place the evidence in two, new, heavy gauge plastic bags. B) 10-24, 10-41 Code 2, and place the evidence in a clean glass jar with a tight fitting lid. C) 10-23, 10-41 Code 3, and place the evidence in a clean glass jar with a tight fitting lid. D) 10-24, 10-41 Code 3, and place the evidence in a new paint can.

Answer 92

ANSWER: D) 10-24, 10-41 Code 3, and place the evidence in a new paint can. * 10-24 for having value greater than salvage * 10-41-3 for Unoccupied Vehicle * Best method of evidence collection is NEW paint can (TB Arson 5.3 - Comm 8 Radio Codes)

Question 93

A Lt. from Ladder 111 is conducting drill on the Combination Metal / Concrete Diamond Blade at 3 AM in the kitchen. In which point was he incorrect? A) When operating the saw, it should be frequently backed out of the cut, so that air can cool the blade. B) If the blade begins to heat up and glow red during use, discontinue using that blade until it has cooled down. C) The blade is uni-directional, ensure you follow the directional arrows when cutting. D) During prolonged cutting, using a gentle stream of water on the blade at the point of contact with the material being cut to prevent overheating.

Answer 93

ANSWER: C) The blade is uni-directional, ensure you follow the directional arrows when cutting. (INCORRECT) * Blade is BI-DIRECTIONAL * DISREGARD any directional arrows on older blades (TB Tools 9 - App 1)

Question 94

You are an officer conducting drill on the 30 foot Vehicle Recovery Strap. You would be most correct to state? A) The maximum weight of the vehicle to be recovered shall not exceed 25,000 pounds B) Vehicle recovery straps shall never be attached to the front or rear bumper. C) Recovery from the rear is the preferred method of vehicle recovery. D) A Safety Zone of at least 30 feet should be maintained while using the strap.

Answer 94

ANSWER: B) Vehicle recovery straps shall never be attached to the front or rear bumper. A - Max weight 20,000 pounds C - Recovery from FRONT is preferred D - Safety Zone of at least 35 feet (TB App C2 - Addendum 3 2.2)

Question 95

Engine 65 is operating at a fire on the 28th floor of a HRFPMD where the control FF is utilizing the Digital In-line gauge at the standpipe outlet. In this situation, the Control FF would be most correct to think that? A) An effective firefighting stream for a 2 1/2" line with a 1 1/8" MST is approximately 200 gallons per minute. B) If the pressure reading on the gauge is normal, and the water flow is reduced below normal, he should suspect a burst length. C) Pressure alerts or flow alerts are not a direct indication of an unsafe condition. D) If the gauge fails to display any readings after two attempts to start it, the gauge must be removed from the standpipe outlet as water flow will be impacted.

Answer 95

ANSWER: C) Pressure alerts or flow alerts are not a direct indication of an unsafe condition. A - 225 - 250 GPM B - Suspect KINKS C - DO NOT REMOVE / Leave gauge on (TB Tools 36)

Question 96

You are a Ladder Officer supervising operations at an elevator emergency where forcible entry will be required on a sliding type elevator door. In this situation, you should know that the preferred method of forcible entry is the ______________________. A) Hydra Ram B) Maxi-Force Air Bag C) Rabbit Tool D) Halligan and Axe

Answer 96

ANSWER: B) Maxi-Force Air Bag | TB - Elevator 3.7.3

Question 97

Engine 75 is operating at a 10-75 for a fire on the top floor of an H-Type building. While using the thermal imaging camera at this fire, the Engine Officer would be correct to think that the focal point of the TIC is approximately _____ feet from the camera lens? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5

Answer 97

ANSWER: B) 3 | TB Tools 27

Question 98

A company Officer is operating at a 10-75 when he notices that the HUD inside of his facepiece is slowly flashing yellow. He should know that this indicates that the level or air supply in his cylinder is? A) One quarter B) One half C) Three Quarters D) Full

Answer 98

ANSWER: B) One half | TB SCBA 3.8.9

Question 99

A Company Officer conducting drill on the Pak-Tracker was correct that when searching? A) The Pak-Tracker should be held at chest height out in front of the operating member. B) The bottom of the hand-held receiver should be pointed toward the target. C) Always pause 3-4 seconds for a reading and always move toward the highest relative signal strength. D) The signal from the SCBA to the Pak-Tracker will usually pass through and penetrate through glass, wood, brick and concrete.

Answer 99

ANSWER: C) Always pause 3-4 seconds for a reading and always move toward the highest relative signal strength. A - WAIST height B - TOP of hand-held receiver should be pointed to target D - Can only pass through LIGHT BUILDING MATERIALS (NOT BRICK AND CONCRETE) (TB SCBA - Addendum 8)

Question 100

Of the many extinguishing agents found and used throughout NYC, Purple K is among the most effective. All of the following choices are correct except which? A) Purple K has demonstrated a superior extinguishing capability in combating methanol fires. It is also effective on gasoline, diesel and compressed gas fires. B) When operating, direct the Purple K extinguisher stream at the base of the flames using a side to side motion. Hold the extinguisher upright with the nozzle held in the member's strongest hand. C) Three hundred pound Purple K, or dry chemical, wheeled units are extensively used in industrial complexes throughout the city of New York. D) Hose, whether on Purple K wheeled units or on reels found on dry chemical trucks, should be stretched after charging to ensure the sodium bicarbonate or Purple K can be immediately discharged.

Answer 100

ANSWER: D) Hose, whether on Purple K wheeled units or on reels found on dry chemical trucks, should be stretched after charging to ensure the sodium bicarbonate or Purple K can be immediately discharged. (INCORRECT) * Stretch BEFORE CHARGING to eliminate the binding of the hose to the reel. (TB PK 1 2.3.3)

Question 101

The Purple K dry chemical handheld extinguisher has a capacity of 27 lbs. All of the following choices are correct except which? A) The discharge range is 19' to 20' B) The discharge time is 60 seconds C) Coverage is approximately 30 square feet D) The extinguisher can be used between minus 40 and 120 degrees.

Answer 101

ANSWER: B) The discharge time is 60 seconds (INCORRECT) * ELEVEN (11) SECONDS (TB PK 1 2.2)

Question 102

Proper maintenance of the Purple K handheld extinguisher is essential in ensuring this tool is effectively utilized when needed. Which choice below is incorrect? A) The extinguisher shall be checked at the beginning of each tour and thoroughly examined semi-annually. B) Every tour, ensure the extinguisher is in its designated place and is accessible for immediate use. C) Every tour, examine the extinguisher shall for evidence of physical damage, corrosion or other impairments. D) If the extinguisher is defective for any reason, attach an RT-2 and forward it to Technical Services for replacement.

Answer 102

ANSWER: A) The extinguisher shall be checked at the beginning of each tour and thoroughly examined semi-annually. (INCORRECT) * Examined ONCE A MONTH (TB PK 1 2.4)

Question 103

The Department's Purple K Units are completely self-contained firefighting units. The Purple K is contained in a sphere and is expelled by two pressurized nitrogen cylinders. Of the following choices, which contains correct information regarding these units? A) They have two electric hose reels containing 100' of 1" hose, with special nozzles for expelling the product. B) It is possible to attach 2 lengths of hose together, but discharge pressure may be reduced. C) Discharge range is approximately 30-40 feet. Start the attack about 20-30 feet from the fire, wind at your back, and use a side to side sweeping motion. D) The Purple K truck mounted system will last approximately 5 minutes.

Answer 103

ANSWER: D) The Purple K truck mounted system will last approximately 5 minutes. (INCORRECT) * LESS THAN TWO (2) MINUTES (TB PK Addendum 1 1.3.3)

Question 104

The Life Safety Rope (LSR) is a nylon rope that is stronger than manila rope of the same size. Which fact is true regarding the LSR? A) It is 5/16” in diameter with a working load of 600 pounds. B) It is 200 feet in length however it may shrink 8 to 10 feet over time due to natural shrinkage. C) It can lose 10% to 15% of its strength when wet. D) It will begin to melt when exposed to heat over 300 degrees.

Answer 104

ANSWER: C) It can lose 10% to 15% of its strength when wet. A - 9/16” in diameter with a working load of 600 pounds. SEARCH ROPE is 5/16” in diameter. B - 150 feet in length / may shrink 8 to 10 feet over time D - LOSES STRENGTH at 300 degrees / MELTS at 482 degrees (TB Rope 1 - 4.4)

Question 105

The LSR should be placed out of service for how many of the following situations? 1. When the rope is subjected to the weight of 1 person 2. When the rope is submerged in water. 3. When the rope becomes frozen. 4. When any doubt exist regarding its serviceability 5. Anytime a strand hockle or kink is found. 6. If the rope comes in contact with acids or their fumes. 7. If the rope has been exposed to highly heated surfaces 8. When any rust is found on the rope. A) 7 B) 6 C) 5 D) 4

Answer 105

ANSWER: D) 4 (3/4/6/7 are CORRECT) Choices 1/2/5/8 are INCORRECT. “Deputy Tony Hit A Home Run Far Away” ``` D - Doubt T - Two people (weight of) H - Hockle A - Acid or acid fumes H - Heat (exposed to highly heated surfaces) R - Rust (persistent rust stains) F - Frozen A - Abrasion ``` #1 - WEIGHT OF TWO (2) PEOPLE #2 - When rope is submerged in water ALLOW TO DRY NATURALLY #5 - Hockle ONLY (NOT KINK) #8 - NOT ANY RUST but PERSISTENT RUST (TB Rope 1 Section 4)

Question 106

Lt. Kramer must put his company’s LSR out of service after a defect was found. He filled out an RT-2 and took marks in the Company Journal, Office Record Journal and on the Rope Card (RP-100). He also completed an Out of Service Life Safety Equipment Report (SCF-2) and forwarded it through the chain of command to whom? A) The Chief of Safety B) The Chief of research and development C) The Chief of Operations D) The Chief of Department

Answer 106

ANSWER: A) The Chief of Safety | TB Rope 1 - 5.3

Question 107

A member that is repacking the LSR into the rope carrying case should begin by placing the hook of the LSR in the _____________ front corner of the carrying case and make a _____________ circle one half of the width of the bottom of the case. A) right / clockwise B) right / counterclockwise C) left / clockwise D) left / counterclockwise

Answer 107

ANSWER: D) left / counterclockwise | TB Rope 1 Data Sheet 1 - 3.3

Question 108

A Captain and Lt. discussing the LSR Training Rope would be correct to state which choice? A) The length of the training rope is 125 feet. B) It shall not be carried on the apparatus except when being transported to drill sites, at which time it must be under the complete control of a designated firefighter. C) the maximum number of times this rope may be used is 100 per end, for a total of 200 slides. D) The history of every LSR Training Rope shall be maintained on the same Rope Record Care (RP-100) as the assigned LSR.

Answer 108

ANSWER: C) the maximum number of times this rope may be used is 100 per end, for a total of 200 slides. A - ONE HUNDRED FEET (100’) IN LENGTH. B - Must be under the complete control of THE OFFICER D - History of every LSR Training Rope shall be maintained ON ITS OWN RECORD CARD RP-101 (NOT the same card as the LSR) (TB Rope 1 Data Sheet 3 - 3.1.4)

Question 109

Of the following choices, which shows incorrect information regarding the care and maintenance of the Life Belt? A) The life belt should be inspected weekly when the LSR is repacked and before and after each use. B) Whenever a Life Belt is subjected to an impact load, it shall be placed out of service and forwarded to R and D for evaluation. Life Belts subject to an impact load will be destroyed. C) A member free falling 3 feet or more is considered a sufficient impact load to warrant placing the Life Belt out of service. D) When a Life Belt is placed out of service the officer shall notify the administrative Division by telephone and fax and have it replaced immediately.

Answer 109

ANSWER: B) Whenever a Life Belt is subjected to an impact load, it shall be placed out of service and forwarded to R and D for evaluation. Life Belts subject to an impact load will be destroyed. (INCORRECT) * Forward to SAFETY COMMAND (TB Rope 2 - 2.1)

Question 110

The Officer of Ladder 16 must place his personal harness out of service due to a defect found during inspection. While waiting for a replacement harness from the Division Depot, if a response is received, the Officer should notify the dispatcher that? A) Ladder 16 is out of service B) Ladder 16 is responding understaffed. C) Ladder 16 is responding with 4 firefighters. D) No notification to the dispatcher is required. Upon arrival at the scene notify the IC that the Officer may not enter an IDLH.

Answer 110

ANSWER: A) Ladder 16 is out of service * If Officer bag is OOS then the unit is OOS. * If a FFs bag is OOS then they cannot enter the IDLH. (TB Rope 3 6.10)

Question 111

Captain Doyle is holding a drill on cutting with the Combination Metal/Concrete Diamond Blade. He asked the Proby to state four facts about this blade. Which is the only correct piece of information the Proby gave? A) The blade is bi-directional and will cut evenly in either direction. The blade should be flipped weekly to ensure both sides of the blade receive equal wear. B) To prevent overheating of the blade it is permissible to use a stream of water such as a hoseline at the point of contact with the material. C) The blade can be used for wet and dry cutting. D) Place disc out of service if diameter is 8” or less.

Answer 111

ANSWER: C) The blade can be used for wet and dry cutting. A - Flipped after EACH USE B - Use gentle stream of water such as an EXTINGUISHER D - True for old ABRASIVE DISC (TB Tools 9 - Appendix 1)

Question 112

The Personal Safety System (PSS) is part of member’s equipment that is vital to their safety. Which choice about the PSS is correct? A) The length of the rope is 75 feet. B) The PSS shall be properly connected to the right side of the personal harness at all times. C) The PSS can be used by members to remove themselves or victims from untenable positions. D) After Use, The PSS shall be inspected before being placed back in service.

Answer 112

ANSWER: B) The PSS shall be properly connected to the right side of the personal harness at all times. A - Length of rope is FIFTY (50) FEET C - PSS is for removal of MEMBERS ONLY (not victims) D - PSS is a ONE USE SYSTEM / Place OOS after use (TB Rope 4 - 2.2)

Question 113

Inspecting the PSS is extremely important to ensure it works properly when needed. Which is the incorrect point regarding inspections? A) The PSS shall be inspected at the start of the tour and semi-annually. B) If the bag (or any component of the PSS) shows signs of heat exposure (discoloration, degradation, melting, charring, etc.) The entire system (PSS bag, rope, EXO and harness) should be placed out of service. C) When dark shading of the rope is noted during semi-annual inspection, the PSS is to be placed out of service. D) Upon completion of the semi-annual inspection, and repacking, the Officer shall update the “PSS Checklist Application” on the intranet and ensure the EXO and harness serial number assigned to each member are correct. E) The sewn eye is only to be used with the issued hook. No other hardware or device should be placed into the sewn eye.

Answer 113

ANSWER: C) When dark shading of the rope is noted during semi-annual inspection, the PSS is to be placed out of service. (INCORRECT) * The inside liner of the rope bag is dyed black. Over time the rope can be discolored in spots by contact with the liner indicated by dark shading to the rope. * This discoloration due to the DYE DOES NOT AFFECT the load bearing capacities of the rope. (TB Rope 4 - 5.3)

Question 114

While working in an Engine Company in Battalion 23, a member approached you and states that while performing semi-annual inspection of their PSS, they noticed fraying and cut fibers, and need to place their PSS OOS. Which is the only correct action to take? A) Instruct the member to use the spare PSS repacking kit issued to the unit while awaiting a replacement PSS. B) Make telephone notification to the Battalion and request a replacement PSS. C) Prepare an RT-2 but do not make any journal entries. D) Complete an out of service Life a Safety Equipment Report and forward it directly to the Chief of Department without immediate endorsements.

Answer 114

ANSWER: A) Instruct the member to use the spare PSS repacking kit issued to the unit while awaiting a replacement PSS. B - Telephone DIVISION for replacement C - RT2 and a mark in COMPANY JOURNAL AND OFFICE RECORD JOURNAL D - Form SCF-2 to the CHIEF OF SAFETY through the chain of command (TB Rope 4 6.1)

Question 115

When a member’s PSS has been placed OOS, and the Member is not equipped with a PSS and a response is received before a replacement is obtained there are several points to remember. Which choice is incorrect? A) The member without the PSS shall not respond. B) If the member is in a Ladder Company, the officer shall transmit to the dispatcher “we are responding with 4 FFs” and the member shall not enter an IDLH area. C) If the member is in a 4 FF Engine, the Officer shall transmit to the dispatcher “we are responding understaffed” and state the number of FFs responding. The member shall not enter the IDLH. D) If the Officer is not equipped with a PSS, the unit shall be placed OOS until a replacement PSS is obtained.

Answer 115

ANSWER: A) The member without the PSS shall not respond. (INCORRECT) * Member responds but does not enter IDLH. (TB Rope 4 - 6.15)

Question 116

While discussing the Search Rope during a study group, several statements were made. Which one was incorrect? A) The Search Rope is to be used as a supervisory tool to maintain search team integrity under difficult circumstances. B) The Search Rope should be deployed only in heavy heat and smoke conditions in large, complex and below grade areas. C) The thermal imaging camera, if available should be used in conjunction with the search rope. D) The Search Rope is to be used only for search or guide purposes, not for lifting or lowering.

Answer 116

ANSWER: B) The Search Rope should be deployed only in heavy heat and smoke conditions in large, complex and below grade areas. (INCORRECT) * Search rope should be deployed in large and complex areas and below grade areas even in LIGHT AND MODERATE HEAT AND SMOKE CONDITIONS. (TB Rope 6 - 1.2)

Question 117

Which is the incorrect statement concerning the Search Rope? A) The Search Rope is made of either 5/16” diameter white nylon or a 7.5mm diameter Kernmantle design. B) The rope is 200 feet long and has a snap hook at each end. Newly issued Kernmantle ropes have a double action snap hook at the working end and a snap hook that secures the rope to the bag. C) The rope is packed in a yellow carrying bag marked “Search Rope” D) Each Search Rope will have a Company ID tag attached to the rope and another to the bag. E) The nylon rope shall be coiled into the case counter clockwise.

Answer 117

ANSWER: C) The rope is packed in a yellow carrying bag marked “Search Rope” (INCORRECT) * Marked with the COMPANY NUMBER (TB Rope 6 - 2.3)

Question 118

While searching a Mill Loft building with a search rope and unable to determine the run of the finished flooring, a member attempts to use the knots on the search rope to orient themselves. Which thought concerning these knots is correct? A) The first distance knot is tied at 25 feet, and the last distance knot is tied at 175 feet. B) Spacing between the distance knots is approximately 18 inches. C) A single direction knot is located 6 inches before all of the distance knots. D) The distance and direction knots do not affect the length of the rope.

Answer 118

ANSWER: A) The first distance knot is tied at 25 feet, and the last distance knot is tied at 175 feet. B - Spacing between distance knots is approximately SIX (6) INCHES C - A single directional knot is located EIGHTEEN (18) INCHES before all of the distance knots. This knot is ALWAYS closer to the tie off or exit. D - Due to shrinkage and the installation of distance and directional knots, nylon search ropes may be short by TWENTY FIVE (25) FEET OR MORE. (TB Rope 6 - 2.3)

Question 119

Lt. Bradford was correct when he took which action while deploying the search rope at a fire in a factory? A) He notified the IC when deploying the rope, and notified the members searching on the rope and the IC the amount of search rope deployed. B) He secures the end of the rope to a forklift inside the building. C) He maintained the rope 2 inches off the ground, ensuring sufficient slack to maintain maneuverability. D) Voice contact was not maintained with members searching off the rope due to them being under functional supervision. E) When searching members were required to leave the building prior to completing the search, Lt. Bradford ensured the rope was repacked while proceeding to the exit.

Answer 119

ANSWER: A) He notified the IC when deploying the rope, and notified the members searching on the rope and the IC the amount of search rope deployed. B - Must secure rope to a SUBSTANTIAL NON MOVEABLE OBJECT in a clear, safe environment (Not a forklift) C - Maintain rope ONE TO TWO FEET ABOVE GROUND. D - Voice contact SHALL BE MAINTAINED with all search members E - If search is interrupted, TIE OFF LINE AND LEAVE THE BAG WITH THE REMAINDER OF THE ROPE. Another unit can continue the search using this rope. (TB Rope 6 - 8.2)

Question 120

Often the search using a search rope is completed by a unit other than the one that initially deployed the rope. Which choice is incorrect in this situation? A) Under most conditions, the number of members assigned to the search rope team should be limited to three. B) A unit, other than the first alarm unit, receiving orders to search an area requiring a search rope shall maintain unit integrity and perform this function with all members. C) When a Unit other than a first alarm unit performs a search with the search rope, the officer and 2 FFs will operate as the 1st search team, and the remaining members will remain at the tie off point to standby as the backup team. D) When a unit is being relieved on a search rope, they shall exit the IDLH with their left hand in contact with the rope if possible, and the relieving unit shall enter the area with their left hand in contact with the rope, if possible.

Answer 120

ANSWER: D) When a unit is being relieved on a search rope, they shall exit the IDLH with their left hand in contact with the rope if possible, and the relieving unit shall enter the area with their left hand in contact with the rope, if possible. (INCORRECT) * Exit area with RIGHT HAND on rope * Relieving unit enters area with RIGHT HAND on rope (TB Rope 6 - 8.2)

Question 121

Selected Ladder companies have been trained in the use and issued the EZ Don Harness. Which is the incorrect point about this harness? A) The harness is only designed for technical removals of civilians. It is not to be used for members. B) The harness replaces the LSRs bowline on a bright for removal purposes. C) After tightening the shoulder, chest and leg straps, a closed fist should be able to be placed between the victim’s chest and the tri-link. D) The harness shall only be used for removal of one person at a time.

Answer 121

ANSWER: A) The harness is only designed for technical removals of civilians. It is not to be used for members. (INCORRECT) * Designed for NON TECHNICAL removals * Can be used for VICTIMS OR FIREFIGHTERS (TB Rope 9 - 2.1)

Question 122

The fire window blanket shall be inspected weekly. The blanket is of natural color and the weight is approximately 40 lbs. The blanket dimensions are 10 feet wide by 12 feet long and big enough to cover 2 windows. The ropes are long enough to lower the blanket from two floors above. As a good student you would know who would bring the fire window blanket to the Fire Sector at a HRFPMD. A) 1st Roof FF B) 3rd Roof FF C) Rescue Company D) Squad Company

Answer 122

ANSWER: D) Squad Company | TB Tools 3 - 3.3

Question 123

The Officer on duty needing a replacement KO Curtain should notify who to get the replacement? A) Battalion B) Division C) Research and Development during normal business hours or SOC at Roosevelt Island during non-business hours. D) Tech Services

Answer 123

ANSWER: B) Division * Research and Development during normal business hours or SOC at Roosevelt Island during non-business hours is correct for the WINDOW BLANKET. (TB Tools 2 - 6.3)

Question 124

Which statement concerning the pressurized water extinguisher is incorrect? A) The 2 1/2 gallons water extinguisher weighs approximately 30 pounds. The operating pressure is 100 psi at 70 degrees F and the water is expelled in 55 seconds. B) Direct the straight stream at the base of the fire. A gloved finger placed lightly over the nozzle tip can help produce a fine spray. This spray pattern is also useful at fires to obtain the maximum cooling effect and extended application time. C) Using the extinguisher with a finger over the nozzle should only be used at very small or smoldering fires where there is no thermal draft created by the fire. Thermal draft may cause the spray to become steam and possibly burn the user or others in close proximity. D) Check hydrostatic test date. If it is over 3 years, the extinguisher must be placed OOS.

Answer 124

ANSWER: D) Check hydrostatic test date. If it is over 3 years, the extinguisher must be placed OOS. (INCORRECT) * Hydrostatic test date over FIVE (5) YEARS / place OOS (TB Tools 1)

Question 125

During routine maintenance of the water extinguisher, safety is of the upmost importance. Which choice below is incorrect? A) The pressurized water extinguisher shall be inspected daily and after each use. B) To prevent injury, always ensure all pressure is properly relieved from extinguisher prior to recharging. Also eye protection should be worn when recharging the extinguisher. C) Regulated extinguisher pressurization source should never be set higher than 100 psi. D) Never stand directly in front of extinguisher gauge or stand over the valve during pressurization.

Answer 125

ANSWER: C) Regulated extinguisher pressurization source should never be set higher than 100 psi. (INCORRECT) * Never higher than ONE HUNDRED AND TWENTY FIVE (125 PSI) (TB Tools 1 - 6)

Question 126

The KO curtain and ropes have been tested to 2000 degrees F. The KO Curtain survived 50 mph winds and 60 minutes of fire exposure. It weights 26.5 pounds and its dimensions are 8' x 6'. The KO Curtain shall be inspected weekly during MUD and after each use. When the KO Curtain is deployed, the Ladder Company Officer of the confiscated KO Curtain will prepare a brief letterhead report to _________________ detailing the use of the device and a description of any damage that may have occurred from the deployment of the device at the incident. The Officer shall also include any additional information that may be important to the future use of this device and forward a report via the chain of command with a copy to the ________________. A) Chief of Operations / Chief of the Fire Academy B) Chief of Safety / Chief of the Fire Academy C) Chief of the Fire Academy / Research and Development D) Chief of the Fire Academy / Chief of Safety

Answer 126

ANSWER: A) Chief of Operations / Chief of the Fire Academy * Chief of Operations - Richardson (TB Tools 2 - 6.2)

Question 127

The FDNY has issued a Digital In-Line Pressure/Flow metering device that has been designed specifically for standpipe operations. Choose the incorrect statement made. A) The gauge does not regulate water flow B) The red LED readout indicates pressure in psi C) The blue LED readout indicates water flow in gpm D) The Digital In-Line gauge must be pre-connected to a folded length of hose

Answer 127

ANSWER: D) The Digital In-Line gauge must be pre-connected to a folded length of hose. (INCORRECT) * The gauge is not to be pre-connected to a folded length of hose (Training Bulletins Tools 36 sec 3.1) A- It provides members with the ability to monitor the pressure and flow delivered from the standpipe outlet to the nozzle team.

Question 128

The incorrect statement made in regards to the "Beluga Auto Glass Knife" can be found in which choice? A) Designed to cut Tempered Safety Glass found in automobile windshields, hurricane windows and both commercial and residential construction glass B) The Beluga Glass Cutter attaches to any 3/8"- 1/2" drill or 1/4" nut driver C) The connected drill and Beluga cutting head can swivel 360 degrees at the chuck so you can steer around obstructions such as the A-Post D) The blade is ground and polished hardened steel, it will not wear out while cutting glass

Answer 128

ANSWER: A) Designed to cut Tempered Safety Glass found in automobile windshields, hurricane windows and both commercial and residential construction glass. (INCORRECT) * Designed to cut LAMINATED SAFETY GLASS found in automobile windshields, hurricane windows and both commercial and residential construction glass (Training Bulletins 39 secs 2.1, 3.2, 3.3, 3.10)

Question 129

The most effective way to extinguish a combustible metal fire can be found in which choice? A) Class A extinguisher B) Class B extinguisher C) Class C extinguisher D) Class D extinguisher

Answer 129

ANSWER: D) Class D extinguisher * The FDNY currently has two class D extinguishers with a slightly different capabilities available for use; they are MET-L-X and the LITH-X (Training Bulletins 34 sec 1.2)

Question 130

The only correct procedure when using the Vehicle Recovery Strap can be found in which choice? A) The Vehicle Recovery Strap is only to be used on Department and Civilian vehicles when stuck in deep snow B) The Vehicle Recovery Strap can be used to remove Engine or Ladder apparatus when stuck in deep snow C) If the stuck vehicle is an ambulance with a patient, recovery may be attempted as long as the patient is not Critical D) The Vehicle Recovery Strap shall never be attached to the front or rear bumper

Answer 130

ANSWER: D) The Vehicle Recovery Strap shall never be attached to the front or rear bumper. (Training Bulletins Apparatus C-2 / Addendum 3) A- Department vehicles ONLY B- Shall not exceed 20,000 lbs (Battalion vehicles and ambulances are under 20,000 lbs) / Engine and Ladder exceed this amount. C- Patient shall be offloaded to a secondary ambulance prior to vehicle recovery use.

