ALL UNIT CIRCULARS

Question 1

Engine 298 and Ladder 127 arrive 1st at a fire reported in a closet on the platform in the subway system. While setting up the HT relay they note that the token booth is about 250 feet away from the bottom of the subway entrance stairs. As they set up the relay, they should be guided by how many of the following points?

1) The LCC should go down to the subway entrance stairs and proceed to the token booth.
2) The OV should go to the bottom of the stairs leading to the platform.
3) The Roof should place himself approximately 50 yards from the platform stairs.
4) The Engine Officer should be approximately 100 yards from the platform stairs and remain in line of sight of the Ladder Officer.
5) The Ladder Officer should go with the inside team to the fire location.

A) 2 points B) 3 points C) 4 points D) 5 points

Answer 1

ANSWER: A) 2 points are correct (Numbers 3 and 5)

(AUC 207 4.1)

HANDIE TALKIE SUBWAY RELAY “CORE-100”
(Stairs/man/stairs/man)

• Chauffeur - Bottom of subway entrance stairs (stairs)
• OV - Foot of stairs leading to platform, if within 50 yds of LCC (man)
• Roof - Approximately 50 yds from the stairs on the platform (stairs)
• Engine Officer - Approx. 100 yds LOS from Roof FF on platform (man)
• Truck Officer - To location of fire
• Additional HT equipped members every 100 yards if necessary

Question 2

A first alarm assignment is dispatched to a reported rubbish fire on the platform in a subway station. Engine 255 arrives alone, and as the initial IC, the Engine Officer decides to utilize the Subway Repeater channel, to enhance communications at this minor operation. In this situation, it would be correct for him to think that?

A) The FDNY Dispatcher must be notified to ensure that the MTA repeater is activated.

B) When the first Ladder arrives, they should set up the HT relay, if deemed necessary.

C) The Engine captain and the ECC’s radio should both be placed on Channel 15, while the other Engine members remain on Channel 1.

D) The Engine Officer should ensure he is teamed with a member on Channel 1 at all times.

Answer 2

ANSWER: D) The Engine Officer should ensure he is teamed with a member on Channel 1 at all times.

(AUC 207 Addendum 16 Pg 2-3)

A - The NYC Transit Duplex repeater system is ALWAYS ON.

B - Relay MUST BE ESTABLISHED whether the station is equipped with a repeater or not.

C - The primary repeater channel is 14 (Secondary is 15)

Question 3

E92 responds to a CFRD call in a subway station where they attempt to utilize the subway repeater and determine it is not operational. In this situation they would be most correct to notify the _________________ about this issue?

A) Public Transportation Safety Unit by email or phone

B) Borough Communications Office via Department Radio

C) Battalion and Division by phone

D) Chief of Communications at 9 Metrotech by email

Answer 3

ANSWER: B) Borough Communications Office via Department Radio.

(AUC 207 Addendum 16 Pg 4)

• Advise Dispatch of problem including exact location of station
• Borough Communications Office relays this info to FDOC
• FDOC will transmit info to effected Borough Command during normal business hours, and to the effected Division at all other times, advising of the particulars and requesting that the Borough Command / Division notify the appropriate units.
• FDOC faxes copy to Public Transportation Safety Unit.
• PTSU confers with effected Borough Command / Division and establishes a NYC Transit repeater system outage folder, and monitors the status and frequency of these outages.
• PTSU will liaison with NYCT to ensure prompt repair of system and provide periodic updates to FDOC until the system is repaired and is fully operational.
• FDOC will transmit this info to effected Borough Communications Office, and the effected Borough Command during normal business hours and to the effected Division at all other times with all of the particulars, and the Borough Command / Division will notify the appropriate units.
• The Borough Command / Division shall have the unit that originally reported the problem conduct a re-inspection so as to verify that the repeater system is fully operational.
• The Borough Command / Division shall advise the Public Transportation Safety Unit of the results of this re-inspection.

Question 4

Ladder 4 arrives at the scene of a subway incident where they find civilians on the tracks and power must be immediately removed due to the imminent danger to the civilians. They proceed to the closest Blue Light and find the Power Removal Box covered by a white bag with red lettering that states “Out Of Service”. Which actions below are correct in this situation?

1. Proceed to the next PRB which should be approx. 600 feet away
2. Use the associated telephone next to the OOS PRB to request power off and remain on the phone until receiving confirmation that power is off.
3. The IC must request power off and have power confirmed via the Department Radio.

A) 1,3 B) 2,3 C) Only #2 D) Only #3

Answer 4

ANSWER: B) 2 and 3 are correct statements

(AUC 207 8.1)

1 - Do not head to next PRB (Use telephone to request power off)

• If a member encounters an OOS PRB, the member should use the associated telephone to contact the Rail Control Center to request the removal of power.
• Using a PRB to remove power should only be used as a last resort when there is an imminent life hazard.
• The activation of a PRB or use of an associated telephone, does not alleviate the IC of the responsibility of requesting and confirming the removal of power via the Department Radio, with the a borough Communications Office.

Question 5

A first alarm assignment arrives at a subway incident for a reported minor smoke condition. The incident is remote from the platform area and the Transit Authority has a Light Train awaiting members in the station upon their arrival. Regarding the use of the Light Train, it would be incorrect to state?

A) The primary means of communication shall be via the Train Operator’s Radio.

B) If power is removed from the track area, the TA will notify the FD unit on the Light Train directly and the IC via the FDNY Dispatcher of power removal.

C) The Train Conductor’s Radio is a hand held radio with capabilities similar to the Train Operator’s Radio. It is a reliable means of communication for the FD unit on the train, if needed.

D) Progress reports from the Light Train shall be transmitted as soon as possible, but at least once every 15 minutes.

Answer 5

ANSWER: C) The Train Conductor’s Radio is a hand held radio with capabilities similar to the Train Operator’s Radio. It is a reliable means of communication for the FD unit on the train, if needed. (INCORRECT STATEMENT)

(AUC 207 Addendum 7 2.2)

• Train Conductor has a similar radio but it is NOT RELIABLE.

LIGHT TRAIN GUIDELINES

• Only Chief in charge can decide to use the Light Train
• Must establish comm. link or LT can’t be used
• FD Unit using radio / TA Command Center / FD Dispatch / CIC
• FD Unit maintains Train Operator’s Radio
• Train Operator’s Radio is the ONLY reliable means of communication
• TOR is removable and will operate on any TO compartment in any car
• Progress reports ASAP and every 15 minutes

Question 6

Units arrive at an alarm in a newly renovated subway station that has hard wired sound powered telephones. Regarding the use of the sound powered telephone, it would be incorrect to state that?

A) Units need to bring a telephone handset and 1620 key to both the platform and street level location of the sound powered telephone outlets. The 1620 key gives access to the metal boxes with telephone outlet jacks.

B) A subway emergency key must be brought to the station platform to access the standpipe outlet. In most cases, the metal box with the telephone outlet jack will be inside the standpipe cabinet.

C) The standard HT Relay is not required if the sound powered telephones are tested and operated.

D) The standard HT Relay can be augmented by sound powered telephones if circumstances allow.

Answer 6

ANSWER: C) The standard HT Relay is not required if the sound powered telephones are tested and operated. (INCORRECT STATEMENT)

(AUC 207 Addendum 10 2.2)

• The HT Relay is STILL REQUIRED even in the presence of an operational sound powered telephone system.

Question 7

After a major storm, numerous members are assembled to work in multiple Task Forces throughout Queens and Brooklyn to operate at trees and wires down incidents using FDNY rapid response vehicles. In this situation, while operating in these task forces, they should know that their primary method of communication would be?

A) 400 MHz DARS Radio

B) 800 MHz Radios

C) Cell phones

D) Department Radios

Answer 7

ANSWER: A) 400 MHz DARS Radio

(AUC 159 - Addendum 8 - pg 3)

Primary Communication = 400 MHz DARS handheld radios

Alternate Communication = 800 MHz when DARS is OOS

Contingency Communication = Cell phones when DARS and 800 OOS

Emergency Communications = Department Radio can be used if an emergency exists and direct communication with the Borough Dispatcher is necessary or other systems are inoperable.

Question 8

At 0300 hrs, Ladder 24 returns from a 10-75 and learns that the OV FF will be granted ML by the Medical Officer. After notifying the Battalion, L24 is informed that they will be getting a detail in about 2 hours from a 5 man engine company. The Officer decides that Ladder 24 will ride without a Roof FF, temporarily moving FF Waldo, the Roof FF, to the OV position. At 0410 hrs, L24 receives a response for a fire in a 5 story OLT and on arrival finds fire blowing out two front windows on the top floor. On arrival the Ladder Officer immediately instructs FF Waldo, the OV FF, to perform Roof duties as this incident. While responding to this box and encountering very light radio traffic, it would have been correct for the Officer to give which transmission?

A) “L24 to Manhattan, Urgent” and when acknowledged “we are responding understaffed”

B) “L24 to Manhattan, Urgent” and when acknowledged “we are responding with 4 firefighters”

C) “L24 to Manhattan” and when acknowledged “We are responding without our Roof FF”

D) “L24 to Manhattan” and when acknowledged “We are responding with 4 firefighters”

Answer 8

ANSWER: D) “L24 to Manhattan” and when acknowledged “We are responding with 4 FFs”

(AUC 287 8.2.2)

A- Understaffed Unit (staffed with less than 4 FFs)

B- Only give Urgent if there is heavy radio traffic and can’t get through

Question 9

At 0300 hrs, Ladder 24 returns from a 10-75 and learns that the OV FF will be granted ML by the Medical Officer. After notifying the Battalion, L24 is informed that they will be getting a detail in about 2 hours from a 5 man engine company. The Officer decides that Ladder 24 will ride without a Roof FF, temporarily moving FF Waldo, the Roof FF, to the OV position. At 0410 hrs, L24 receives a response for a fire in a 5 story OLT and on arrival finds fire blowing out two front windows on the top floor. On arrival the Ladder Officer immediately instructs FF Waldo, the OV FF, to perform Roof duties as this incident. While performing his initial roof duties, FF Waldo sees heavy fire in a shaft extending seriously into exposure 2. In this situation, in order to report this condition, he would be correct to state?

A) “Urgent, Urgent, Urgent, L24 OV to Command with an Urgent”

B) “Urgent, Urgent, Urgent, L24 Roof to Command w/ an Urgent”

C) “L24 OV to Command”

D) “L24 Roof to Command”

Answer 9

ANSWER: A) “Urgent, Urgent, Urgent, L24 OV to Command with an Urgent”

(AUC 287 8.5)

• The EBF-4 must be updated to reflect which riding positions have been staffed.
• The HT and SCBA worn by the member will coincide with their riding position.
• Members will identify themselves as their riding position assigned on the EBF-4 regardless of their duties and tasks performed.
• Urgent should be given for extension into exposures.

Question 10

You are the Officer working a 6x9 tour when you decide to discuss the “Danger Do Not Enter” tape. You state the following, “it shall be used to isolate designated areas (danger zones) that members should not enter”. One of your members studying for the upcoming Lieutenant’s exam was incorrect when he stated the “Danger Zone” should not be entered ________________________?

A) Except to save life

B) Unless authorized by the IC

C) Unless authorized by the Sector Chief

D) Unless authorized by the Safety Chief

Answer 10

ANSWER: D) Unless authorized by the Safety Chief (INCORRECT STATEMENT)

(AUC 360 2.3)

• Units are reminded that danger zones shall not be entered except:
• To save life
• Authorized by IC
• Authorized by Sector Chief

Question 11

If it is not possible to remove a member or civilian from a contaminated atmosphere, then one of the following options listed below can be used to provide an air supply while freeing the trapped individual. Which statement is correct?

A) For trapped members, always utilize the nearest available FAST Unit FAST Pak, if more than one FAST Unit is on scene.

B) For civilians, utilize any available FAST Pak

C) Utilize a spare SCBA to provide air to a trapped member or civilian.

D) All are correct

Answer 11

ANSWER: C) Utilize a spare SCBA to provide air to a trapped member or civilian.

(AUC 220 2.8)

A - For trapped members utilize the nearest available FAST Pak

B - For civilians use FAST Pak OTHER THAN FAST Unit’s Pak

Question 12

A problem that can arise at a high rise fire is occupants seeking refuge on the roof of a building. These occupants cannot be ignored and the possibility exists that a helicopter operation may be necessary. A High Rise Roof Team (HRRT) may be needed to aid these victims. Choose an incorrect point of information regarding the FDNY Air Rescue Plan for high rise structures.

A) During the “alert” phase, the FDNY dispatcher will notify the NYPD operations unit upon the transmission of a doubtful 3rd alarm fire associated with a 10-76 or 10-77.

B) During the “assemble” phase, FDNY units, NYPD helicopters and NYPD ESU personnel are assembled at a selected mobilization point.

C) During the “airlift” phase, Air Rescue Teams are airlifted to the vicinity of the roof of the building, pending the decision of the IC to actually land members on the roof.

D) The decision to airlift may only be made by the IC who is a Deputy Chief or higher.

Answer 12

ANSWER: D) The decision to airlift may only be made by the IC who is a Deputy Chief or higher. (INCORRECT STATEMENT)

(AUC 269 Addendum 1, 2.2 - 2.3.2)

• The decision to airlift has to be made by a STAFF CHIEF.

Question 13

A High Rise Roof Team (HRRT) consists of a trained and properly equipped Ladder company staffed with an officer and 5 firefighters. If ordered to airlift, the officer of the HRRT should know that this unit would operate on which channel?

A) Tac U Channel

B) Primary Tactical Channel

C) Secondary Tactical Channel

D) Primary Command Channel

Answer 13

ANSWER: A) TAC U Channel

AUC 269 4.3.3

Question 14

Due to space and weight considerations aboard the helicopter, the only tools and equipment included in the High Rise Roof Kit are listed below. Which choices contain the correct tools?

1. 6 SCBA’s with 45 minute cylinders
2. 2 Halligans
3. 2 Halligans Hooks
4. 2 Axes
5. 2 Search Ropes
6. 1 Rabbit Tool

A) 1,2,3,4,5,6 B) 1,2,4,5,6 C) 2,4,5, 6 D) 2,3,5,6

Answer 14

ANSWER: C) 2,4,5,6 are CORRECT (1 and 3 are INCORRECT)

(AUC 269 3.3.1)

High Rise Roof Kit: “BRASH-11222”

1 Bolt Cutter 
1 Rabbit Tool
2 Axes
2 Search Ropes
2 Halligans
2 Search Ropes

Also: 6 SCBA with ONE HOUR CYLINDERS and Bags for tools

*NYPD crew chief directs where tools are stowed

Question 15

Who determines where the tools are stowed at a High Rise Roof Helicopter operation?

A) The Pilot

B) The Co-Pilot

C) The Crew Chief

D) The High Rise Roof Team Officer

Answer 15

ANSWER: C) The Crew Chief

AUC 269 (3.3.3)

Question 16

Once a decision to “Airlift” has been made, the NYPD aviation unit will fly members from ESU to the roof of the fire building to determine the feasibility of landing the aircraft on the roof. If it is determined to be safe, the helicopter will return to pickup the FDNY members. Two airlifts will be required. Which member(s) below will not be included in the first airlift?