Question 131

The service life of a SCBA air cylinder can be found in which choice? A) 5 years B) 10 years C) 15 years D) 20 years

Answer 131

ANSWER: C) 15 years * The date of manufacture is listed on the SCOTT label by month and year. The service life of an air cylinder is 15 years. If a manufacture date is greater than 15 years, the cylinder must be removed from service, bled down, tagged, and returned to MSU (Training Bulletins SCBA sec 3.2.3)

Question 132

After an identity appears on the LCD display, a Pak-tracker receiver can then be locked onto the PASS signal of an individual SCBA and used as a tracking device to find a member in distress. It is important to understand that a Pak-Tracker receiver can lock onto how many SCBA(s) at a time? A) 1 B) 2 C) 5 D) 10

Answer 132

ANSWER: A) 1 | Training Bulletins SCBA add 8 sec 5.4

Question 133

The incorrect information about the pressurized water extinguisher can be found in which choice? A) Water expelled in 55 seconds B) Shall be hydro-statically tested at 5 year intervals or at any time an extinguisher shows evidence of corrosion or mechanical damage C) In freezing weather, the extinguisher should be placed in an apparatus cab or other warm area if the unit will be operating for an extended period D) Pressurized water extinguishers shall be inspected at the beginning of each tour and after each use

Answer 133

ANSWER: D) Pressurized water extinguishers shall be inspected at the beginning of each tour and after each use * Pressurized water extinguishers shall be inspected DAILY and after each use * Note the difference between this an TB Purple K Dry Chemical Extinguishers (Inspected EACH TOUR and thoroughly examined once a month) (Training Bulletins Tools 1 sec 4)

Question 134

When supervising the mixture of Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF) concentrate to the AFFF extinguisher, the correct amount of concentrate to be added can be found in which choice? A) 2 ounces B) 5 ounces C) 10 ounces D) 20 ounces

Answer 134

ANSWER: C) 10 ounces * An AFFF extinguisher not used within 1 year after charging must be emptied, refilled and recharged * Note: this is a recent change * Also: inspected Daily (Training Bulletins Foam add 2 sec 5)

Question 135

Designated training air cylinders for SCBAs have what color top? A) Red B) White C) Blue D) Green

Answer 135

ANSWER: C) Blue (Training Bulletins SCBA sec 3.2.15) * Designated training cylinders are identified with a blue top and/or a polymer protective sleeve * These cylinders are not to be used for firefighting purposes

Question 136

All marked FDNY apparatus/vehicles, and voluntary hospital ambulances that have FDNY EMS 911 participant logos have security decals affixed to them. Where is the security decal located? A) Drivers side of windshield B) Passenger side of windshield C) Passenger side of cab door area D) Drivers side of cab door area

Answer 136

ANSWER: D) Drivers side of cab door area. (Training Bulletins C-2 add 2 sec 3) * This is a new change * Look at picture...test writers often go to pictures.

Question 137

When setting up the Care and Maintenance schedule for the company apparatus, there are duties that should be done tourly vs daily. Choose the Care and Maintenance that was set up incorrectly. A) Fill the fuel tank tourly B) Check the seat belts daily C) Purge air tanks tourly D) Check oil level daily

Answer 137

ANSWER: B) Check the seat belts daily (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins C2 sec 3) * Seatbelts TOURLY (immediately after the 0900 and 1800 roll calls) * Tourly: fill fuel tank, seatbelts, warning devices, regular lights, purge air tanks "FLAWS" * Daily: apparatus cleaning, door handles/latches, wipers/mirrors/glass, battery maintenance, air loss in brake system, engine oil, tires, suspension, upholstery, radiator

Question 138

The pump pressure gauge will read when the apparatus is at its lowest RPMs. With the engine set for volume, and the hydrant producing 50 psi, the pump pressure gauge will read which correct psi? A) 105 psi B) 160 psi C) 110 psi D) 50 psi

Answer 138

ANSWER: A) 105 psi (Training Bulletins app P3 sec 1.2) * Pump idle pressure when in volume mode is 55 psi (55 psi + 50 psi for the hydrant = 105 psi) * Pump idle pressure when in pressure mode is 110 psi (110 psi + 50 psi for the hydrant = 160 psi when in pump idle pressure)

Question 139

The High Rise Nozzle (HRN) may be used as an alternate attack strategy when standard interior handline attack methods are not possible, such as conditions caused by wind driven fires. Which feature described below is incorrect regarding the HRN? A) The HRN is an eight foot long aluminum pipe with a 68 degree two foot bend. B) Prior to use, a 2 1/2" FDNY shutoff must be attached to the HRN. C) The 1 1/8" MST attached to the HRN is removable and should be checked at MUD. D) Supplied by 2 1/2" hose line, the HRN will produce flows of 200-225 GPM at 50 psi nozzle pressure with water flowing.

Answer 139

ANSWER: B) Prior to use, a 2 1/2" FDNY shutoff must be attached to the HRN. (INCORRECT) (TB Tools 7 / Data Sheet 17 4.1) * The Shut-off is PERMANENTLY ATTACHED

Question 140

Captain Smith is working in Engine Company 231 in Brooklyn. At roll call, his members are discussing a stubborn wind impacted fire in a HRFPMD that units operated at the night before which required the use of the high rise nozzle. They make the following comments regarding the nozzle, but were only correct in which one? A) The HRN will only be placed into operation at the direction of a Chief Officer. B) The supply line must be attached to the HRN before it is slid out the window sill for use. C) The firefighter operating the HRN will initiate and maintain HT contact with the spotter to make sure the nozzle is being operated effectively and the stream is knocking down the fire. D) Putting the HRN into operation will require the services of one Engine company equipped with rollups, standpipe kit, FE tools and the HRN.

Answer 140

ANSWER: B) The supply line must be attached to the HRN before it is slid out the window sill for use. (TB Tools 7 / Data Sheet 17 5.1) A - HRN only placed into operation if authorized by IC. C - OFFICER SUPERVISING HRN initiates and maintains HT contact with the spotter. D - Requires services of TWO (2) ENGINES

Question 141

Every Battalion has at least one Engine company who is assigned a High Rise Nozzle and all FDNY members have been trained in putting this tool into operation. Dispatch policy dictates that every 10-77 will have at least one HRN equipped Engine company assigned. It is the responsibility of the _______ due Engine to bring the HRN to the Command Post. A) 2nd B) 3rd C) 4th D) 5th

Answer 141

ANSWER: D) 5th | TB Tools 7 / Data Sheet 17 2.3

Question 142

Engine 5 is the 5th assigned Engine Company operating at a 10-77 in Manhattan. They are ordered to take the High Rise Nozzle to the floor below to knockdown a wind impacted fire. After gaining access to the apartment below the fire, Engine 5's Officer hears reports that multiple rooms are involved in fire. Engine 5 performed the following tactics but was only correct in which one? A) In this situation, E5 started with the window that the wind was blowing into and extinguished the fire in this room first. Then, they moved to the other windows upwind of the original fire room and completed knockdown of the fire. B) A shut-off was placed two lengths back from the nozzle. When repositioning the HRN, the supply line was shut down at this shut-off and the nozzle opened to bleed the line. C) Once repositioned, Engine 5's Officer ordered water started. D) The nozzle was operated when Engine 5's Officer gave approval.

Answer 142

ANSWER: C) Once repositioned, Engine 5's Officer ordered water started. (TB Tools 7 / Data Sheet 17 5.12) A - Move to other windows DOWNWIND of the original fire room and complete knockdown of the fire. B - Shut-off placed ONE LENGTH back. D - Nozzle operated when IC gives approval.

Question 143

The cockloft nozzle is a 6'3" aluminum pipe with two 1/2" OSTs. It has standard 1 1/2" female threads enabling connection to a controlling nozzle. Which additional feature of a cockloft nozzle mentioned below is correct? A) The two 1/2" OSTs are not to be removed. These tips increase the reach of the stream in excess of 60 feet and facilitate the generation of steam that enables a more rapid extinguishment of the fire. B) The discharge rate of the cockloft nozzle is approximately 180 GPM. C) The cockloft nozzle is to be supplied by a 2 1/2" handline with the same pressure normally supplied to a 2 1/2" handling. D) The cockloft nozzle is carried by all squad companies and battalion vehicles.

Answer 143

ANSWER: A) The two 1/2" OSTs are not to be removed. These tips increase the reach of the stream in excess of 60 feet and facilitate the generation of steam that enables a more rapid extinguishment of the fire. (TB Tools 7 / Data Sheet 18 1.2) B - Discharge rate is 125 GPM. C - Supplied by 1 3/4" with the same pressure normally supplied to an 1 3/4" line. D - Carried by Squad and DIVISION vehicles.

Question 144

The cockloft nozzle is designed to extinguish fires in the confined space of any building with a cockloft. The IC shall consider the use of the cockloft nozzle at any incident where its unique capabilities may be beneficial. Which procedures outlines below involving the cockloft nozzle is correct? A) A hole approximately 2' x 2' is needed in the ceiling in order for the cockloft nozzle to fit. The clearing between the top of the ceiling joists and the bottom of the roof joists must be a minimum of 6" to enable the operation of the cockloft nozzle. B) Prior to using the cockloft nozzle in a NFPMD, a vent hole must be cut over the main body of fire. C) When using a cockloft nozzle in a NFPMD, the preferred location for operation is immediately outside the apartment door. This is to provide members with a degree of protection provided by the public hallway. D) The cockloft nozzle shall only be placed into operation at the direction of a Chief Officer.

Answer 144

ANSWER: D) The cockloft nozzle shall only be placed into operation at the direction of a Chief Officer. (TB Tools 7 / Data Sheet 18 4.1) A - A hole THREE FEET BY THREE FEET (3' x 3') is needed in the ceiling / Minimum of FOUR (4) INCHES to enable cockloft operation. B - CONSIDER cutting a vent hole prior to cockloft nozzle operation (NOT MANDATED) C - Preferred located is immediately INSIDE apt. door

Question 145

The combination nozzle system provides the advantage of two different nozzles, both of which can be attached to the base pipe. This two piece compact system allows for the selected nozzle and base pipe to be carried into confined locations and elevators if needed. Which point below is correct regarding the combination nozzle? A) All Engine companies are trained in the use of the combination nozzle, and may use it as required. B) The base pipe shall be stored with a 1 /2" x 2 1/2" increaser attached to the permanently attached 2 1/2" shut-off. C) The combination nozzle kit is carried by selected Engine and Ladder companies. D) The original one piece HRN has been removed from companies equipped with he combination nozzle.

Answer 145

ANSWER: B) The base pipe shall be stored with a 1 /2" x 2 1/2" increaser attached to the permanently attached 2 1/2" shut-off. (TB Tools 7 / Data Sheet 19 2.1) A - SELECTED Engine companies carry this tool C - ENGINES ONLY (Trucks do not carry them) D - Original one piece HRN has NOT BEEN REMOVED from the companies equipped with the combination nozzle.

Question 146

The combination nozzle system shall be visually inspected _______. If repairs are deemed necessary contact ____________________. A) Monthly / Tech Services B) Weekly / Research and Development C) Monthly / Research and Development D) Weekly / Tech Services

Answer 146

ANSWER: B) Weekly / Research and Development | TB Tools 7 / Data Sheet 19 4.1

Question 147

Whenever possible, a team of 2 members shall perform cutting operations with the portable power saw. Members shall be equipped with complete PPE including gloves and protective goggles. Which statement below is incorrect regarding the saw operating team? A) The Officer in charge of the operation should select the best method of cutting compatible with circumstances existing at the time. B) The member acting as a guide can stand to the rear of the operator and must grasp the guide device with both hands. C) The member assigned as a guide may hold the metal strap portion of the life belt, or safety harness worn by the operator, for the purpose of guidance and control during operations. D) The member assigned as the guide may use the carrying sling as a safety harness to guide and assist the operator.

Answer 147

ANSWER: B) The member acting as a guide can stand to the rear of the operator and must grasp the guide device with both hands. (INCORRECT) (TB Tools 9 4.4.3) * The member acting as a guide can stand to the rear of the Operator and grasp the guide device with ONE HAND. * In this position the member can face in the same direction as the Operator, and can turn sideways to watch the rear

Question 148

A member is operating the power saw, cutting a vent hole in the roof of a 5 story NFPMD when he feels his guide man slap him 3 times on the back. He would know that this indicated which of the following? A) Stop cutting B) Continue cutting C) Shut down the saw D) Evacuate the roof

Answer 148

ANSWER: C) Shut down the saw (TB Tools 9 4.4.6) ONE WORD / ONE SLAP (STOP) TWO WORDS / TWO SLAPS (KEEP CUTTING) THREE WORDS / THREE SLAPS (SHUT DOWN SAW)

Question 149

All members in the immediate area of cutting operations shall wear full PPE. This also applies while testing the saw in or around quarters, or using the saw at drill or training. Safety goggles must be worn or eye shields must be in the down position. Which additional safety precaution below is required during saw operations? A) The saw shall always be shut down when unattended or when moved to distant areas of the operation. B) During roof or floor cutting operations, everyone in the vicinity of a saw operation shall observe, as near as possible and practical, a 10 foot radius circle of danger. C) Only the operator and the member designated as the guide may enter this circle of danger. D) Before moving from one position to another, disengage the clutch, release the trigger, and place the blade on a flat surface to stop it from spinning. The saw is then carried to the next assignment.

Answer 149

ANSWER: A) The saw shall always be shut down when unattended or when moved to distant areas of the operation. (TB Tools 9 4.7) B - TWENTY (20) FOOT radius circle of danger (10 is for chainsaw operations) C - Operator / Guide and OFFICER allowed in C.O.D (Operator / Guide only for chainsaw ops) D - The saw is then ROLLED to the next assignment.

Question 150

A probationary FF working in Ladder 176 is given the Roof position for the first time on a clear and sunny spring 9x6 tour. After roll call, members decide to drill with the probe on power saw operations. They make the following points but were only correct in which one? A) The saw shall never be used on other than a flat horizontal service. B) Use of the power saw from ladder (except the TL basket) is forbidden. C) The saw shall never be refueled while running. D) The stance for normal cutting should be the "boxer stance" with feet spaced 20" - 22" apart.

Answer 150

ANSWER: C) The saw shall never be refueled while running. (TB Tools 9 4.16.1 / Figure 3) A - Can be used on other than flat surface is UNDER DIRECT SUPERVISION OF OFFICER. B - Use of power saw from ladder (except Tower Ladder Basket) is NOT RECCOMENDED if there is another alternative. D - BOXER STANCE is 18" - 20" apart

Question 151

Units are operating at a top floor fire at a large H-Type MD in the Bronx. Ladder Company FFs are hard at work on the roof cutting a ventilation hole over the main body of fire. Which cutting procedure is stated correctly? A) Sparks coming from the area of the saw blade usually indicates too deep a cut through heavy material. B) Fresh smoke is usually a good indication that the cut it on the beam, move the saw to the inside of the cut, permitting a cut clear of the beam and making the section easier to remove. C) When performing a "coffin cut" ; cut 1 is approximately 3 feet ; cut 2 is approximately 6 feet ; cut 3 is the knockout cut ; and cuts 4 to 7 are approximately 3 feet. D) The saw is designed that whenever possible, roof boards and coverings shall be cut in one operation.

Answer 151

ANSWER: D) The saw is designed that whenever possible, roof boards and coverings shall be cut in one operation. (TB Tools 9 6.1.4) A - FRESH SMOKE - too deep a cut through heavy material B - SPARKS - cut is on the beam C - 2nd cut is KNOCKOUT CUT

Question 152

The portable power saw can be outfitted with a variety of cutting blades. The availability of these blades will allow the saw operator to cut almost any material encountered at fires or emergency operations. Which statement below is correct regarding the carbide tip blade? A) The 12 tooth carbide tipped blade shall be placed OOS if three or more tips are missing. B) The carbide tip blade may be used on metal security doors, auto bodies, metal window bars and case hardened locks. C) When cutting with the carbide tip blade, gradually increase the speed of the blade as the cut is being made. D) When cutting with a carbide tip blade avoid using a back and forth motion with the saw to prevent the binding of the blade.

Answer 152

ANSWER: A) The 12 tooth carbide tipped blade shall be placed OOS if three or more tips are missing. (TB Tools 9 - Appendix 1 2.1.1) B - SHALL NOT BE USED on metal security doors, auto bodies, metal window bars and case hardened locks. C - Cut at FULL RPM D - SLIGHT back and forth motion will WIDEN THE CUT AND PREVENT THE BLADE FROM BINDING.

Question 153

The two types of abrasive discs that may be used on power saws are the aluminum oxide disc and the silicon carbide disc. Each of these discs is described below. Which description is correct? A) The aluminum oxide disc will cut through concrete and other masonry materials. B) One side of the silicon carbide blade should be painted yellow in order to differentiate it from similar discs. C) An abrasive disc worn down to 6" diameter shall be placed OOS. D) When cutting with abrasive discs, the saw shall be operated at full RPMs before making contact with the material to be cut.

Answer 153

ANSWER: C) An abrasive disc worn down to 6" diameter shall be placed OOS. (TB Tools 9 - Appendix 1 2.2.3) A - SILICON CARBIDE (Concrete / Masonry) B - BOTH SIDES of silicon carbide painted yellow D - Begin cut at LOW SPEED and GRADUALLY INCREASE

Question 154

The FDNY's newest type of saw blade is the combination metal/concrete Diamond Blade. This blade is a diamond brazed saw blade for use on the FE saw. This single blade will replace both the aluminum oxide abrasive disc used for metal cutting and the silicon carbide abrasive disc used for concrete cutting. Which feature of this blade mentioned below is incorrect? A) This blade can be used for dry cutting only. B) The blade is made from solid steel with no welds. This reduces injuries from shattered blades and segments. C) This blade produces 90% less sparks than abrasive discs. D) One blade should outlast 150 quality abrasive discs.

Answer 154

ANSWER: A) This blade can be used for dry cutting only. (INCORRECT) (TB Tools 9 - Appendix 1 2.3.7) * Can be used for DRY AND WET CUTTING

Question 155

Members operating a saw with the new Diamond Blade must be aware of its limitations. Which comment below regarding this blade is correct? A) This blade can cut many metal and concrete objects. It can also cut bulletproof glass and plastic pipe. The blade will not cut wood. B) The blade must be used in one direction only. Members must follow the directional arrows placed on the blade. C) When the saw is in operation, frequently back the saw out of the cut so that air can cool the blade. D) If the blade becomes glazed over and cuts ineffectively it must be placed OOS. Do not attempt to clean the blade by running it through an abrasive material such as concrete.

Answer 155

ANSWER: C) When the saw is in operation, frequently back the saw out of the cut so that air can cool the blade. (TB Tools 9 - Appendix 1 2.3.15) A - CAN CUT WOOD / NOT RECOMMENDED B - Blade is BI-DIRECTIONAL / Disregard directional arrows on older blades. D - CAN BE CLEANED by running it though an abrasive material such as concrete. This will expose more diamonds on the blade’s edge.

Question 156

Each Ladder company has been issued a carrying sling to be used with the roof cutting power saw. The sling is part of a 3 piece kit used not he power saw. All components of the kit have a breaking strength of __________ lbs. A) 1000 B) 2000 C) 3000 D) 4000

Answer 156

ANSWER: A) 1000 | TB Tools 9 - Appendix 2 1.13

Question 157

The Life Saving Rope shall be placed OOS immediately for all of the following except? A) Ice particles found within the strands of the rope B) When a rust stain is found on the rope C) When the rope is subjected to the weight of two people D) When the rope came in contact with acid fumes

Answer 157

ANSWER: (Training Bulletins Rope 1 sec 4) “Deputy Tony Hit A Home Run Far Away” ``` D - Doubt T - Two people (weight of) H - Hockle A - Acid or acid fumes H - Heat (exposed to highly heated surfaces) R - Rust (persistent rust stains) F - Frozen A - Abrasion ``` * When a rust stain is found on the LSR, it should be immediately removed with soap and water. * A PERSISTENT rust stain is a definite indication of fiber damage and a reduction in the strength of the rope. LSR is OOS and request a replacement

Question 158

The incorrect statement made about the Personal Safety System (PSS) can be found in which choice? A) The PSS shall be inspected daily and Semi-annually B) The PSS is 50' long, 7.5 mm in diameter, and has a figure "8" stopper knot tied at the end of the rope C) The PSS is a one time use system. After the use, the PSS will be placed OOS D) If the bag (or any component of PSS) shows signs of heat exposure (discoloration, degradation, melting, charring, etc.) the entire system (PSS bag, EXO, and harness) should be placed OOS

Answer 158

ANSWER: A) The PSS shall be inspected daily and Semi-annually. (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins Rope 4A) * At the start of EACH TOUR and Semi-annually

Question 159

The incorrect statement made in regards to portable generators can be found in which choice? A) If a portable generator is used to power an exhaust fan, the ideal length of the electrical cord should be 50 feet or less B) Portable generators shall be tested weekly for 15 minutes C) All companies who are issued a generator are also issued extension cords and adapter "pigtails." The cords are various lengths of 12-gauge wire, some with waterproof connections. Waterproof connections are good for use up to 3 feet of water when properly mated. D) On-board generators shall be checked monthly during Multi Unit Drill

Answer 159

Answer: D) On-board generators shall be checked monthly during Multi Unit Drill. (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins Tools 4 4.6) * WEEKLY

Question 160

When the Life Belt is placed OOS, the officer on duty shall notify who? A) Administrative Division B) Administrative Battalion C) Rope Unit D) Special Operations Command (SOC)

Answer 160

ANSWER: A) Administrative Division (Training Bulletins Rope 2 sec 3) * Notify Administrative Division by telephone and fax and have it immediately replaced. Also, officer to complete SCF-2 and forward it through the chain of command to the Chief of Safety

Question 161

Which statement below is incorrect regarding the nylon Life Saving Rope? A) It is 9/16" in diameter B) The rope has a length of 200 feet C) The working load is 600 pounds D) It may shrink 8 - 10 feet over time due to natural shrinkage

Answer 161

ANSWER: B) The rope has a length of 200 feet (INCORRECT) (TB Rope 1 - 1.6) * ONE HUNDRED AND FIFTY FEET (150) IN LENGTH

Question 162

The Life Saving Rope when exposed to heat over ______ degrees F will progressively lose strength and will melt at _________ degrees F. A) 300 / 482 B) 250 / 360 C) 400 / 600 D) 100 / 200

Answer 162

ANSWER: A) 300 / 482 (TB Rope 1 - 4.11) * Nylon rope when exposed to heat over 300°F will progressively lose strength, and will melt at 482°F.

Question 163

The LSR should be placed OOS for how many of the following reasons? 1. Subjected to the weight of 1 person 2. If it becomes frozen 3. If any rust stain is found on the rope 4. If it comes in contact with any acid or acid fumes 5. It has been exposed to high heat 6. Any time the rope kinks 7. Any time a hockle is found in the rope A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7

Answer 163

ANSWER: A) 4 (2 / 4 / 5 / 7 are CORRECT) (1 / 3 / 6 are INCORRECT) (TB Rope 1 - 4.1) 1 - Subjected to the weight of TWO PEOPLE 3 - PERSISTENT rust 6 - A kink should be removed from a rope by rotating the rope counter to the direction of the kink.

Question 164

Care must be taken to avoid wetting the LSR. The rope can lose what percentage of its strength when wet? A) 2 - 5 B) 5 - 10 C) 10 - 15 D) 15 - 20

Answer 164

ANSWER: C) 10 - 15 * The life saving rope can lose from 10% to 15% of its strength when wet. * This loss of strength occurs when the rope is submerged in water at room temperature for twenty four hours. * Whenever a rope becomes wet it shall be allowed to dry naturally before being repacked and stored on the apparatus. * The rope regains its strength when it dries.

Question 165

When a unit must place a LSR out of service, who should the Officer on duty notify in order to obtain a replacement rope? A) Rope Unit at the Bureau of Training B) Tech Services C) Administrative Battalion D) Administrative Division

Answer 165

ANSWER: D) Administrative Division Chief (TB Rope 1 - 5.4) * Each division has been supplied with two (2) life saving ropes to facilitate a rapid exchange to field units when needed

Question 166

All of the following are correct characteristics of the Search Rope except for which one choice? A) The Search Rope is made of either 5/16th inch diameter white nylon or a 7.5 mm diameter Kernmantle design. B) The rope is packed in a yellow carrying bag marked with the company number. Each rope will have a company ID tag attached to the rope and another to the bag. C) The Thermal Imaging Camera (if available) should be used in conjunction with the Search Rope. D) The Search Rope is 150 feet in length with a snap hook at each end.

Answer 166

ANSWER: D) The Search Rope is 150 feet in length with a snap hook at each end. (INCORRECT) (TB Rope 6 - 2.3) * Search Rope is TWO HUNDRED FEET (200')

Question 167

On the Search Rope, a series of knots are used to identify direction to and distance from the tie off point. Which statement is incorrect regarding these knots? A) The intervals of the distance knots are 25 feet apart. B) A single knot is tied at 25 feet, two knots at 50 feet, 3 knots at 75 feet, and continues until the last set of 7 knots at 175 feet. C) A single direction knot is located 18 inches before the distance knots when traveling in the direction of deployment. A directional knot will be found before each distance knot(s). D) Spacing between the distance knots is approximately 6 inches.

Answer 167

ANSWER: C) A single direction knot is located 18 inches before the distance knots when traveling in the direction of deployment. A directional knot will be found before each distance knot(s). (INCORRECT) (TB Rope 6 - 3) * The 25 foot distance knot WILL NOT have a direction knot.

Question 168

A Ladder Company Officer took the following actions while deploying the Search Rope at a recent fire in a factory. In which action was he incorrect? A) He notified the IC that the rope was being deployed. B) Immediately after entering a room with a heavy smoke condition and no visibility, he secured the end of the rope to a substantial object. C) He carried the bag in one hand and kept the rope taut while paying it out. D) He maintained voice contact with his search team members. He was not able to keep visual contact with them.

Answer 168

ANSWER: B) Immediately after entering a room with a heavy smoke condition and no visibility, he secured the end of the rope to a substantial object. (INCORRECT) (TB Rope 6 - 5.3) * Secure the end of the rope to a substantial non-moveable object in a CLEAR, SAFE, ENVIRONMENT. * VOICE contact must be maintained

Question 169

Under how many conditions, the number of members assigned to the search rope team should be limited to how many? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5

Answer 169

ANSWER: B) 3 (TB Rope 6 - 7.1) * The Officer and 2 FFs

Question 170

It becomes necessary to relieve a unit at a forward point of the search, the relieving company should enter the area to be searched with their _______ hand in contact with the rope (if possible). The company being relieved should exit the IDLH with their _______ hand in contact with the rope (if possible). A) Left / Left B) Left / Right C) Right / Right D) Right / Left

Answer 170

ANSWER: C) Right / Right (TB Rope 6 - 8.2) * This way companies entering and exiting the area will be on opposite sides of the rope.

Question 171

Which of the following is not considered a "Permit Required Confined Space"? A) Contains or has the potential to contain a hazardous atmosphere B) Contains material that could potentially engulf a person C) Is shaped in a way that a person could be caught or asphyxiated by inwardly tapering walls, or floors that slope upward, tapering into a larger cross section. D) Contains any recognized serious health or safety hazard

Answer 171

ANSWER: C) Is shaped in a way that a person could be caught or asphyxiated by inwardly tapering walls, or floors that slope upward, tapering into a larger cross section. (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins Confined Space sec 1.2) * Is shaped in a way that a person could be caught or asphyxiated by inwardly tapering walls, or floors that slope DOWNWARD, tapering into a SMALLER cross section * A permit space is designated by the owner of the space, who issues the permit. They may be recognized by the warning sign which OSHA requires to be posted at the entry to the space reading: Danger: Permit Required Confined Space-Do Not Enter or similar wording.

Question 172

When confronted with a dog at a fire or emergency, members are to assume all dogs are vicious. Choose the incorrect procedure when confronted with a dog. A) A good practice is to give the dogs a means of escape; however, be alert to the possibility of the dog returning sometime later B) A good method of detecting the presence of a dog is to shake the door vigorously C) If necessary, use the hose stream on the dog D) If the dog appears dangerous, it is good practice to keep it at a distance by using a purple "K" extinguisher if available

Answer 172

ANSWER: D) If the dog appears dangerous, it is good practice to keep it at a distance by using a purple "K" extinguisher if available. (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins Fires 2 4.6) * Pressurized WATER EXTINGUISHER or a CO2 EXTINGUISHER if available. Also: if bitten, notify "PBA ME" P - PD B - Board of Health A - Animal Control (if stray dog) M - Medical Officer E - EMS

Question 173

The only tool that can effectively cut Lexan windows can be found in which choice? A) Pike axe B) Oxyacetylene torch C) Superior Air Hammer (air chisel) D) Sawzall, with the coarse tooth wood blade

Answer 173

ANSWER: D) Sawzall, with the coarse tooth wood blad (Training Bulletins Fires 4 sec 3e) * Pike axe / Oxyacetylene torch / Superior Air Hammer (air chisel) are INEFFECTIVE on Lexan. * Lexan cannot be broken by the use of conventional forcible entry tools. * Lexan can be cut quickly and easily by using the portable power saw equipped with the carbide tipped blade. * The sawzall, with the coarse tooth blade, is also effective on Lexan, but it is slower than the portable power saw.

Question 174

Which one of the following statements about the FAST Pak is incorrect? A) It is carried by all Ladder, Rescue and Squad Companies. B) It is equipped with a vibra-alert but does not have a Heads up display. C) The 5 foot high pressure hose has a Universa Air Coupling Device (UAC) D) The 20 foot low pressure hose is attached to a manifold with a Schrader and Hansen fitting.

Answer 174

ANSWER: B) It is equipped with a vibra-alert but does not have a Heads up display. (INCORRECT) (TB SCBA - Addendum 1 - 2) * There is NO HUD OR VIBRALERT. * Only way to monitor air is the cylinder gauge.

Question 175

The 5 foot high pressure hose of the FAST Pak will administer air to the member's SCBA via the UAC. This will equalize air in both cylinders in approximately _______ seconds. A) 15 B) 30 C) 60 D) 90

Answer 175

ANSWER: C) 60 | TB SCBA - Addendum 1 - 5.3

Question 176

A first alarm assignment of three Engines and two Ladders should provide approximately how many minutes of finished firefighting foam when the eductor is set for 3 percent and using the 125 gpm aerating foam nozzle? A) 20 minutes B) 17 minutes C) 15 minutes D) 10 minutes

Answer 176

ANSWER: B) 17 minutes (Training Bulletins Foam sec 7.2) * 125 gpm aerating foam nozzle "X" .03 (3 percent) set at eductor equals 3.75. * 65 gallons of foam concentrate on scene (3 engines & 2 ladders) * 65 divided by 3.75 equals 17 minutes of finished firefighting foam.

Question 177

The most correct statement made in regards to the LSR can be found in which choice A) The LSR is 5/16" in diameter B) LSR is 175' in length C) Over a period of time, some ropes have shrunk 8 to 10 feet. D) When a kink in the LSR is discovered, it shall immediately be placed OOS

Answer 177

ANSWER: C) Over a period of time, some ropes have shrunk 8 to 10 feet. (Training Bulletins Rope 1 1.6) A - 9/16" in diameter B - 150' in length D - LSR shall be placed OOS for a HOCKLE.....A kink should be removed from a rope by rotating the rope counter to the direction of the kink.

Question 178

While working in E-99 in the great borough of the Bronx, a FF from your unit and tells you that she thinks her PSS might be contaminated from the top floor fire earlier that night. The only correct procedure for decontamination of the PSS can be found in which choice? A) When only the PSS "bag" is contaminated from fireground contaminates, the bag shall placed OOS B) When only the PSS "bag" is grossly contaminated, the "bag" shall be spot cleaned in quarters C) When the bag and rope (PSS) are contaminated from fireground contaminates, the bag and rope shall be decontaminated in quarters using a sponge and water. A mild detergent may be used if necessary. D) If either the rope or bag is placed OOS, the officer on duty is to notify the administrative battalion

Answer 178

ANSWER: C) When the bag and rope (PSS) are contaminated from fireground contaminates, the bag and rope shall be decontaminated in quarters using a sponge and water. A mild detergent may be used if necessary. Training Bulletins Rope 4 - PG 1) A - Bag contaminated from fireground - Spot clean in quarters. B - Bag grossly contaminated - OOS. D - Notify DIVISION if bag or rope is placed OOS

Question 179

When operating at a three car accident on the Bronx River parkway where the estimated rate of speed is 70 mph, you instruct your FFs to place the furthest flare how many feet back? A) 550 feet B) 450 feet C) 350 feet D) 150 feet

Answer 179

ANSWER: A) 550 feet (Training Bulletins 8 p-6) Estimated rate of speed multiplied by the first digit plus 60 70 x 7+60= 550 * Remember, its the estimated rate of speed. NOT the posted speed limit

Question 180

A ladder company operating at the scene of a flooded roof would be correct to use all but which one of the following tactics to clear a blocked drain? A) Stretch a line under the water and allow it to fill. Kink one end and drape the edge over the parapet, then release the kink. B) Clear the blockage with a 6 foot hook from the drain or scupper. C) Clear the blockage with a gloved hand. D) Using a booster line, charge the line, open the nozzle and place the line under the water. Then disconnect the line at the street and allow it to drain.

Answer 180

ANSWER: C) Clear the blockage with a gloved hand. (INCORRECT) (TB Emergencies 3 - 5.1) * NEVER clear a blockage with hands.

Question 181

When shutting a hydrant down with a street shutoff, turn the wrench ____ times in a _________ direction. A) 17 / counter clockwise B) 12 / clockwise C) 17 / clockwise D) 12 / counter clockwise

Answer 181

ANSWER: A) 17 / counter clockwise (TB Emergencies 3 - 6.2) * After about 12 full turns there will be a noticeable decrease in water flow.

Question 182

At the scene of live electrical wires down in the street, stretch a fog nozzle keeping at least ____ feet away from the downed wires. A) 10 B) 25 C) 15 D) 50

Answer 182

ANSWER: B) 25 | TB Emergencies 3 - 8.2

Question 183

At the scene of a defective oil burner in a NLT, the member ordered to shut the electric power to the burner would find the oil burner remote control switch at which location? A) Outside the oil burner room only B) At the top of the interior cellar stairs only C) Located at both locations, outside the oil burner room and at the top of the interior cellar stairs. D) Located in neither of these locations.

Answer 183

ANSWER: A) Outside the oil burner room only (TB Emergencies 3 - 10.1) * In PDs, OLT, Brownstones and Rowframes, the switch will be found at the top of the interior cellar stairs. * In NLTs the switch will be found outside oil burner room.

Question 184

At the scene of a defective oil burner in a OLT, the member ordered to shut the electric power to the burner would find the oil burner remote control switch at which location? A) Outside the oil burner room only B) At the top of the interior cellar stairs only C) Located at both locations, outside the oil burner room and at the top of the interior cellar stairs. D) Located in neither of these locations.

Answer 184

ANSWER: B) At the top of the interior cellar stairs only. (TB Emergencies 3 - 10.1) * In PDs, OLT, Brownstones and Rowframes, the switch will be found at the top of the interior cellar stairs. * In NLTs the switch will be found outside oil burner room.

Question 185

When using the Thermal Imaging Camera, objects that appear _______ indicate the presence of the least amount of heat or the coolest object in the scene. A) Orange B) Black C) White D) Red

Answer 185

ANSWER: B) Black (TB Tools 27 - 2.3) * Black - coolest object in room * White - most heat in the scene

Question 186

It is imperative that the correct foam concentrate is used for the situation encountered. To ensure that foam concentrates are not mixed, containers are color coded (banded) around the top. Which color band indicates a container of AR-AFFF foam? A) Black B) Red C) Yellow D) Green

Answer 186

ANSWER: B) Red (TB - Foam 4.1) YELLOW - High Expansion Foam BLACK - AFFF RED - AR-AFFF

Question 187

All of the following tools are listed as ineffective when dealing with Lexan windows with the exception of which one? A) Conventional FE tools B) Oxyacetylene torch C) Superior Air Hamme (Air Chisel) D) Sawzall

Answer 187

ANSWER: D) Sawzall | TB Fires 4

Question 188

The Purple K Dry Chemical extinguisher features are correctly stated in all but which one of the following choices? A) Coverage area of approximately 30 square feet B) Discharge time of 55 seconds C) Can be used in temperatures between minus 40 and 120 degrees D) Discharge range is 19-20 feet

Answer 188

ANSWER: B) Discharge time of 55 seconds (TB Purple K 2.2) * Discharge time of ELEVEN (11) SECONDS * Water extinguisher is 55 seconds

Question 189

A hole approximately _____ is needed in the ceiling in order for the cockloft nozzle to fit. The clearing between the top of the ceiling joists and the bottom of the roof joists must be a minimum of ____ inches to enable the operation of the cockloft nozzle. A) 4' x 4' / 3" B) 3' x 3' / 4" C) 4' x 4' / 4" D) 3' x 3' / 3"

Answer 189

ANSWER: B) 3' x 3' / 4" | TB Tools 7 Data Sheet 18

Question 190

All companies issued a generator are also issued extension cords and adapter "pigtails". The cords vary in lengths of 12 gauge wire, some with waterproof connections. Waterproof connections are good for use in up to _____ feet of water when properly mated. A) 5 B) 3 C) 4 D) 2

Answer 190

ANSWER: B) 3 | TB Tools 4 - 5.3

Question 191

When the Honda portable generator is not in use, the fuel tank vent levers and engine switch should be left in the ________ position. A) OFF B) ON - "Ready to go"

Answer 191

ANSWER: A) OFF (TB Tools 4 Data Sheet 1) * The practice of leaving all switches in the ON position (ready to go) should NOT BE FOLLOWED.

Question 192

Sure Search Door Markers should be placed on the outside doorknob when a team or member _____________________. A) enters an area to perform a secondary search B) leaves an area after performing a secondary search C) enters an area to perform a primary search D) Leaves an area after performing a primary search

Answer 192

ANSWER: C) enters an area to perform a primary search (TB Tools 19 - 3.1) * Their placement will indicate to others that a primary search is in progress or has been completed in this area and they should continue on to another area.

Question 193

Of the following statements, which in incorrect concerning the Hydra Ram? A) It has a maximum opening of 6 inches B) It has a maximum force of 10,000 pounds C) It will extend to 3/4 of an inch per stroke D) It requires no priming

Answer 193

ANSWER: A) It has a maximum opening of 6 inches (TB Tools 26 - 1.1) * Maximum of FOUR (4) INCHES

Question 194

# Choose the incorrect statement when operating at a Compactor/Incinerator incident. A) For a Compactor chute fire, the first arriving engine company will proceed to the fire floor and stretch a line and operate into the chute to extinguish the fire. B) For a Compactor chute fire, the first arriving OV FF will operate with the engine company to provide access to the chute and check for extension C) For an Incinerator fire, the first arriving engine company generally will stand fast in the lobby with SCBAs, roll ups, and standpipe kit. Officer can send members to assist the ladder company in search and vent, however, generally the officer and at least 2 men shall remain in the lobby. D) In City Housing Projects, the chute door on the first floor may be color coded: RED for incinerator, GRAY for compactor

Answer 194

ANSWER: A) For a Compactor chute fire, the first arriving engine company will proceed to the fire floor and stretch a line and operate into the chute to extinguish the fire. (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins Fires 7 - 8.2) * One level ABOVE the fire floor

Question 195

The FDNY has issued Air-Purifying Respirators (APR) to all field units. The APR consists of the members facepiece, Scott 40 mm facepiece adaptor with a single filter port, and Scott CBRN CAP 1 canister. In regards to the Scott CBRN CAP 1 canister, select the most correct information listed below. A) The label is olive green and has a 7 year shelf life B) The label is raspberry red and has a 7 year shelf life C) The label is blueberry blue and has a 5 year shelf life D)The label is yellow and has a 5 year shelf life

Answer 195

ANSWER: A) The label is olive green and has a 7 year shelf life. (Training Bulletins add 2 sec 8.6)

Question 196

The only correct procedure when using an elevator during fire operations can be found in which choice? A) Do not use an elevator in a bank which serves the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within 7 floors of the fire floor B) If using an elevator in a bank which serves the fire floor, select a floor at least two floors below the fire floor or two floors below the lower level of an access stair in the fire area, whichever is lowest C) No more than five members permitted in any elevator car D) In the event the elevator car does not stop at the selected floor, a gloved hand may be used to pry the elevator car door open disengaging the car door interlock

Answer 196

ANSWER: B) If using an elevator in a bank which serves the fire floor, select a floor at least two floors below the fire floor or two floors below the lower level of an access stair in the fire area, whichever is lowest (Training Bulletins Emergency 1 sec 6) A - Within FIVE (5) floors of fire floor C - No more than SIX (6) members in elevator D - A TOOL (not a gloved hand)

Question 197

Upon return to quarters from a fire where your company successfully deployed the K.O. Curtain, you prepared a brief letterhead report to the Chief of Operations detailing the use of the device and a description of any damage that may have occurred from the deployment of the device at the incident. Since the K.O. Curtain was confiscated on scene by the IC, you now have to contact who to obtain a replacement? A) Administrative Division B) Administrative Battalion C) Fire Academy D) Technical Services

Answer 197

ANSWER: A) Administrative Division (Training Bulletins - Tools 2 Pg 4) * Contact the administrative Division for a replacement K.O. Curtain. The Division will get a replacement from Technical Services * NOTE: If a company's KO Curtain is damaged in other than fire operations, the Company Commander will complete a letterhead report with all details to the Chief of Operations. This letterhead requires full endorsements and a replacement curtain shall be obtained from the Division.

Question 198

From the choices listed below, which Units carry the Window Blanket? A) All Rescues and Squads B) Rescues only C) Squads only D) All Squads and Divisions

Answer 198

ANSWER: A) All Rescues and Squads (Training Bulletins - Tools 3 / page 1) * Any Unit or Units may be used to deploy the blanket * The Blanket is large enough to cover at least two windows if necessary

Question 199

# Choose the incorrect statement made when removing a ring that is stuck on a person's finger. A) Use a soapy water as lubricant for ring removal B) Finger may be cooled which will decrease swelling and allow removal C) Use or call for ring cutter which will safely cut ring off finger in short period of time----less than a minute D) Sometimes it is preferable to use regular cutting pliers because ring cutter will not cut sterling silver.

Answer 199

ANSWER: D) Sometimes it is preferable to use regular cutting pliers because ring cutter will not cut sterling silver. (Training Bulletins Emergency 3 sec 17.1) * Will not cut STAINLESS STEEL

Question 200

Proper handling and maintenance of the Hydra Ram is essential to ensuring this tool functions properly when needed. Of the following choices, which is incorrect? A) Once the Hydra Ram reaches its maximum opening of 4 inches and resistance is felt, discontinue pumping. If the 4 inch opening is not enough, retract the piston and place an axe head or other substantial spacer flat on the door to provide additional opening distance. B) To test for leaks, fully extend the working piston; the operating arm should not be able to move except for when the relief valve is depressed. C) The entire tool can be cleaned with soap and water, including the pistons. Both the piston under the operating arm and the working end piston should be lubricated with WD-40. D) The Hydra Ram should not be stored on the apparatus floor near heating vents.

Answer 200

ANSWER: C) The entire tool can be cleaned with soap and water, including the pistons. Both the piston under the operating arm and the working end piston should be lubricated with WD-40. (INCORRECT) (TB Tools 26 5.5) * Lubricate with 3 in 1 oil * DO NOT use WD-40 / can damage tool's rubber seals

Question 201

Basic knowledge of how a Thermal Imaging Camera (TIC) functions is essential to effectively using this tool. Which choice below contains incorrect information? A) "Low Contrast" may occur in cooler areas where images may be difficult to see due to the lack of heat present, and all objects being close in temperature. The overall area being viewed may have little or no contrast and appear darker. B) When there is more heat present, both generated, and subsequently absorbed, by objects, the clearer and sharper the image will appear. This is "High Contrast". C) Changing thermal contrast may be an indication of fire being in close proximity. To compensate for changing thermal contrast, TICs change modes by shuttering and shifting or adjusting from a LOW HEAT/HIGH SENSITIVITY mode to a HIGH HEAT/LOW SENSITIVITY mode. D) When using a TIC, convected heat movement may appear as gray swirling waves or smoke, most often appearing when viewing the floor area.

Answer 201

ANSWER: D) When using a TIC, convected heat movement may appear as gray swirling waves or smoke, most often appearing when viewing the floor area. (INCORRECT) (TB Tools 27 2.10) * WHITE swirling waves appearing when viewing the CEILING AREA.

Question 202

Members must know how to properly utilize their unit's thermal imagine cameras. Of the following choices, which is not in accordance with department policy? A) TICs shall be carried and used at all structural fire operations by all units equipped with this tool. B) Operators of TICs should remember to stay low and scan slowly, if necessary. Utilize a four sided method of scanning to compensate for the narrow, approximately 90 degree field of view of the TIC. C) Thermal imagine does not see through clear glass or plastic; they may act as a mirror. Shiny surfaces will relect infrared, creating a mirror effect with the actual source of the image opposite the reflected surface. Thermal imaging will not see through water. D) The focal point of a TIC is approximately 3 feet from the camera lens; objects within 3 feet may be blurry, out of focus or featureless. Depth perception in TICs is rarely represented in a 1:1 ratio and may vary from camera to camera.

Answer 202

ANSWER: B) Operators of TICs should remember to stay low and scan slowly, if necessary. Utilize a four sided method of scanning to compensate for the narrow, approximately 90 degree field of view of the TIC. (INCORRECT) (TB Tools 27 3.3) * SIX (6) SIDED METHOD * Approximately FIFTY (50) DEGREE ANGLE field of view

Question 203

Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding the Evolution 5200 TIC? A) When colors yellow through red (275 F - 320 F) appear in more than 15% of viewed area, the TIC will shift into High Heat (Low sensitivity) "L Mode". B) The TIC in High Heat (Low sensitivity) mode is indicated by a BLUE "L" in the lower left corner of the display. C) Battery capacity is shown by a row of 3 LEDs. A flashing red LED is a low battery warning, indicating 15 minutes of battery life remaining. D) The operating time of this TIC is 2 hours at normal temperatures. This time may be greatly reduced in hotter or colder ambient atmopsheres.

Answer 203

ANSWER: C) Battery capacity is shown by a row of 3 LEDs. A flashing red LED is a low battery warning, indicating 15 minutes of battery life remaining. (INCORRECT) (TB Tools 27 - Data Sheet 3 - 7.3) * Flashing red LED on Evolution 5200 TIC indicates CAMERA SHUTDOWN IMMINENT.

Question 204

Of the following choices, which represents incorrect information regarding the Evolution 6000 TIC? A) If colors yellow through red appear in less than 32% of the viewed area, the TIC may remain in the Low Heat (High sensitivity) - Normal Mode, providing greater detail with the colors. If colors, yellow through red appear in more than 32% of the display, the TIC will shift into the High Heat (Low sensitivity) mode. B) A GREEN triangle inside a GREEN square in the upper left hand corner of the display informs the operator when the TIC is in the High Heat (Low sensitivity) mode. C) Be aware that the temperature measurement feature in the TIC provides atmospheric and air temperature readings and should be fully utilized in making tactical interior structural firefighting decisions.

Answer 204

ANSWER: C) Be aware that the temperature measurement feature in the TIC provides atmospheric and air temperature readings and should be fully utilized in making tactical interior structural firefighting decisions. (INCORRECT) (TB Tools 27 - Data Sheet 4 - 3.5) *

Question 205

A company Officer conducting drill on the proper operation of the cordless rebar cutter made an incorrect statement which can be found in which choice below? A) This cutting tool is being distributed to all Ladder, Squad, and Rescue and can cut wrought iron fences up to 5/8" in diameter and case hardened steel rods or locks. B) Position the tool head at a right angle to the bar to be cut and secure it by adjusting the screw provided. This will hold the rebar being cut at a right angle to the cutter. C) An area of safety must be observed. To avoid injury, the material being cut should be secured. D) Do not operate this tool in an explosive atmopshere (flammable liquids, gases or dusts). Use full firefighting protective gear with eye protection.

Answer 205

ANSWER: A) This cutting tool is being distributed to all Ladder, Squad, and Rescue and can cut wrought iron fences up to 5/8" in diameter and case hardened steel rods or locks. (INCORRECT) (TB Tools 28 - 3.3) * DOES NOT CUT CASE HARDENED LOCKS/RODS

Question 206

The Lobster Rebar Cutter can be a great asset at fire operations in structures with window bars. Which of the following choices is incorrect? A) This tool will not work well when the temperature is below 32 degrees F. It will be necessary to warm up the tool prior to use. B) The tools is equipped with a swivel head that has an 180 degree turning angle to make it more convenient for the operator. C) The battery capacity indicator is composed of five pilot lamps. When the battery is low, the pilot lamp display will flash to alert the operator that the remaining battery capacity is less than 20 percent. D) A fully charged battery will last for approximately 80 cuts.

Answer 206

ANSWER: D) A fully charged battery will last for approximately 80 cuts. (INCORRECT) (TB Tools 28 - Data Sheet 1 - 3.8) * Approximately FORTY (40) CUTS

Question 207

The newly issued Ogura Cordless Rebar Cutter has many benefits. Of the following chocies, which contains incorrect information? A) It is designed for cutting maximum 1" diameter high tensile rebar, tensile fastening bolts, locks and treaded rod. B) When the tool is turned on, the battery indicator, located on the handle, shows the remaining battery capacity. C) The tool has "high speed mode" and "high torque mode". The user must manually set the appropriate mode, according to the workload. D) Position the tool so it is at 90 degrees to the rebar to be cut. The tool will automatically stop if overloaded or overheated. If the tool is repeatedly operated under these conditions, the protection system will lock the tool.

Answer 207

ANSWER: C) The tool has "high speed mode" and "high torque mode". The user must manually set the appropriate mode, according to the workload. (INCORRECT) (TB Tools 28 - Data Sheet 2 - 3.6) * Tool SETS AUTOMATICALLY according to workload.

Question 208

Which of the following choices contains correct information regarding the Department's use of glowsticks? A) When activated, glow sticks will provide up to 24 hours of illumination. They are unsafe for use in explosive environments. B) Glow sticks are waterproof and generate no heat or noise, however, they shall never be used underwater. C) Glow sticks have been issued to all units. Each unit shall carry at least 5 glow sticks on their apparatus. D) Glow sticks shall be carried in a cool, dry compartment on the apparatus, in their original packaging, away from direct sunlight. Heat and humidity will shorten their lifespan.

Answer 208

ANSWER: D) Glow sticks shall be carried in a cool, dry compartment on the apparatus, in their original packaging, away from direct sunlight. Heat and humidity will shorten their lifespan. (TB Tools 30 - 3.1) A - TWELVE (12) HOURS of illumination / SAFE to use in explosive environments B - CAN BE USED UNDERWATER C - Each unit shall carry at least TEN (10) glow sticks. Contact Tech Services for more.

Question 209

When operating the portable power saw, the circle of danger can be measured in which correct choice? A) 20 foot radius B) 15 foot radius C) 10 foot radius D) 5 foot radius

Answer 209

ANSWER: A) 20 foot radius (Training Bulletins Tools 9 sec 4.7) * This circle of danger shall be measured in all directions FROM THE POINT WHERE THE BLADE OF THE SAW IS IN OPERATION

Question 210

The incorrect description of the FAST Pak can be found in which choice? A) Contains a 5 ft. high pressure hose with a Universal Air Coupling (UAC) B) Contains a 20 ft. low pressure hose attached to a manifold with a Schrader fitting and Hansen fitting C) Contains a Non-CBRN regulator and face piece D) Contains a vibra-alert or heads up display indicator.

Answer 210

ANSWER: D) Contains a vibra-alert or heads up display indicator. (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins add 1 sec 2 and 4.1) * FAST Pak is not equipped with a with a vibra-alert or heads up display indicator. The only way to monitor the air pressure in the FAST Pak is the cylinder gauge

Question 211

The only correct statement you made when drilling on Salvage Operations can be found in which choice? A) Every Ladder and Engine is a Salvage Unit B) A FF of the Salvage Unit is responsible for completing a single copy of the SAL-2 form C) After the fire is placed Probably Will Hold, salvage operations are carried out in the fire area D) Elevator shafts shall not be used for removal of water

Answer 211

ANSWER: D) Elevator shafts shall not be used for removal of water. (Training Bulletins Salvage 1 - 7.5) A - Every LADDER company is a Salvage Unit B - LADDER COMPANY OFFICER completes form C - After fire placed UNDER CONTROL

Question 212

Lt. Bongino is working a day tour in E99 and has 3 probies working along with his ECC who has 3 years on the job. He notices his members are holding a drill on the multiversal New Yorker and decided to listen in. He has his work cut out for him because the only correct point made during the drill was? A) The elevation control wheel is used to raise or lower the elevation of the nozzle with a range of elevation is from 45 degrees above the horizontal to 30 degrees below the horizontal. B) The safety stop lock prevents lowering the elevation below 15 degrees above the horizontal unless the released pin is pulled. The release pin should be pulled before reaching 15 degrees. C) The safety chain may be used in addition to a utility rope to secure the nozzle when used in the portable ground base. The safety chain alone should never be relied on to secure this appliance. A rope is needed. D) The locking plunger retaining latch assembly (bright green in color) prevents the locking plunger from disengaging and so guards against accidental release of the locking plunger while the appliance is being supplied with water.

Answer 212

ANSWER: C) The safety chain may be used in addition to a utility rope to secure the nozzle when used in the portable ground base. The safety chain alone should never be relied on to secure this appliance. A rope is needed. (TB Tools 17) A - NINETY (90) degrees above the horizontal to FIFTEEN (15) degrees below the horizontal B - Safety stop lock prevents lowering below THIRTY FIVE (35) DEGREES D - Locking Plunger Retaining Latch (BRIGHT ORANGE IN COLOR)

Question 213

Which point made during a drill about supplying and operating the multiversal New Yorker nozzle is not entirely correct? A) The use of two hose lines to supply the Multiversal Nozzle is required. When two hose lines are used, bring them straight back at a distance of 25' from the siamese, parallel to each other before making any sharp bends or turns in the hose lines. B) When the multiversal nozzle is being operated in the portable position, do not move the ground base or the 15' of supply hose that is closest to the unit, unless the water supply is shut down. C) When the supply lines feeding the multiversal nozzle are long, so that communication with the ECC may be difficult, insert single gate one length from the nozzle. D) When used in the portable ground base, the unit should not be operated at more than 800 gallons per minute with any type of straight stream or fog tip. E) The maximum pressure to which any part of this appliance should be subjected is 200 psi. To thoroughly drain the appliance, it is necessary to turn it upside down.

Answer 213

ANSWER: A) The use of two hose lines to supply the Multiversal Nozzle is required. When two hose lines are used, bring them straight back at a distance of 25' from the siamese, parallel to each other before making any sharp bends or turns in the hose lines. (INCORRECT) (TB Tools 17) * When two lines are being used, bring them straight back a distance of FIFTEEN (15') from the siamese.