A) The High Rise Roof Chief

B) The High Rise Roof Officer

C) The forcible entry team

D) The LCC

Answer 16

ANSWER: D) The LCC

AUC 269 (4.3.4 C)

• 1st Airlift = HRRC / HRRO / FE team
• 2nd Airlift = LCC / OVM / Roof FF

Question 17

The safety of our members at an operation involving an NYPD helicopter must be taken seriously. All members must wear a personal safety harness or Life Saving Belt during flight operations. Which safety tactic below is listed incorrectly?

A) Approach and leave the aircraft in a semi-crouched position in single file. Do not run.

B) HRRTs shall approach and board the helicopter only when directed by the pilot, co-pilot, or crew chief. Approach from the front or tail section within the vision of the pilot.

C) The crew chief or pilot will designate riding positions on the helicopter.

D) All are correct

Answer 17

ANSWER: B) HRRTs shall approach and board the helicopter only when directed by the pilot, co-pilot, or crew chief. Approach from the front or tail section within the vision of the pilot. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 269 (5.1)

• DO NOT APPROACH THE TAIL UNDER ANY CIRCUMSTANCES.

Question 18

Personal Flotation Devices (PFD) are being issued to all units involved in the FDNY Air Support Plan. Of the following statements, choose the incorrect statement regarding these devices.

A) The PFDs must be donned by members prior to boarding any NYPD aircraft.

B) The PFD is fully capable of supporting a member while wearing full PPE including an SCBA.

C) PFDs must be inflated manually by the member prior to exiting the aircraft into a body of water.

D) After pulling the activation tag, the PFD should fully inflate within 5 seconds and the Rapidfire automatic strobe light should activate.

Answer 18

ANSWER: C) PFDs must be inflated manually by the member prior to exiting the aircraft into a body of water. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 269 Addendum 2 - 1.1 - 3.1.2 - 3.2.1 - 3.2.2)

• Inflate PFD ONLY AFTER EXITING THE AIRCRAFT

Question 19

The correct signal to transmit when fire has blown one or more manhole cover is a 10-25 ____________?

A) No Code

B) Code 1

C) Code 2

D) Code 3

E) Code 4

Answer 19

ANSWER: C) Code 2

(AUC 180 section 1.1)

10-25 Manhole Emergency

No Code - Situation other than codes 1 to 4 (person fell into hole)

Code 1 - Fire extended from manhole to building (Fire in 2 places)

Code 2 - Fire has blown one or more covers / smoke under pressure

Code 3 - Smoke seeping

Code 4 - Fire started in transformer (pole, vault room)

Question 20

On a 9x6 tour in February, two days after a blizzard struck NYC, an Engine and a Ladder company arrive on scene for several manholes smoking. What would be a correct action to take?

A) The area shall be taped off to mark the danger area for civilians, but not FD personnel.

B) Members shall not attempt to move vehicles in the danger area, unless they are located above a smoking manhole.

C) Upon arrival, the Lieutenant working in the Engine shall order members to operate the hose stream directly into the manhole for quick control if flame is issuing from the manhole.

D) The Captain working in the Ladder shall direct members to inspect electrical services in surrounding buildings while using CO meters.

Answer 20

ANSWER: D) The Captain working in the Ladder shall direct members to inspect electrical services in surrounding buildings while using CO meters.

(AUC 180 section 2.4)

A - Tape area to mark danger zone for CIVILIANS and FDNY personnel

B - Members SHALL NOT attempt to move vehicles in danger area.

C - Do not introduce water UNLESS DIRECTED BY CON ED (use fog nozzle and let water roll into manhole / do not operate line directly)

Question 21

When the ETA of an emergency crew is more than 30 minutes at a manhole incident, the Officer in charge may take several actions. Which one is not correct?

A) One unit, preferably an Engine Company, may respond to assigned alarms received via radio, while leaving one member on scene.

B) One member shall be left at the scene and the unit shall return to quarters.

C) The manhole shall be protected by traffic cones and tape, and all units placed in service.

D) When a member is left at the scene, the Battalion Chief shall provide relief for members and contact the dispatcher at frequent intervals for re-notification of the utility company.

Answer 21

ANSWER: D) When a member is left at the scene, the Battalion Chief shall provide relief for members and contact the dispatcher at frequent intervals for re-notification of the utility company. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 180 section 2.6)

• The COMPANY OFFICER shall do this.

Question 22

Safety of members is the most important consideration at a manhole fire or emergency. Which choice is not in accordance with accepted procedures?

A) Downed overhead primary and secondary wires can damage underground gas piping. If an odor of gas is encountered, request the immediate response of the utility’s gas crew in addition to their electric crew.

B) Members should not pull covers off electrical manholes at manhole fires or if a manhole fire is in the area.

C) When a manhole cover blows, do not run. Keep your eyes on the cover so you can approximate where it will land.

D) The location of street signs must be taken into consideration when deciding the size and location of the area of danger.

Answer 22

ANSWER: D) The location of street signs must be taken into consideration when deciding the size and location of the area of danger. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 180 section 1.4 notes)

• Location of TRAFFIC CONTROL BOXES must be taken into consideration when deciding area of danger.

Question 23

An incorrect point concerning sub-surface transformer vaults can be found in which choice?

A) They come in various sizes but they are typically 12’ x 4’ and are installed in either the street or the sidewalk below grade level.

B) Vaults in the street sometimes have solid gratings that are usually rectangular.

C) The transformers convert primary voltage (27,000 volts) To secondary voltage (120 volts). Either of these voltages can cause fatal injury.

D) Some transformer vaults are considered PCB Contaminated transformers that contain 50-499 PPM of PCBs.

E) Asbestos is the greatest hazard in these vaults.

Answer 23

ANSWER: E) Asbestos is the greatest hazard in these vaults. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 180 section 3.2)

• You may find asbestos in these vaults however the greatest hazard is the AMOUNT OF ELECTRICITY present in the vault.

Question 24

Units operating at a fire in a transformer vault in the Bronx operated incorrectly in which choice?

A) Extinguishment efforts were limited to heavy water streams from a distance. Foam or hand lines were not used due to the high voltage found in these vaults.

B) Teams of 2 members, equipped with CO meters, took readings from the meter room, surrounding rooms and the 1st floor of exposures.

C) Members did not enter the vault for search until Con Ed determined it was safe for entry.

D) After receiving authorization, members conducted a cursory search of the vault for victims.

Answer 24

ANSWER: A) Extinguishment efforts were limited to heavy water streams from a distance. Foam or hand lines were not used due to the high voltage found in these vaults. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 180 section 3.3)

• PREPARE FOR A FOAM OPERATION in transformer fires.

Question 25

Engine 228 receives a response and is designated on the ticket as E228I. While responding, which thought of the Lt. is correct? A) FireIce is effective at manhole fires (Class C fires) involving electrical cables. It is designed to reduce the amount of CO generated by burning cables. B) Any member on scene can utilize the special equipment that FireIce units carry. C) Normally FireIce is applied after consulting with a Con Ed supervisor. However, when necessary, the Officer if the FireIce unit can order the application of FireIce prior to the arrival of a Con Ed supervisor. D) FireIce is effective on Class B fires, including all types of transformer fires.

Answer 25

ANSWER: A) FireIce is effective at manhole fires (Class C fires) involving electrical cables. It is designed to reduce the amount of CO generated by burning cables. (AUC 180 Add. 2 section 1.1, 4.1, 5.2, 7.2, 7.3) B - ONLY TRAINED MEMBERS can utilize FireIce equipment. C - ONLY CHIEF OFFICER can order FireIce w/o Con Ed approval. D - FireIce is NOT EFFECTIVE FOR TRANSFORMER FIRES. Classes of Fire Class A - common combustibles (wood, paper, cloth) GREEN Class B - Flammable Liquids/Gases (gasoline, propane) RED Class C - Live electrical equipment (computers, cables) BLUE Class D - Combustible metals (magnesium, lithium) YELLOW

Question 26

Upon being directed to apply FireIce, Engine 33 took several actions. Which one was incorrect? A) The member that inserted the pickup tube into the product container employed a circular vacuuming motion, and did not remove the tube until the operation was concluded. B) The product container was placed at the point of nozzle operation, ensuring that the 25’ length of 1 3/4” supply hose was fully extended. C) The operating pressure at the eductor was maintained at 200 psi, using the in-line pressure gauge to ensure adequate pressure. D) The member operating the nozzle started operating the 1 3/4” line 50 feet from the manhole. After an adequate gel solution was established, the Nozzle FF moved 25 feet forward. E) The stream was directed to fall approximately one foot in front of manhole opening.

Answer 26

ANSWER: C) The operating pressure at the eductor was maintained at 200 psi, using the in-line pressure gauge to ensure adequate pressure. (INCORRECT) (AUC 180 Add. 2 section 8) Operating pressure at educator maintained at 60-100 PSI. 60-80 PSI is optimal (there is no in-line gauge for FireIce) 200 PSI is the pressure listed in the foam bulletin.

Question 27

On October 1st of each year, certain equipment shall be assembled in readiness. This equipment shall be placed on the apparatus when snow or ice emergency is imminent or Phase A or B has been established. Which choice correctly lists the types and quantities of the required equipment? 1. At least 6 extra lengths of 1 3/4” hose rolled or folded on each Engine and Ladder apparatus. 2. 2 shovels 3. Containers of ash 4. Vehicle recovery strap with shackle 5. Tire chains, spare links and link tool 6. Specialized hydrant connection set up as determined by Borough Commander. A) 1,2,3,4,5,6 B) 2,4,5 C) 1,2,4,5,6 D) 3,4,6

Answer 27

ANSWER: B) 2,4,5 (AUC 200 section 3.3.3) 1 - At least 6 extra lengths of TWO AND A HALF INCH (2 1/2”) hose 3 - Containers of SALT AND/OR SAND 6 - Specialized hydrant connections determined by INDIVIDUAL COMMANDING OFFICERS.

Question 28

Company Commanders have many responsibilities concerning planning for winter operations. Which is not one of them? A) Winter supplies and equipment shall be requisitioned June 1st. Items not received by October 1st shall be called to the attention of Technical Services. B) A supply of sand and/or salt shall be obtained for use at quarters, and also in containers to be placed on the apparatus. C) Company Commanders shall avoid the indiscriminate use of de-icees, such as crystallized salt, on concrete surfaces. D) Maintain a minimum of 6 shovels in quarters for snow clearance in front of quarters and for hydrant clearance throughout the administrative district.

Answer 28

ANSWER: A) Winter supplies and equipment shall be requisitioned June 1st. Items not received by October 1st shall be called to the attention of Technical Services. (INCORRECT) (AUC 200 section 3.3.7) * Supplies and equipment requisitioned JULY FIRST. * Items not received notify DIVISION WINTER OPS COORDINATOR.

Question 29

In the middle of January, while checking a hydrant at a reported structural fire, E-232 determines that the hydrant is frozen. Which is the correct action for E-232 to take? A) A yellow hydrant disc will always be placed on the hydrant. B) A yellow hydrant disc will only be placed on the hydrant if it is in the administrative district of E-232. C) E-232 will enter the frozen hydrant into the Hansen Hydrant Application whether or not it is in the administrative district of E-232. D) If after the hydrant has been thawed and pumped out, if it is determined that the frozen condition will recur due to a leaking valve, call DEP to notify them of the issue.

Answer 29

ANSWER: A) A yellow hydrant disc will always be placed on the hydrant. (AUC 200 4.6.3) B - Place a yellow disc (IT DOESN’T MATTER WHO’S DISTRICT THE HYDRANT IS IN) C - Enter into Hansen App. ONLY IF IT IS IN YOUR ADMIN. DISTRICT D - DO NOT CALL DEP (UTILIZE HANSEN HYDRANT APP.)

Question 30

E-2, E-17, E-99, L-92, TL-100 and B-5 respond to a medium fire condition on the 1st floor of a 2 1/2 story PD in the midst of a heavy snowstorm where Phase B has been declared. The fire building is located on a side street that has not been plowed, and street conditions are very poor. E-2 and L-92 arrive 1st. Which choice below represents the proper apparatus positioning? A) All units on the first alarm entered the block. B) Ladder 92 entered the block first. C) Engine 2 entered the block first. D) Engine 2 did not enter the block until Ladder 92 and TL 100 entered the block.

Answer 30

ANSWER: C) Engine 2 entered the block first. (AUC 200 section 5.3.10) A - ONLY FIRST ARRIVING UNITS ENTER THE BLOCK. B - ENGINE ENTERS BLOCK 1ST (Building 3 stories or less) D - ENGINE ENTERS BLOCK 1ST (Building 3 stories or less) * If the building is 3 stories or less the Engine enters first * If the building is more than 3 (4 stories) Ladder enters first. * 3 stories or less the entire operation can be done with portables * 4 story building (Aerial or TL will be needed to Ladder the building)

Question 31

E-2, E-17, E-99, L-92, TL-100 and B-5 respond to a medium fire condition on the 1st floor of a 2 1/2 story PD in the midst of a heavy snowstorm where Phase B has been declared. The fire building is located on a side street that has not been plowed, and street conditions are very poor. E-2 and L-92 arrive 1st. At a post fire critique, the IC should discuss which incorrect operation? A) When the apparatus was unable to enter the fire block, E-2 members carried folded lengths of hose on their 24’ extension ladder, which was covered lengthwise with a tarp. B) Engine 2 hooked up their hose directly to the hydrant by connecting a one way gate to the hydrant. C) The Officer of Ladder 92 assigned two members to the roof, after instructing them to bring a shovel with them. D) Ladder 100 filled pots with water from the faucet and poured it between the wall and baseboard on the 2nd floor to prevent extension from the floor below.

Answer 31

ANSWER: B) Engine 2 hooked up their hose directly to the hydrant by connecting a one way gate to the hydrant. (INCORRECT) (AUC 200 section 10.3.10) * Hook up directly to hydrant by connecting a TWO WAY GATE.

Question 32

While working a 9x6 tour a firefighter enters your office and states that he has just begun taking a prescribed pain killer due to a recent medical issue. Thinking that this medication may affect the firefighter’s mental or physical ability to fulfill his work duties, you should ensure all but which of the following actions are taken? A) Instruct the member to advise you about the specific reasons that are required to take the medication. B) Order the member to BHS for a fitness for duty determination. C) Document the referral to BHS in the unit journal. D) Advise the member that they are required to inform BHS of all relevant medical information.

Answer 32

ANSWER: A) Instruct the member to advise you about the specific reasons that are required to take the medication. (INCORRECT) (AUC 202 5.2) * NO MEMBER IS REQUIRED TO REVEAL ANY CONFIDENTIAL MEDICAL INFORMATION TO THEIR COMMANDING OFFICER.

Question 33

Lt. Schmitz who is working a 6x9 tour in a Ladder Company, enters the firehouse kitchen after a run and finds one on duty and two off duty members of the Engine Company drinking beer. According to AUC 202, the Officer must Immediately take how many of the following actions? 1. He must prohibit all on and off duty members present at the time of discovery from leaving the premise without the permission of the Engine Officer. 2. He must immediately relieve the on duty member(s) from emergency response duty. 3. He must immediately have the Engine and Ladder Company placed out of service. 4. He must notify the administrative Battalion Chief. 5. He must notify BITS. 6. He must document the incident in the Company journal. A) 6 B) 5 C) 4 D)3

Answer 33

ANSWER: C) 4 (He must complete choices 2,4,5 and 6 / Choices 1 and 3 are INCORRECT) (AUC 202 5.5) 1 - Can’t leave without the permission of the INVESTIGATING OFFICER. 3 - Only place AFFECTED UNIT OOS (Engine only in this scenario) “PROBBE” P - Prohibit ON and OFF DUTY members from leaving without permission if the INVESTIGATING OFFICER. R - Relieve all ON DUTY members from response. O - Out of service (place AFFECTED units OOS) B - Battalion Chief notification (If BC involved then next superior) B - BITS notification E - Entry in journal

Question 34

Captain Schaefer has been assigned by the Command Chief as the Investigating Officer for a situation where some on and off duty members were discovered drinking alcohol in the firehouse kitchen. As the Investigating Officer, Captain Schaefer would be correct to take all but which one of the following actions? A) He shall conduct a roll call of all on duty and off duty members present in the firehouse. B) He shall advise all members working of their right to representation before being questioned. C) Following notification, he shall conduct an investigation to ascertain which member(s) may have engaged in prohibited conduct. D) He ordered the members who are believed to have been drinking alcohol to be tested. A report shall be forwarded to the Chief of Department via the chain of command, documenting the reasons for the determination to have members tested.

Answer 34

ANSWER: B) He shall advise all members working of their right to representation before being questioned. (INCORRECT) (AUC 202 5.7) * Advise all Officers and Firefighters whom the Investigating Officer REASONABLY BELIEVES MAY BE SUBJECT TO CHARGES of their right to representation before being questioned. (Witnesses who are not involved, may be questioned) “RAIT” R - Roll call A - Advise right to representation before questioning (of those subject to charges) I - Investigate to ascertain which members engaged in prohibited conduct. T - Testing ordered for illegal drugs and alcohol.

Question 35

On a Tuesday 6x9 tour, groups 1-6 are scheduled to work when the Random Drug Testing Unit enters the quarters of Ladder 400. Of the following members, which one should not be tested? A) FF Jones (group 1) who is detailed into Ladder 400 from Ladder 500. B) FF Peters (group 2) who was detailed from Ladder 400 to Ladder 500 as an LCC. C) FF Thomas (group 18) who is working MSOT in Ladder 400. D) FF Stevens (group 6) assigned to Ladder 400, who is working Light Duty in the Division.

Answer 35

ANSWER: B) FF Peters (group 2) who was detailed from Ladder 400 to Ladder 500 as an LCC. (INCORRECT) (AUC 202 Addendum 1 4.1.6) * FF Peters will not be tested since he was detailed out of the unit (Ladder 400) that was being tested. * All members working in L-400 that tour will be tested (even details) * Off line positions (LD, administrative assignment) whose groups are in on the same date and tour as the unit being tested will also be tested.

Question 36

Every member selected for drug testing shall be tested on the date and time designated by the FDNY. No member’s request to be excused or re-scheduled (including emergency leaves), shall be granted without the approval of whom? A) Chief of Department B) Chief of Operations C) Borough Commander D) On duty Division Chief

Answer 36

ANSWER: A) Chief of Department (SUDNIK) * No one can be excused or rescheduled without SUDNIK’s approval. (AUC 202 Addendum 1 4.6.1)

Question 37

A Captain and a Lieutenant are discussing semi annual hydrant inspections and the proper reporting of defective hydrants. Which statements made during the conversation was incorrect? A) Hydrant cards (BF-47A) shall be filed in Company quarters until further notice. B) Individual members may be utilized for hydrant inspection in lieu of the entire company. C) Companies with yellow hydrants located on parkways and expressways in their districts shall include them in their annual Hydrant Inspection Program. D) Frozen hydrants shall be reported by faxing the required form to the Borough Thawing Apparatus.

Answer 37

ANSWER: D) Frozen hydrants shall be reported by faxing the required form to the Borough Thawing Apparatus. (INCORRECT) * Frozen hydrants shall be reported THROUGH THE HANSEN HYDRANT APPLICATION. (Recent change) (AUC 205 2.8)

Question 38

All of the following shall be considered “Priority Hydrants” which would require a priority repair if placed OOS with the exception of which choice below? A) A hydrant at the base of the George Washington Bridge that is considered vital to its protection. B) One of two hydrants on a dead end street. C) The only hydrant on a small two way street. D) Two adjacent hydrants found on the same block that also has two in service hydrants.

Answer 38

ANSWER: B) One if two hydrants on a dead end street (INCORRECT) Priority Hydrants 1. Only hydrant on the block. 2. Hydrant vital to the protection of critical infrastructure. Hydrants requiring priority referral “HOT” H - Hazard (target hazard or critical infrastructure) (GW Bridge) O - Only Hydrant on the block T - Two adjacent hydrants on a block that are OOS.

Question 39

Captain Dressler has received a completed DEP repair ticket for a hydrant that his unit recently placed OOS. The Captain and his company inspected the hydrant and found the repairs were not satisfactory. How should the Captain now Report this defeat? A) Re-enter the defect utilizing the Hansen hydrant application. B) Telephone the Administrative Battalion. C) Telephone the water resource officer at the Brooklyn Borough Command. D) Telephone the DEP 24 hour service desk.

Answer 39

ANSWER: A) Re-enter the defect utilizing the Hansen hydrant application. (AUC 205 4.1)

Question 40

A small group of local residents enters your quarters and requests a spray cap for a hydrant on their block. You should issue a spray cap to the group as long as all but which one of the following conditions is met? A) The requesting party is at least 16 years old. B) The “request for spray caps form” is completed. C) The cap is not placed on a hydrant on a two way street, near an intersection, on a bus route, or on an access route to main traffic arteries. D) The cap is not placed on a hydrant that is located on a main larger than 20 inches in diameter.

Answer 40

ANSWER: A) The requesting party is at least 16 years old. (INCORRECT) (AUC 205 5.3) * EIGHTEEN (18) years old.

Question 41

During the first full week of May, hydrant pressure readings should be taken on hydrants nearest to quarters. Which statement is correct regarding these readings? A) All companies shall take readings every 3 hours from 1000 hrs to 2200 hrs, record the pressures on the Hydrant Pressure Chart and post the Chart at the housewatch desk until May 31st. B) All companies shall take readings every 3 hours from 1000 hrs to 2200 hrs, record the pressures on the Hydrant Pressure Chart and post the Chart at the housewatch desk throughout the summer season. C) All Engines and Squads shall take readings every 3 hours from 1000 hrs to 2200 hrs, record the pressures on the Hydrant Pressure Chart and post the Chart at the housewatch desk until May 31st. D) All Engines and Squads shall take readings every 3 hours from 1000 hrs to 2200 hrs, record the pressures on the Hydrant Pressure Chart and post the Chart at the housewatch desk throughout the summer season.

Answer 41

ANSWER: D) All Engines and Squads shall take readings every 3 hours from 1000 hrs to 2200 hrs, record the pressures on the Hydrant Pressure Chart and post the Chart at the housewatch desk throughout the summer season. (AUC 205 6.3) Hydrant pressure readings - Engines and Squads every 3 hours Phase 1 “Water Pressure Alert” - ALL companies EVERY HOUR

Question 42

A Phase 2 “Water Pressure Emergency” has been declared in NYC and your Deputy Chief has instructed you to patrol your district for the presence of open hydrants and either shut them or place spray caps. Upon completion of your patrol duties you should fax all but which one of the following to the Battalion? A) The number of all open hydrants found B) The number of hydrants shut down C) The number of spray caps placed D) Any areas experiencing dangerously low water pressure that could adversely affect firefighting conditions.

Answer 42

ANSWER: A) The number of all open hydrants found. (INCORRECT) (AUC 205 8.2) * The number of ILLEGALLY OPENED HYDRANTS found. “SOSA” S - Shut down (number of hydrants shut down) O - Opened (number of hydrants ILLEGALLY opened) S - Spray caps (number of spray caps placed) A - Any areas experiencing dangerously low water pressure that may adversely affect firefighting operations.

Question 43

A Company Officer drilling on subway and railrod operations was incorrect to state that? A) FDNY Personnel are never permitted to operate on track areas unless assured power is off. This rule may be ignored only if life is in imminent peril and direct and immediate action is required to save life. B) Positive assurance of power shut off will be verified through the FD Dispatcher before power is assumed to be off. Power removal shall be accomplished at all times via apparatus radio through our dispatcher. C) The 1st consideration on arrival at an operation involving an electrified track is whether a HT relay is needed. D) If there is immediate danger, and power must be shutoff to save lives in imminent danger, the nearest power removal box should be used and the desk superintendent immediately notified via the emergency telephone that power is to remain off.

Answer 43

ANSWER: C) The 1st consideration on arrival at an operation involving an electrified track is whether a HT relay is needed. (INCORRECT) (AUC 207 - 2.1) * 1st consideration is to make a decision if POWER IS TO BE REMOVED OR STAY ON. * ALWAYS set up HT CORE-100 relay for subway operations.

Question 44

Whenever power is removed, which of the following subway facilities will be affected? A) Lights in the right of way B) Station lights C) Headlights D) Signals E) Third Rail F) Drainage pumping equipment G) Ventilation equipment

Answer 44

ANSWER: E) Third Rail (AUC 207 - 3.2.5) Not affected when power is removed: “Some Red Heads Spread VD” S - Station lights R – Right of way lights H – Headlights on train S - Signals V – Ventilation equipment D – Drainage pumping equipment * Interior subway car lights may be on or off

Question 45

Regarding Engine company operations at a subway fire system, which point below would be incorrect? A) Engine Chauffeurs should not connect to a hydrant until the fire is located. B) All Engine company personnel should be committed to getting the 1st line into operation. C) An FT-2 fog nozzle should be used because it has a hollow stream, a rubber tipped nozzle and the effect of a fog stream for ventilation. D) If an emergency exit is the most direct means of access to the fire area, line placement should become the priority use of this emergency exit.

Answer 45

ANSWER: If an emergency exit is the most direct means of access to the fire area, line placement should become the priority use of this emergency exit. (INCORRECT) (AUC 207 - 3.7) * Emergency exits might prove the most direct means of access to a fire area. However, EVACUATING PASSENGERS WILL ALWAYS GET PRIORITY USE OF THIS MEANS.

Question 46

Ladder 4 is setting up a HT relay for a response to a fire reported on the tracks of the subway system. Which guideline below would a member in the relay be incorrect to follow? A) The LCC should go to the bottom of the subway entrance stairs. Then, if the token clerk booth is within 50 yards of the stairs to the street, he should proceed to the token booth and contact the train dispatcher through the clerk. B) The OV should attempt to get to the foot of the stairs leading to the platform if it is within 50 yards of the LCC. C) The Roof must insure that he goes no further than 50 yards from the OV, depending on where the OV is positioned. D) The Engine Officer should insure that he goes no further than approximately 100 yards from the Roof FF, and MUST remain in the line of sight of the Roof FF. E) If necessary, additional HT equipped members should be positioned every 100 yards.

Answer 46

ANSWER: C) The Roof must insure that he goes no further than 50 yards from the OV, depending on where the OV is positioned. (INCORRECT) (AUC 207 - 4.1) * Roof FF 50 yards from STAIRS on the platform "CORE-100 Stairs/man/stairs/man" LCC 50 yards from stairs to street OV 50 yards from LCC (man) Roof 50 yards from stairs on platform Engine Officer within LOS 100 yards from Roof FF (man)

Question 47

When setting up a HT relay, members would be incorrect to think that? A) Only members needed to establish an effective relay shall be used. B) All HT relays should begin with the LCC. C) All members not needed in the HT relay shall proceed to the incident location with the Truck Officer. D) All members in the relay, including the Ladder Officer, shall use the term "RELAY" when identifying themselves.

Answer 47

ANSWER: D) All members in the relay, including the Ladder Officer, shall use the term "RELAY" when identifying themselves. (INCORRECT) (AUC 207 - 4.1) * All members in relay, EXCLUDING THE LADDER OFFICER AND COMMAND, will use the term "RELAY" when identifying themselves. "Ladder 4 to Ladder 4 Roof Relay. Notify Command there is a rubbish fire 100' south of the southbound platform."

Question 48

Ladder 105 arrives at the scene of a track fire in the subway system a few hundred feet from the station. Because the track fire is small, they decide to leave the power on. They would then be correct to consider which one of the following guidelines? A) Wait until a train comes into the station, then notify the train operator that they will be walking on the benchwall to extinguish the fire. B) Only go onto the tracks if civilians are on the tracks and they must be kept away from the 3rd rail, or they need to go to a blue light power removal box because of a life hazard, or if fire is on the express track and it cannot be reached with their extinguisher. C) When walking on the benchwall, the Officer, Can FF and Irons FF should be sufficient. D) Work in pairs and have the Can FF bring a hallgian hook.

Answer 48

ANSWER: A) Wait until a train comes into the station, then notify the train operator that they will be walking on the benchwall to extinguish the fire. (AUC 207 - 5.4.2) B - TWO REASONS TO GO ON TRACKS = If civilians are on the tracks and they must be kept away from the 3rd rail, or they need to go to a blue light power removal box because of a life hazard. C - When walking on benchwall, the OFFICER and CAN FF should be sufficient D - Can FF should bring WOODEN HOOK.

Question 49

The preferred method, whenever possible, for extinguishing a small fire in ties of an elevated railroad is to use? A) Handline from an Aerial Ladder B) Handline from a TL basket. C) Handline from the street below D) Extinguisher from an Aerial or TL.

Answer 49

ANSWER: C) Handline from the street below (AUC 207 - 5.7.1) * If Aerial or TL is needed, do not extend them beyond the railing where they can be exposed to moving trains.

Question 50

Members operating at a fuel spill in the street that is close to a subway grating or main entrance must try and stop the flow into these entrances by diking it. The preferred order to do this is represented in which choice below? A) Sand or earth, planking, charged hoselines B) Charged hose lines, planking, sand or earth C) Planking, sand or earth, charged hose lines D) Sand or earth, charged hose lines, planking

Answer 50

ANSWER: A) Sand or earth, planking, charged hoselines (AUC 207 - 5.8 L) * When a fuel spill is close to a grating or main entrance of a subway station, we must try to stop the flow into these entrances by diking. Preferably by sand or earth; if not, use planking. If none of these things are available, charge several lengths of hose and encircle the fuel spill. This should be followed by a layer of foam.

Question 51

There is a possibility of diesel engines (work trains) operating on all tracks throughout the NYC Transit system, even after power has been confirmed off and train traffic has been halted. A) True B) False

Answer 51

ANSWER: A) True (AUC 207 - 6.4) * There is also the possibility of diesel engines operating on all tracks. Members must remain vigilant for train movement even after power has been confirmed off and train traffic has been halted.

Question 52

You are the member sent to a Blue Light Power Removal Box to shut power due to an imminent life hazard on the tracks. In this situation you would be incorrect to think that you should? A) Use the pull down lever inside the box to shut power. B) Immediately call the desk superintendent via the telephone near the blue light and indicate that power is to be removed and the reason why. C) Dial the primary 4 digit number listed on the inside cover of the door. If the primary number is busy, release the handset button, then re-depress the button and call an alternate number. D) Depress the handset button when speaking, and release the handset button to listen.