Question 214

While drilling with the new proby on the operational guidelines of the airbags, members made the following points and were incorrect in which one? A) The air bags should only be inflated 1/2 to 3/4 quarters of their rated height capacity. The "pillowing effect" should be avoided. This can cause the load to shift with possible dangerous results. B) Avoid inflating bags against sharp objects or on a surface heated to over 220 degrees F. If necessary, insert a flexible insulated pad (heavy canvas, leather, rubber) or 3/4" plywood between the hot or sharp surface and the bag, in order to protect the bag. C) Never stack more than 2 bags on top of each other and always place the smaller bag on top of the larger one. When stacking bags, generally inflate the bottom bags first. D) Remember that when stacking the bags you can add together the tonnage of the two bags to get a greater total lifting weight as long as the lifting height of both the air bags is the same. E) During inflation, stand to one side and clear all personnel from the vicinity. Do not stand in front of the opening where the bag has been placed, there is a possibility of the bag being pushed out by the load shifting.

Answer 214

ANSWER: D) Remember that when stacking the bags you can add together the tonnage of the two bags to get a greater total lifting weight as long as the lifting height of both the air bags is the same. (INCORRECT) (TB Tools 20) * You CANNOT ADD TOGETHER THE TONNAGE of the two bags to get the total lifting weight. * The tonnage of the SMALLER bag is the maximum that can be lifted.

Question 215

The maxi force air bag system is a valuable tool in rescue and extrication operations. When inflated with air, they are designed to lift and move heavy loads. Which points listed below about the air bags are not correct? (More than 1 incorrect) A) The bag's rated tonnage is based on its capacity to lift that tonnage 1". For example a 12 ton bag will lift 12 tons 1". B) To set the low pressure gauge, turn the regulator knob clockwise and set it to 135 psi. When the high pressure gauge falls below 200 psi you must change the air cylinder. C) Members should place the bag under the load with the air inlet nipple pointing out and then connect the air hose to the air bag. D) The control valve has a built in safety valve which will open and vent air when 118 psi is reached. E) A 30 ton air bag with a maximum lifting height of 10" will lift 30 tons 5" but will lift 15 tons 10".

Answer 215

ANSWER: (C and D are INCORRECT) C) Members should place the bag under the load with the air inlet nipple pointing out and then connect the air hose to the air bag. (INCORRECT) E) A 30 ton air bag with a maximum lifting height of 10" will lift 30 tons 5" but will lift 15 tons 10". (INCORRECT) (TB Tools 20) C - ALWAYS HAVE THE BAG CONNECTED PRIOR TO PLACING IT UNDER OR BETWEEN A LOAD TO MINIMIZE THE OPERATOR'S EXPOSURE TO THE LOAD AREA AND TO ELIMINATE THE POSSIBILITY OF THE OPERATOR PLACING THE BAG WITH THE AIR INLET UNDER THE LOAD. E - 30 ton air bag with a maximum lifting height of 10" will lift 30 tons ONE INCH but will lift 15 tons to a height of 10 inches.

Question 216

The rabbit tool is a hydraulically operated FE tool consisting of a hand operated pump, a relief valve, jaws, high pressure hose, pry bar, and a case. Which point about the rabbit tool is not entirely correct? A) The pump is designed to be operated in the horizontal position, but may be used vertically if the hose is facing down. B) The rabbit tool is designed for use on doors that open inward and outward. It has also been used successfully on sliding elevator doors and as an auto extrication tool. C) When using the rabbit tool insert the jaws between door and jamb, midway between knob and lock. Then set the control lever to pressure and operate pump. The door should open in 3 to 4 pumps of the handle. D) Officers supervising FE operations with the rabbit tool on doors that have locks protected by shields are directed to ensure that no member stands in front of the lock while the operation is in progress. E) Whenever a door is encountered with multiple locks on the knob side, insert jaws between knob and lock and then move tool to proximity of next lock or bolt. F) Use full firefighting gear with eye shields down when using the tool. Keep fingers clear of jaws when retracting them and never attempt to grasp a leaking hose under pressure.

Answer 216

ANSWER: B) The rabbit tool is designed for use on doors that open inward and outward. It has also been used successfully on sliding elevator doors and as an auto extrication tool. (INCORRECT) (TB Tools 21) * It is designed for use on doors that open INWARD. * It has also been used successfully on sliding elevator doors. * It is NOT to be used as an auto extrication tool. This is a misuse of the tool and may result in injury.

Question 217

During a 9x6 tour members of L99 were drilling with their new proby and were teaching him how to use a chain saw. The proby said he never used a chainsaw but has watched many videos on his iPhone. During the drill the proby made a few points regarding the use of the chainsaw and was incorrect in which choice? A) When cutting with the saw let the chain saw do the cutting. Once the chain starts to cut through the wood, rest the bumper spike against the wood for leverage and slowly rock the saw in upward motions. B) Do not force the chainsaw. If you have the force the saw, stop until you find out what is prohibiting you from cutting. Exert moderate feed pressure to help the chain cut the wood. C) Do not hit the ground with the blade of the saw, even momentary touching will dull the chain to some degree. Do not overextend, do not cut while off balance, and do not attempt cutting above chest height. D) During chain saw operations maintain steady footing while gripping the saw firmly with both hands. When operating on slopes, the chainsaw operator must always stand on the uphill side of the tree/log when cutting.

Answer 217

ANSWER: A) When cutting with the saw let the chain saw do the cutting. Once the chain starts to cut through the wood, rest the bumper spike against the wood for leverage and slowly rock the saw in upward motions. (INCORRECT) (TB Tools 24) * START CUTS with the "bumper spike" against the wood and keep it there. * Let the chain saw do the cutting. * While firmly holding the saw, use the bumper spike for leverage as you slowly rock the saw in upward motions.

Question 218

Taking the proper safety precautions when operating the chainsaw can be the difference from a safe operation or a disastrous one. Which point listed below regarding safe operations when using the chainsaw is not entirely correct? A) When operating a chainsaw, secure or remove your HT as to avoid the potential for the radio to swing into the cutting space or become tangled on debris. When the operator is not actively cutting, the safety break must always be applied. B) Use caution when walking through unstable areas cluttered with brush, logs, vines or heavy underbrush with a running chainsaw. Carry the saw with the guide bar to the front when climbing uphill and to the rear when going downhill. C) The term "feathering" refers to increasing and decreasing pressure on the throttle trigger. This technique should be applied just prior to finishing each cut; this will help the operator maintain control of the saw as the chain breaks clean. D) The saw is not to be used in situations where the vision of the operator is limited. Never attempt cutting a tree which is in contact with live electrical wires since trees do conduct electricity.

Answer 218

ANSWER: B) Use caution when walking through unstable areas cluttered with brush, logs, vines or heavy underbrush with a running chainsaw. Carry the saw with the guide bar to the front when climbing uphill and to the rear when going downhill. (INCORRECT) (TB Tools 24) * DO NOT WALK THROUGH unstable areas cluttered with brush, logs, vines or heavy underbrush with a running chainsaw. * Carry the saw with the guide bar to the REAR when climbing uphill and to the FRONT when going downhill.

Question 219

Prior to using the chainsaw, a thorough size-up should be conducted to look for hazards that can affect the saw cutting team. Which point listed below is not entirely correct? A) A circle of danger of a diameter of at least 20' will be established before the commencement of cutting. The saw operator, control person, and the Officer will be the only personnel in this area during cutting. B) The Officer is to monitor conditions and relay orders received from the Officer in command. If possible, the officer is positioned as to permit visual contact with the control person. C) Debris from cutting operation should not be removed from work area until saw operator indicates it is safe to do so. Always clear immediate work area before continuing operations, eliminating tripping hazards. D) Anytime the control member approaches the immediate cutting area, the operator must first apply the chain brake and signal the control member to approach. When possible, the control member is to maintain a visual contact with the officer.

Answer 219

ANSWER: A) A circle of danger of a diameter of at least 20' will be established before the commencement of cutting. The saw operator, control person, and the Officer will be the only personnel in this area during cutting. (INCORRECT) * Chainsaw circle of danger / radius of AT LEAST 10' * Saw operator and control person only personnel allowed in this area during cutting.

Question 220

Which of the following is CORRECT regarding vehicle recovery straps? A) As long as it’s positioned on a hard surface, a Tower Ladder can be used to remove an Engine, Ambulance, and Battalion vehicle. B) During the recovery process, all members shall be removed from the stuck vehicle. C) Members shall maintain a 10’ safety zone due to the working length of the vehicle recovery strap D) If the stuck vehicle is an ambulance with a patient, the patient shall be offloaded to a secondary ambulance prior to vehicle recovery strap use.

Answer 220

ANSWER: D) If the stuck vehicle is an ambulance with a patient, the patient shall be offloaded to a secondary ambulance prior to vehicle recovery strap use. (TB Apparatus C2 - Addendum 3 5.5) A – The weight limit is 20,000 lbs. Engine apparatus exceeds that limitation. (2.3) B – The operator shall remain in the vehicle. (5.5) C – Members shall maintain an 35’ safety zone due to the working length of the strap. (5.7)

Question 221

When collecting evidence to be used in determining cause and origin of a fire, there are specific methods that should be used to avoid contamination of any samples. Which of the following items should be avoided during evidence collection to prevent contamination? A) Plastic Bags B) Plastic Containers C) Clean glass jars D) New Paint Cans

Answer 221

ANSWER: B) Plastic Containers (INCORRECT) (TB - Arson 5.3.3) * Try to AVOID the use of plastic containers. Vapors may escape through plastic and evidence may be contaminated by the deterioration of the plastic container. 5.3.3 A – Plastic Bags can be used in an emergency. (5.3.4) C - If a new paint can is not available, use a clean glass jar. (5.3.2)

Question 222

When operating in a confined space all members must be breathing air from the SCBA unless the atmosphere is proven non-hazardous via continuous meter readings. Which of the following conditions would be considered a safe atmospheric condition? A) 19% Oxygen concentration B) 10% LEL flammable range C) 36 PPM CO D) 20 PPM Hydrogen Sulfide

Answer 222

ANSWER: B) 10% LEL flammable range (Confined Space 4.1) Safe atmospheric conditions: O2 between 19.5% and 23.5% Flammable Range: Not over 10% LEL Toxicity: Not over 35 PPM of CO Toxicity: Not over 10 PPM of Hydrogen Sulfide

Question 223

Care and maintenance of the apparatus by the members of the companies is a very important part of keeping apparatus serviceable and in top running shape. Which choice is CORRECT regarding the care of company apparatus? A) The RT-14 Care and Maintenance checklist shall be stored and available on the company apparatus. B) Immediately after the start of the 0900 & 1800 roll calls, seatbelts, lights, and warning devices are checked for serviceability. C) The Tower Ladder Intercom system is only checked for operability following the 0900 roll call and before placing the bucket into operation. D) Tires on the apparatus will be checked for treadwear on a weekly basis. When tread wear reaches 3/16” in depth, request replacement.

Answer 223

ANSWER: B) Immediately after the start of the 0900 & 1800 roll calls, seatbelts, lights, and warning devices are checked for serviceability. (TRAINING BULLETIN – APPARATUS C-2 3.1.2 – 3.1.4) A – RT14 is posted at the HOUSEWATCH area. C – Intercom system is checked immediately following 0900 & 1800 roll calls & at the initial stages of placing the TL into operation. BOTH TOURS D – Tire treadwear is checked DAILY

Question 224

Following a string of Maydays, the officers of Engine 256 and Ladder 171 decided to have a drill on Mayday Operations. Which statement below regarding use of the Pak-Tracker is CORRECT? A) When taking a reading with the Pak Tracker, always pause for 4-5 seconds. B) The Pak Tracker will emit a two-tone audible alarm when it receives a signal from a Pass Device in full alarm for 20 seconds. C) During a search, the LED’s will begin to light when the signal strength rises above the 50% level. D) Once a Pak Tracker locks onto one signal, it still retains the ability to receive additional Pass Alarm signals.

Answer 224

ANSWER: C) During a search, the LED’s will begin to light when the signal strength rises above the 50% level. (TB SCBA ADDENDUM 8 7.6) A – Always pause for THREE TO FOUR (3-4) seconds. 7.9 B – Goes into full alarm for TEN 10 seconds 5.2 D – The Pak-Tracker receiver can only lock onto ONE SCBA signal at a time. 5.4

Question 225

When using the tower ladder as a high point anchor at a confined space, members should be aware of its weight-supporting capacity of at least ___ lbs. A) 500 B) 800 C) 1000 D) 1200

Answer 225

ANSWER: C) 1000 (Confined Space 4.3) **THIS NUMBER CHANGED WITH THE RELEASE OF THE NEW BULLETIN IN 12/2019**

Question 226

You are the first arriving Engine Officer at a fire in a parking garage and have opted to place a foam line in operation to contain the extension. You transmit the box to get a 3 & 2 response. How much foam and operating time will you get from your standard 3 engine and 2 ladder assignment supplying one foam hand line with 3% solution? A) 15 cans with an operation time of approximately 15 mins B) 13 cans with an operation time of approximately 17 mins C) 10 cans with an operation time of approximately 15 mins D) 12 cans with an operation time of approximately 17 mins

Answer 226

ANSWER: B) 13 cans with an operation time of approximately 17 mins. (TRAINING BULLETIN - FOAM 7.2) * Engine companies carry three 5-gallon cans * Trucks 2 5-gallon cans * Total of 13 cans on a first alarm assignment. * Operational time for a single foam line at 3% will be approximately 17 minutes.

Question 227

The incorrect Incinerator operation can be found in which choice? A) Officer, FE team, and OV FF of the ladder company will generally operate inside the building to ventilate, search, and to locate the blockage B) An indication that the blockage is above the floor you are on, is when you open a chute door and smoke comes out C) An indication that the blockage is below the floor you are on, is when you open a chute door and a draft goes inward or there is little smoke D) Before leaving the lobby area, the Roof FF is to ensure the stairwell door at ground floor level is closed as to not create an updraft in the building

Answer 227

ANSWER: D) Before leaving the lobby area, the Roof FF is to ensure the stairwell door at ground floor level is closed as to not create an updraft in the building. (Training Bulletins Fires 7 sec 2) * It is very important that, before the Roof FF leaves the lobby he CHOCKS OPEN the stairwell door at the ground floor level. This will provide for maximum draft and vertical ventilation when the roof bulkhead door is opened.

Question 228

The color of high voltage cables on Hybird vehicles can be found in which choice? A) Red B) Black C) Yellow D) Orange

Answer 228

ANSWER: D) Orange (Training Bulletins Fires 8 sec 11.6) * On most, the high voltage cables are color coded ORANGE. Although some cables are color coded BLUE ***NEVER CUT ANY HIGH VOLTAGE CABLES***

Question 229

When stretching and operating a foam handline, the incorrect procedure can be found in which choice? A) Location for the eductor is at the pumper outlet only B) When using 1 3/4" hose, the maximum stretch is 6 lengths to the nozzle C) When using 2 1/2" hose, the maximum stretch is 10 lengths to the nozzle D) 150 PSI shall be supplied to the eductor

Answer 229

ANSWER: D) 150 PSI shall be supplied to the eductor (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins Evolution 1 sec 2) * 200 PSI at the eductor

Question 230

The Pak-Tracker will receive a signal from a PASS device that has been in full-alarm mode for how long? A) 10 seconds B) 20 seconds C) 30 seconds D) 1 minute

Answer 230

ANSWER: A) 10 seconds (Training Bulletins SCBA add 8 sec 5.2 and 5.4) * The receiver will emit a 2-tone audible alarm, and the LCD display will show the SCBA's identity (unit and member assignment) and relative signal strength * The Pak-Tracker receiver can only lock onto ONE SCBA at a time

Question 231

If a dog attacks a member, other members in the immediate vicinity should render assistance. If anyone is bitten, every attempt should be made to isolate the dog for examination and notify all of the following except? A) Division B) EMS C) Board of Health D) NYPD E) Medical Officer

Answer 231

ANSWER: A) Division (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins Fires 2 sec 4.13) * Center for Animal Care and Control, if dog is a stray "PBA ME" P - POLICE B - BOARD OF HEALTH A - ANIMAL CONTROL M - MEDICAL OFFICER E - EMS

Question 232

The Heads Up Display (HUD) on the SCBA consists of four lights to represent the cylinder pressure at Full, Three-Quarters, One-Half, and One-Quarter. The most correct statement in regards to the HUD can be found in which choice? A) The lights are circular in shape B) When cylinder valve is turned on, the HUD will initialize and illuminate all lights for 20 seconds. C) One-Half cylinder will be indicated by one yellow light flashing rapidly D) One-Quarter cylinder will be indicated by a two red lights at the far left flashing rapidly at ten times a second

Answer 232

ANSWER: B) When cylinder valve is turned on, the HUD will initialize and illuminate all lights for 20 seconds. (Training Bulletins SCBA sec 3.8.9) A - 4 Rectangular and 1 circular (Low battery) C - Flashing Slowly D - One red light * Full cylinder- 2 green lights glowing * Three-Quarters- 1 green light glowing * One-Half- 1 yellow light flashing slowly at once a second * One-Quarter- 1 red light at the far left flashing rapidly at ten times a second

Question 233

The Maxiforce airbag system is a valuable tool in rescue and extrication operations. When inflated with air, they are designed to lift and move heavy loads. They are relatively simple to assemble and operate, requiring only an inch of space for insertion. In addition to the above information, all of the following statements contain correct information in regards to the Maxiforce airbag system except? A) With vehicles, the airbags can be used in lifting the steering columns, doors, a door post, pedals or the dashboard B) There are 7 bags in the system, ranging from a 12 ton bag (the smallest) to a 74 ton bag (the largest) C) A light reflective label on one side of the bag shows its maximum tonnage and lifting height. Units should paint the lift capacity and lift height on the bags in addition to the label D) Only Steel SCBA cylinders are used to operate the air bags, except during drill; an aluminum SCBA may be used. E) Set the low pressure gauge to 135 psi. F) When the high pressure gauge falls below 200 psi, change the air cylinder

Answer 233

ANSWER:D) Only Steel SCBA cylinders are used to operate the air bags, except during drill; an aluminum SCBA may be used. (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins Tools 20 3.1.4) A - New: Dept Order 108/2019 (11/20/2019) C - ONLY STEEL SCBA cylinders are to be used

Question 234

The Blitzfire Oscillating Monitor is an efficient, compact and easy to maneuver portable monitor. Choose the incorrect information about the Blitzfire. A) The Blitzfire is designed for a maximum inlet pressure of 175 psi B) The Blitzfire has a pivoting inlet and a pivoting outlet, both of which have 2 1/2" FDNY thread. C) The Blitzfire monitor is provided with a 2 1/2" dual pressure automatic fog nozzle. It can also be operated with solid stream stacked tips (1 1/4" and 1 1/2" tips only) D) The Blitzfire 2" solid stream tip shall only be used in an emergency in consultation with the IC.

Answer 234

ANSWER: D) The Blitzfire 2" solid stream tip shall only be used in an emergency in consultation with the IC. (INCORRECT) (TRAINING BULLETINS 38 - 7.5) * 2" solid stream tip should NOT be used with the Blitzfire monitor due to poor stream reach and stream break up.

Question 235

High speed roadways can pose as much danger to firefighters as burning buildings. Which of the following is a correct action to take at one of these incidents? A) Never take a partial lane. B) Flares burn for 30 minutes, members shall prepare to replace them immediately, after they burn out. C) Only in rare instances should members allow traffic to come around both sides of an accident scene. D) At an accident involving a hybrid vehicle, members removed the FOB key to a location at least 15 feet away form the vehicle, and ensured the batteries were disconnected prior to cutting a blue cable. They did not attempt to cut the red or orange cables because those may carry a high voltage

Answer 235

ANSWER: A) Never take a partial lane. (Training Bulletins, Fires 8 - Section 10) B - Replenish flares BEFORE burnout C - NEVER allow traffic to come around both sides of an accident. D - High voltage cables may be orangeOR blue, do not cut them PERIOD.

Question 236

When a hazardous roadway separation is observed it shall be the subject of an immediate report to the Chief of Operations. What information shall be included in this report? 1 - Roadway/bridge name 2 - Location of separation with approximate size 3 - Direction of travel 4 - A highway marker designation where applicable A) 1,2,3 and 4 B: 1 and 3 only C) 2,3 and 4 only D) 1 and 4 only

Answer 236

ANSWER: A) 1,2,3, and 4 (Regulations Chapter 11, sec 11.5.2) (Training Bulletins, Fires 8 sec. 9.1) * With full endorsements (BC,DC, Boro)

Question 237

Operations on elevated highways can be very dangerous for our members. Which of the following statements below is incorrect involving operations at these sites? A) When establishing a safe crossing point of a hazardous elevated highway separation, it shall be clearly marked (cones/barrier tape). In addition or when visibility is reduced, members shall use all available means to illuminate the area. B) If it is absolutely necessary to operate across a center divider, traffic must be stopped in both directions and safety warning devices set up. C) Before members cross the center divider at the preferred area, the IC shall have a member test the surface on the opposite side of the divider with a tool. This location shall be communicated to all units D) When accessing the incident from below, the tip of the aerial or tower ladder bucket should be placed perpendicular to the roadway and secured this will prevent unnecessary movement

Answer 237

ANSWER: D) When accessing the incident from below, the tip of the aerial or tower ladder bucket should be placed perpendicular to the roadway and secured this will prevent unnecessary movement. (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins, Fires 8 - 9.1) * Aerial and Tower Ladders should be CANTILEVERED PARALLEL to the roadway. * Aerial/TL shall not be extended beyond the shoulder where they can be exposed to moving traffic.

Question 238

Power saws are a valuable tool used at fire and emergency operations. Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding these devices? A) If cutting a tarred over scuttle is too difficult, a FF can make a "coffin cut" in the vicinity of the boarded up opening. B) All abrasive discs shall be immediately placed out of service and forwarded to the tool room with an accompanying RT-2 form. C) The diamond blade is bi-directional. It will cut effectively in either direction. In fact, it should be flipped over after use. Disregard any directional arrows found on the early versions of these blades. D) If the diamond blade becomes glazed over, run it through an abrasive material such as concrete to expose more diamonds on the edge.

Answer 238

ANSWER: B) All abrasive discs shall be immediately placed out of service and forwarded to the tool room with an accompanying RT-2 form. (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins, Tools 9, sec. 6.3.2) * CONTINUE USING abrasive discs until supply depleted.

Question 239

An officer covering a day tour in a tower ladder was conducting a drill with the members on the proper care and maintenance of the apparatus. She was correct in all but which point below? A) At the beginning of each tour, immediately after roll call, the fuel tank shall be filled B) The intercom system only needs to be checked for operability once daily. C) The intercom system shall be checked for operability each tour, immediately after roll call D) The door handles shall be checked for operability daily

Answer 239

ANSWER: B) The intercom system only needs to be checked for operability once daily. (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins, Apparatus C-2) * This is a recent change, it used to be something else. Checked Each Tour "Proby Inspect Rig First Sink Last" P - Purge Air Tanks I - Intercom System R - Response Warning Devices F - Fill Fuel Tank S - Seatbelts L - Lights (non-response)

Question 240

Which of the following statements regarding tools used by the FDNY is most accurate? A) The evolution 6000 Thermal imaging Camera will provide the user with accurate atmospheric temperature readings. B) The EZ Don Harness should be visually inspected weekly and shall only be used to remove a conscious and alert person. C) The Beluga Auto Glass Knife is designed to cut laminated glass. All 2018 and newer automobiles are required to have laminated safety glass throughout the vehicle, not just the windshield. D) The head on the Beluga Auto Glass Knife can swivel 360 degrees and the blade will wear out slightly while cutting glass.

Answer 240

ANSWER: C) The Beluga Auto Glass Knife is designed to cut laminated glass. All 2018 and newer automobiles are required to have laminated safety glass throughout the vehicle, not just the windshield. (Training Bulletins, Tools Data Sheet 4, sec 3.5) A - TIC WILL NOT provide accurate atmospheric temperature readings B - EZ Don Harness used to remove CONCIOUS AND/OR UNCONCIOUS D - Blade WILL NOT wear.

Question 241

As a newly promoted Lieutenant, with the winter season fast approaching, you must be knowledgeable in the use of snow chains. From the following choices listed below, choose the only correct statement you made during drill on the use of snow chains. A) As an alternative to installing the snow chains using the "drive over" method, FFs can use the Turtle ramp to assist in installing the snow chains B) When snow chains are applied, apparatus must not exceed 15 MPH C) When apparatus is out of quarters for any reason, and cross links of chains break or become loose, the officer shall cause apparatus to stop immediately and have condition corrected by removing loose or broken links with bolt cutters D) The installation of snow chains are to be applied to the two rear outer drive wheels only, which includes apparatus with dual rear axles

Answer 241

ANSWER: A) As an alternative to installing the snow chains using the "drive over" method, FFs can use the Turtle ramp to assist in installing the snow chains. (Training Bulletins C2 add 1 sec 2 & 3) A - NEW as of 10/29/2019 B - 30 MPH C - EXCEPT WHILE RESPONDING TO FIRES OR EMERGENCIES D - Apparatus with dual rear axles shall have chains mounted on ALL OUTER REAR DRIVE WHEELS * Remember: The use of outriggers or tormentors to lift the apparatus shall NEVER be attempted inside of the firehouse

Question 242

During fire operations with a damaged facepiece, the procedure is to leave the facepiece on and conserve as much breathing air as possible by covering the damaged area with one hand. If the leak is more than can be controlled with one hand, all of the following shall be adhered to except which choice? A) Continue to cover as much of the damaged area as possible B) Press the manual shut-off switch after each breath to further limit the loss of breathing air C) If damaged area is too large to allow the regulator shut-off to release, then use the purge valve in an ON and OFF motion for each breath D) A member experiencing a failure of the facepiece lens, which results in bubbling or a hole, the above procedure shall be followed with a gloved hand.

Answer 242

ANSWER: D) A member experiencing a failure of the facepiece lens, which results in bubbling or a hole, the above procedure shall be followed with a gloved hand. (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins SCBA 6.5.3 & 6.5.5) * MUST NOT touch or attempt to cover the opening. Doing so can cause the hole in the lens to enlarge as the polycarbonate can be wiped away or can stick to a member's gloved hand as the lens melts * Choice D is new as of 2/15/2018

Question 243

When it comes to the SCBA/FAST Pak, the incorrect statement can be found in which choice? A) While on air, you feel 4 distinct blows on the shoulder and then pulled in a specific direction indicates that an emergency exists and you should promptly follow in that direction B) For trapped members, utilize the nearest available FAST Pak C) Under no circumstances shall a FAST Pak be used for civilians. D) Utilize a spare SCBA to provide air strictly to the trapped member or civilian

Answer 243

ANSWER: C) Under no circumstances shall a FAST Pak be used for civilians. (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins SCBA sec 6.6.3 & 7.4.1) * For civilians, utilize a FAST Pak OTHER than the one assigned to the FAST Unit

Question 244

If a KO Curtain is damaged in other than fire operations, who shall the Company Commander write a letterhead to? A) Chief of Training B) Chief of Operations C) Chief of the Fire Academy D) Chief of Department

Answer 244

ANSWER: B) Chief of Operations (Training Bulletins Tools 2 sec 6.6) * This letterhead report with all details requires full endorsements and a replacement curtain shall be obtained from the Division * THIS IS FOR OTHER THAN FIRE OPERATIONS * Damaged at a fire: Officer working at the time of the fire shall forward a letterhead report to Chief of Operations via the chain of command and a COPY sent to Chief of the Fire Academy.

Question 245

The most correct procedure, when forcing a door that opens inward using the Halligan and Axe, can be found in which choice? A) The halligan tool is held with the hand at the hook end palm down and the other hand at the at the fork end palm up B) Place the fork of the halligan tool approximately 12" above or below the lock C) The FF holding the axe stands on the same side of the member holding the halligan tool in order to reduce the chance of striking the other FF D) The member holding the halligan tool is the coordinator of the action, telling the axe FF when to strike

Answer 245

ANSWER: D) The member holding the halligan tool is the coordinator of the action, telling the axe FF when to strike. (Training Bulletins Forcible Entry 2 - 1.2) A - The halligan tool is held with the hand at the hook end palm UP and the other hand at the at the fork end palm DOWN.. B - Approximately SIX INCHES above/below lock C - Axe FF stands on OPPOSITE SIDE

Question 246

You are first to arrive to a small flammable liquid spill that is on fire. You order your FFs to stretch and place a foam line into operation. You make several tactical decisions based on whether the spill is contained or flowing. You were correct in which choice? A) For a spill that is contained you ordered your FFs to direct the foam stream behind the fire so that it can flow evenly throughout the spill B) For a spill that is contained you ordered your FFs to work against the run of the spill, either directly or from the flanks, towards the source of the spill, directing a foam stream on the ground ahead of the fire in such a manner as to bounce the foam onto the fire C) For a spill that is contained you ensured your FFs not to deflect the stream against something and allow the foam to slide down and work its way across the burning liquid as this is an ineffective method D) One possible method to extinguish a spill that is contained is to order your FFs to direct the foam stream skyward in a slow back and forth motion, allowing the foam to fall as gently as possible over the surface. This will cover the spill and reduce disruption at the blanket

Answer 246

ANSWER: D) One possible method to extinguish a spill that is contained is to order your FFs to direct the foam stream skyward in a slow back and forth motion, allowing the foam to fall as gently as possible over the surface. This will cover the spill and reduce disruption at the blanket. (Training Bulletins Foam sec 8.4) A - Contained: Direct a foam stream on the ground AHEAD of the fire in such a manner as to bounce the foam onto the fire B - For flowing fires work against run of the spill.... C - You ensured your FFs TO deflect the stream against something and allow the foam to slide down and work its way across the burning liquid (this IS done for contained spills) If spill is CONTAINED "BDS" B - Bounce ahead of fire D - Deflect stream against something S - Skyward in back/forth motion to fall gently over spill

Question 247

The FDNY currently uses several types of ropes to aid firefighters during a variety of emergencies such as the Life Saving Rope (LSR). Search Rope, Person Safety System (PSS), and the Utility Rope. The most correct description in regards to these ropes can be found in which choice? A) The LSR is 5/8" in diameter. It is made of a continuous filament of Nylon with a length of 150', weight of 14 1/2 pounds, and a working load of 600 lbs. Over a period of time ropes have shrunk 8 to 10 feet B) The Search Rope is made of either 5/16th diameter white nylon or a 7.5 mm diameter Kernantle design and is 200 feet long. A series of knots are used to identify direction to and distance from the tie off point with the first direction knot 18" before the first 25 foot distance knot C) The PSS is 7.5 mm in diameter, 50' in length of kermantle rope with a figure "8" knot tied at the end of the rope, and has a working load of 300 lbs. D) The Utility Rope is 9/16" in diameter, 50' in length, and all Engines and Ladders shall carry a minimum of 1 length on their apparatus. The Utility Rope shall be used at fires and emergencies to restrain portable multiversal nozzles, lash ladders, use as guide lines, and to secure equipment on apparatus etc..

Answer 247

ANSWER: C) The PSS is 7.5 mm in diameter, 50' in length of kermantle rope with a figure "8" knot tied at the end of the rope, and has a working load of 300 lbs. (Training Bulletins Rope 4 Section 1) A - 9/16" (Rope 1 sec 1.1 and 1.6) B - The 25 foot distance knot will NOT have a direction knot (Rope 6 sec 2 and 3.5.note) D - All Engine Companies shall carry a minimum of 2 lengths. All Ladder Companies shall carry a minimum of 3 lengths. (Rope 7 secs 1, 2, and 3)

Question 248

The intended use of the EZ Don harness can be incorrectly stated in which choice? A) The EZ Don Harness does not replace the life saving rope's bowline on a bight for removal purposes. B) The EZ Don Harness will fit most individuals and can be deployed and donned within seconds C) The EZ Don Harness provides the utmost safety whether the removal involves a conscious and alert person or an injured or unconscious victim D) The EZ Don Harness is designed for non-technical safe removal of a victim or firefighter from an area with limited access, a confined space such as a stuck elevator, above or below grade structures or from heights

Answer 248

ANSWER: A) The EZ Don Harness does not replace the life saving rope's bowline on a bight for removal purposes. (INCORRECT) (TB Rope 9 sec 2) * The EZ Don Harness DOES replace the life saving rope's bowline on a bight for removal purposes

Question 249

Engine 296 and Ladder 196 arrive at a rapidly growing fire in a junkyard and are confronted by an aggressive pit bull. Which action taken by the companies is INCORRECT according to established procedures? A) Members avoided eye to eye contact which has a tendency to make the dog attack. B) The companies directed a CO2 extinguisher stream into the dog’s face; then used short bursts from the extinguisher to back the dog into another area. C) Once the handline was stretched for operation, a second 1 ¾ handline was stretched for continued protection. D) PD ESU was requested for the use of their tranquilizer guns for control of the dog.

Answer 249

ANSWER: C) Once the handline was stretched for operation, a second 1 ¾ handline was stretched for continued protection. (INCORRECT) (TB FIRES 2 - PROTECTION AGAINST DOGS 4.10) * In junkyards and other facilities of that nature, the safest approach is to use a water stream. If a fire condition exists, a charged 1 3⁄4" line can be used for protection while an uncharged line is being advanced.

Question 250

You are the first arriving officer for a report of a fire on the 30th floor of a 67 sty 200 X 200 High-Rise Office building. You make contact with Fire Safety Director and he confirms there is a fire on the 30th floor. The Fire Safety Director tells you that the floors below are filling up with smoke due to the access stairs from the 30th floor down to the 27th floor. You transmit the 10-76 and try to determine the best elevator to use to gain access to the fire. The three elevators are as follows: Bank A services floors 1-28; Bank B services floors 28-50; Bank C services floors 50-67. The most correct bank of elevators you chose can be found in which choice? A) Bank A, which you took to floor 28 B) Bank B, which you took to floor 29 C) Bank B, which you took to floor 28 D) Instead of these banks, you took the service/freight elevator to two floors below the fire floor with permission of the IC

Answer 250

ANSWER: A) Bank A, which you took to floor 28 (Training Bulletins (Elevators) sec 6) Elevator operations during fire operations: 1 - when fire is confirmed on the 7th floor or below units should avoid the use of elevators 2 - Do not use an elevator in a bank which services the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within 5 floors of the fire floor 3 - When it is necessary to use an elevator in a bank which serves the fire floor: A - If Firemen Service is available, use a car with the Firemen Service feature B - Select a floor at least 2 floors below the fire floor OR 2 floors below the lower level of an access stair in the fire area, whichever is lowest In this scenario, Bank A does not serve the fire floor; therefore you do not have to go 2 floors below the lowest level of the access stair

Question 251

When operating on a highway, the blocking apparatus shall be placed how many feet behind the first operating unit to create a safe working area? A) At least 30' B) At least 40' C) At least 50' D) At least 150'

Answer 251

ANSWER: C) At least 50' | Training Bulletins Fires 8 sec 6.5

Question 252

The incorrect description of the FAST Pak can be found in which choice? A) Scott Air Cylinder (45 min) B) 10' high pressure hose with Universal Air Coupling (UAC) C) 20' low pressure hose attached to a manifold with Schrader fitting and Hansen fitting D) Non-CBRN Regulator and Facepiece

Answer 252

ANSWER: B) 10' high pressure hose with Universal Air Coupling (UAC) (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins SCBA add 1 sec 2) * FIVE FOOT (5') high pressure hose with Universal Air Coupling (UAC)

Question 253

The KO Curtain shall be inspected when? A) Weekly B) Monthly C) Semi-annually D) Yearly

Answer 253

ANSWER: A) Weekly (Training Bulletins Tools 2 sec 3) * Weekly during MUD and after each use. The inspection will include removing the curtain from the carrying sleeve and unfurling it. Inspect the deployment ropes, the 5 aluminum bars embedded in the curtain, and all stitching. * IF THERE IS ANY DOUBT AS TO THE SERVICEABILITY OF THE KO CURTAIN, THE OFFICER ON DUTY SHALL PLACE THE CURTAIN OOS

Question 254

The Window Blanket is large enough to cover how many window(s) A) 1 window B) At least 2 windows C) At least 3 windows D) At least 4 windows

Answer 254

ANSWER: B) At least 2 windows (Training Bulletins Tools 3 sec 3) * Squad will deliver the blanket to the floor below the fire. Any Unit or units may be used to deploy the blanket. The assigned unit or IC shall designate a spotter to observe the deployment of the blanket from the exterior. The spotter should be equipped with a HT, and binoculars obtained from the battalion vehicle. The officer of the blanket deploying unit will assign members to the floor below to secure the Fire Window Blanket. These members must be in place prior to deploying the blanket. Can be lowered from two floors above, if the IC deems necessary

Question 255

Double checking the bag before sending it to the battalion, you find a letterhead report addressed to The Chief of Operations regarding the KO Curtain which was placed out of service as a result of damage sustained during a change of tour inspection. Attached to the letterhead is a copy for forwarding to the chief of the fire academy. Which action taken is CORRECT prior to forwarding the paperwork? A) You remove the letterhead to the chief of the fire academy because it isn’t required for this scenario. B) You realize that the Safety Chief has to do an investigation prior to replacement. C) You change the letterhead addressed to the Chief of Operations to a letterhead addressed to the Chief of Training. D) You make a notification to R & D for a replacement. The Division only issues replacements for curtains damaged during fire operations.

Answer 255

ANSWER: A) You remove the letterhead to the chief of the fire academy because it isn’t required for this scenario. (TRAINING BULLETINS TOOLS 2) * Copy of letterhead to Chief of Fire Academy when USED AT A FIRE OPERATION. B – Safety Chief is notified when Curtain has been deployed at an operation. C – Letterhead goes to the Chief of Operations. D – In all cases replacement is obtained from the division.

Question 256

The tip of the High-Rise Nozzle should be checked when? A) Tourly B) Daily C) Weekly D) Monthly

Answer 256

ANSWER: C) Weekly (TB ools 7 Data sheet 17 sec 4.2 and 4.3) * Weekly, during MUD and before use * Supplied by a 2 ½” hoseline, the high rise nozzle will produce flows of 200-225 gpm at 50 psi nozzle pressure with water flowing. * Units must use the standpipe pressure gauge and consider the number of lengths in the supply line. * As a general rule when supplying the high rise nozzle with 3 lengths of 2 ½” hose, the pressure at the outlet gauge should be 70 psi with water flowing and 80 psi when using 4 lengths

Question 257

From the following choices, which is NOT considered an elevator emergency? A) Children stuck in an elevator B) Passenger of stuck elevator in panic C) Passenger of stuck elevator injured D) Fire endangering passengers in a stuck elevator

Answer 257

ANSWER: A) Children stuck in an elevator (INCORRECT) (TB Emergency 1 sec 2.4.1 and 2.4.2) INCIDENT: A stuck elevator with trapped passengers not in immediate danger and no evidence of injury EMERGENCY: A situation where one or more of the following exists: A - FIRE endangering passengers in a stuck elevator B - Passenger of stuck elevator INJURED C - Passenger of stuck elevator in PANIC

Question 258

You receive a ticket for a single Engine response for wires down at the intersection of Laconia Ave and Waring Ave in the Allerton section of the Bronx. Upon arrival, you discover live electrical wires down in the street. At this incident, which action did you take incorrectly? A) Immediate notification to the dispatcher/utility for priority utility company response B) Stretched a line with fog nozzle and keeping at least 25 feet away from any downed wire while operating this handline C) If live electrical wires were draped over any occupied vehicle, you would order their immediate removal D) Did not place any weighted objects on downed wires

Answer 258

ANSWER: C) If live electrical wires were draped over any occupied vehicle, you would order their immediate removal. (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins Emergency 3 p-8) * Cautioned civilians trapped in vehicles with an electrical line over it to REMAIN in their vehicle until the wires are de-energized by the utility company

Question 259

Which statement in regards to the portable Honda generator is incorrect? A) Operations requiring maximum power output should be limited to 30 minutes B) Fuel tank vent levers and engine switch should be left in the OFF position when not in use. The practice of leaving all switches in the on position (ready to go) should not be followed C) Technical Services should perform all maintenance and/or repairs. Generators should be forwarded by Division messenger D) Bulb replacement may be done by units in the field. Bulbs must be replaced by a member using an ungloved hand.

Answer 259

ANSWER: D) Bulb replacement may be done by units in the field. Bulbs must be replaced by a member using an ungloved hand. (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins Tools 4 DS 1 p-3) * WITH A GLOVED HAND * Failure to follow this procedure will lead to premature failure of the new bulb. * Bulbs may be procured from Technical Services. * Also: the Eco-throttle switch should NOT be used

Question 260

Which choice contains incorrect information about the cockloft nozzle? A) The cockloft nozzle is carried by all Rescues and Squad companies B) The cockloft nozzle is designed to extinguish fires in the confined space of any building with a cockloft C) The cockloft nozzle should never be the primary attack line and is only to be used when supported and protected by an additional conventional handline D) When using a cockloft nozzle in a NFP MD, the preferred location for operation is immediately inside the apartment door. A hole 3'x3' is needed in the ceiling in order for the cockloft nozzle to fit

Answer 260

ANSWER: A) The cockloft nozzle is carried by all Rescues and Squad companies. (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins Tools 7 DS 18 sec 2 and 3) * The cockloft nozzle is carried by all Squad companies and Division vehicles

Question 261

The only correct statement made in reference to the "Glow Stick" can be found in which choice? A) When activated, glow sticks will provide up to 5 hours of illumination B) Glow sticks cannot tolerate high pressures, such as those found underwater C) Glow sticks are not safe for use in explosive environments D) Each unit shall carry at least 10 glow sticks on their apparatus

Answer 261

ANSWER: D) Each unit shall carry at least 10 glow sticks on their apparatus. (Training Bulletins Tools 30) A - up to TWELVE (12) hours B - Are waterproof, do not use batteries, generate no heat or noise, and are disposable. They CAN tolerate high pressures, such as those found underwater. C - Because they do not require batteries or contain electrified filaments like normal flashlights they are SAFE for use in explosive environments

Question 262

In a recent study group, a FF made several testable points about the Pak Tracker. He was incorrect in which point? A) The Pak Tracker system serves a dual purpose: the first is its monitoring/identification capability, and the second is its tracking capability B) The maximum range from the SCBA's transmitter to a Pak Tracker handheld receiver is approximately 900 feet line of sight C) The Pak Tracker can receive and store up to 36 SCBA identities, but the LCD display screen is only large enough to display 2 lines of information D) The Pak Tracker handheld receiver is intrinsically safe. It can be used in potentially flammable or explosive atmospheres

Answer 262

ANSWER: D) The Pak Tracker handheld receiver is intrinsically safe. It can be used in potentially flammable or explosive atmospheres. (Training Bulletins SCBA add 8 p 1-5) * NOT suitable for use in potentially flammable or explosive atmospheres

Question 263

The incorrect information when stretching a foam handline can be found in which choice? A) When using 1 3/4" hose, the maximum number of lengths that can be used is 6 B) When using 2 1/2" hose, the maximum number of lengths that can be used is 10 C) The location for the foam eductor can be either at the pumper outlet or inline depending on the number of lengths stretched. D) ECC shall provide 200 psi at the eductor

Answer 263

ANSWER: C) The location for the foam eductor can be either at the pumper outlet or inline depending on the number of lengths stretched. (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins Foam - Evolution 1 sec 2) * Location for the eductor is at the pumper outlet ONLY

Question 264

The incorrect statement in regards to the Pak-Tracker can be found in which choice? A) When the Pak-Tracker receives a signal from a PASS device that has been in full alarm for 5 seconds, the receiver will emit a 2-tone audible alarm, and the LCD display will show the SCBA's identity (Unit and Name of FF) and relative signal strength. B) While the Pak-Tracker can receive and store up to 36 SCBA identities, the LCD display screen is only large enough to display two lines of information. C) Pak-Tracker receiver can only lock onto one SCBA at a time. D) To begin searching, the Pak-Tracker should be held at waist height out in front of the operating member. The top of the hand-held receiver should be pointed toward the target.

Answer 264

ANSWER: A) When the Pak-Tracker receives a signal from a PASS device that has been in full alarm for 5 seconds, the receiver will emit a 2-tone audible alarm, and the LCD display will show the SCBA's identity (Unit and Name of FF) and relative signal strength. (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins SCBA add 8) * TEN (10) seconds and Unit and MEMBER ASSIGNMENT.

Question 265

Select the incorrect statement made in reference to the SCBA A) The vibralert is an End of Service Time Indicator (EOSTI) that activates at approximately 10 percent of the cylinders air capacity alerting the member to exit the contaminated area. B) A red purge valve knob is located on the left side of the regulator assembly C) If the regulator fails in the closed position (no air to facepiece), turn purge valve counter-clockwise D) If the the regulator fails in the open position (to much air flow in the facepiece), air flow can be controlled by opening the purge valve fully and partially closing the cylinder valve

Answer 265

ANSWER: A) The vibralert is an End of Service Time Indicator (EOSTI) that activates at approximately 10 percent of the cylinders air capacity alerting the member to exit the contaminated area. (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins SCBA - 3.8.5) * TWENTY FIVE (25) PERCENT

Question 266

# Choose the incorrect action taken when operating at an accident on a highway. A) Apparatus should be placed at an angle to the incident when feasible to maximize safety (between the fire or emergency and the oncoming traffic) B) When placement of apparatus will expose it to the possibility of fire extension, pumper may be placed beyond the fire vehicle, but second apparatus, and third if necessary, shall always be placed between oncoming traffic and the operating forces C) Where the fire or emergency occurs near a curve, or beyond a hill, the second apparatus shall be located where it will be visible to oncoming traffic and furnish a warning to such traffic in sufficient time to avoid a secondary collision D) Blocking apparatus shall be placed at least 25 feet behind the first operating unit to create a safe working area.

Answer 266

ANSWER: D) Blocking apparatus shall be placed at least 25 feet behind the first operating unit to create a safe working area. (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins Fires 8 sec 6) * At least FIFTY (50) FEET

Question 267

Currently, there are three types of Anti-Chaffing devices that may be encountered in the field. All devices serve the same function and will afford protection when used with the LSR. The description of the Anti-Chaffing device is incorrectly stated in which choice? A) After the LSR has been packed in the carrying case, remove 3 feet of rope and pass the rope through the canvas sleeve from either end of the device B) After the rope has been passed through the canvas sleeve, grasp the hook of the LSR and pull 1 1/2 arms length of rope through the anti-chafing device. Tie a bowline on a bight on this section of the rope, and place the rope and anti-chafing device in the carrying case C) When used in a lowering or single slide operation, the anti-chafing device is placed so that the flexible end overlaps the roof or the parapet wall toward the street D) Whenever the anti-chafing device is placed OOS, the officer on duty shall notify Tech Services by telephone and have it immediately replaced.

Answer 267

ANSWER: D) Whenever the anti-chafing device is placed OOS, the officer on duty shall notify Tech Services by telephone and have it immediately replaced. (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins Rope 1 Data sheet 2) * Whenever the anti-chafing device is placed OOS, the officer on duty shall notify the administrative DIVISION BY TELEPHONE AND FAX. Have it immediately replaced (4.4)

Question 268

The Life Saving training rope is incorrectly described in which choice? A) Life Saving training rope may be used at heights to a maximum of four stories. B) The maximum number of times the Life Saving training rope can be used is 100 per end, for a total of 200 slides C) One end of the Life Saving training rope shall be identified by tape affixed to the hook D) A history of every Life saving training rope shall be maintained on the Training Rope Record Card (RP-101)

Answer 268

ANSWER: A) Life Saving training rope may be used at heights to a maximum of four stories. (Training Bulletins Rope 1 Data Sheet 3) * Maximum of 3 stories

Question 269

There are many different types of basic emergencies the FDNY responds to, and mitigates each and every day. From the following emergencies, choose the one that members operated at incorrectly. A) At an overheated ballast, members shut power, removed bulb. removed cover panel, and disconnected wires, and isolated the black and Red power wires and covered exposed ends with caps or tape. B) With live electrical wires down in the street, members stretched a precautionary handline with a fog nozzle, and kept a safety distance of at least 25 feet C) When using the street valve to shut down a defective hydrant, members noticed a decrease in flow at approximately 12 full turns counterclockwise D) At a flooded basement in a vacant building, members opened the street trap on the sewer side in an attempt to drain the water

Answer 269

ANSWER: A) At an overheated ballast, members shut power, removed bulb. removed cover panel, and disconnected wires, and isolated the black and Red power wires and covered exposed ends with caps or tape. (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins Emergencies 3 - pg 9) * BLACK and WHITE wires.

Question 270

Of the following forcible entry techniques, choose the one members performed correctly. A) When forcing open a window, members placed the fork end of the Halligan under the window at the corner of the window sill and applied downward pressure on the Halligan B) When forcing a door with a multi-lock that is engaged, members cut a triangle in the lower quadrant of the door on the hinge side C) When using either a cutting torch or a saw with an aluminum oxide blade to cut through an American lock series 2000, members cut through the lock about 2/3rds of the distance down from the staple (shackle) cutting it in two pieces D) When forcing entry by pulling the cylinder on a police lock (rim lock), members inserted a 5/32" square key tool into the stem of the cylinder and turned it either left or right.

Answer 270

ANSWER: D) When forcing entry by pulling the cylinder on a police lock (rim lock), members inserted a 5/32" square key tool into the stem of the cylinder and turned it either left or right. (Training Bulletins Forcible Entry 1) A - Under the window at the CENTER of the window sill B - Lower quadrant of the door on the DOORKNOB side. This will enable you to unlock conventional locks as well. Make the cut large enough to get your arm through and back out, but small enough so that you don't cut the bar. C - About 2/3rds of the distance UP FROM THE KEYWAY cutting it in two pieces.

Question 271

When operating at a vehicle accident on a highway, members must ensure certain procedures are met, especially when a hazardous separation is observed. Choose the incorrect procedure when operating on a highway and a hazardous separation is observed. A) The roadway/bridge name, location of separation with approximate size and direction of travel, along with a highway mileage marker designation where applicable, shall be the subject of an immediate letterhead report to the Chief of Operations B) Where it is necessary to stop the flow of traffic, the dispatcher shall be notified to relay the information to the Police Department C) At times the practice of gaining access to an express highway incident from a service road, across a grassy slope, avoids placing the apparatus on the highway proper D) Where access to an elevated or depressed roadway is obtained by use of apparatus, the Aerial or TL shall not be extended beyond shoulder where they could be exposed to moving traffic. Aerial and/or TL should be cantilevered perpendicular to the elevated roadway.

Answer 271

ANSWER: D) Where access to an elevated or depressed roadway is obtained by use of apparatus, the Aerial or TL shall not be extended beyond shoulder where they could be exposed to moving traffic. Aerial and/or TL should be cantilevered perpendicular to the elevated roadway. (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletin Fires 8 - Section 9) * NEW MATERIAL * Aerial and/or TL should be cantilevered PARALLEL to the elevated roadway

Question 272

In order to file a complaint with the Fire Department EEO Officer, the incident must of happened within what time frame from the date the alleged harassment/discrimination occurred? A) Within 6 months B) Within 1 year C) Within 2 years D) There is no time frame

Answer 272

ANSWER: B) Within 1 year (Training Bulletins EEO-1 p-9) * If complaint is sexual harassment, complainant may also choose to file directly with BITS

Question 273

First-arriving units should treat most confined space emergencies in the same fashion as Hazardous Materials incidents; with extreme care for the rescuer’s wellbeing. Which statement below pertaining to confined spaced operations is correct? A) Entries by members not specifically trained in confined space rescue should never be attempted. B) A toxicity of 35 PPM of carbon monoxide is a safe atmospheric condition. C) All members entering a confined space must be breathing air from the SCBA at all times. D) First alarm units should not consider lowering a rescuer with the lifesaving rope under any circumstances.

Answer 273

ANSWER: B) A toxicity of 35 PPM of carbon monoxide is a safe atmospheric condition. (Confined Space 3.1, 4.1, 4.3) A - Entries by members not specifically trained in confined space rescue should NOT be attempted EXCEPT IN EXTREME CIRCUMSTANCES. C - All members entering a confined space must be breathing air from the SCBA UNLESS THE ATMOSPHERE IS PROVEN NON-HAZARDOUS VIA CONTINUOUS METER READINGS. D - First alarm units should not consider lowering a rescuer with the lifesaving rope UNLESS EXTREME CIRCUMSTANCES EXIST, AND THEY MUST HAVE A PLAN FOR REMOVING THAT MEMBER. SAFE ATMOSPHERIC CONDITONS: OXYGEN BETWEEN 19.5%-23.5% FLAMMABLE RANGE: NOT OVER 10% LEL TOXICITY: NOT OVER 35 PPM OF CARBON MONOXIDE TOXICITY: NOT OVER 10 PPM OF HYDROGEN SULFIDE

Question 274

An important element in the investigation of fire is the preservation and packaging of evidence. Choose the incorrect method of evidence collection. A) Use a completely air-tight container made from non-odorous materials such as a new one gallon metal (paint) can B) If a new can is not available, use a clean glass jar with a tightly fitting lid C) Never use plastic containers. Vapors may escape through plastic and evidence may be contaminated by the deterioration of the plastic container. D) A plastic bag can be used in an emergency. It should be new, heavy gauge and used in pairs

Answer 274

ANSWER: C) Never use plastic containers. Vapors may escape through plastic and evidence may be contaminated by the deterioration of the plastic container. (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins Arson 1 p-8-9) * TRY TO AVOID THE use plastic containers. Vapors may escape through plastic and evidence may be contaminated by the deterioration of the plastic container * As soon as possible, place into can or jar and submit to the Fire Marshal * Any evidence must remain in the hands of someone who will be available to testify as to the continuity of the evidence

Question 275

In 2015, FDNY vehicles have been issued a Vehicle Recovery Strap for vehicles that are stuck in deep snow. Choose the incorrect procedure for its use. A) The vehicle recovery strap shall not be used for towing or lifting. B) The maximum weight of the stuck vehicle to be recovered shall not exceed 20,000 lbs. C) If the stuck vehicle is an ambulance with a patient, the patient shall be offloaded to a secondary ambulance prior to vehicle recovery strap use D) The preferred method for vehicle recovery is from the rear of the vehicle.

Answer 275

ANSWER: D) The preferred method for vehicle recovery is from the rear of the vehicle. (Training Bulletins Apparatus C-2 add 3) * The preferred method for vehicle recovery is from the FRONT of the vehicle (to the frame mounted eye hook. * NEVER attach to the front or rear bumper

Question 276

From the following choices, select the incorrect procedure when using a firemen service elevator during fire operations. A) Before leaving the lobby and at each precautionary stop direct a flashlight up between the elevator car and the hoistway shaft to determine if there is any accumulation of smoke in the elevator shaft B) Elevator should be stopped every five floors (precautionary stops) to confirm that the elevator will respond to the selected floor. At each stop a new selection must be made C) The relationship of the elevator to the stairway should be noted. This can be accomplished by inspecting the "YOU ARE HERE" sign which is required to be posted at each floor near the call button. This should be done at the first and last precautionary stop D) In any situation where the elevator operates erratically, try resetting the emergency stop button or turning the firemen service key switch located in the car to off then to on

Answer 276

ANSWER: D) In any situation where the elevator operates erratically, try resetting the emergency stop button or turning the firemen service key switch located in the car to off then to on. (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins Emergencies 1 - pg 24) * In any situation where the elevator operates erratically, exit the car at the nearest safe floor. PLACE THE CAR OOS either via the car controls or by blocking the car door. Notify the Officer in Command immediately.