Answer 52

ANSWER: D) Depress the handset button when speaking, and release the handset button to listen. (INCORRECT) (AUC 207 - 8.1) * Depress button at all times when LISTENING AND SPEAKING. * Letting go of the button will TERMINATE THE CALL

Question 53

You are the member sent to a Blue Light Power Removal Box to shut power due to an imminent life hazard on the tracks. On arrival at the nearest box, you find a white bag with red lettering that states "out of service" over the box. In this situation it would be best to? A) Advise your Officer power removal is not possible via power removal boxes. B) Continue to the next nearest power removal box C) Use the associated telephone to contact Rail Control Center to request the removal of power, remaining on the phone until receiving confirmation that power has been removed. D) Notify the IC via HT relay that power removal must be accomplished via Department Radio.

Answer 53

ANSWER: C) Use the associated telephone to contact Rail Control Center to request the removal of power, remaining on the phone until receiving confirmation that power has been removed. (AUC 207 - 8.1) * All members are reminded that the use of a Power Removal Box to remove power should only be used as a LAST RESORT, when there is an imminent life hazard.

Question 54

In the NYC Subway System, members should know firefighting equipment exists, particularly in under-river tubes. Which point below regarding this equipment is not accurate? A) All under-river tubes have a wet standpipe system that are city main connected at each end and protected from freezing. B) All under-river tubes have siamese connections located on each end of the tube. C) Gate valves with FDNY threads are located approximately 200 feet apart, D) Dry chemical extinguishers are found at power removal boxes, approximately 800 feet apart.

Answer 54

ANSWER: D) Dry chemical extinguishers are found at power removal boxes, approximately 800 feet apart. (INCORRECT) (AUC 207 - 8.5) * 600 feet apart * SUBWAY (6 letters = 600 feet apart) * AIRTRAIN (8 letters = 800 feet apart)

Question 55

When responding to the NYC Transit System, members may need to make notifications in certain situations when certain issues occur. How many points below are accurate regarding these notifications? 1. Anytime power is removed by use of a power removal box, the IC shall forward a letterhead report with full particulars through the chain of command to the Chief of Operations. 2. When inspecting an emergency exit, or responding to an incident at an emergency exit, units shall request the Borough Communications Office notify the MTA Transit Control Center of the emergency exit number and location they are entering. 3. Whenever there is a problem with the removal of power, lack of compliance, cooperation, or assitance during operations, drills, and inspections at transit facilities, PTSU shall be notified and followed by a report through the chain of command. 4. Any FDNY unit experiencing a problem with the NYC Transit Repeater system should notify the Borough Communications Office via Department Radio advising of the problem, and the exact location or station. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

Answer 55

ANSWER: D) 4 ALL ARE CORRECT | AUC 207 - 3.2.4, 8.8, 10.1, Add 16 section 6

Question 56

Under New York State Law, if there is reasonable cause to suspect that a child has suffered or will suffer abuse or maltreatment as a result of the acts or omissions of the child's parent or guardian members are required to file a report. An Officer in E99 working a day tour has just arrived at an EMS run for a sick child. The Officer suspects that the child has been abused so he requests EMS and the police. In this situation, who is responsible for filing this mandated report? A) The Officer on duty in E99 B) The Police Department C) The Department of Child Administrative Services D) The ambulance crew who responds to provide medical care.

Answer 56

ANSWER: D) The ambulance crew who responds to provide medical care. (AUC 3 - 1.6) * NEW HIGHLY TESTABLE

Question 57

During FLSTP's Captain Smith was reviewing the actions that Officers are required to take when assisting civilians who request assistance because they are being harassed, followed, abused etc. In which choice did Captain Smith give incorrect information? A) If there is reasonable cause to suspect that returning a child to his/her parents would represent imminent danger to the child, the Officer on duty shall remain on the scene and notify the police department. However, a Fire Officer cannot take the child into protective custody. B) While in quarters if a member receives a request for assistance the Officer on duty will be notified and he will notify the dispatcher that the unit is operating at a verbal alarm to assist a civilian. The Officer shall request the police through the dispatcher. C) While out of quarters if a member receives a request for assistance, the officer on duty shall notify the dispatcher that the unit is operating at a verbal to assist a civilian. The officer shall request the police through the dispatcher. D) When a request is received for assistance, whether in or out of quarters, a letterhead report, with endorsements, shall be forwarded to the Chief of Operations. Must include the civilian’s name and the identity of the Police Officer left in charge of the civilian’s care. A Company Journal entry, including the same information, must also be made.

Answer 57

ANSWER: A) If there is reasonable cause to suspect that returning a child to his/her parents would represent imminent danger to the child, the Officer on duty shall remain on the scene and notify the police department. However, a Fire Officer cannot take the child into protective custody. (INCORRECT) (AUC 3 - 1.3) * Officer on duty CAN TAKE CHILD INTO PROTECTIVE CUSTODY. * NEW HIGHLY TESTABLE

Question 58

You are a Lt. working a day tour in L100 and see in the day book that the company has operation sidewalk scheduled for 1400 hours. It is located at a school that is in the neighborhood. Around 1100 hours while you are out getting the meal, you hear over the department radio that a 10-51 has been transmitted for the rest of the day. In this situation you would be correct to? A) Tell the members that operation sidewalk is cancelled since a 10-51 was transmitted. B) Tell the members that even though a 10-51 was transmitted, the unit must still conduct operation sidewalk.

Answer 58

ANSWER: A) Tell the members that operation sidewalk is cancelled since a 10-51 was transmitted. (AUC 4 - 2.5) * All fire safety education programs are exempt from the 10-51 signal, EXCEPT OperationSidewalk or when ordered by the Chief of Operations. * Boy Scout Troops and school visits are OK during 10-51

Question 59

You are a Lt. working a day tour in L100 and see in the day book that the company has a local Boy Scout Troop visiting the firehouse at 1100 hours. At 0945 hours a 10-51 is given for the rest of the day tour. In this situation you would be correct to tell the members? A) Tell the members that the Boy Scout Troop visit is cancelled since a 10-51 was transmitted. B) Tell the members that even though a 10-51 was given, the Boy Scout Troop can still visit the firehouse.

Answer 59

ANSWER: B) Tell the members that even though a 10-51 was given, the Boy Scout Troop can still visit the firehouse. (AUC 4 - 3.2)

Question 60

The fire department conducts annual open house events with the goal of educating the public in the difficult and dangerous work that we perform. Which is the only correct point about open houses? A) The selected firehouse will be open to the public for a 1 1/2 hour period as designated by the Bureau of Operations. B) Units will be out of service during the open house event. C) The fire safety and education unit will provide fire safety literature for distribution to the public. D) At the conclusion of the event, the on duty administrative Battalion Chief shall close out the event on the FSE tracking system.

Answer 60

ANSWER: C) The fire safety and education unit will provide fire safety literature for distribution to the public. (AUC 4 - 3.2) A - Open house will be available to the public for TWO (2) HOUR PERIOD. B - Units will be IN SERVICE during open house D - OFFICER ON DUTY will close out the event on FSE tracking system

Question 61

Captain Shakebox was talking to one of his Lts. about an upcoming firehouse visit of a local 3rd grade class and was incorrect in which statement below? A) When a request is received for a firehouse visit to quarters, the Officer on duty will note the event in the daybook and enter the information into the FSE tracking system. B) The Officer on duty will e-mail the Scheduling Unit advising them of the date and times of the event. C) The unit will remain in service during the firehouse visit. Since its a 3rd grade class there must be 1 adult for every 15 kids. D) The visit can be scheduled even though the unit has hydrant inspections since that can be easily rescheduled. However, firehouse visits should never be scheduled when a unit has BISP on the same day.

Answer 61

ANSWER: D) The visit can be scheduled even though the unit has hydrant inspections since that can be easily rescheduled. However, firehouse visits should never be scheduled when a unit has BISP on the same day. (INCORRECT) (AUC 4 - 3.1) (Regulations 19 - 19.2.14) * The Officer on Duty will schedule the event on a day that the Unit IS NOT SCHEDULED for BISP, hydrant inspection or other scheduled activities, such as PMP, etc. * Visits shall be of no more than one hour duration, between 0900 hours and 1700 hours Below 3rd grade - 1 adult for every 4 kids 3rd / 4th grade - 1 adult for every 15 kids Scout Troops - 1 adult for every 20 kids. 5th and over - 1 adult for every 30 kids

Question 62

When arriving at a subway entrance, members finding a HEET (High Entry Exit Turnstile) should know the correct way to access the subway entrance via the HEET is by use of? A) A 2642 key B) A special key issued to each unit by the transit authority. C) A 1620 key D) The token booth clerk must buzz the members in

Answer 62

ANSWER: C) A 1620 key | AUC 207 - Addendum 3

Question 63

During a recent tour, your proby comes into the office and tells you that he cannot find the Metrocard on the rig. After a diligent search you realize that the card is missing. You would be correct to take all of the following actions except? A) Immediately notify the administrative BC on duty of the particulars and include ID number of Metrocard in the notification. B) Call the police in order to file a police report C) Complete a Lost Property Report ensuring that the MTA NYC Transit ID number is included on the report. D) The Lost Property Report along with the police report number shall be endorsed as required and forwarded to the FDNY Resource Center requesting that a replacement Metrocard be issued.

Answer 63

ANSWER: A) Immediately notify the administrative BC on duty of the particulars and include ID number of Metrocard in the notification. (INCORRECT) * Immediately notify the FDNY RESOURCE CENTER (AUC 207 - Add 3)

Question 64

The MTA NYC Transit Authority has color coded globes on all light posts at subway street entrances. These globes indicate what type of access is available when using the stairway entrance. Which point below about these globes is incorrect? A) A red globe indicates that there may or may not be a token booth clerk at this location and that the stairway may be closed at some point during a 24 hour day. B) A green globe indicates that the entrance is open 24 hours a day and that there always will be a token booth clerk at this location. C) Members are advised that where these light posts are installed, the first point of access, if possible, should be an entrance with a green globe. D) In areas that are not served by a token booth clerk, access will be via a High Entrance/Exit Turnstile (HEET) or a gate.

Answer 64

ANSWER: B) A green globe indicates that the entrance is open 24 hours a day and that there always will be a token booth clerk at this location. (INCORRECT) * MAY OR MAY NOT BE A TOKEN BOOTH CLERK (AUC 207 - Addendum 3)

Question 65

Frequently FDNY units responding to reported subway fires are informed that the Transit Authority has a light train available at the station for FD use. Listed below are points about this Light Train. Which points are incorrect? (More than one incorrect) A) Light trains can be used to transport FD personnel to any type of fire, smoke condition or other similar type incidents. B) The decision to use a light train may be made by a Company Officer or a Chief, based on the size-up of the incident. C) If a communications link cannot be established with the FD unit on the train, then the train is not to be used. D) An agreement has been reached with the TA to allow the FD unit on the train direct use of the train operator's radio. E) Progress reports from the light train shall be transmitted as soon as possible but at least once every 20 minutes. F) A light train shall not travel past the next station without the permission of the Chief in charge. G) FD units should not enter the track area from the light train unless power has been removed. H) If necessary to disembark the light train, a HT equipped member shall be assigned to remain with the train operator and maintain communications.

Answer 65

ANSWER: A / B / E are INCORRECT (AUC 207 - Add 7) A) Light trains can be used to transport FD personnel to any type of fire, smoke condition or other similar type incidents. (INCORRECT) B) The decision to use a light train may be made by a Company Officer or a Chief, based on the size-up of the incident. (INCORRECT) E) Progress reports from the light train shall be transmitted as soon as possible but at least once every 20 minutes. (INCORRECT) A - Light trains used to transport FD to MINOR SMOKE CONDITIONS B - Decision to use Light train made by CHIEF OFFICER E - Progress reports every FIFTEEN (15) minutes

Question 66

During a recent subway drill at the rock, members were discussing subway ventilation fans. Which point made during this drill is not entirely correct? A) In a smoke condition, the track bed may be more comfortable for the passengers than the benchwall since the track bed may be below the smoke level. Both the track bed and benchwall are acceptable avenues of evacuation. B) The ventilation fans of under river tubes are reversible, that is, capable of being operated in either the supply or exhaust mode and are located on both ends of the tube. C) Whenever evacuation or removal of passengers from a train to the track or benchwall is contemplated, the power shall be ordered off. Keep in mind that fans will not work when power removal is ordered by the Fire Department. D) The evacuation of passengers from under river tubes should take place away from any fan operated in the exhaust mode. In this way, the forced airflow will draw fresh air into the faces of the evacuatating passengers and remove smoke from the area which they are evacuating.

Answer 66

ANSWER: C) Whenever evacuation or removal of passengers from a train to the track or benchwall is contemplated, the power shall be ordered off. Keep in mind that fans will not work when power removal is ordered by the Fire Department. (INCORRECT) (AUC 207 - Add 8) * Fans ARE NOT AFFECTED by power removal. "Some Red Heads Spread VD" (Not affected) S - Station lights R – Right of way lights H – Headlights on train S - Signals V – Ventilation equipment D – Drainage pumping equipment * Interior subway car lights may be on or off

Question 67

E99 has just arrived at Penn Station for a report of an Amtrak train on fire on track 17. As members make their way down the stairs they see that the undercarriage of the train is on fire and exposing the diesel fuel tank on this dual powered train. The train is powered by the overhead catenary wires, which the dispatcher has confirmed are de-energized. A supervisor from Amtrak approaches the Officer from E99 and tells him that the catenary wires have not been grounded and that it will take about another 15 minutes to have the wires grounded. In this situation, the Officer of E99 would be most correct to give which order below? A) Order a line stretched with a fog stream operated from the adjacent platform from 15 feet away, directing water at the train's undercarriage in short bursts, thus controlling fire and/or cooling the diesel fuel tank. B) Order a line stretched and with a fog stream, but do flow water until it is confirmed that the catenary wires have been grounded.

Answer 67

ANSWER: A) Order a line stretched with a fog stream operated from the adjacent platform from 15 feet away, directing water at the train's undercarriage in short bursts, thus controlling fire and/or cooling the diesel fuel tank. (AUC 207 - Addendum 9) * Run-off water presents an electrical hazard and officers shall make certain that firefighters are not standing in the path of run-off water

Question 68

All FDNY members applying water with hand-held fog nozzles should take advantage of the reach of the fog stream and observe a minimum approach distance of _____ feet to catenary wires. A) 4' B) 25' C) 30' D) 10'

Answer 68

ANSWER: D) 10' (AUC 207 - Addendum 9) CaTENary Minimum distance of four feet (4') should be maintained for voltages from 10,000 volts (10KV) to 30,000 volts (30KV). However, a common sense approach to catenary lines containing approximately 12,000 volts (12KV) is required. All fire teams applying water with hand-held fog nozzles should take advantage of the reach of the fog stream and observe to a minimum approach distance of ten feet (10') to catenary wires.

Question 69

When operating near catenary lines it is important for members to have a thorough understanding of the different terms and equipment that may be found in and around these systems. Which definition listed below is incorrect? A) An electrical pantograph is a carriage assembly mounted above a locomotive that can be raised or lowered to make electrical contact with a catenary line. B) Dual powered locomotives may have traction motors that can switch from one power supply to another. These trains use diesel when traveling in rural areas and switch to electric when entering the city. C) Catenary wires are overhead electrical wires that deliver approximately 10,000 to 30,000 volts of direct current. These lines do not retain residual static electricity after the power source has been disconnected. D) Standby electrical power is supplied to a standing train via a cable supplying power to operate the refrigeration, lighting, air conditioning, and any other electrical equipment between runs.