Question 277

There are certain notifications to make when a member is bitten by a dog. Choose the incorrect notification. A) Battalion Chief B) EMS C) Police Department D) Board of health E) Medical Officer

Answer 277

ANSWER: A) Battalion Chief (Training Bulletins - Fires 2 sec 4.13) "PBA ME" P - Police Department B - Board of Health A - Animal Care and Control, if the dog is a stray M - Medical Officer E - EMS

Question 278

While operating at an Incinerator fire, Lt Refuse operated incorrectly in which choice? A) Lt Refuse and his inside team, along with the OV FF operated inside the building to ventilate, search, and locate the blockage B) While searching for the blockage, Lt Refuse informed his members that if they open a chute door, and a draft goes inward or there is little smoke, the blockage is generally below that floor or the blockage has freed itself C) Lt Refuse requested his LCC to locate and check out the incinerator room D) Before ascending to the roof, Lt Refuse instructed his Roof FF to ensure all stairwell doors located on the ground floor to be closed in order to not create an updraft in the building.

Answer 278

ANSWER: D) Before ascending to the roof, Lt Refuse instructed his Roof FF to ensure all stairwell doors located on the ground floor to be closed in order to not create an updraft in the building. (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins Fires 7 2.3 F) * It is very important that, before the Roof FF leaves the lobby he CHOCKS OPEN THE STAIRWELL DOOR AT THE GROUND FLOOR LEVEL. This will provide for maximum draft and vertical ventilation when the bulkhead door is opened.

Question 279

When operating on a highway, lighting and carrying flares can play an important role in terms of safety. Choose the incorrect information in regards to flares. A) When lighting flares or carrying a lit flare, care must be taken to point flares away from body at all times B) Carry lit flares in a vertical position to avoid burning wax or chemical from dropping onto hand or body. C) Never look directly at a lit flare. This may cause temporary night blindness D) Replenish lit flares approximately every 30 minutes

Answer 279

ANSWER: B) Carry lit flares in a vertical position to avoid burning wax or chemical from dropping onto hand or body. (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins Fires 8 p-7) * Carry lit flares in a HORIZONTAL position to avoid burning wax or chemical from dropping onto hand or body

Question 280

The AFFF Foam extinguisher is primarily used for Class B fires such as Pit fires, flowing flammable liquid fires, and car fires. The AFFF Foam extinguisher can even be used for some Class A fires that include Tire fires, and small rubbish fires. This extinguisher, if not used in a certain time frame must be emptied, refilled, and recharged. The correct time frame can be found in which choice? A) An AFFF extinguisher not used within one year after charging must be emptied, refilled, and recharged B) An AFFF extinguisher not used within nine months after charging must be emptied, refilled, and recharged C) An AFFF extinguisher not used within six months after charging must be emptied, refilled, and recharged D) An AFFF extinguisher not used within two years after charging must be emptied, refilled, and recharged

Answer 280

ANSWER: A) An AFFF extinguisher not used within one year after charging must be emptied, refilled, and recharged. (Training Bulletins Foam add 2 sec 5)

Question 281

As a bare minimum, the rescuer who is entering a confined space must know certain things that will allow them to conduct the rescue in as safe a manner as possible. Which one listed below is incorrect? A) The hazards within the space. B) How to communicate with the victim inside. C) First Aid procedures and CPR. D) How to escape the space in an emergency.

Answer 281

ANSWER: B) How to communicate with the victim inside. (Confined Space Section 4) * How to communicate with the ATTENDANT OUTSIDE.

Question 282

The Purple K dry chemical extinguisher is superior for combating which type of fire? A) Methanol B) Gasoline C) Diesel D) Compressed gas fires

Answer 282

ANSWER: A) Methanol (TB Purple K Dry Chemical Extinguisher - sec 1) * Superior in combating methanol fires * Effective on gasoline, diesel, and compressed gas fires

Question 283

Although the goal is the same (extinguish the fire), operations for a fire in a compactor chute versus a fire in a compactor unit are different. Choose the incorrect operation at a compactor fire A) For a fire in the compactor unit (no extension to the chute), the engine company stretched and operated a line in the compactor room B) For a fire in the compactor unit the officer and forcible entry team of the ladder company will operate in the compactor room C) For a fire in the compactor chute, the engine will proceed to one level above the burning material, stretch a line and operate into the chute to extinguish the fire D) For a fire in the compactor chute the officer and forcible entry team of the ladder company will operate in the compactor room

Answer 283

ANSWER: A) For a fire in the compactor unit (no extension to the chute), the engine company stretched and operated a line in the compactor room. (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins Fires 7 sec 8) * FIRST FLOOR and operates into chute to extinguish the fire.

Question 284

Company officers and firefighters, first at the scene, have an excellent opportunity to make observations that a Fire Marshal cannot be expected to make, especially when it comes to flammable accelerants used to start the fire. Flammable accelerant indicators include all of the following except? A) Charring of the floor B) High burn marks on the wall or door C) Char in broken patterns or "puddle-like" circle burns on the floor D) Heavy body of fire with little contents

Answer 284

ANSWER: B) High burn marks on the wall or door (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins Arson 1 sec 3.7) * LOW burn marks on the wall or under the door or on the LOWER part of the door

Question 285

When stretching a foam handline, the maximum number of lengths that can be used can be found in which correct choice? A) Maximum 6 lengths of 1 3/4" or a maximum of 10 lengths of 2 1/2” B) Maximum 10 lengths of 1 3/4" or a maximum of 6 lengths of 2 1/2” C) Maximum 10 lengths of 1 3/4" or a maximum of 15 lengths of 2 1/2” D) Maximum 10 lengths of 1 3/4" or a maximum of 10 lengths of 2 1/2”

Answer 285

ANSWER: A) Maximum 6 lengths of 1 3/4" or a maximum of 10 lengths of 2 1/2” (Training Bulletins Foam Evolution 1 sec 2) * Remember, the location for the eductor is at the pumper outlet ONLY. * 200 psi at the eductor

Question 286

How many turns does it take the wrench to shut down a hydrant when operating the hydrant street shut-off? A) 12 turns clockwise B) 12 turns counterclockwise C) 17 turns clockwise D) 17 turns counterclockwise

Answer 286

ANSWER: D) 17 turns counterclockwise | Training Bulletins Emergency 3 p-19

Question 287

Procedures for removing passengers from an elevator can be broken up into three categories; primary; secondary; and emergency. From the list below, choose the incorrect procedure in relation to the category. A) Checking electrical contacts is considered a primary removal procedure and can be completed without turning off the elevator power B) Instructing a stuck passenger to exert physical pressure on the elevator door towards the open position is considered a secondary removal procedure. If they succeed in opening the car door, instruct them to depress or lift the roller on sliding hoistway type doors. C) Top hatch removal is considered an emergency removal. During this method, a portable straight ladder is lowered to the elevator roof where a maximum of two firefighters are permitted. A small portable ladder is then lowered into the elevator for removal D) Forcible entry of hoistway and elevator car doors should only be attempted under the direct advisement of an elevator mechanic or as a last resort during emergency removal procedures

Answer 287

ANSWER: B) Instructing a stuck passenger to exert physical pressure on the elevator door towards the open position is considered a secondary removal procedure. If they succeed in opening the car door, instruct them to depress or lift the roller on sliding hoistway type doors. (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins Emergency 1 p- 3-10) Primary (2 methods) - Checking electrical connections and activating Firemen Service (without turning off elevator power) Secondary - If they succeed in opening the car door, instruct them to LIFT the locking arm on SLIDING hoistway type doors, or to DEPRESS OR LIFT the roller on HINGE type hoistway doors Emergency - Power to the stuck elevator must be off when you use emergency removal procedures Whenever secondary or emergency removal procedures are used, power removal is essential. Dispatch 2 members to the elevator machinery room to shut off power to the stalled car. The machinery room may be located at the top of the shaft, at the bottom of the shaft or two levels above the highest floor serviced by the elevator

Question 288

When using an elevator during fire operations, precautionary stops shall be conducted to ensure the elevator is working properly. Choose the incorrect tactic for precautionary stops. A) Elevator should be stopped every 5 floors to confirm that the elevator will respond to the selected floor. At each stop a new selection must be made B) Before leaving the lobby and at each precautionary stop direct a flashlight up between the elevator car and the hoistway shaft to determine if there is any accumulation of smoke in the in the elevator shaft C) The relationship of the elevator to the stairway should be noted. This can be accomplished by inspecting the "YOU ARE HERE" sign which is required to be posted at each floor near the call button D) Inspecting the "YOU ARE HERE" sign should be done at the last precautionary stop only

Answer 288

ANSWER: D) Inspecting the "YOU ARE HERE" sign should be done at the last precautionary stop only (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins Emergencies 1 sec 6.1.10) * Inspecting the "YOU ARE HERE" sign should be done at the FIRST and LAST precautionary stop

Question 289

The Inflatable Soft Landing Mat is a training safety device to protect members sliding down ropes when training at firehouses. The mat shall be used in a responsible manner and under the supervision of company officers. Select the incorrect use for the Inflatable Soft Landing Mat. A) The mat shall not be used at a remote site B) The landing mat is to be used in rope training operations to a maximum height of two stories C) The landing mat may be positioned at any suitable location around the perimeter of the firehouse, including the sidewalk apron D) If the mat is to be used in front of quarters, the apparatus must be removed and parked in a safe position outside

Answer 289

ANSWER: B) The landing mat is to be used in rope training operations to a maximum height of two stories (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins Rope 1 - Data Sheet 4 sec 3 and 4) * The landing mat is to be used in rope training operations to a maximum height of THREE stories

Question 290

The most correct procedure when cleaning and disinfecting the SCBA regulator can be found in in which choice? A) Remove the breathing regulator from the facepiece by rotating the regulator 1/4 turn counter clockwise B) Once the regulator is removed, depress the manual shut-off, close the purge knob by turning fully counter clockwise. C) After purge knob is closed, spray a minimum of 6 full pumps of 70 percent Isopropyl Alcohol into the regulator opening D) Alcohol and water should be applied to the regulator surface, exhalation port, and directly into the spray bar ports

Answer 290

ANSWER: C) After purge knob is closed, spray a minimum of 6 full pumps of 70 percent Isopropyl Alcohol into the regulator opening (Training Bulletins SCBA add 5) A - CLOCKWISE (regulator from facepiece) B - CLOCKWISE (close purge knob) D - Alcohol and water should only be applied to the regulator surface and exhalation port. Alcohol and water should NOT be directed into the spray bar ports

Question 291

Safety is of the utmost importance when operating at any incident on a highway. Which choice below is not in accordance with Department policy? A) Normally, operating across a center divider shall be avoided. If absolutely necessary to do so, traffic shall be stopped in both directions and safety warning devices set up. B) When encountering a barrier, divider or highway separation of any type (permanent or temporary) the IC shall select an area for access to the incident only after visually identifying the preferred area of crossing and directing a member to use a tool to test the surface on the opposite side of the barrier, divider or highway separation for the presence of a solid and stable surface. C) Once chosen, a safe crossing corridor shall be the only means of access and egress utilized at a particular incident unless otherwise directed by IC. When established, it shall be clearly marked (cones/barrier tape) to identify the designated area. D) When a hazardous separation is observed, the roadway/bridge name, location of separation with approximate size and direction of travel, along with a highway mileage marker designation where applicable, shall be the subject of an immediate letterhead report to the Chief of Safety.

Answer 291

ANSWER: D) When a hazardous separation is observed, the roadway/bridge name, location of separation with approximate size and direction of travel, along with a highway mileage marker designation where applicable, shall be the subject of an immediate letterhead report to the Chief of Safety. (INCORRECT) (TB Fires 8 - 9.1 C) * When a hazardous separation is observed, the roadway/bridge name, location of separation with approximate size and direction of travel, along with a highway mileage marker designation where applicable, shall be the subject of an immediate letterhead report to the Chief of OPERATIONS. Note: If a safe crossing corridor cannot be established, members shall not cross any barrier, divider or highway separation. B Note: Once the presence of a solid and stable surface is verified, this location should be communicated to all members. C Note: In addition, at night or whenever visibility is reduced, members shall use all available means of lighting to illuminate the area.

Question 292

All members should be familiar with the proper use of elevators. Of the following choices, which is correct? A) When it is confirmed that the fire is on the 8th floor or below units should avoid the use of elevators. It is safer to utilize the stairway to reach the fire floor. B) Do not use an elevator in a bank which services the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within seven floors of the fire floor. C) When it is necessary to use an elevator in a bank which serves the fire floor, if Fireman Service is available, use a car with the Fireman Service feature. Select a floor at least two floors below the fire floor or two floors below the lower level of an access stair in the fire area, whichever is lowest. D) Not more than five members are to be permitted in any elevator car. This precaution is required to prevent overloading.

Answer 292

ANSWER: C) When it is necessary to use an elevator in a bank which serves the fire floor, if Fireman Service is available, use a car with the Fireman Service feature. Select a floor at least two floors below the fire floor or two floors below the lower level of an access stair in the fire area, whichever is lowest. (TB Emerg 1 6.1.2, 6.1.3, 6.1.4, 6.1.8) A - When it is confirmed that the fire is on the 7th FLOOR OR BELOW units should avoid the use of elevators. It is safer to utilize the stairway to reach the fire floor. B - Do not use an elevator in a bank which services the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within FIVE FLOORS of the fire floor. D - Not more than SIX members are to be permitted in any elevator car. This precaution is required to prevent overloading.

Question 293

Two Ladder Company members discussing the Pak-Tracker identified which incorrect comment made earlier in the tour? A) The maximum range from an SCBA’s transmitter to a Pak-Tracker handheld receiver is approximately 900 feet line of sight. B) The Pak-Tracker handheld receiver is suitable for use in potentially flammable or explosive atmospheres. C) Pak-Trackers are currently carried by all ladder, rescue and squad companies and shall be brought to the Incident Command Post by the FAST unit, rescue and squad companies. D) When the Pak-Tracker receives a signal from a PASS device that has been in full-alarm for 10 seconds, the receiver will emit a 2-tone audible alarm, and the LCD display will show the SCBA’s identity (unit and member assignment) and relative signal strength.

Answer 293

ANSWER: B) The Pak-Tracker handheld receiver is suitable for use in potentially flammable or explosive atmospheres. (INCORRECT) (TB SCBA Add 8 2.1, 3.1, 4.1, 5.2) * The Pak-Tracker handheld receiver is NOT suitable for use in potentially flammable or explosive atmospheres. C Note: A member of the FAST unit will monitor the Pak-Tracker. The rescue and squad Pak-Tracker’s will remain at the command post as a backup should the FAST unit be deployed.

Question 294

Proper handling of evidence is essential to any investigation involving a suspicious fire. Which choice below is the only correct way to preserve evidence? A) One method is to use a completely air-tight container made from non-odorous materials. This container should be a one (1) gallon metal can such as a new or used paint can. B) If a new can is not available, use a clean glass jar with a tightly fitting lid. C) Try to avoid the use of plastic bags. Vapors may escape through plastic and evidence may be contaminated by the deterioration of the plastic. D) A plastic container can be used in an emergency. As soon as possible, place into a can or jar and submit to the Fire Marshal.

Answer 294

ANSWER: B) If a new can is not available, use a clean glass jar with a tightly fitting lid. (TB Arson 2.3 Note, 3.3, 5.3-5.3.4) A - One method is to use a completely air-tight container made from non-odorous materials. This container should be a one (1) gallon metal can such as a NEW paint can (NEVER use a can that was previously used.) C - Try to avoid the use of plastic CONTAINERS. Vapors may escape through plastic and evidence may be contaminated by the deterioration of the plastic container. D - A plastic BAG can be used in an EMERGENCY. It should be new, of heavy gauge and used in pairs. Place evidence into one bag and tie it closed. Then place that bag into the other and tie it closed. As soon as possible, place into a can or jar and submit to the Fire Marshal.

Question 295

Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding the search rope? A) Inspect the search rope after each use and repack it monthly. B) Distance knots are as follows: A single knot is tied at 25 feet, two knots tied at 50 feet, three knots at 75 feet, four knots at 100 feet, five knots for 125 feet, six knots for 150 feet and the last set of seven knots for 175 feet. C) Ensure the rope is dry before packing. D) If it becomes necessary to relieve a unit at a forward point of the search, the relieving company should enter the area to be searched with their right hand in contact with the rope (if possible). The company being relieved should exit the IDLH with their right hand in contact with the rope (if possible.)

Answer 295

ANSWER: A) Inspect the search rope after each use and repack it monthly. (INCORRECT) (TB Tools Rope 6 sec 3.4, 8.2, 12.1, 12.2) * Repack and inspect QUARTERLY *** Recent Update***

Question 296

All members should know how to place a foam handline into operation. Of the following choices, which is incorrect? A) The proper location for the eductor is one length from the pumper outlet. Ensure a sufficient quantity of AR-AFFF (red band) foam concentrate (five-gallon containers) is at the location of the operating pumper. B) For 1 ¾" hose, the maximum stretch is six (6) lengths to the nozzle. For 2 ½” hose, the maximum stretch is ten (10) lengths to the nozzle. C) The ECC should provide 200 PSI at the eductor. D) When operating uphill, head pressure is created and will have minimal effect on foam production; however, this could cause the needle on the go-gauge to approach the red.

Answer 296

ANSWER: A) The proper location for the eductor is one length from the pumper outlet. Ensure a sufficient quantity of AR-AFFF (red band) foam concentrate (five-gallon containers) is at the location of the operating pumper. (INCORRECT) (TB Foam Evol 1 2.2 - 2.4) * The proper location for the eductor is AT THE PUMPER OUTLET ONLY. Ensure a sufficient quantity of AR-AFFF (red band) foam concentrate (five-gallon containers) is at the location of the operating pumper.

Question 297

Officers should know how to instruct members in the proper use of the power saw as well as maintenance of this tool and associated blades. Which of the following choices is incorrect? A) Place Carbide Tip Blades out of service when six (6) or more tips are broken or missing from the 24-tooth blade or two (2) or more tips are broken or missing from the 12-tooth blade, when the blade is cracked, or if the center hole wears out of round. B) Discontinue use and discard abrasive discs whenever they are cracked or badly nicked, the center hole wears out of round, or the disc is worn down to 8” diameter or less. C) To begin a cut using the Diamond Blade, bring the blade into contact with the material to be cut, then run the engine at a speed such that the material to be cut does not get caught in the spacing at the outer edge of the blade and cause the blade to bounce or bind. The speed is gradually increased as the blade cuts into the material. D) If the Diamond Blade becomes glazed over and cuts ineffectively, it can be cleaned by running the blade through an abrasive material such as concrete. This will expose more diamonds on the blade’s edge.

Answer 297

ANSWER: A) Place Carbide Tip Blades out of service when six (6) or more tips are broken or missing from the 24-tooth blade or two (2) or more tips are broken or missing from the 12-tooth blade, when the blade is cracked, or if the center hole wears out of round. (INCORRECT) (TB Tools 9 Add 1 2.1.3, 2.2.6, 2.3.16, 2.3.17) * Place Carbide Tip Blades out of service when EIGHT (8) or more tips are broken or missing from the 24-tooth blade or THREE (3) or more tips are broken or missing from the 12-tooth blade, when the blade is cracked, or if the center hole wears out of round. C Note: Then work at full throttle and allow the blade to cut the material. Do not apply excessive pressure as doing so may damage the blade.

Question 298

The Digital In-line Gauge is a valuable tool for Engine Companies. Which of the following features is incorrect? A) The Blue LED readout displays pressure in pounds per square inch (psi) and the Red LED readout displays water flow in gallons per minute (gpm). B) The gauge is not to be pre-connected to a folded length of hose. It is powered by a rechargeable lithium ion 9 volt battery to provide optimal power and longevity for 5 hours of operation. C) An effective firefighting stream for a 2 ½" hoseline with a 1 1/8" MST is between 225 and 250 gallons per minute (GPM). Therefore, the goal is to obtain a residual pressure (nozzle open, water flowing) of approximately 70 PSI for a 3 length stretch or 80 PSI for a 4 length stretch, with a flow of 225-250 GPM. D) Suspect kinks if the pressure reading is normal or higher and the flow is reduced below normal. Suspect a burst length if the pressure reading is normal or lower and the flow is increased above normal.

Answer 298

ANSWER: A) The Blue LED readout displays pressure in pounds per square inch (psi) and the Red LED readout displays water flow in gallons per minute (gpm). (INCORRECT) (TB Tools 36 2.1, 3.1 A, E, F) * The RED LED readout displays pressure in pounds per square inch (psi) and the BLUE LED readout displays water flow in gallons per minute (gpm).

Question 299

Thermal imaging cameras (TIC) shall be carried and used at all structural fire operations by all units equipped with this tool. Of the following choices, which is incorrect? A) Operators shall utilize the supplied carabineer and retractor and ensure that when attached, the TIC is accessible and does not interfere with their Personal Protective Equipment. B) Operators of TICs should remember to stay low and scan slowly, if necessary, utilizing a six (6) sided method of scanning to compensate for the narrow, approximately 50 degree field of view of the TIC. C) Thermal imaging does not see through clear glass or plastic; these materials may act as a mirror to IR. Likewise, shiny surfaces will reflect IR creating a mirror effect with the actual source of the image opposite the reflected surface. Thermal imaging will not see through water. D) The focal point of a TIC is approximately 6 feet from the camera lens. Operators viewing objects within 6 feet may be too close and objects within 6 feet may be blurry, out of focus or featureless. To help prevent this, operators should scan an area before entering or advancing.

Answer 299

ANSWER: D) The focal point of a TIC is approximately 6 feet from the camera lens. Operators viewing objects within 6 feet may be too close and objects within 6 feet may be blurry, out of focus or featureless. To help prevent this, operators should scan an area before entering or advancing. (INCORRECT) (TB Tools 27 3, 3.3, 4.1-4.5) * The focal point of a TIC is approximately 3 FEET from the camera lens. Operators viewing objects within 3 FEET may be too close and objects within 3 FEET may be blurry, out of focus or featureless. To help prevent this, operators should scan an area before entering or advancing. B Note: Note: Begin by looking straight up overhead at the ceiling (1), slowly lower the TIC to find the seam of the ceiling and the wall in front of you (2). Then follow the seam around left (3) and right (4) or right and left to estimate the size of the room eventually lowering the thermal imager scanning the floor area (5) and remembering to look to the rear (6).

Question 300

As a Company Commander, it is your responsibility to remind your FFs on the policys and tactics of the tools that are carried on the apparatus. Choose the incorrect policy/tactic on the Maxi Force Air Bags. A) Always have the bag connected prior to placing it under or between a load to minimize the operators's exposure to the load area and to eliminate the possibility of the operator placing the bag with the air inlet under the load B) When the high pressure gauge falls below 200 psi, change the cylinder C) Set the low pressure gauge to 135 psi D) Fiberglass or Kevlar SCBA cylinders are to be used to operate the air bags

Answer 300

ANSWER: D) Fiberglass or Kevlar SCBA cylinders are to be used to operate the air bags. (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins Tools 20 - 2.5.1) * STEEL SCBA cylinders are used to operate the air bags .

Question 301

During Roll Call, one of your firefighters shows you the apparatus security decal is damaged. At this point, you perform several procedures. Choose the incorrect procedure A) Immediately call dispatcher, BC, DC and go OOS until a new apparatus security decal is brought to you from Fleet Services B) All remnants of the damaged apparatus security decal shall be recovered and preserved then forwarded to BFI C) Immediately notify Fleet Services and take a mark in Company Journal D) Forward a Letterhead report documenting particulars via chain of command to Assistant Commissioner of Fleet Services/Technical Services

Answer 301

ANSWER: A) Immediately call dispatcher, BC, DC and go OOS until a new apparatus security decal is brought to you from Fleet Services (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletins Apparatus C-2 add 2) * Remain IN SERVICE while awaiting a replacement decal from Fleet Services * These security decals were previously located on the windshield. NOW LOCATED AFFIXED ADJACENT TO THE DRIVER'S SIDE DOOR IN AN AREA WHERE IT WILL BE NOTICED WHEN APPROACHING THE DRIVER......THIS IS THE CHANGE!!!!

Question 302

Personal harnesses have been issued to all members below the the rank of Deputy Chief. Choose the most correct statement made in regards to Personal Harnesses. A) When a FFs Personal Harness has been placed OOS, and is on duty, the member will no longer respond with apparatus B) Company Commanders must record the ID number of the harness with the name of the member to whom it is issued in the Office Record Journal C) Company Commanders must inscribe the FFs name with an indelible marker on the inside of the harness belly strap D) Upon retirement or termination of service, Company Commanders shall ensure FFs return their Personal Harness to Tech Services

Answer 302

ANSWER: B) Company Commanders must record the ID number of the harness with the name of the member to whom it is issued in the Office Record Journal. (Training Bulletins Rope 3) A - When a member's Personal Harness has been placed OOS and he/she is on duty, the member will continue to respond. However, that member shall not be counted towards that unit's staffing (L100 is responding with 4 FFs).....sec 6.9 C - The member is responsible for inscribing his or her name name with an indelible marker on the inside of the harness belly strap...sec 7.2.1 D - Upon retirement or termination of service of any member, the harness must be returned to the Research and Development Unit

Question 303

As a Company Commander of a Ladder Company that carries a Window Blanket, you would know all of the following to be correct except? A) Upon completion of operations where a Fire Window Blanket has been deployed, the Company Commander is responsible to prepare a brief letterhead report to Chief of Operations detailing the use of the device and a description of any damage that may have occurred from the deployment of the device at the incident. B) When a replacement Fire Window Blanket is required, the company officer shall contact the R and D unit during normal business hours to request a replacement. During non-business hours, the company officer should contact SOC at Roosevelt Island C) Fire Window Blanket shall be inspected weekly D) Under no circumstances is the fire Window Blanket to be deployed for drill purposes

Answer 303

ANSWER: A) Upon completion of operations where a Fire Window Blanket has been deployed, the Company Commander is responsible to prepare a brief letterhead report to Chief of Operations detailing the use of the device and a description of any damage that may have occurred from the deployment of the device at the incident. (INCORRECT) Training Bulletins Tools 3 * The COMPANY OFFICER WORKING shall prepare the letterhead.