Answer 69

ANSWER: C) Catenary wires are overhead electrical wires that deliver approximately 10,000 to 30,000 volts of direct current. These lines do not retain residual static electricity after the power source has been disconnected. (INCORRECT) * Catenary wires DO RETAIN RESIDUAL ELECTRICITY after the power has been shut down. (AUC 207 - Addendum 9)

Question 70

Sound powered phone and dry standpipe systems located in the subway system are a great asset to firefighting operations in the subway system. Which point below is incorrect regarding these systems? A) The sound powered telephone jacks are compatible with the handset equipment used by the Field Communication Unit and various other FD units. B) Standpipe outlets at the platform level will be located inside a locked stainless steel cabinet. The cabinet can be opened by using a 1620 key and will not contain hose. C) Sound powered telephone outlet jacks will be located in a secure metal box that can be opened with a FDNY 1620 key. In most cases, the outlet jack box will be inside the stainless steel standpipe cabinet. D) The siamese connection will be located at the street level with appropriate signage stating that it is a supply for NYC Transit Subway. E) Sound powered phone outlet jack boxes are not equipped with telephone handsets.

Answer 70

ANSWER: B) Standpipe outlets at the platform level will be located inside a locked stainless steel cabinet. The cabinet can be opened by using a 1620 key and will not contain hose. (INCORRECT) * Standpipe Stainless Steel cabinets opened with a SUBWAY KEY * Sound powered phone outlet jack boxes opened with 1620 key. (AUC 2017 - Addendum 10)

Question 71

During semi-annual subway emergency inspection period, E99 is inspecting the subway dry standpipe system and testing the sound powered telephones in a station near the firehouse. Members noted two defects during the inspection. The Officer from E99 would be correct to take which action below to have these defects repaired? A) Forward an A-8 Referral Report to the Public Transportation Safety Unit, Bureau of Operations. B) Make a phone call to the Public Transportation Safety Unit, Bureau of Operations. C) Forward an A-8 Referral Report to the Transit Authority D) Make a phone call to the Transit Authority.

Answer 71

ANSWER: A) Forward an A-8 Referral Report to the Public Transportation Safety Unit, Bureau of Operations. (AUC 207 - Addendum 10 5.4)

Question 72

The Emergency Evacuation Device (EED) was designed by the NYCTAs Office of Safety System. EEDs are provided for FDNY use and are located throughout the TA's subway system. Which feature below is an incorrect description of the EED? A) The EED is a yellow, 7 foot long device with steps on the front and a flat surface on the backside. A non-skid surface is applied to both sides. B) When positioned against the side or end doors of a subway car the EED will reach the roadbed at approximately a 75 degree angle (safe for ascent/descent) and the steps will provide a horizontal stepping surface. C) Each unit weighs approximately 42 pounds. D) These devices are constructed of fiberglass reinforced plastic and are electrically non-conductive for use within the confines of the subway environment.

Answer 72

ANSWER: B) When positioned against the side or end doors of a suubway car the EED will reach the roadbed at approximately a 75 degree angle (safe for ascent/descent) and the steps will provide a horizontal stepping surface. (INCORRECT) * SEVENTY DEGREE (70) ANGLE (AUC 207 - Add 11 2.1)

Question 73

You are a company Officer having a discussion with your members about the location of the EED throughout the transit system. However, you were only correct in which point below? A) At underground stations, the EED is located at the 1st blue light location south of the southbound platform (typically within 50 yards of the platform end) B) At grade level and elevated stations, the EED will be located in an area at the fulltime token booth. C) An EED is located at the base of the emergency exit, at one end of each under river tunnel only. D) Keys to remove EEDs from their mounting brackets are available at every token booth.

Answer 73

ANSWER: D) Keys to remove EEDs from their mounting brackets are available at every token booth. A - Underground stations the EED is located 50 FEET south of the southbound platform. B - AT ELEVATED STATIONS the EED will be located in the area of the fulltime token booth. C - An EED is located at the base of the emergency exit AT BOTH ENDS of each under river tunnel. (AUC 207 - Addendum 11 3.1)

Question 74

In Queens, a unique type of rail transportation system has been constructed to facilitate transportation to and from Kennedy Airport. The system is known as the "Airtrain". Which of the following features describing the Airtrain Stations is incorrect? A) A blue light station power removal box is located at one end of each platform. B) Inside the blue light station power removal box there is a red power removal button, which when depressed, de-energizes both the inbound and outbound tracks on the guideway for at least the entire length of the station platform. C) All stations have an emergency fire alarm panel that has an emergency telephone line to the Airtrain Operations Center at JFK. D) There is also an emergency telephone located on each platform, which provides a direct line to the Airtrain Operations Center.

Answer 74

ANSWER: A) A blue light station power removal box is located at one end of each platform. (INCORRECT) * Located at EACH END OF EACH PLATFORM. (AUC 207 - Addendum 12 2.2)

Question 75

Additional features of the Airtrain system are described below. Which of the following are correct? (more than 1 correct) A) Airtrains are comprised of one to four cars. Each car can carry 200 passengers. B) The Airtrain can reach speeds of up to 70 mph. C) Every Airtrain car has four sets of doors (one on each side and one on the front and rear) D) Center walkways will be located between the tracks and are 5 1/2 feet wide. Side walkways are located outside of the tracks and are 2 1/2 feet wide and will also be provided with approximatey 3 foot high hand rails. E) The presence of a guardrail above the parapet wall of the elevated guideway always indicates that the 3rd rail is located between the tracks, and that there is a side walkway present. F) The Airtrain is powered by a 3rd rail power system (750 volts DC) G) Blue light power removal boxes are located every 600 feet along rhe guideway.

Answer 75

ANSWER: A / B / D / F ARE CORRECT (C / E / G ARE INCORRECT) (AUC 207 - Addendum 12 3) C - Every Airtrain has 4 doors TWO (2) ON EACH SIDE E - The presence of a guardrail above the parapet wall of the elevated guideway USUALLY INDICATES that the 3rd rail is located between the tracks, and that there is a side walkway present. G - Blue light power removal boxes are located every EIGHT HUNDRED (800) FEET along rhe guideway. Subway "6 letters" blue light 600 feet apart Airtrain "8 letters" blue light 800 feet apart

Question 76

When responding to an Airtrain emergency, the 1st consideration upon arrival is to determine whether or not power needs to be removed. Which of the following statements regarding power removal is correct? A) All requets for power removal must be made directly to the Airtrain Operations Center via the emergency telephone. B) The IC shall insure that grounding straps are in place on each side of the operation after members are committed to the guideway. C) The only exception to having grounding straps placed should be when the IC has determined that an imminent life hazard exists and time does not allow for the placement of these straps. D) In life-threatening situations and the blue light power removal box has been activated, two handie talkie equipped members must remain at the blue light station power removal box to insure that the power remains off.

Answer 76

ANSWER: C) The only exception to having grounding straps placed should be when the IC has determined that an imminent life hazard exists and time does not allow for the placement of these straps. (AUC 207 - Addendum 12 6) A - All requets for power removal must be made directly THROUGH THE FDNY DISPATHER. B - Ensure grounding straps are in place BEFORE members commit to the guideway. D - ONE HT EQUIPPED MEMBER remains at blue light to ensure power remains off.

Question 77

You are the officer working in L173 when an alarm is received for an Airtrain emergency at the Howard Beach Station. Upon arrival at the station, your unit takes the following actions. All are correct except which one? A) Members proceed to the Emergency Fire Alarm Panel, which is located at ground level on the outside of the station. B) On arrival you sought out the Airtrain "Area Coordinator". This person is responsible for authorizing all activities at the station, and they can also operate the Airtrain if needed. C) Since no Airtrain personnel were present, you contacted the Airtrain Operations Center by using the emergency telephone found at the Emergency Fire Alarm Panel. D) Depending on the circumstances the IC considered the possibility of a "Light train" operation.

Answer 77

ANSWER: B) On arrival you sought out the Airtrain "Area Coordinator". This person is responsible for authorizing all activities at the station, and they can also operate the Airtrain if needed. (INCORRECT) * This person CANNOT OPERATE THE AIRTRAIN. (AUC 207 - Addendum 12 9)

Question 78

What is the primary method for evacuating passengers from an Airtrain between stations? A) A Tower Ladder B) An Aerial Ladder C) Via the walkway D) A rescue train from the front, rear or adjacent track

Answer 78

ANSWER: D) A rescue train from the front, rear or adjacent track. * For an IMMEDIATE REMOVAL the TL is the best option * Via the walkway is an option based on the distance to the station, weather conditions and the physical capabilities and condition of the passengers. (AUC 207 - Addendum 12 10)

Question 79

You are working the day tour in L126. At roll call members are going over their SOP's for operating at an Airtrain incident between stations on the elevated guideway above the Van Wyck Expressway. They make the following comments below. Which point made is incorrect? A) A minimum of 1 Engine, 1 Ladder and a BC shall operate at all times at Airtrain incident/emergencies on high speed roadways. One of these units must be a TL. B) The primary means for accessing the guideway shall be via the nearest overpass. C) If the incident is not located near an overpass and the TL is placed alongside the high speed roadway for access to the guideway the complete closing of the roadway is required. D) Units shall request the immediate response of the NYPD to assist with traffic control when the incident is not on JFK property.

Answer 79

ANSWER: A) A minimum of 1 Engine, 1 Ladder and a BC shall operate at all times at Airtrain incident/emergencies on high speed roadways. One of these units must be a TL. (INCORRECT) * Minimum of TWO (2) ENGINES and TWO (2) LADDERS * One of these units MUST be a Tower Ladder. (AUC 207 - Addendum 12 11)

Question 80

The NYCTA has installed repeater radio systems for all underground subway stations and subway tunnels throughout NYC except Staten Island. Which of the following statements concerning the subway repeater is incorrect? A) FDNY HTs have been programmed to provide 2 subway repeater channels, Channel 14 (Subway 1) and Channel 15 (Subway 2) B) Channel 14 and 15 are 5 watt channels C) The repeater systems will carry the HTs internal ID numbers D) The repeater channels will not support the emergency alert feature.

Answer 80

ANSWER: D) The repeater channels will not support the emergency alert feature. (INCORRECT) * They WILL SUPPORT emergency alert feature. (AUC 207 - Addendum 16 1)

Question 81

You are the 1st arriving ladder to a reported fire in the subway station in Union Square in Manhattan. On arrival, you direct your members to establish a HT relay and proceed down to the subway platform to investigate conditions. There is a moderate smoke condition and a NYCTA worker reports there is a construction shanty burning. The IC decides to use the repeater system at this operation but is only correct in which of the following points? A) The IC notifies the dispatcher to have the repeater system activated by NYCTA. B) Once the repeater system is tested and confirmed operational, the IC notifies the ladder officer that the HT relay is no longer necessary. C) The IC decides to use both the primary repeater channel 14 and secondary repeater channel 15 at this incident. D) Experience has shown that the POST radio is an additional reliable option for communicating to below grade locations.

Answer 81

ANSWER: C) The IC decides to use botht he primary repeater channel 14 and secondary repeater channel 15 at this incident. A - Repeater system IS ALWAYS ON (doesn't need to be turned on) B - The HT relay is ALWAYS NECESSARY D - Post Radio is UNRELIABLE below grade (AUC 207 - Addendum 16 4.3)

Question 82

You are the 1st arriving ladder to a reported fire in the subway station in Union Square in Manhattan. On arrival, you direct your members to establish a HT relay and proceed down to the subway platform to investigate conditions. There is a moderate smoke condition and a NYCTA worker reports there is a construction shanty burning. The IC decides to use the repeater system at this operation. Which point about the repeater system is incorrect? A) Any FD unit that experiences a problem with the NYC transit repeater system shall notify the Public Transportation Safety Unit upon return to quarters. B) The subway repeaters are similar to building repeaters and cannot support multiple messages transmitted at the same time. C) At minor operations such as rubbish on the platform, the company Officer shall determine the channel assignments of his members. D) Any member operating on the repeater channel must be teamed with an HT equipped member operating on HT channel 1.

Answer 82

ANSWER: A) Any FD unit that experiences a problem with the NYC transit repeater system shall notify the Public Transportation Safety Unit upon return to quarters. (INCORRECT) (AUC 201 - Addendum 16 4.4) * Notify the BOROUGH COMMNICATIONS OFFICE VIA DEPARTMENT RADIO and advise the Dispatcher of the problem.

Question 83

If the subway repeater system fails, certain procedures are necessary to ensure a communications link is maintained between the IC and operating members. Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning failure of the repeater system? A) Members should be alert to the signs of repeater failure such as unusual periods of radio silence or continued inability to make radio contact on the repeater channel. B) If members encounter a dead spot in repeater coverage they shall immediately use the HT relay to report the failure to the IC. C) If the repeater system fails, HT communications on FDNY Channel 14 and 15 are not possible. D) On the Post Radio channel "Rev Subway 1" has been added for use if channel 14 fails and channel "Rev Subway 2" has been added if channel 15 fails.

Answer 83

ANSWER: B) If members encounter a dead spot in repeater coverage they shall immediately use the HT relay to report the failure to the IC. (INCORRECT) (AUC 207 - Addendum 16 5.2) * PRIOR TO ABANDONING the use of the repeater channel, the team shall return to a safe location where PREVIOUS COMMUNICATIONS WERE SUCCESSFUL. If communications are now successful on the repeater channel, report the “dead spot” to the IC. If communications are unsuccessful, use H/T relay (Ch. 1) to report the repeater failure to the IC.

Question 84

MTA NYC Transit Single Exit Station Sticker is an 8” x 8” black pictorial with a yellow background. When encountering these stickers at a subway incident, members should be aware of all of the following except which? A) These stickers are located inside the station at the platform level. B) There may be multiple stairway entrances leading to the street from the end of the platform that provides egress. C) These stickers are provided for any station where egress from the platform is restricted to only one end of the station platform. D) Depending on the location of the fire or emergency on the station platform, many passenger may be trapped at the end of the platform which does not provide an available means of egress.

Answer 84

ANSWER: A) These stickers are located inside the station at the platform level. (INCORRECT) * It is located on the station entrance signs at STREET LEVEL. (AUC 207 - Addendum 17 1.3)

Question 85

The Nolan Emergency Rail Cart is a lightweight aluminum cart that can be used to transport tools, equipment and patients on tracks used by the NYC Transit, Amtrak, Long Island Railroad, Staten Island Rapid Transit, Metro North and PATH Transit systems. Which of the following statements about the Rail Cart is incorrect? A) Rail carts shall only be secured to the apparatus when special called for an operation or training. B) Any engine or ladder company may be special called to transport the rail cart from the quarters where it is stored to the scene of an incident. C) A red square is painted on the surface corner of the rail cart to indicate the location of the wheel lock. D) Tools, equipment or non-ambulatory victims may be secured to the rail cart using supplied elastic cargo net, red cam buckle straps, or utility rope utilizing clips positioned around the rail carts edge.

Answer 85

ANSWER: B) Any engine or ladder company may be special called to transport the rail cart from the quarters where it is stored to the scene of an incident. (INCORRECT) * ONLY AN ENGINE will be special called to transport the rail cart from the quarters where it is stored. (AUC 207 - Addendum 19 2.5)

Question 86

Regarding the deployment of the Nolan Rail cart at a subway incident, which of the following statements is incorrect? A) Upon arrival at the incident, the Officer shall report to the command post and inform the IC of the availability of the rail cart. B) When ordered to deploy the rail cart, the IC shall determine the best access point and order the members to transport the rail cart to the scene using the hand truck. C) Avoid allowing equipment to extend beyond the sides of the cart to prevent contact with tunnel walls or the 3rd rail. D) The wheel lock must be engaged when the cart is left unattended.

Answer 86

ANSWER: B) When ordered to deploy the rail cart, the IC shall determine the best access point and order the members to transport the rail cart to the scene using the hand truck. (INCORRECT) * THE OFFICER shall determine the best access point. (AUC 207 - Addendum 19 4.2)

Question 87

Two senior firefighters of L100 were discussing proper relief procedures at change of tours. One firefighter made an incorrect statement which can be found in which choice? A) Relieving platoons should be ready to leave quarters immediately after commencement of the tour of duty. Such units shall leave promptly upon arrival of transportation. B) Units within one half mile of the location of operations should proceed on foot, or utilize public transportation, if available. C) Unless specifically ordered, no company shall remain in quarters later than 0930 or 1830 before proceeding to the location of operations or a relocated quarters. D) To expedite the departure of units scheduled for training, units scheduled for such activities must leave from their quarters, with the day tour members no later than 0915 hours or night tour members no later than 1815 hours.

Answer 87

ANSWER: B) Units within one half mile of the location of operations should proceed on foot, or utilize public transportation, if available. (INCORRECT) (AUC 217 2.1) * ONE THIRD (1/3RD) OF A MILE * To relieve relocated members = 30 min * To leave for training = 15 min (AUC 287)

Question 88

It is important to ensure the prompt relief of relocated units at the change of tours. In accordance with the current policy, which choice can be considered correct? A) The Officer of a relocated unit shall (at 0800 or 1700) notify the dispatcher in the borough in which relocated that relief will, or may, be required. B) The Officer of a relocated unit shall (at 0800 or 1700) notify the Battalion in which relocated that relief will, or may, be required. C) Officers reporting for duty and finding the company not in quarters, shall ascertain if their company is relocated. If relocated, the Officer shall notify the dispatcher that relief will, or may be required. D) The Officer of a relocated unit shall (at 0800 or 1700) notify their administrative Battalion that relief will, or may, be required.

Answer 88

ANSWER: A) The Officer of a relocated unit shall (at 0800 or 1700) notify the dispatcher in the borough in which relocated that relief will, or may, be required. (AUC 217 4.2) * Notify dispatch 1 hour before the start of the tour * Officers reporting for duty and finding the company not in quarters, shall ascertain if their company is relocated. If relocated, the Officer shall notify the BATTALION that relief will, or may be required. Battalion will then notify the Division.

Question 89

Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding the FDs SCBA Policy? A) "Wearing" an SCBA shall mean having the harness on, with the facepiece in standby position. "Using" an SCBA shall mean having the facepiece on with the regulator donned. B) The wearing/using of SCBAs may be dispensed with only when authorized by the IC. C) Members operating in smoke or toxic atmopsheres should not remove the SCBA regulator except if the member's cylinder becomes depleted or if the member's SCBA malfunctions in any way. D) If a member's cylinder becomes depleted, leaving the facepiece donned and removing the regulator will provide some protection to the member's face.

Answer 89

ANSWER: C) Members operating in smoke or toxic atmopsheres should not remove the SCBA regulator except if the member's cylinder becomes depleted or if the member's SCBA malfunctions in any way. (INCORRECT) * If the member's cylinder becomes depleted or the SCBA malfunctions AS TO CUT OFF THE AIR SUPPLY. (AUC 220 2.2)

Question 90

When it is necessary for an Officer to leave the IDLH area to service his/her SCBA, he/she would be correct to take all of the following actions except which? A) The Officer shall notify the IC of the operation (or next level of command within the Sector, Group, or Branch if one has been established). B) The Officer shall be accompanied to a safe area by another member using an SCBA. C) Such Officer must ensure that temporary supervision is provided for the remaining member(s) under their direct supervision during their abscense. D) Circumstances that prevent the Officer from providing temporary supervision shall require immediate notification to the IC, who will ensure supervision is assigned.

Answer 90

ANSWER: D) Circumstances that prevent the Officer from providing temporary supervision shall require immediate notification to the IC, who will ensure supervision is assigned. (INCORRECT) * Shall require IMMEDIATE WITHDRAWAL OF MEMBERS UNDER THAT OFFICERS IMMEDIATE SUPERVISION. (AUC 220 2.6)

Question 91

If it is not possible to remove a member or civilian from a contaminated atmosphere, each of the following options can be used to provide air supply while freeing the trapped individual except? A) For trapped members, utilize the nearest available FAST Pak. B) For trapped civilians, utilize the nearest available FAST Pak. C) Utilize a spare SCBA to provide air to a trapped member. D) Utilize a spare SCBA to provide air to a trapped civilian.

Answer 91

ANSWER: B) For trapped civilians, utilize the nearest available FAST Pak. (INCORRECT) * Can use a FAST Pak OTHER THAN THE FAST UNIT'S. (AUC 220 - 2.8)

Question 92

Rehabilitation at fires and emergencies is important to the safety and health of members of the Department. Which of the following choices is incorrect? A) The position "rehabilitation manager" will be staffed by a BC or a Captain. B) Upon transmission of a signal 10-75 and greater alarms, 10-60, 10-76, 10-77, a RAC unit will be assigned. C) Members entering the rehabilitation should normally rest for approximately 30 minutes before being reassigned. D) Units shall be sent to rehab in manageable groups, usually four units at a time.

Answer 92

ANSWER: C) Members entering the rehabilitation should normally rest for approximately 30 minutes before being reassigned. (INCORRECT) * TWENTY (20) MINUTES (AUC 230 6.1.1)

Question 93

Large padlocks with hardened shackles have been issued to Battalions to secure certain premises when no owner or authorized representative is present. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding this procedure? A) These locks should only be used in commercial occupanices where a very minor fire or emergency incident has occurred. There should be no other damage to the entire perimeter of the premises and nothing abnormal or unusual apparent about the premises or its contents. B) The Company Officer shall have the premises secured with a padlock as directed by the BC. On return to quarters the key shall be placed in a secure place in the company office selected by the Officer. C) On return to quarters the dispatcher should be notified of the securing of the premises and appropriate journal entries made. D) Upon receipt of instructions from the dispatcher that the owner or other appropriate person is at the premises, the company shall respond as soon as practicable. The officer shall secure positive identification of the person desiring entry, have the appropriate receipt signed and have the padlock removed.

Answer 93

ANSWER: B) The Company Officer shall have the premises secured with a padlock as directed by the BC. On return to quarters the key shall be placed in a secure place in the company office selected by the Officer. (INCORRECT) * Secure place on the APPARATUS. (AUC 231 2.2)

Question 94

A recently promoted Captain was discussing chauffeur training with one of his LTs. In which choice below was an incorrect comment made? A) Barring unusual circumstances, members must have three years experience in the FDNY to be considered for Chauffeur Training School. B) The ultimate decision to award the position of "regular unit chauffeur" shall be made by the company commander in consultation with the company officers. C) Prior to attending Chauffeur Training School, each member must be given at least 5 hours of driver training, not including emergency responses. D) In no case shall a company trained chauffeur be used to fill a short term or temporary vacancy in a unit. All vacancies shall be filled by school-trained chauffeurs.

Answer 94

ANSWER: D) In no case shall a company trained chauffeur be used to fill a short term or temporary vacancy in a unit. All vacancies shall be filled by school-trained chauffeurs. (INCORRECT) * When, IN THE OPINION OF THE COMPANY COMMANDER, a firefighter is proficient in driving and operating the apparatus, an entry shall be made in the office record journal. Such “company trained” members MAY BE USED as a chauffeur to fill a short term and temporary vacancy. (AUC 254 1.3)

Question 95

During a company drill, Captain Jones had to correct her senior chauffeur after which incorrect comment? A) When, in the opinion of the Company Commander a member's performance as a chauffeur is less than satisfactory, the Company Commander may recommend, by written report with all relevant facts to the Chief of Operations, that the member's designation as a chauffeur be revoked. B) Engine company chauffeurs transferred to Ladder companies, and ladder company chauffeurs transferred to Engine companies shall have their prior unit chauffeur designation immediately revoked upon transfer. C) Company Commanders shall forward Form CT-1 to their administrative Division semi-annually by February 1st and August 1st. D) A Satellite Unit shall start each tour with at least one (1) school trained chauffeur and one (1) company trained chauffeur.

Answer 95

ANSWER: D) A Satellite Unit shall start each tour with at least one (1) school trained chauffeur and one (1) company trained chauffeur. (INCORRECT) * At least TWO (2) SCHOOL TRAINED CHAUFFEURS (AUC 254 2.8)

Question 96

Which choice below is correct and in accordance with the Department's current Chauffeur policy? A) When a designated back-up unit is staffed with one (1) school trained chauffeur and one (1) company trained chauffeur and is assigned to pick up a special unit's second piece, the company trained chauffeur shall drive the assigned apparatus accompanied by the Officer and the school trained chauffeur shall drive the second piece accompanied by another FF. B) If a chauffeur is granted medical leave after the start of the tour, the officer on duty shall notify the administrative BC and place the unit out of service until a detailed school trained chauffeur arrives at quarters. C) A chauffeur that is awaiting relief and relieved at 1845 hours after a 9x6 tour is entitled to 9 hours and 45 minutes chauffeur pay differential. D) A chauffeur working a 6x9 tour who goes on medical leave at 2100 hours is entitled to 15 hours chauffeur pay differential.

Answer 96

ANSWER: A) When a designated back-up unit is staffed with one (1) school trained chauffeur And one (1) company trained chauffeur and is assigned to pick up a special unit's second piece, the company trained chauffeur shall drive the assigned apparatus accompanied by the Officer and the school trained chauffeur shall drive the second piece accompanied by another FF. B - REMAIN I/S W/COMPANY TRAINED MEMBER. C - NO CHAUFFEUR DF for awaiting relief. (Dont get paid past 9 or 15) D - Only get differentials for HOURS YOU WORKED. (In this scenario he would only get 3 hours of ECC DF) (AUC 254 4.5)

Question 97

Each of the following choices contains correct information regarding utilization of the FDs reserve apparatus except? A) When a reserve apparatus is fully staffed and ready for fire duty, the Officer on duty shall notify the dispatcher, BC, DC and Tour Command Chief. B) If Engine 505, a reserve apparatus normally stationed at Engine 54, is activated and established in the quarters of Engine 23 for a 9x6 tour due to an impending storm, when transmitting to the dispatcher, the officer should state "Engine 505 acting Engine 54 to Manhattan". C) During the time a reserve apparatus is in service, entries shall be made in company journals to reflect all activities, movements and occurences concerning that apparatus and the personnel detailed therto. Such entries shall include the identity of the assigned units of all members named therein. D) A 3rd copy of the riding list shall be posted at the housewatch desk of the unit whose identity the reserve apparatus assumed or filed at the Emergency Command Post Headquarters.

Answer 97

ANSWER: B) If Engine 505, a reserve apparatus normally stationed at Engine 54, is activated and established in the quarters of Engine 23 for a 9x6 tour due to an impending storm, when transmitting to the dispatcher, the officer should state "Engine 505 acting Engine 54 to Manhattan". (INCORRECT) * Reserve apparatus shall be assigned as if it were relocator in the quarters where needed. It will, therefore, take a standard relocator's identity for the period in service at the particular quarters. * Example: Eng. 506 (a reserve apparatus) is established in the quarters of Eng. 219. It would be identified as "E 506 acting E 219" (AUC 259 5.2)

Question 98

Newly assigned Lieutenant Harris had a question regarding the administration and maintenance of reserve apparatus equipment in the firehouse. In which choice did the captain provide incorrect information? A) Company Commanders shall maintain a CD-14 record for reserve apparatus assigned to their quarters. B) Whenever a reserve apparatus is activated or otherwise entrusted to the care of another unit, the officer on duty of the unit wherein the reserve apparatus is stored must prepare form RT-2 (two copies) listing alll tools and equipment assigned to the reserve apparatus. C) Upon return of a reserve apparatus to storage, the officer on duty in the unit at which the apparatus is stored must compare the outstanding RT-2 with the tools and equipment being returned with the apparatus. D) If any item is found missing upon the reserve apparatus' return, the officer on duty in the unit at which the apparatus is stored shall immeidately prepare and forward a Lost Property report and make required notifications regarding the loss.

Answer 98

ANSWER: D) If any item is found missing upon the reserve apparatus' return, the officer on duty in the unit at which the apparatus is stored shall immeidately prepare and forward a Lost Property report and make required notifications regarding the loss. (INCORRECT) * Immediately notify, by telephone, the administrative battalion chief. Battalion chief is to notify the administrative division. * Record the particulars in the company journal. * Prepare and forward a report, to the Chief of Department, documenting themissing items and explaining the circumstances of the loss. The report will be forwarded through the chain of command, with full endorsements at each level of command. (AUC 259 7.5.3)

Question 99

Which choice below is incorrect concerning a reserve apparatus in service as a CFR Unit? A) Reserve CFR-D Units shall have a minimum compliment of two (2) CFR-D trained FFs B) CFR-D Battalion Depots shall be used for supplying initial CFR-D equipment for Reserve CFR-D units. C) Reserve CFR-D Units shall exchange out of service medical equipment with CFR-D Battalion Depots as necessary to keep the unit in service. D) Reserve CFR-D Units are to utilize CFR-D Battalion Depots as necessary for medical supplies needed (ex. gauze pads, adhesive tape, etc.)

Answer 99

ANSWER: B) CFR-D Battalion Depots shall be used for supplying initial CFR-D equipment for Reserve CFR-D units. (INCORRECT) * Doing this will deplete the Battalions supply of CFR-D equipment. * TECH SERVICES will drop off the initial CFR-D equipment. (AUC 259 9.2)

Question 100

Lt. Smith was discussing operations at PCBs incidents with his members. From the statements below, in which one was he incorrect? A) The primary consideration at PCB incidents is the safety of the civilians and fire personnel. B) Combustible materials must not be stored within a "PCB Transformer" enclosure, within 5 meters of a "PCB Transformer" enclosure, or within 5 meters of an unenclosed "PCB Transformer" C) The FDNY considers transformers with 0-49 PPM to be a non-PCB transformer. D) Members and equipment that were exposed to 100 PPM of PCBs from a transformer fire must be decontaminated.

Answer 100

ANSWER: C) The FDNY considers transformers with 0-49 PPM to be a non-PCB transformer. (INCORRECT) * FDNY considers a transformer WITH ANY AMOUNT OF PCBs as a PCB transformer. (AUC 266 6.1)

Question 101

You are the Captain of Engine 1 and you are discussing recent transformer fires you operated at. Regarding the operations of units at these fires, in which one was the only correct action taken? A) The 1st arriving officer gave a 10-25 Code 1 because there was fire in the transformer in the street and smoke was entering the subcellar of a high rise office building through the electrical conduit. B) At transformer fires on the 37th floor of a HROB, the 1st Ladder Company chauffeur reports he has an engineer from the neighboring building that knows how to shut down the transformer. Since the neighboring engineer is familiar with the system, you let him shut it down. C) Evacuation of the fire floor and all areas exposed is a prime consideration only for a heavy smoke condition. D) Use of SCBA is mandatory even in areas of light smoke condition. Member's exposure time shall be kept to a minimum.