Question 304

Company Commanders must be proficient in the use and maintenance of all tools on the apparatus. Choose the incorrect procedure for the associated tool below. A) Anytime the MET-L-X and LITH-X extinguishers have been used at an incident or a defect is discovered during an inspection, the officer shall attach a RT-2 to the extinguisher and forward it to Tech Services for replacement. Field units shall not refill expended extinguishers. B) During Multi Unit Drill, Positive Pressure Fans shall be started and allowed to run at full RPMs for 5 minutes C) When glow sticks are needed, officers shall requisition in packs of 5 from Tech Services by submitting form 23-BS-2 D) For an OOS Thermal Imaging Camera (TIC), officers shall forward OOS TIC to the Tool Room via Division messenger

Answer 304

ANSWER: A) Anytime the MET-L-X and LITH-X extinguishers have been used at an incident or a defect is discovered during an inspection, the officer shall attach a RT-2 to the extinguisher and forward it to Tech Services for replacement. Field units shall not refill expended extinguishers. (INCORRECT) (TB TOOLS 34 - 7.3) A - Forward to HAZMAT Operations....TB Tools 34 sec 7.3 B - Replacement, call Tech Services.....TB Tools 32 sec 4.2 C - TB Tools 30 sec 4.1 D - TB Tools 27 sec 5.5.3......this is a change as of 4/2019...used to be a one for one swap........Also, All Divisions have been issued spare TICs to exchange when the Tool Room is unavailable to provide a loaner TIC

Question 305

You just received the inflatable soft landing mat to be used for rope training operations in quarters. Before its use, you posted the following instructions for your members. You were incorrect in which choice? A) The landing mat is to be used in rope training operations to a maximum height of 3 stories B) The landing mat shall never be used at a remote site C) If the landing mat is to be used in front of quarters, the apparatus must be removed and parked in a safe position outside D) Should a response be required during the training period, disconnect the blower motor and bring inside. The landing mat can be kept outside during response

Answer 305

ANSWER: D) Should a response be required during the training period, disconnect the blower motor and bring inside. The landing mat can be kept outside during response. (INCORRECT) (Rope 1 data sheet 4) * Pull landing mat INSIDE

Question 306

During Annual House Inspection, Deputy Chief Lampshade asks you to describe the procedure for putting a Life Saving Rope OOS. You were incorrect in which choice? A) Notify the administrative Battalion by telephone and fax and have it immediately replaced. B) An RT-2 shall be prepared and include the unit number, date, and reason C) A mark shall be taken in the Company Journal, Office Record Journal, and on the RP-100 D) An SCF-2 (OOS Life Safety Equipment Report) shall be completed and forwarded via chain of command to the Chief of Safety

Answer 306

ANSWER: A) Notify the administrative Battalion by telephone and fax and have it immediately replaced. (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletin Rope 1 sec 5) * Notify the administrative DIVISION by telephone and fax and have it immediately replaced * If a new LSR is issued, a mark shall be taken in Company Journal, Office Record Journal, and on NEW RP-100. The OOS LSR RP-100 shall be filed in the UFS

Question 307

You are on scene of a gas tank truck accident with a fire. The BC is coming from the other end of the district, which makes you the IC, until the BC arrives. As the incident unfolds, you are trying to remember foam operations. Which is the incorrect foam operation. A) The amount of concentrate available on a first alarm assignment is 13 five gallon containers, which would last approximately 17 minutes at a 3 % setting when using one handline B) If the spill is contained or not flowing, one method is to direct the foam stream skyward in a slow back and forth motion, allowing the foam to fall as gently as possible over the surface C) If the product is on fire when it entered the sewer system and there is no exposure problems, it may be beneficial to let the product burn off D) For a Tank truck accident with a fire, it is extremely important to get a handline operating onto the vapor area of the tank quickly

Answer 307

ANSWER: D) For a Tank truck accident with a fire, it is extremely important to get a handline operating onto the vapor area of the tank quickly (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletin Foam 8.7) * For a Tank truck accident with a fire, it is extremely important to get a LARGE CALIBER STREAM operating onto the vapor area of the tank quickly.

Question 308

The topic of today's company drill is the Pak Tracker. You made several critical points while conducting the drill. You were incorrect in which point regarding the Pak Tracker. A) When the Pak Tracker receives a signal from a PASS device that has been in full alarm for 10 seconds, the receiver will emit a 2 tone audible alarm, and the LCD display will show the SCBA's identity (unit and member assignment) and relative strength B) Pak Tracker receiver can only lock onto one SCBA at a time C) There will be a total of 3 Pak Trackers at the Command Post when a full first alarm assignment is on scene D) Use the Pak tracker in a sweeping motion; vertical direction first

Answer 308

ANSWER: D) Use the Pak tracker in a sweeping motion; vertical direction first. (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletin SCBA add 8) * Horizontal direction first. Sweep vertically if the signal may be coming from a higher or lower floor in the building. C - In addition to the FAST Unit, Rescue and Squad companies shall bring their Pak Trackers to the ICP for a total of 3.

Question 309

Due to a past snow storm where several FDNY vehicles were stuck in the snow, all companies have been issued a Vehicle Recovery Strap to assist in time of need. Choose the most correct statement in regards to the Vehicle Recovery Strap. A) Vehicle Recovery Strap can be used on Ambulances, Battalion vehicles, Engines, but not Ladder apparatus B) Vehicle Recovery Strap shall be used for towing vehicles within the weight limitations C) If the stuck vehicle is an ambulance with a patient, ensure the patient is properly secured prior to Vehicle Recovery Strap use D) Vehicle Recovery Straps shall never be attached to the front or rear bumper

Answer 309

ANSWER: D) Vehicle Recovery Straps shall never be attached to the front or rear bumper. (Training Bulletins app C2 add 3) * Recovery from the front eye hook is the preferred method for vehicle recovery. NOT THE BUMPERS. A - Engine and Ladder apparatus exceed the weight limitation.. B - Vehicle Recovery Strap shall NOT be used for towing or lifting. C - If the stuck vehicle is an ambulance with a patient, the patient shall be OFFLOADED to a secondary ambulance prior to Vehicle recovery Strap use.

Question 310

As a Captain of an Engine Company carrying the High Rise Nozzle, you would know all of the following to be correct except? A) Putting the High Rise Nozzle into operation will require the services of two engine companies equipped with roll-ups, standpipe kits, forcible entry tools including a rabbit tool and the High Rise Nozzle B) Depending on the situation, the 2 1/2" hoseline supplying the High Rise Nozzle may have to be stretched from 3 floors below the fire C) The High Rise Nozzle will only be placed into operation at the direction of the IC D) It is the responsibility of the 4th due Engine Company to bring the High Rise Nozzle to the Command Post

Answer 310

ANSWER: D) It is the responsibility of the 4th due Engine Company to bring the High Rise Nozzle to the Command Post (INCORRECT) (Training Bulletin Tools 7 DS 17) * 5th arriving Engine Company......If this 5th engine is not equipped with a High Rise Nozzle, the officer shall contact the dispatcher for the identity of the Engine Company equipped with a High Rise Nozzle assigned on the box. Upon arrival the officer will have the unit bring the High Rise Nozzle, one length of 2 1/2" hose per FF and standpipe kit with controlling nozzle and report in to the IC at lobby Command Post.

Question 311

A Captain conducting a drill regarding “Human Performance on the Fireground” was correct to state that optimal performance is achieved when a member’s emotional arousal is? A) Low B) Moderate C) High D) Extreme

Answer 311

ANSWER: B) Moderate | TB Human Performance

Question 312

A Company Officer drilling on use of the Portable Partner Saw with a Carbide Tip Blade would be most correct to state that? A) To begin a cut, run the engine at low rpm’s when first contacting the material to be cut B) Carbide Tip Blades may be used on gravel and tar covered roofs, wood flooring, light sheet metal and metal security doors C) A carbide tip blade should be placed out of service if there are 2 or more tips broken on a 12-tooth blade D) Using a slight back and forth motion while cutting will widen a cut and help prevent binding of the carbide tip blade

Answer 312

ANSWER: D) Using a slight back and forth motion while cutting will widen a cut and help prevent binding of the carbide tip blade (TB Tools 9—App 1—2.1.1, 2.1.2, 2.1.3) A - Bring the blade to FULL RPM before contacting the surface with the blade. B - Can be used on gravel, tar, wood, light sheet metal (NOT METAL SECURITY DOORS) C - 12 tooth blade OOS (THREE or more tips broken) / 24 tooth blade OOS (EIGHT or more tips broken)

Question 313

Engine 92 is operating at a 3rd alarm in an H-Type MD where the IC has ordered them to use the cockloft nozzle to stop the raging cockloft fire. In this situation, they would be correct to think that when using the cockloft nozzle? A) The two ½” Outer Stream Tips increase the reach of the stream over 60 feet B) The cockloft nozzle flows 180 gpm at normal pressure C) The configuration of the two ½” outer stream tips reduces back pressure D) The cockloft nozzle should be supplied with 80 psi at the nozzle

Answer 313

ANSWER: A) The two ½” Outer Stream Tips increase the reach of the stream over 60 feet (TB Tools 7 - Cockloft Nozzle) B - Discharge is approximately 125 GAL. C - OST INCREASE THE REACH OF THE STREAM (Cross reference - When using cockloft nozzle on EIFS, OSTs are removed) D - Cockloft nozzle is supplied by 1 3/4" line so should be supplied with same PSI. (Cross reference - EIFS supply with 2 1/2") * 1 3/4" at 50 psi will flow approximately 180 GPM

Question 314

Engine 305 and Ladder 151 arrive at the scene of a car fire at 0300 hours on the Grand Central Parkway and are setting up cones and flares to protect members on scene. Due to the light traffic conditions, they expect cars passing by to reach speeds of 70 mph. In this situation, they would be most correct to place the furthest flare? A) 490 feet away, at the edge of the roadway B) 490 feet away, 2 feet from the edge of the roadway C) 550 feet away, at the edge of the roadway D) 550 feet away, 2 feet from the edge of the roadway

Answer 314

ANSWER: D) 550 feet away, 2 feet from the edge of the roadway (TB Fires 8—Page 6) * Furthest flare placed TWO FEET from edge of roadway * Fastest speed expected (70) x 1st digit (7) + 60 * 70 x 7 = 490 * 490 + 60 = 550

Question 315

A Company Officer arriving at the scene of a High Rise Office Building fire would be correct to believe that which of the following systems will automatically recall fireman service elevators? 1. Activation of an HVAC detector 2. Activation of an elevator landing smoke detector 3. Water flow from a sprinkler system A) 1, 2 B) 1, 3 C) 2, 3 D) 1, 2, 3

Answer 315

ANSWER: C) 2, 3 (TB Elevators Page 17—5.3.1B) * HVAC detector WILL NOT recall elevators

Question 316

The Officer of a FAST Unit that has just arrived at a 10-75 for a fire on the 2nd floor of a 6-story H-Type building. Regarding the use of the Pak-Tracker, he would be incorrect to think that? A) One member from the FAST unit, other than the member monitoring EFAS, shall monitor the Pak-Tracker in the monitoring mode, near the FAST Unit’s assigned position B) When the Pak-Tracker receives an alarm, the FAST member monitoring the Pak-Tracker shall immediately notify their Company Officer with the member’s unit and assignment C) A FAST Unit officer notified of a Pak-Tracker alarm by the FAST Unit FF monitoring the Pak-Tracker, shall notify the IC of the activation D) The IC who is notified of an activation, shall attempt to contact the member to determine whether the signal is for an emergency or an inadvertent activation

Answer 316

ANSWER: D) The IC who is notified of an activation, shall attempt to contact the member to determine whether the signal is for an emergency or an inadvertent activation. (INCORRECT) (SCBA—Add 8—4.2, 4.3) * The FAST UNIT OFFICER shall notify the IC of the activation, and attempt to contact the member to determine whether the signal is for an emergency or an inadvertent activation. * If the PASS activation is for a life-threatening emergency or if no contact can be established, the FAST UNIT OFFICER shall immediately notify the IC with a “mayday” transmission”

Question 317

The Heads-Up Display on the Scott 4.5 Positive Pressure SCBA will provide which type of warning to indicate that a member has only one-quarter cylinder remaining? A) A yellow light at the far left flashing ten times a second B) A red light at the far left flashing ten times a second C) A red light at the far right flashing once a second D) A red light at the far right flashing ten times a second

Answer 317

ANSWER: D) A red light at the far right flashing ten times a second. (TB SCBA - Pg 13) 1. FULL cylinder - indicated by the two green lights glowing near the center of the display. 2. THREE-QUARTERS cylinder - indicated by a single green light glowing. 3. ONE-HALF cylinder - indicated by the yellow light flashing slowly at ONCE A SECOND. 4. ONE-QUARTER cylinder - EOSTI indicated by the red light at the FAR LEFT flashing rapidly at TEN TIMES A SECOND. When this warning light is flashing rapidly, the member must notify their officer and immediately leave the contaminated area. This member must be accompanied to a safe area by another member using a SCBA.

Question 318

Members of Ladder 126 are operating at a downed tree emergency where they are utilizing a chain saw. In this situation, they would be correct to know that? A) A circle of danger of at least a 20 feet radius should be established before the commencement of cutting. B) The saw operator, control person and Officer will be the only personnel allowed in the circle of danger. C) Hand signals must be established between the operator, control person and Officer. D) The control member may only remove cutting debris while the operator is cutting if the Officer deems it appropriate.

Answer 318

ANSWER: C) Hand signals must be established between the operator, control person and Officer. (TB Tools 24—4.4) A - Circle of Danger at least TEN FEET B - Saw Operator and Control person ONLY (Officer monitors conditions) D - Control person MAY NOT remove debris while the operator is cutting.

Question 319

Engine 289 arrives at the scene of a fire in the oil burner room of a multiple dwelling where the IC directs them to stretch a foam handline to the cellar using the 125 gpm eductor. In this situation, if the stretch were 8 lengths, they would be most correct to? A) Stretch a combination of 2 lengths of 2 ½” hose and 6 lengths of 1 ¾” hose B) Place the eductor inline, no more than two lengths away from the pumper outlet. C) Insure the go-gauge needle is in the red position while operating D) Operate the tip in the extended position if they want to insure an aerated foam blanket is produced

Answer 319

ANSWER: D) Operate the tip in the extended position if they want to insure an aerated foam blanket is produced (TB Foam—Add 3--2.1) A - Either 1 3/4" OR 2 1/2" (They SHOULD NOT be combined) B - Eductor directly ONTO PUMPER OUTLET C - Go gauge in GREEN

Question 320

A Company Officer drilling on the Beluga Glass Cutting Knife with members was incorrect when he stated that? A) All 2018 and newer automobiles and trucks are required to have laminated safety glass installed throughout their vehicle B) The Beluga Glass Cutting Knife can be used on automobile windshields and residential hurricane windows. It should not be used on commercial hurricane windows C) The Beluga cutting head can swivel 360 degrees D) Depending on the drill speed you select, the Beluga can cut about as fast as you can push it Feedback

Answer 320

ANSWER: B) The Beluga Glass Cutting Knife can be used on automobile windshields and residential hurricane windows. It should not be used on commercial hurricane windows (INCORRECT) (TB Tools 39—2.1, 2.3, 3.5, 3.9) * The Beluga Glass Cutting Knife is designed to cut Laminated Safety Glass found in automobile windshields, hurricane windows AND BOTH COMMERCIAL AND RESIDENTIAL CONSTRUCTION GLASS.

Question 321

Units are operating on the Belt Parkway in Queens for a motor vehicle accident with injuries. The posted speed limit is 50 mph but due to traffic, the highest speed expected is 40 mph. At this accident the members would be correct to? A) Use at least 2 to 4 flares and/or cones to build a lane closure. B) Place the furthest flare or cone about 2 feet from the edge of the roadway. C) Place the furthest flare at least 160 feet from the incident. D) After the first flare or cone is placed, place the next flare about 5 feet further into the roadway at each point.

Answer 321

ANSWER: B) Place the furthest flare or cone about 2 feet from the edge of the roadway. (TB Fires 8 8.1E) A - At least 4 to 6 flares C - 220 feet (40x4 +60) D - Place next flare about 2 feet further into the roadway at each point.

Question 322

A unit drilling on hybrid vehicles was incorrect in which statement made? A) Hybrid vehicles may appear as if they are shut down but may actually be in “Ready Mode”. Never assume the vehicle is off simply because it is silent. B) Never cut any high voltage cables. Most are colored orange, but some are colored red. C) Make sure the ignition is OFF and the key or key fob is at least 15 feet away from the vehicle. D) Always make sure that the high voltage battery case is cooled down to prevent re-ignition.

Answer 322

ANSWER: B) Never cut any high voltage cables. Most are colored orange, but some are colored red. (INCORRECT) (TB Fires 8 11.6C) * Most are Orange, but some are colored BLUE

Question 323

Normally, operating across a highway center divider shall be avoided. If absolutely necessary to do so, all but which one of the following shall be adhered to? A) Traffic must be stopped in the direction of the fire/emergency. The IC will determine if traffic is to be stopped on the opposite side. B) The IC shall select an area for access to the incident. This shall be the only means of access and egress utilized unless otherwise directed by the IC. C) The safe crossing area shall be clearly marked to identify the designated area. D) If a safe crossing corridor cannot be established, members shall not cross any barrier, divider or highway separation.

Answer 323

ANSWER: A) Traffic must be stopped in the direction of the fire/emergency. The IC will determine if traffic is to be stopped on the opposite side. (INCORRECT) (TB Fires 8 9.1) * Traffic must be stopped in BOTH directions and safety devices set up. Also, at night or whenever visibility is reduced, members shall use all available means of lighting to illuminate the area.

Question 324

When a hazardous highway separation is observed, the roadway/bridge name, location of separation with approximate size and direction of travel, along with a highway mileage designation where applicable, shall be the subject of an immediate letterhead report to? A) FDOC B) BISP Unit C) Chief of Safety D) Chief of Operations

Answer 324

ANSWER: D) Chief of Operations (TB Fires 8 9.1C) * Must be endorsed by the Battalion, Division and Borough levels

Question 325

Ladder 99 is special called for use of their EZ Don Harness at an incident where there is a victim who fell into a narrow, confined space. In this situation, they would be correct to know that? A) The work load of the EZ Don Harness is 600 pounds B) The webbing (black straps) should face towards the victim’s body C) A closed fist should be able to be placed between the victim’s chest and the tri-link connector D) The Dorsal Connection point (D-Ring) may only be used for non-technical rescues

Answer 325

ANSWER: C) A closed fist should be able to be placed between the victim’s chest and the tri-link connector (Rope 9—1.5, 3.2, 3.7, 4.5) A - FOUR HUNDRED (400) LBS B - Black straps face AWAY from the body D - The dorsal connection point (D-Ring) is for use during TECHNICAL RESCUE OPERATIONS ONLY and should only be used by qualified advanced technical rescue personnel

Question 326

The officer of Ladder 33 has just returned to quarters from a fire where their Life Saving Rope was used only by the Roof FF, who was lowered to a window where he calmed civilians that were threatening to jump. The civilians were later rescued from the interior by the Ladder’s inside team. In this situation, the ladder officer should know that? A) The LSR must be placed out of service and a SCF-2 forwarded through the chain of command to the Chief of Safety B) The LSR should be carefully examined for any signs of damage or abrasion before being placed back in service. The Officer should notify the Safety Command by telephone of the incident. C) The LSR must be placed out of service and the Officer should notify the Safety Command by telephone of the incident D) The LSR should be carefully examined for any signs of damage or abrasion before being placed back in service and an SCF-2 forwarded through the chain of command to the Chief of Safety to inform Safety that the LSR was examined and is back in service

Answer 326

ANSWER: B) The LSR should be carefully examined for any signs of damage or abrasion before being placed back in service. The Officer should notify the Safety Command by telephone of the incident. (TB—Rope 1—4.3, 5.3)

Question 327

Air Purifying Respirators (APR) are issued to field units so that members can operate at incidents for extended periods of time. In which one of the following non-fire related situations would the use of APR’s be most appropriate? A) Carbon monoxide incident where oxygen readings are 21% B) Confined space incident where oxygen levels are 22% C) Asbestos incident where oxygen levels are 23% D) Radiological incident where oxygen levels are 24%

Answer 327

ANSWER: C) Asbestos incident where oxygen levels are 23% (TB—SCBA Add 2—Pg 2) * Asbestos incidents with no fire - you should anticipate APR use A - Shall not be used when air hazard is CO B - NOT to be used in either confined spaces or permit-required confined spaces D - Not to be used when air is oxygen deficient (contains less than 19.5% oxygen) or when air is oxygen enriched (above 23% oxygen)

Question 328

A Company Officer conducting drill on the Search Rope was correct to state that? A) The 1” end of the cone shape marker clearly identifies the direction OUT of the IDLH B) Voice contact, without use of the HT, shall be maintained with all search team members C) The distance between each set of directional / distance markers is 20 feet D) The search rope shall be repacked and inspected monthly

Answer 328

ANSWER: B) Voice contact, without use of the HT, shall be maintained with all search team members (TB Rope 6—3.2, 3.3, 5.7) A - The narrow ½” end of the cone clearly identifies the direction of egress OUT of the IDLH C - TWENTY FIVE FEET D - Inspect after use and inspect and repack QUARTERLY

Question 329

A Lieutenant is operating at a fire where there is a combustible metal that is burning. In this situation, the officer would be most correct to think? A) The most effective way to extinguish a combustible metal fire is with a Class “K” extinguisher B) Lith-X extinguishers are superior to the MET-L-X extinguishers on a very hot burning metal fire. C) Lith-X extinguishers are superior to the MET-L-X extinguisher at adhering to hot vertical surfaces D) The optimum distance to start extinguishment with a MET-L-X or LITH-X extinguisher is approximately 15 feet from the burning material.

Answer 329

ANSWER: B) Lith-X extinguishers are superior to the MET-L-X extinguishers on a very hot burning metal fire. (TB Tools 34—1.2, 3.3, 4) * Very hot burning metal fire such as lithium. A - Class "D" extinguisher because it absorbs heat and smothers the flames cutting off oxygen. C - MET-L-X are superior to Lith-X at adhering to hot vertical surfaces. D - TEN FEET

Question 330

Lieutenant Infrared is operating at a fire using the Evolution 6000 Thermal Imaging Camera. He would be correct to know that there will be an indication that the TIC is in the High Heat (Low Sensitivity) mode when he sees a? A) Blue L in the lower left corner B) Green Triangle inside a Green Square in the upper left corner C) Red thermometer in a red triangle in the upper center D) Red L in a Red Circle in the upper right corner

Answer 330

ANSWER: B) Green Triangle inside a Green Square in the upper left corner (TB Tools 27 Data Sheet 1—3.1) C - Internal Electronics Overheat Indicator (Informs the operator when the internal operating systems electronics approach maximum recommended operating temperature limits. Green Square in Center - Temperature measurement zone

Question 331

You are a Company Officer that has just deployed your unit’s KO Curtain at a 10-77 fire in a HRFPMD. After the incident is over, in order to obtain a replacement KO Curtain, you must contact the? A) Administrative Battalion B) Administrative Division C) Research and Development Unit D) Fire Tools and Equipment Unit

Answer 331

ANSWER: B) Administrative Division | TB Tools 2—6.3

Question 332

Ladder 99 arrives alone at the scene of a small flammable liquid spill fire and grabs their Purple K Dry Chemical Extinguisher to extinguish the fire. In this situation, they would be most correct when approaching the fire to? A) Hold the nozzle at a 60-degree angle B) Start extinguishment at a point approximately 6 to 8 feet from the front edge of the fire area C) Initially direct the stream 6 inches ahead of the flame edge D) Direct the dry chemical stream at the fire using a slow side to side sweeping motion

Answer 332

ANSWER: C) Initially direct the stream 6 inches ahead of the flame edge (TB Purple K—4.1) A - 45 degree angle B - 10 to 12 feet from the front edge of the fire D - RAPID side to side sweeping motion

Question 333

Captain Wright is working in Engine 500. They respond 5th due to a confirmed fire on the 14th floor of HRFPMD. On arrival, Engine 500 is ordered to report to the floor below the fire with the high-rise nozzle (HRN). The fire has control of several rooms, and Captain Wright anticipates that it will be necessary to move the high rise nozzle from one room to another to achieve knockdown of the fire. He has the following thoughts. Which one is correct? A) Start with the window downwind of the original fire room and extinguish fire in this room first. Then move to the window that the wind is blowing into and complete knockdown of the fire. B) A shutoff will be placed in line one length back from the nozzle. When repositioning of the HRN is required, the supply line should be shut down at this shutoff. C) Once in position, the company officer will order the nozzle back into operation. D) The IC will initiate and maintain handie-talkie contact with the spotter to make sure the nozzle is being operated effectively and the stream is knocking down the fire.

Answer 333

ANSWER: B) A shutoff will be placed in line one length back from the nozzle. When repositioning of the HRN is required, the supply line should be shut down at this shutoff. (Tools 7, Data Sheet 17 5.11, 5.12, 5.14) (Moved to Engine Operations Bulletin) A - Start with the window that the WIND IS BLOWING INTO and extinguish the fire in this room FIRST. Then move to the other windows downwind of the original fire room and complete knockdown of the fire. C - INCIDENT COMMANDER D - The OFFICER SUPERVISING the HRN will maintain HT communication with the spotter. (The IC ensures the spotter is in place)

Question 334

Units are operating at an advanced fire in the cockloft of a large H-Type Multiple Dwelling. The Captain of Engine 100 is ordered to report to the top floor with the cockloft nozzle. Which one point below is incorrect regarding this operation? A) The cockloft nozzle is carried by all Squad and Division vehicles. B) A hole approximately 4’x4’ is needed in the ceiling in order for the cockloft to fit. The clearing between the top of the ceiling joists and the bottom of the roof joists must be a minimum of 3” to enable the operation of the cockloft nozzle. C) Prior to using a cockloft nozzle in a NFP Multiple Dwelling, consideration shall be given to cutting a vent hole over the main body of fire. D) When using the cockloft nozzle in a NFP Multiple Dwelling, the preferred location for operation is immediately inside the apartment door.

Answer 334

ANSWER: B) A hole approximately 4’x4’ is needed in the ceiling in order for the cockloft to fit. The clearing between the top of the ceiling joists and the bottom of the roof joists must be a minimum of 3” to enable the operation of the cockloft nozzle. (INCORRECT) (Tools 7, Data Sheet 18 2.2, 3.2, 3.3, 3.4) (Moved to Engine Operations) * The hole should initially be limited in size, but large enough for the cockloft nozzle to fit into. Additional holes may need to be made to use the nozzle at different locations. * RECENT CHANGE (this used to say a dimension)

Question 335

The combination nozzle system provides the advantage of two different nozzles, both of which can be attached to the base pipe. Which one additional comment below is incorrect? A) The original one piece cockloft nozzle has not been removed from engine companies equipped with the combination nozzle. B) The combination nozzle system kit is mounted above the portable ladder rack on selected engines. C) Engine companies not trained in the use if the combination nozzle system should continue to use the conventional high rise nozzle or cockloft nozzle as required. D) When using the cockloft nozzle tip the two 1/2” OSTs are not to be removed; these tips increase the reach of the stream in excess of 60 feet.

Answer 335

ANSWER: A) The original one piece cockloft nozzle has not been removed from engine companies equipped with the combination nozzle. (INCORRECT) (Tools 7 Data Sheet 19 1.4, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1) (Moved to Engine Ops) * The original HRN has not been removed from Engine companies equipped with the combination nozzle.

Question 336

The combination metal/concrete diamond blade is a new blade that Ladder companies have received to replace abrasive discs. The Captain of Ladder 250 is discussing some of the features of this new blade with his members, but was only correct in which one statement below? A) If the blade begins to heat up and glow red during use, discontinue using it, and the blade must be placed out of service. B) If the blade becomes glazed over and cuts ineffectively, it must be placed out of service. C) The blade is bi-directional. It will cut effectively when used in either direction. Disregard any directional arrows on earlier versions of the blade. D) The blade may be used for dry cutting only and cannot be used to cut wood.

Answer 336

ANSWER: C) The blade is bi-directional. It will cut effectively when used in either direction. Disregard any directional arrows on earlier versions of the blade. (Tools 9 Appendix 1 2.3.6, 2.3.8, 2.3.13, 2.3.15, 2.3.16) A - Discontinue using that blade UNTIL IT HAS COOLED DOWN. B - If this occurs, it CAN be cleaned by running it through an abrasive material such as concrete. D - It CAN cut wood but is NOT RECOMMENDED

Question 337

The new Thermal Imaging Camera bulletin was recently reissued. The bulletin is intended to explain the basic theory and application of thermal imaging cameras. All of the following points concerning thermal imaging cameras are correct except which one? A) One thermal imager is assigned to each battalion vehicle, Engine Company, and Ladder Company. B) There must be thermal contrast, or a temperature difference in order for the thermal imager to display an image. C) When the thermal imager switches from low heat/high sensitivity mode to high heat/low sensitivity mode, a high heat/low sensitivity indicator or icon will appear on the display. D) The average field of view of thermal imagers is approximately 50 degrees vertically.