Answer 101

ANSWER: D) Use of SCBA is mandatory even in areas of light smoke condition. Member's exposure time shall be kept to a minimum. A - To give a 10-25 Code 1 there must be FIRE IN 2 PLACES. (Fire in street / Fire in building) This scenario would be a 10-25-4 (Fire in transformer at any location) B - Deactivation of transformers shall be performed only by Con Edison Personnel or Engineering Personnel OF THE PREMISES familiar with procedure. C - Evacuation of the fire floor and all areas exposed (EVEN IF A LIGHT HAZE OF SMOKE EXISTS) shall be given prime consideration. (AUC 266 - 6.4.2)

Question 102

When dealing with PCBs the proper extinguishing methods must be used. From the options below, which one is the incorrect procedure for extinguishing a PCB transformer fire? A) Use of foam for a flammable liquid fire. B) Use of water for structural members on fire. C) Use of the FireIce extinguishing agent for a transformer fire. D) Use of a fog stream for a flammable liquid fire.

Answer 102

ANSWER: C) Use of the FireIce extinguishing agent for a transformer fire. (INCORRECT) Proper extinguishing methods must be used according to the properties of the involved materials. A. Fog or foam for flammable liquids. B. Water for structural members. * FireIce is NOT EFFECTIVE on class B fires. Therefore, it is not intended for use at any type of transformer fire; that includes transformers located in below-grade vaults or rooms,and transformers that are mounted on poles. (AUC 266 6.4.3 - AUC 180 Addendum 2 7.3)

Question 103

A Manhattan Ladder Company has smoke coming from a transformer vault door in a sub-cellar of a 60 story hotel. A 10" x 14" CAUTION sign on the door reads "ASKAREL FILLED EQUIPMENT" in black letters on a yellow background. What does this sign indicate? A) No PCBs B) PCB Contaminated C) An air-cooled transformer D) High concentration of PCBs

Answer 103

ANSWER: D) High concentration of PCBs | AUC 266 Reference #1

Question 104

M2 railroad cars on the New Haven Line of Metro North will be identified by an orange stripe on the side of each car. These rail cars receive power from catenary (overhead wires) and will be occupied with transformers which may contain PCB. Choose the incorrect statement below about the M2 Railroad car. A) M2 cars always operate in pairs, one "A" car (an even numbered car), having a pantograph is coupled to a "B" car (odd numbered car) having no pantograph. B) The best way to identify M2 cars is the orange stripe on each side of the car and pantograph on the roof of the "B" car. C) Though there is only 1 pantgraph for every 2 cars, there will be a PCB containing transformer in every car which will have attached to it the EPA approved label. D) The pantograph will be unfolded when receiving power from catenary (overhead) wires.

Answer 104

ANSWER: B) The best way to identify M2 cars is the orange stripe on each side of the car and pantograph on the roof of the "B" car. (INCORRECT) * Pantograph on the ROOF OF THE "A" CAR. (AUC 266 Addendum 2 3.2)

Question 105

NYC owned transformers classified as "Non-PCB" (0-49 PPM PCB) can be identified as having white letters and striping on a ______________? A) Orange background B) Yellow background C) White background D) Blue background

Answer 105

ANSWER: D) Blue background | AUC 266 Addendum 3 - 1.5.5

Question 106

Any allegation concerning the offer or acceptance of a bribe or gratuity by an employee or person dealing with the City requires direct notification to ________. A) IG B) BITS C) EEO D) Fire Commissioner

Answer 106

ANSWER: A) IG | AUC 268 2.1.5

Question 107

In questionable cases where an employee cannot determine which office should be notified for allegations, they should ____________. A) Call the IG by phone B) Write an email to the IG C) Call BITS by phone D) Write an email to BITS

Answer 107

ANSWER: A) Call the IG by phone In the event that an employee cannot determine which office must be notified, he or she should contact the Inspector General. During normal business hours, notifications should be made directly to the Inspector General's Office. In cases of emergency, the Inspector General's on-call supervisor should be contacted through the Fire Department Fire Operations Center. (AUC 268 1.5)

Question 108

Which choice below would not require a direct notification to the IG? A) Any allegation concerning the offer or acceptance of a bribe or gratuity by an employee or a person dealing with the City. B) Any allegation concerning improper activity in connection with the procurement or attempted procurement of pension benefits by employees. C) Any allegation concerning false claims by employees that off duty injuries occurred while on-duty. D) Any allegation concerning the misuse or misappropriation of of the Department's time.

Answer 108

ANSWER: D) Any allegation concerning the misuse or misappropriation of of the Department's time. (INCORRECT) * This requires written notification to BITS (AUC 268)

Question 109

BITS is primarily responsible for investigating disciplinary allegations concerning violations of Department rules and regulations of Department employees. Which situation below is not an immediate notification to BITS? A) On-duty incidents involving possession or use of drugs or alcohol; or an arrest of Department employees. B) Preference of charges against a member. C) Physical altercations among members; serious confrontations with civilians; and dangerous misuse of Department vehicles. D) On-duty confrontations between Department members and members of the PD, or other government agency which may lead to possible disciplinary action.

Answer 109

ANSWER: B) Preference of charges against a member. (INCORRECT) * This requires a WRITTEN notification to BITS. Immediate Notification to BITS "AABBCCDD" Alcohol / Arrest Boxing w/ Brothers Confrontation w/ civilian / confrontation with other agency Drugs / dangerous misuse of dept. vehicle Written Notification to BITS "IMMAC" I - Incompetence so serious that the Officer belives disciplinary charges are warranted. M – Misconduct not falling under the IG. M – Misuse or misappropriation of department time. A – Follow up information regarding arrest of member. C – Charges (AUC 268)

Question 110

The High Rise Roof Team (HRRT) consists of a trained and properly equipped ladder company staffed with an officer and five firefighters. Upon the order to "assemble" the Manhattan dispatcher will notify the two nearest available trained HRRTs to respond to the designated mobilization point. Due to space and weight considerations aboard the helicopter, the only tools and equipment included in the High Rise Roof Kit are? 1. 1 Bolt Cutter 2. 1 Rabbit Tool 3. 2 Axes 4. 2 Search Ropes 5. 2 Halligan Tools 6. 6 SCBAs with 1 hour cylinders 7. Bags for Tools (to prevent damage to the aircraft) A) 2,4,6 B) 1,3,5,7 C) 2,3,5,6,7 D) All Correct

Answer 110

ANSWER: D) All Correct High Rise Roof Kit (HRRK): “BRASH – 11222” 1) 1 Bolt Cutter 2) 1 Rabbit Tool 3) 2 Axes 4) 2 Search Ropes 5) 2 Halligans * 6 SCBA cylinders with 1 hour cylinders (AUC 269 3.3.1)

Question 111

As a High Rise Roof Team Officer you should know that once a decision to "airlift" is made by a Staff Chief, your unit will operate on which HT Channel? A) Channel 1 - Primary Tactical B) Channel 3 - Secondary Tactical C) Channel 13 - TAC U D) Channel 9 - Encrypted

Answer 111

ANSWER: C) Channel 13 - TAC U | AUC 269

Question 112

You are working the day tour in L-2, when they get special called to East 34th street heliport pad as the HRRT. Once 10-84, you see L-7 and start discussing HRRT operations. From the statements below, which one needs to be corrected? A) All members shall have their personal harness, their firefighting equipment properly bagged, and their HTs on the correct channel. B) When it's time to approach the helicopter, you must receive the signal from the pilot, co-pilot or crew chief. C) After the helicopter has landed on the roof, the officer should have members proceed to an assembly point away from the bulkhead or other roof projection and near the helispot.

Answer 112

ANSWER: C) After the helicopter has landed on the roof, the officer should have members proceed to an assembly point away from the bulkhead or other roof projection and near the helispot. (INCORRECT) * Select an assembly point NEAR a bulkhead or other roof projection AWAY from the helispot and have members proceed to it. (AUC 269 Addendum 1 4.3.5)

Question 113

The safety of our members is paramount at HRRT operations. Safety is no accident and must be taken very seriously. Choose the statement below that is incorrect concerning safe operations at one of these incidents. A) The HRRT shall approach and board the air-rescue Bell 412 Helicopter only when directed by the pilot, co-pilot or crew chief. B) FDNY personnel shall approach and board the helicopter from amid-ship when directed by the pilot. C) Do not approach the tail section under any circumstances. D) Raise nothing above the head in the vicinity of the helicopter. Approach and leave the aircraft in a semi-crouched position in single file. Do not run.

Answer 113

ANSWER: B) FDNY personnel shall approach and board the helicopter from amid-ship when directed by the pilot. (INCORRECT) * Air rescue teams shall board and depart the Bell 412 air rescue ship from the FRONT within the field of vision of the pilot. (AUC 269 - Addendum 1 5.1)

Question 114

When the decision to "Airlift" has been made, the NYPD ESU will proceed to the roof of the fire building. The aviation pilot in consult with ESU personnel will advise the FDNY Air Recon Chief (ARC) and IC as to the feasability of landing the aircraft on the roof. If it is determined to be safe, the helicpter will return to pick up FDNY members. Due to weight limitations, two airlifts will be required. Which members below will be included on the 2nd airlift? A) High Rise Roof Chief, the Ladder Officer and forcible entry team of the HRRT. B) Ladder Chauffeur, OV and Roof FFs of the HRRT. C) Engine Officer, Nozzle FF and BU FF of the HRRT. D) Engine Chauffeur, High Rise Roof Chief, Control FF of the HRRT.

Answer 114

ANSWER: B) Ladder Chauffeur, OV and Roof FFs of the HRRT. * The first airlift will include the HRRC, the officer and forcible entry team. * The second lift will include the Chauffeur, OV and Roof firefighters (AUC 269 Add 1 - 4.3.4 C)

Question 115

Due to the unlikely event of a water landing, all units involved in the FDNY Air Support Plan are being issued Mustang Survival Personal Floatation Devices (PFDs). From the statements below choose the incorrect point about PFDs. A) The PFDs must be donned prior to boarding any NYPD aircraft. Each designated HRRT will be issued 7 PFDs with a carrying case. B) HRRT will not don PFDs over their bunker gear prior to boarding the aircraft. C) PFDs must be inflated manually by the member only after exiting the aircraft. Do not inflate PFDs inside the aircraft. D) PFDs should be inspected weekly as well as prior to and after each use.

Answer 115

ANSWER: B) HRRT will not don PFDs over their bunker gear prior to boarding the aircraft. (INCORRECT) * The PFDs must be donned by members PRIOR to boarding any NYPD aircraft. * Inflate AFTER exiting aircraft (AUC 269 Add 2 - 1.1)

Question 116

A Lt. covering a night tour in a satellite unit would expect to find all of the following on the Satellite Apparatus with which exception? A) An apparatus mounted deluge gun B) Large diameter hose C) A manifold D) Pumps capable of delivering 2000 gpm

Answer 116

ANSWER: D) Pumps capable of delivering 2000 gpm * A Satellite Apparatus does not have pumping capabilities (AUC 274 1.2.3)

Question 117

An officer giving a drill concerning the Satellite Apparatus and its associated pumper made the following statements. A student from the group would know which one to be in erorr? A) All pumpers in the Satellite Water System are capable of delivering 2000 GPM. B) The Satellite Apparatus is equipped with two 3 1/2" gated female inlets and one 4 1/2" unchecked female inlet on each side of the apparatus. C) When supplying the deluge gun, supply the 3 1/2" inlets before supplying the 4 1/2" inlet D) The deluge gun can be used to deliver foam

Answer 117

ANSWER: C) When supplying the deluge gun, supply the 3 1/2" inlets before supplying the 4 1/2" inlet. (INCORRECT) * It is necessary to use the UNCHECKED INLETS FIRST (4 1/2"), which will permit the use of the gated inlets to augment the supply without the necessity of shutting down. (AUC 274 1.2.2)

Question 118

At a recent 5th alarm in the Bronx, the Citywide Tour Commander has asked for forthwith information from the water resource officer. Two Satellite Units are operating at this large fire in a factory. The Water Resource Officer giving him the answer should be the ______________________________? A) Captain of the 2nd Satellite to arrive B) The 1st to arrive Satellite Lieutenant C) The 3rd Engine Company Officer on the initial alarm D) A special called Engine Officer from a High Pressure Engine Company

Answer 118

ANSWER: B) The 1st to arrive Satellite Lieutenant * The Officer of the FIRST ARRIVING Satellite Unit will become the Water Resource Officer and will coordinate the activities of all Satellites at an operation. (AUC 274 1.2.4)

Question 119

You are a surplus assignment (SA) Lt. that is assigned to work a night tour in E324 (Satellite 4). This unit has just received an alarm to respond to a 2nd alarm in the borough of Queens. You would be correct to realize all of the following with which exception? A) You insured that each apparatus was staffed by at least 2 firefighters. You rode in the Satellite Apparatus to the operation. B) Upon receipt of an alarm you immediately consulted the water maps and selected either a hydrant, draft site, or fireboat mooring site as your hookup site. C) You realized that when compatible with fire conditions and time limitations, consideration should be given to the use of a fireboat as a source of supply over the hydrant system. D) Upon arrival at the fire you reported in to the IC and operated as per her instructions.

Answer 119

ANSWER: A) You insured that each apparatus was staffed by at least 2 firefighters. You rode in the Satellite Apparatus to the operation. (INCORRECT) * The Officer shall ride with the PUMPER. (AUC 274 3.3)

Question 120

You are the Officer of E9, a Satellite Unit. At a 4th alarm in Harlem, DC Simms has informed you that delivery of water is not a problem at this fire, nor will there be any need for your deluge gun. He then orders you to stretch a 2 1/2" line to the 4th floor of exposure 4 and "go put out some fire". In this situation you were correct in which choice? A) Stretch the 2 1/2" line and put out some fire B) Respectfully remind him that you are a Satellite Unit and should not be used for other than your intended purpose. C) Stretch a 2 1/2" from another apparatus as your associated 2000 gpm pumper only carries large diameter hose. D) Contact the dispatcher and advise them that the Satellite will be unavailable for response.

Answer 120

ANSWER: A) Stretch the 2 1/2" line and put out some fire A Satellite unit may be special called for OTHER THAN ITS BASIC FUNCTION. Incident Commanders considering the use of additional Satellite units special called shall bear in mind the basic function of Satellite units and make every effort to assure the early release of additional Satellites units special called. (AUC 274 3.6)

Question 121

Arriving at a fire in a 200' x 150', 3 story Commercial building, the IC has told you to place your Satellite's deluge gun into operation. You should now order your ECC to place the Satellite apparatus in the best position, which is where? A) As close to the building as possible, just ouside the collapse zone. B) The further from the building the better so as to maximize the force of the stream from the deluge gun. C) Far enough from the building to permit the deepest possible penetration. D) As close to the 2000 gpm pumper as possibe, to reduce friction loss in the 6" supply hose.