Answer 337

ANSWER: D) The average field of view of thermal imagers is approximately 50 degrees vertically. (INCORRECT) (Tools 27 1.4, 2.5, 2.9, 4.4) * HORIZONTALLY

Question 338

The Evolution 6000 Thermal Imaging Camera is the newest camera in the FDNY’s arsenal. Several key features of this camera are described below. Which one is incorrect? A) The high heat (low sensitivity) mode is indicated by a green triangle inside a green square that appears in the upper left corner of the display. B) If colors yellow through red appear in more than 32% of the display the camera will shift into the high heat (low sensitivity) mode. C) The temperature measurement feature in the thermal imager provides atmospheric or air temperature readings and this feature can be utilized and relied upon to make tactical interior structural firefighting decisions. D) The camera informs the operator when the TIC is shuttering as indicated by a green square just below the upper left corner of the display for approximately 3 seconds before and during the shuttering cycle.

Answer 338

ANSWER: C) The temperature measurement feature in the thermal imager provides atmospheric or air temperature readings and this feature can be utilized and relied upon to make tactical interior structural firefighting decisions. (INCORRECT) (Tools 27 Addendum 1) * The temperature measurement feature is a non-contact solid surface temperature measurement device that is not accurate. It will NOT provide atmospheric or air temperature readings.

Question 339

The Captain working in Ladder 99 hears some of the members of her company discussing the features of the Met-L-X extinguisher. Which one of the comments made was incorrect? A) The MET-L-X handheld extinguisher may be used on Class D (combustible metal) fires. B) The MET-L-X extinguisher can be identified by the orange label affixed to the extinguisher. C) When this non-reactive agent is applied to the fire, the salt forms a crust excluding air from contact with the metal. D) MET-L-X is also suitable for fires in solid chunks such as casings.

Answer 339

ANSWER: B) The MET-L-X extinguisher can be identified by the orange label affixed to the extinguisher. (INCORRECT) (Tools 34 2.1, 2.2, 2.3) * YELLOW LABEL

Question 340

The Captain working in Ladder 99 hears some of the members of her company discussing the features of the Met-L-X and LITH-X extinguishers. Several points are mentioned, but they were only correct in which one? A) The LITH-EX extinguisher was specifically developed for use on lithium fires, but will not be effective when used to extinguish magnesium. B) The LITH-EX extinguisher is superior to the MET-L-X extinguisher at adhering to hot vertical surfaces. C) The LITH-EX extinguisher does not cake or crust like MET-L-X but it does exclude oxygen and acts as a heat sink directing heat away from the metal, eventually extinguishing the fire. D) These extinguishers will have the same color identification label as the MET-L-X extinguisher but it will state LITH-X.

Answer 340

ANSWER: C) The LITH-EX extinguisher does not cake or crust like MET-L-X but it does exclude oxygen and acts as a heat sink directing heat away from the metal, eventually extinguishing the fire. (Tools 34 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 3.4) A - ALSO EFFECTIVE ON MAGNESIUM B - MET-L-X is SUPERIOR for adhering to hot metal surfaceces. (LITH-EX DOES NOT cling to metal surfaces) D - LITH-EX WILL NOT have yellow labels like the MET-L-X extinguishers have.

Question 341

Ladder 99 is designated as a fire window blanket company. Minutes into the tour, you receive a run and arrive at a fire in a high-rise multiple dwelling. Smoke is seeping from three windows on the 30th floor and it appears that there is fire blowing into a fourth window that has vented. Units advise a blanket may need to be deployed. Which statement regarding the fire window blanket is CORRECT? A) Rescue and Squad are the only units which can deploy the blanket, so they were reassigned to the task. B) A blanket can be pre-deployed over a window prior to it failing. C) The top supporting straps do not support lowering the blanket from further than the floor above the fire. D) Once the blanket is in place, an announcement is made to report any adverse conditions caused by the blanket being put in place.

Answer 341

ANSWER: B) A blanket can be pre-deployed over a window prior to it failing. (Training Bulletins Tools 3 – Fire Window Blanket 2.2) A – Any unit can deploy the blanket. NEW – Squad is responsible for bringing the blanket to the floor below the fire (3.3) C – Due to the length of the supporting straps, the blanket can be lowered from TWO floors above if the IC deems necessary. (3.5) D – JUST BEFORE the blanket is put in place, an announcement is made by the IC to all units to report adverse conditions. (3.7)

Question 342

Engine 213 is returning to quarters from a response and the chauffeur notices that the apparatus decal is damaged. Which choice is CORRECT regarding the actions taken by the officer? A) The officer notified the dispatcher and had the unit placed out of service. B) The officer notified fleet services to obtain a replacement decal. C) The particulars were recorded in the company journal and a letterhead documenting all information was forwarded to the Chief of Operations. D) A copy of the letterhead and the remains of the decal were forwarded to the Assistant Commissioner of Fleet Services.

Answer 342

ANSWER: B) The officer notified fleet services to obtain a replacement decal. (TB – APPARATUS C2 – ADDENDUM 2 – 4.6) A – The company shall REMAIN IN SERVICE. C – The letterhead is forwarded to the ASSISTANT COMMISSIONER OF FLEET SERVICES. D – The remnants of the decal are forwarded to the BUREAU OF FIRE INVESTIGATION.

Question 343

A sharp study group was discussing the features of the Pak-Tracker and each of the students made a point regarding this tool. Which one was CORRECT as written? A) The maximum range from an SCBA transmitter to a Pak-Tracker handheld receiver is approximately 800 feet line of sight B) The Pak-Tracker is rated as intrinsically safe for use in potentially flammable or explosive atmospheres. C) Pak-Trackers are currently carried by all ladder, rescue, and squad companies. They shall be brought to the command post by the FAST unit, Rescue, and Squad companies. D) Like EFAS, the Pak-Tracker program is able to be updated to reflect when a spare mask is placed in service. Battalions shall print a current copy of the Spare Mask Assignment list and keep a copy on the fast radio board as a backup.

Answer 343

ANSWER: C) Pak-Trackers are currently carried by all ladder, rescue, and squad companies. They shall be brought to the command post by the FAST unit, Rescue, and Squad companies. (TRAINING BULLETINS – SCBA ADDENDUM 8 – PAK-TRACKER– 4.1) A – Approximately 900 feet line of sight. B – Pak-Tracker is not suitable for use in potentially flammable or explosive atmospheres. D – UNLIKE EFAS, Pak-tracker does not possess the ability to be updated when a spare mask is put in service.

Question 344

Each company is issued APR’s (Air Purifying Respirators) for use at incidents where respiratory protection is necessary for extended periods of time. Like our SCBA’s, they require inspection. Which choice CORRECTLY indicates how frequently they must be inspected by our units? A) Following 0900 and 1800 roll calls and before MUD. B) Weekly at MUD along with the SCBA C) At least every 30 days and/or on the first day of each month. D) Quarterly on the 1st day of January, April, July, October

Answer 344

ANSWER: C) At least every 30 days and/or on the first day of each month. (TB– SCBA ADDENDUM 2 – APR’S – 5.2) * Inspections must be made at least every 30 days and/or on the first day of each month.

Question 345

You are the newly promoted officer working in Tower Ladder 171 and you’re assigned as the FAST Truck to a fire in a Cellar of a private dwelling. While at the command post a verbal Mayday is transmitted for the Forcible Entry firefighter from Ladder 188. Which choice shows the CORRECT display the firefighter reading the PAK Tracker should see if 188’s Forcible Entry FF comes up on it? A) L188-FE B) L188-FORC C) L188-IRON D) L188-IRO

Answer 345

ANSWER: D) L188-IRO (TRAINING BULLETINS – SCBA – PAK TRACKER 15.2) * Pak Trackers only read a maximum of 8 characters. L188-IRO (8 characters) L1-IRONS (8 characters) * Choices B and C have 9 characters so it is no good.

Question 346

One of the most important keys to fully understanding the uses of a tool is to know its capabilities. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding reading the signal from the SCBA to the Pak-Tracker? A) The SCBA signal will attempt to pass around concrete block. B) The SCBA signal will usually reflect off glass. C)The SCBA signal will usually pass through metal. D) The SCBA signal will usually not pass through wood.

Answer 346

ANSWER: A) The SCBA signal will attempt to pass around concrete block. (TB – SCBA ADDENDUM 8 – PAK TRACKER) A IS CORRECT 7.10 –The signal will attempt to pass around Concrete block, metal, large metal objects, concrete walls or floors, brick or concrete construction. B – Will usually pass through glass 7.10 (Also light building materials, Openings, wood) C – Will reflect and/or not penetrate through Metal/Large metal objects D – Will usually pass through wood

Question 347

You are the officer on duty in Ladder 171 and you are assigned first due to a fire in a large factory where you will be deploying the search rope. Which factor is whether to allow members to conduct searches off of the rope is INCORRECT? A) Ability to stay within voice and visual contact. B) Heat and smoke conditions. C) Experience level of the search team. D) The size and configuration of the area to be searched.

Answer 347

ANSWER: A) Ability to stay within voice and visual contact. (INCORRECT) (TRAINING BULLETINS – SEARCH ROPE 6.3) * Ability to stay within VOICE CONTACT ONLY.

Question 348

Prior to the start of the tour, the members of Ladder Company 88 were discussing the Fast Pak. Which of the following about the FAST Pak is INCORRECT? A) The FAST Pak must be inspected at the beginning of each tour, immediately before the start of Multi Unit Drill, and after each use. B) A Mask Record Card shall be filled out and maintained for each FAST Pak assigned to a unit. C) If a malfunction is noted, Notify the Battalion and request the Battalion spare FAST Pak as a replacement. D) The company shall forward OOS FAST Pak’s to MSU via the Division messenger.

Answer 348

ANSWER: A) The FAST Pak must be inspected at the beginning of each tour, immediately before the start of Multi Unit Drill, and after each use. (INCORRECT) (TB – SCBA ADDENDUM 1 – FAST PAK 9.10) * Not inspected prior to the start of MUD.

Question 349

Under no circumstances shall a life-saving rope evolution be attempted when the following factors exist. Which is INCORRECT? A) The effectiveness of the anti-chafing device would be compromised due to building construction (protruding facades, exposure of the LSR to sharp surfaces). B) The building has a pitched or sloping roof with little or no parapet for members to work off. C) A viable substantial object is not available. D) There are not enough members at the lowering point and at the adjoining window or floors below to ensure a successful pick-up and retrieval of the firefighter and victim.

Answer 349

ANSWER: B) The building has a pitched or sloping roof with little or no parapet for members to work off. (INCORRECT) (TRAINING BULLETINS – LIFE SAVING ROPE 2.7) * Not stated in this bulletin

Question 350

Ladder 188 is assigned as the FAST TRUCK at a fire in a two-story taxpayer and will take their position at the command post. Shortly after, multiple Maydays are transmitted. Which of the following choices regarding the Pak-Tracker is CORRECT? A) Upon arrival at the fire, the member monitoring the Pak-Tracker must maintain it in the tracking mode near the FAST Unit’s assigned position. B) When the Pak-Tracker receives an alarm signal, the FAST member monitoring shall immediately notify their company officer with the identity on the LCD Display. C) The Pak-Tracker can receive and store up to 36 SCBA identities, but can only lock onto and display two SCBA identities at a time. D) When a Pak-Tracker receives a signal from a PASS device that has been in alarm for more than 10 seconds, the receiver will emit a 2-tone audible alarm.

Answer 350

ANSWER: B) When the Pak-Tracker receives an alarm signal, the FAST member monitoring shall immediately notify their company officer with the identity on the LCD Display. (TB – SCBA ADDENDUM 8 – PAK-TRACKER – 4.3) A – must remain in the MONITORING MODE C – Can only LOCK ONTO ONE SCBA at a time. D - When the Pak-Tracker receives a signal from a PASS device that has been in FULL ALARM for 10 seconds, the receiver will emit a 2-tone audible alarm.

Question 351

Which of the following choices contains correct information regarding fire operations at peaked roof private dwellings? A) Physically cutting and opening the roof is critical and should be considered an initial operation at peaked roof dwelling fires. B) When cutting and opening the roof is required, it is normally assigned to the second arriving ladder company. C) If roof skylights are found, they should be vented after cutting the roof when directed by the ladder company officer operating in the fire area. D) The order of preference for roof access is the Portable Ladder, Aerial Ladder, and Tower Ladder.

Answer 351

ANSWER: B) When cutting and opening the roof is required, it is normally assigned to the second arriving ladder company. (PD Ch 4 6.1, 6.2) A - Physically cutting and opening the roof is USUALLY NOT considered an initial operation at peaked roof dwelling fires. The venting or removing of attic windows or louvers is frequently sufficient for ventilation purposes. C - If roof skylights are found, they should be vented PRIOR TO cutting the roof ONLY when directed by the ladder company officer operating in the fire area. D - The ORDER OF PREFERENCE for roof access is the Tower Ladder, Aerial Ladder, and Portable Ladder. "TAP"

Question 352

Separate from the SCBA bulletin in the SCBA policy. Which choice below is CORRECT regarding the provisions of this policy? A) The wearing/use of SCBA’s within the fire area may be dispensed with only when authorized by the Company Officer. B) SCBA’s are required to be worn/used at operations other than structural including any incident where there is a possibility of exposure to toxic substances. C) When it is necessary for the officer to leave the IDLH to service their SCBA, they shall notify the Incident Commander or next level of command within the sector and request relief for their unit. D) If it is not possible to remove a member or civilian from the contaminated atmosphere it is permissible to utilize the Fast Unit’s Fast Pak.

Answer 352

ANSWER: B) SCBA’s are required to be worn/used at operations other than structural including any incident where there is a possibility of exposure to toxic substances. (AUC 220 – SCBA POLICY – 3.1 C) A – When authorized by the Incident Commander C – Officer must be accompanied to a safe area by another member using an SCBA. The officer must ensure that temporary supervision is provided for the remaining members. D – For trapped members, utilize THE NEAREST FAST PAK. For Civilians, Utilize a FAST Pak OTHER THAN the one assigned to the FAST Unit.

Question 353

Prior to the start of the tour, the officer and members of Ladder Company 88 were discussing the Fast Pak. Which of the following about the FAST Pak is INCORRECT? A) The FAST Pak must be inspected at the beginning of each tour, immediately before the start of Multi Unit Drill, and after each use. B) A Mask Record Card shall be filled out and maintained for each FAST Pak assigned to a unit. C) If a malfunction is noted, Notify the Battalion and request the Battalion spare FAST Pak as a replacement. D) The company shall forward OOS FAST Pak’s to MSU via the Division messenger.

Answer 353

ANSWER: A) The FAST Pak must be inspected at the beginning of each tour, immediately before the start of Multi Unit Drill, and after each use. (INCORRECT) (TB– SCBA ADDENDUM 1 – FAST PAK 9.10) * NOT inspected prior to the start of MUD.

Question 354

The Captain was discussing foam operations during company drill and during the conversation, the following statements were made. Which was the only CORRECT statement made? A) At a tanker truck rolled on its side, the product must be off-loaded. Never attempt to upright a loaded vehicle. B) At an overturned aluminum tank truck involved in fire that remains intact, the chance of BLEVE is eliminated. C) At a tank truck accident with fire, an all-hands assignment supplying two hand lines will provide enough foam to operate for approximately 17 minutes. D) At a tank truck accident where there is a leak which has been stopped and contained, the remaining contents must be off-loaded before the vehicle proceeds.

Answer 354

ANSWER: A) At a tanker truck rolled on its side, the product must be off-loaded. Never attempt to upright a loaded vehicle. (TRAINING BULLETIN -- FOAM - 8.6) * A vehicle that has rolled onto its side must be off-loaded. Never attempt to upright a loaded vehicle. B - Chance of a BLEVE still exists when shell remains intact C - ONE HAND LINE will provide approximately 17 minutes of operating time. Using two hand lines will increase the amount of area covered but will reduce operating time. D - Once the spill is abated and the leak stopped, a decision has to be made whether to allow the tanker to proceed or have it off-loaded.

Question 355

The members of Engine 49 were talking during MUD with the members of Ladder 69 about the SCBA and Pak-Tracker and the length of time before detection of a member that goes down. Which choice CORRECTLY reflects the total amount of time before a down member can be detected using a Pak-Tracker? A) 10 seconds B) 32 seconds C) 42 seconds D) 20 seconds

Answer 355

ANSWER: C) 42 seconds (TB SCBA ADDENDUM 8 – PAK TRACKER 6.1) * 20 SECONDS SCBA BEFORE PRE ALARM – 32 SECONDS TO FULL ALARM – 10 SECONDS FULL ALARM BEFORE PAK TRACKER PICKS UP THE SIGNAL * 32 seconds SCBA full alarm plus 10 seconds before pack tracker can record = 42 seconds A – 10 seconds full alarm mode, the pass alarm transmits a signal that can be received by the Pak-tracker. B – If the sensor module does not sense motion of the SCBA for 20 seconds, the Pak-Alert SE 7 will signal a PRE-ALARMcondition. If there is still no motion of the SCBA for the next 12 seconds, the full alarm will sound. (32 seconds). D - 20 seconds is the motionless time before a PRE-ALARM using an SCBA

Question 356

After returning to quarters from a first due all hands fire, the irons firefighter walks into your office to question you regarding the status of his PSS. Which of the following statements you made regarding placing a PSS out of service when the unit doesn’t have their company spare is CORRECT? A) Over time, discoloration on the rope from dye inside the bag will affect the serviceability of the PSS. B) Advise the Irons FF he will continue to respond with the company but will not be counted towards the unit’s staffing. C) Contact the Administrative Battalion to request one of their spare PSS systems. D) Pending replacement, advise the Irons FF he cannot operate at any incident that requires members to operate inside a structure.

Answer 356

ANSWER: B) Advise the Irons FF he will continue to respond with the company but will not be counted towards the unit’s staffing. (TRAINING BULLETINS – ROPE 4 – PSS 6.15) * When the firefighter is not equipped with a PSS and a response is received before a replacement is obtained, they will respond with their unit. However, that member shall not be counted towards that unit’s staffing as it relates to the provisions of AUC 287, section 8 (reduced staffed/understaffed unit) A - The discoloration of the rope due to the dye DOES NOT affect the load bearing capacities of the rope. C – Contact the Administrative DIVISION D – Any incident that requires the member to operate in an IDLH area.

Question 357

Prior to repacking, the members of Engine 256 and Ladder 171 were discussing the search rope. Which of the following statements regarding the rope is CORRECT? A) At operations where the search rope will be deployed, any unit other than the first arriving ladder company receiving orders to search an area shall maintain unit integrity and perform this function with all members. B) The ability to stay within visual contact is one of the factors in the officer’s decision to allow members to search off of the rope. C) Companies shall conduct frequent drills using the rope. It is inspected weekly and after every use and repacked monthly. D) Members must be aware that if the rope is tied off at different locations, the length of distance traveled may be less than shown by the distance/directional markers.

Answer 357

ANSWER: D) Members must be aware that if the rope is tied off at different locations, the length of distance traveled may be less than shown by the distance/directional markers. (TRAINING BULLETINS – SEARCH ROPE 11.2) A – A unit other than FIRST ALARM B – VOICE CONTACT without the use of handie talkie C – It is inspected after use and repacked and inspected QUARTERLY

Question 358

Use the following Building Information Card to answer the question below: 999 METROTECH CENTER -- MEGA HR-80 STY-200x150 CL1– BUILDING FULLY SPRINKLERED -- 4 ELEV BANKS – A BANK FLS 1-24 - B BANK FLS 24-40 - C BANK FLS 40-64 - D BANK FLS 64-80 -- ACCESS STAIRS FLS 22-27, 34-40, 63-67 – B STAIR IS A FIRE TOWER -- LOW-RISE STDP SVS FLRS 1-34 - MID-RISE STDP FLRS 35-60 - HIGH-RISE STDP FLRS 61-80 STDP EVERY FLOOR IN B & D STAIR Ladder Companies are assigned to a 1076 for a fire on the 36th floor of a high-rise office building and as per SOP’s responded to their respective posts. Based on the information on the Building Information Card and your knowledge of procedures, which truck company operated CORRECTLY? A) The first arriving ladder company secured an elevator in the B Bank and took the elevator to the 34th floor and proceeded up to the fire floor. B) The second arriving ladder company secured an elevator in the B Bank and took the elevator to the 32nd floor and proceeded up to the floor above. C) The third arriving ladder company secured an elevator in the C Bank and took the elevator to the 40th floor and proceeded to the SAE post on 41. D) The fourth arriving ladder company secured an elevator in the D Bank and took the elevator to the top floor and proceeded to the roof.

Answer 358

ANSWER: D) The fourth arriving ladder company secured an elevator in the D Bank and took the elevator to the top floor and proceeded to the roof. (TRAINING BULLETINS – ELEVATORS – FFP HIGH-RISE CROSS REFERENCE *APPLICATION*) D IS CORRECT – 4th due ladder company obtains an elevator that provides the safest access to the roof. They are to report conditions at the roof level conduct primary searches of the top floor. Logical termination point after completion of duties would be SAE Post (8.6.1 A2, B, E) A – Right elevator, wrong floor. The access stairs service floors 34-41. If the elevator services the fire floor, the elevator has to be taken to two floors below the fire floor or lower level of the access stair in the fire area which is floor 32. (TB ELEV 6.1.4 B) B – Right elevator, right floor, wrong operation point. 2nd due truck is to coordinate the search operation of the FIRE FLOOR with first arriving ladder company. (HR 8.4.2) C – Wrong elevator, Wrong floor, Wrong Operation point, Right Post Location – 3rd ladder company takes the B elevator to floor 32, proceeds up a stairway OTHER THAN the attack stairway to the floor above (8.5.1 B2) – If possible, the SAE Group Supervisor shall choose a location on a floor which is not serviced by the same bank of elevators as the fire floor and at least five floors above the fire floor. 41 would be CORRECT (HR 6.5.2C) – Note that access stairs are not mentioned in determining this floor.

Question 359

A 10-76 was given for a confirmed fire on the 36th floor of a HROB. Use the following Building Information Card to answer the question below: 999 METROTECH CENTER -- MEGA HR-80 STY-200x150 CL1– BUILDING FULLY SPRINKLERED -- 4 ELEV BANKS – A BANK FLS 1-24 - B BANK FLS 24-40 - C BANK FLS 40-64 - D BANK FLS 64-80 -- ACCESS STAIRS FLS 22-27, 34-40, 63-67 – B STAIR IS A FIRE TOWER -- LOW-RISE STDP SVS FLRS 1-34 - MID-RISE STDP FLRS 35-60 - HIGH-RISE STDP FLRS 61-80 STDP EVERY FLOOR IN B & D STAIR A) The 1st engine company stretched the first supply line to the sprinkler system serving the fire area. B) The 1st engine company stretched supply lines to both the sprinkler and standpipe systems. C) The 2nd and 3rd engine companies stretched supply lines to augment both systems. D) The 1st engine company supplied the standpipe at 300 psi.

Answer 359

ANSWER: A) The 1st engine company stretched the first supply line to the sprinkler system serving the fire area. (INCORRECT) (ENGINE OPERATIONS CHAPTER 9) A IS INCORRECT – If a building is equipped with both a standpipe system and automatic sprinklers, the first supply line must be attached to the STANDPIPE SIAMESE. B & C - If the first arriving engine is supplying both the standpipe and sprinkler systems, the second and third arriving engine companies must stretch additional lines to augment both systems. D – Floors 31-40 supplied at 300 psi

Question 360

A 10-76 was given for a confirmed fire on the 36th floor of a HROB. Use the following Building Information Card to answer the question below: *MEGA HIGH-RISE - 80 STY-200x150 CL1– BUILDING FULLY SPRINKLERED -- 4 ELEV BANKS – A BANK FLS 1-24 - B BANK FLS 24-40 - C BANK FLS 40-64 - D BANK FLS 64-80 -- ACCESS STAIRS FLS 22-27, 34-40, 63-67 – B STAIR IS A FIRE TOWER --LOW-RISE STDP SVS FLRS 1-34 - MID-RISE STDP FLRS 35-60 - HIGH-RISE STDP FLRS 61-80 STDP EVERY FLOOR IN B & D STAIR* Based on the information provided in the building information card & your knowledge of procedures, which action taken by the engine companies assigned on the 1076 was INCORRECT? A) Upon confirmation of the fire floor and access stair information, the 1st and 2nd engine companies teamed and stretched a handline from the 35th floor via the D stair to the fire floor. B) The 1st and 2nd Engine chauffeurs teamed to stretch a supply line to the mid-rise Siamese to support the first handline stretched from the D Stair. C) The 3rd and 4th Engine chauffeurs teamed to stretch a second supply line to the mid-rise Siamese to support the second handline also stretched via the D stair. D) If necessary, an additional handline can be stretched from the standpipe in the D stair to the fire tower stairs and up to the fire floor.

Answer 360

ANSWER: C) The 3rd and 4th Engine chauffeurs teamed to stretch a second supply line to the mid-rise Siamese to support the second handline also stretched via the D stair. (INCORRECT) (FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – HIGH RISE / ENGINE OPERATIONS **APPLICATION**) C IS INCORRECT – If all lines are coming out of the D Stair, the second line should be stretched from the 34th floor after the first line is correctly stretched from the 35th floor. The low rise (floors 1-34) would have to be supplied to accommodate this second line. A – The fire floor is 36. The first line should be stretched from the standpipe in the D stair on the 35th floor. All hoselines stretched from standpipes shall be connected to outlets on floors below the fire floor. The access stairs do not play a role in determining where the engine stretches. B – The ECC’s should supply the midrise standpipe to provide water for the first line stretched from the 35th floor which is the midrise standpipe riser (Floors 35-60) D – Fire towers are not recommended for use as fire attack stairs because they may draw the heat and smoke of the higher-pressure area near the fire, towards the possible lower pressure area of the stairway. **Previously used on an exam** THIS IS NOT A NEVER** (6.3.8D)

Question 361

Following a drill using the Life Saving Training Rope, the officer needs to place it out of service. Which of the following choices is CORRECT regarding this procedure? A) The rope shall be tagged with an RT-2 indicating the unit number, date, and reason. The officer shall make an entry on the RP-100 rope card. B) The officer must complete an OOS Life Safety Equipment Report (SCF-2) and forward it through the chain of Command to the Chief of Safety. C) Investigation of the circumstances as stated in the report is required by the Battalion and Deputy Chief on duty. A Statement to this effect is required as part of each chief’s endorsement. D) The officer shall contact the administrative division for a replacement.

Answer 361

ANSWER: B) The officer must complete an OOS Life Safety Equipment Report (SCF-2) and forward it through the chain of Command to the Chief of Safety. (TRAINING BULLETINS – LSR 5.6) A – The Officer placing the rope out of service shall make an entry in the COMPANY JOURNAL. The RP 101 is the training rope card. C – Investigation is required by the BATTALION Chief on Duty. D – RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT is contacted for replacement.

Question 362

According to the Search training bulletin, most victims found during primary searches are usually found in the following areas. Which one is CORRECT? A) Within the area of fire origin or in a path leading from the area of fire origin towards an exit. B) In the apartment or occupancy directly above the fire in fireproof multiple dwellings. C) In the hallways and stairways in non-fireproof multiple dwellings. D) On the top floor of fireproof multiple dwellings

Answer 362

ANSWER: A) Within the area of fire origin or in a path leading from the area of fire origin towards an exit. (TB – SEARCH 1 A IS CORRECT – 13.3 PG 16 B) * In the apartment or occupancy directly above the fire in NON-FIREPROOF multiple dwellings. * In the hallways and stairways in FIREPROOF multiple dwellings. * On the top floor of NFP multiple dwellings.