Answer 121

ANSWER: C) Far enough from the building to permit the deepest possible penetration. (AUC 274 5.3)

Question 122

A study group from a Manhattan firehouse were reviewing the finer points of AUC 274. In regard to the Satellite unit and apparatus, which one of the following statements would they know to be incorrect? A) 2000 gpm pumpers, operating at draft or when supplied by fireboats are capable of delivering their full capacity. B) When utilizing the deluge gun's 3" tip, it should not be necessary to utilize an additional pumper to augment the deluge gun. C) Good nozzle pressures are 125 psi for the 2" and 2 1/2" tips and 100 psi for the 3" and 3 1/2" D) Only the IC can order the deluge guns into operation.

Answer 122

ANSWER: B) When utilizing the deluge gun's 3" tip, it should not be necessary to utilize an additional pumper to augment the deluge gun. (INCORRECT) * When the hydrant main size is less than 12", it is recommended that a second hydrant or another pumper AUGMENT the supply of water. In this case a SECOND SOURCE OF WATER is needed to insure maximum utilization of the Satellite pumper’s full capacity to supply 2,000 G.P.M (AUC 274 6.3)

Question 123

E72 and Satellite 2 have just returned from a multiple alarm where they supplied a manifold at an H-Type building. As the Captain of E72, you took the following actions. In which ones were you correct? (multiple correct answers) A) You recorded a run and a worker for the Engine company. B) You recorded a run and a worker for the satellite. C) The satellite unit's responses were kept on a separate CD-14. D) A CD-15 need only be forwarded for the satellite unit when the engine and satellite are both put to work. The engine companies operations shall be included witht he satellites.

Answer 123

ANSWER: All are correct A) You recorded a run and a worker for the Engine company. B) You recorded a run and a worker for the satellite. C) The satellite unit's responses were kept on a separate CD-14. D) A CD-15 need only be forwarded for the satellite unit when the engine and satellite are both put to work. The engine companies operations shall be included witht he satellites. (AUC 274 9.3)

Question 124

The purpose of the Citywide Incident Management System Quick Guide (CIMS AUC 276) is to assist officers at multi agency incidents. Which statement is incorrect according to CIMS? A) The 1st arriving officer is responsible for assessing the incident and either assuming or participating in Incident Command, depending on the type of incident. B) When a higher ranking officer from any uniformed agency arrives at any incident, that officer will take over as the IC. C) All agencies must share all information at emergency of terrorist incidents. D) CIMS requires that there be one Command Post at all incidents to facilitate information sharing.

Answer 124

ANSWER: B) When a higher ranking officer from any uniformed agency arrives at any incident, that officer will take over as the IC. (INCORRECT) * When a higher-ranking FDNY OFFICER arrives, that officer will take over this function from the first arriving officer. (AUC 276 1.2)

Question 125

Core Competencies are functional areas of expertise which are implemented at incidents and relate specifically to tactical operations managed by the Operations Section. Which one of the following core competencies is not designated to the FDNY? A) Structural evacuation B) Fire suppression C) Arson Investigation, major cases D) Search and Rescue

Answer 125

ANSWER: C) Arson Investigation (INCORRECT) * CAUSE and ORIGIN ONLY "FEMSLAM" F - Fire suppression E - Evacuation of Structures (NYPD has areas) M - Medical care in pre-hospital setting S - Search and Rescue (NYPD has ice and water) L - Life safety (CBRN / HazMat incidents) A - Arson (Cause and origin only / PD has major cases) M - Mass Decontamination (AUC 276 - Addendum 2 Table 1)

Question 126

Core Competencies are functional areas of expertise which are implemented at incidents and relate specifically to tactical operations managed by the Operations Section. Which one of the following core competencies is not designated to the FDNY? A) Structural evacuation B) Medical care in the pre-hospital setting C) Mass Decontamination D) Search and Rescue of waterways

Answer 126

ANSWER: D) Search and Rescue of waterways * NYPD has ice and water rescue "FEMSLAM" F - Fire suppression E - Evacuation of Structures (NYPD has areas) M - Medical care in pre-hospital setting S - Search and Rescue (NYPD has ice and water) L - Life safety (CBRN / HazMat incidents) A - Arson (Cause and origin only / PD has major cases) M - Mass Decontamination (AUC 276 - Addendum 2 Table 1)

Question 127

You are a newly promoted Lt., peforming searches with your ladder company at a structural collapse of a 4 story office building. There are several confirmed victims trapped in the rubble. An NYPD Deputy Inspector has informed you that this building is an active crime scene and that this is a possible terrorist event. He the orders you to remove all your personnel from the debris. According to CIMS, which choice listed below is most correct for this situation? A) Follow the orders of the Deputy Inspector. NYPD has command of search and rescue at a structural collapse. B) Leave the area immediately and report the incident to the highest ranking FDNY officer on scene. C) Order the members of your unit to continue to operate under the command of the NYPD, as this is a single command incident and NYPD is the primary agency. D) Keep performing life safety operations. Life safety concerns will always take precedence over investigative considerations until life safety operations are concluded.

Answer 127

ANSWER: D) Keep performing life safety operations. Life safety concerns will always take precedence over investigative considerations until life safety operations are concluded. * Life Safety is a core competency of the FDNY. (AUC 276 3.4)

Question 128

At which type of incident will the FDNY always be the primary agency according to the CIMS Command Matrix? A) Entrapment / Impalement B) Water / Ice Rescue C) Auto Extrication D) Boat in Distress

Answer 128

ANSWER: A) Entrapment / Impalement Single Command: (FDNY in Command) “ABCCDEEF” A – Auto Extrication (1st to arrive) B – Boat in distress (1st to arrive) C – Confined Space C – Collapse of structure D – Downed trees E – Elevators E – Entrapment / Implement F – Fire (AUC 276 - Addendum 1 1.2)

Question 129

According to the staffing guidelines of the FDNY, which of the following units are designated to begin each tour with 5 firefighters regardless of staffing levels? (more than one correct) A) Haz Mat Company 1 B) Group 2 Ladder Companies C) All Haz Mat Tech Engines D) Marine Companies (boats over 100')

Answer 129

ANSWER: C) All Haz Mat Tech Engines * GROUP 1: All Ladder Companies, Rescue Companies, Squad Companies, Hazardous Materials Technician Units are designated as five firefighter companies and shall be staffed with FIVE FIREFIGHTERS at the beginning of each tour. A - HazMat Company = 7 FF company B - GROUP 2: Those Engine Companies that the Department has designated to start each tour with five Firefighters as part of the collective bargaining agreement with U.F.A. D - Marine Companies = 2 FF company (AUC 287 1.4)

Question 130

Lt Able is working a 6x9 tour in a busy TL company. The unit is ordered to detail a member to Engine 49 in another borough. There are 6 members reporting for duty. FF Baker (35 years on the job, seated school trained LCC) is working RSOT, along with FFs Charlie (just off probation), FF Dog (junior school trained LCC, FF Echo (MSOT), FF Frank (regular tour), and FF George (proby firefighter). FF Frank has informed Lt. Able that he lives in the borough and is willing to "step up" and take the detail. Who should be taking the detail and traveling to another borough? A) Baker B) Charlie C) Dog D) Echo E) Frank

Answer 130

ANSWER: A) Baker It is the responsibility of Battalion Chiefs and Company Officers to ensure that when a unit is in excess of their required staffing level because of RSOT, and a detail is to be provided from that unit, the firefighter on RSOT shall be detailed. Exceptions shall be permitted where firefighters with special training are needed to maintain an effective unit. (e.g. A four firefighter unit has four firefighters reporting for duty and an additional firefighter on RSOT. If the firefighter on RSOT is the only chauffeur, one of the four firefighters will be detailed.) (AUC 287 4.3.3)

Question 131

L114 is quartered across the floor with E201 and assigned to Battalion 40. They are scheduled to report to tactical training at 1900 hours. They are to receive a detail from E310 in the 58 Battalion. As the officer on duty in L114, you should believe that your only correct choice can be found in which answer? A) Insure your unit leaves quarters no later than 1830 hours B) Contact Battalion 40 and have the Battalion arrange for the member from E310 to be reassigned. Have Battalion 40 provide a detail to your unit from within Battalion 40. C) Contact the Officer from E310 and ensure the member being detailed arrives by 1815 hours. D) Contact Battalion 58 and request that they reassign their detail to E201. Have E201 provide a detail to L114 and then notify Battalion 40.

Answer 131

ANSWER: B) Contact Battalion 40 and have the Battalion arrange for the member from E310 to be reassigned. Have Battalion 40 provide a detail to your unit from within Battalion 40. A - For training no later than 0915 or 1815 hrs C - Any member, from OUTSIDE the Battalion, originally assigned a detail to a unit scheduled for such activity will be REASSIGNED by the Battalion Chief. D - A unit in a double house scheduled for training and UNABLE TO COMPLY WITH THE GUIDELINES ABOVE, shall have the adjoining unit in quarters supply the detail and leave for training at the appropriate time. The adjoining unit will await the detail. (AUC 287 5.1.3)

Question 132

A member of your unit is to be detailed to a firehouse in another borough. The member has been notified prior to the beginning of the tour and the quarters he is to be detailed to is just under one mile away. This member may personally choose any but which option to travel to this firehouse? A) Division van B) Public transportation C) His/her private vehicle D) Walking

Answer 132

ANSWER: A) Division van If members are detailed to a quarters within one mile, or approximately 20 blocks, of their assigned quarters, walking is considered an acceptable method of traveling to the detailed quarters. Members who are detailed to another quarters more than one mile from their assigned quarters DO NOT HAVE THE OPTION OF WALKING. Such members may use public transportation or, as always, members have the option of using their private vehicles if they so choose. (AUC 287 6.2)

Question 133

A sharp Lt. would know that when members do not arrive or return from details within the same borough within __________, a notification must be made. A) Two hours B) One hour C) 45 min D) 90 min

Answer 133

ANSWER: B) One hour Same borough - 1 hour Different borough - 2 hours (AUC 287 6.4)

Question 134

You are the officer of a Group 1 unit assigned to respond to an alarm for a fire in a commercial occupancy while 10-8. Your unit has been reduced to four firefighters due to an emergency leave taken by one member earlier in the tour. You should notify the dispatcher of this fact using which terminology? A) "10-4" B) "We are responding understaffed" C) "We are responding with four firefighters" D) "We are responding 10-14"

Answer 134

ANSWER: C) "We are responding with four firefighters" (AUC 287 8.2) B - An understaffed unit is any unit staffed with less than FOUR firefighters (3 FFs)

Question 135

Due to a 3rd alarm in Queens the ladder company you are in command of has been reduced to two FFs, one of them being a chauffeur. You have just received an alarm via teleprinter to respond first due for a fire in a vacant building. You were correct when you performed which action? A) Do not respond. Notify the dispatcher that the unit is OOS. B) Do not respond because a unit with 2 FFs shall only respond to verbal alarms. C) Respond to the alarm and take a defensive position, unless a known life hazard is discovered and immediate action is required to save a life. D) Respond to the alarm and notify the dispatcher that you will only be assuming the duties of the safety team pending the arrival of the FAST Truck.

Answer 135

ANSWER: C) Respond to the alarm and take a defensive position, unless a known life hazard is discovered and immediate action is required to save a life. A - While awaiting details, units staffed with an officer and minimum two firefighters (at least one of which is a chauffeur), shall respond to all alarms. B - Units with only an Officer and a Chauffeur shall be placed OOS, however this unit, while still staffed with only an Officer and a Chauffeur shall respond to any VERBAL ALARMS received while in quarters (AUC 287 8.3.1)

Question 136

After a severe thunderstorm that resulted in many downed trees in Queens, units were dispatched to numerous emergencies. In which choice did they operate incorrectly? A) The apparatus, in conjunction with chains, was used to remove a tree that was blocking a busy intersection. The unit bypassed a tree that was blocking a side street while proceeding to the busy intersection. B) Members removed a tree that had fallen from the front lawn and was lying across the driveway. C) Upon arriving at the scene where a privately owned tree had fallen on an unoccupied car in a driveway, members advised the owner that the owner would be responsible to have the tree removed. D) A Ladder company that operated at an incident where a large tree had fallen onto the roof of a MD, causing the cornice to hang dangerously over the sidewalk, requested a BC to respond in order to assess structural stability and notify DOB.

Answer 136

ANSWER: B) Members removed a tree that had fallen from the front lawn and was lying across the driveway. (INCORRECT) * The department is NOT responsible for the removal of debris from sidewalks or private property. * Department operations on private property are limited to assisting trapped or injured persons and preventing unauthorized entry into the danger area. (AUC 301 2.2)

Question 137

When performing emergency tree cutting, an unsafe act can be found in which choice? A) Prior to cutting a tree that had fallen into a power line, members waited until the Utility Company certified that power had been removed. B) When cutting a tree that had a power line wrapped around the trunk of the tree, a FF ensured that the chainsaw did not make contact with the wire. C) The chainsaw was not operated from the ladder, even if it was secured. D) When operating a chainsaw from a TL bucket, the saw was started in the basket and the operator wore the installed safety belt, keeping both feet within the basket.

Answer 137

ANSWER: B) When cutting a tree that had a power line wrapped around the trunk of the tree, a FF ensured that the chainsaw did not make contact with the wire. (INCORRECT) * NO CUTTING OR MOVING until Utility Company shuts power off and the wires are disentangled. (AUC 301 - 5.6)

Question 138

Bunker gear and hoods are essential parts of a member's Personal Protective Equipment (PPE). Which choice is incorrect concerning this PPE? A) Bunker gear shall never be worn without kneepads in place. B) Bunker gear will afford a limited period of protection to exit an area which has become or is about to become untenable. It is not a "Proximity Firefighting Ensemble" C) The wearing of bunker pants suspenders are mandatory. D) The hood shall be worn whether dry, damp or saturated with moisture. E) While operating a hoseline, you must leave the area immediately upon feeling any pain or discomfort through the hood.

Answer 138

ANSWER: E) While operating a hoseline, you must leave the area immediately upon feeling any pain or discomfort through the hood. (INCORRECT) * UNLESS area can be immediately cooled by a hoseline. (AUC 310 6.3)

Question 139

Which choice indicates the proper order to don bunker gear? 1. HT (remote speaker clipped to outside of coat) 2. Pants and boots 3. Protective hood completely over head 4. Protective hood pushed onto back of neck 5. Bunker coat 6. Before entering IDLH, the SCBA facepiece 7. Pull the hood over the head and around the facepiece. A) 2,1,3,5,4,6,7 B) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7 C) 2,1,5,3,4,6,7 D) 2,3,1,4,5,6,7

Answer 139

ANSWER: A) 2,1,3,5,4,6,7 1. Pants and boots 2. HT 3. Hood completely over head 4. Bunker coat 5. Hood pushed onto back of neck 6. SCBA facepice before entering IDLH 7. Pull hood over head around facepiece. "Puerto Ricans Hate Cockroaches" (Pants / Radio / Hood / Coat) (AUC 310 7.1)

Question 140

There are two types of bunker cleaning, routine and advanced. Which is the incorrect statement concerning advanced cleaning? A) Prior to cleaning, company commanders shall ensure that member's bunker gear is marked with their first initial, last name, and assigned unit number in permanent black marker. B) If a member is currently on a long term detail to a different unit, their gear will be cleaned with the gear of the unit to which they are detailed. C) If a member has sent their bunker gear out for decontamination to the Decontamination Support Unit (DSU) in the previous 6 months they do not have to provide a set of bunker gear for advanced cleaning. D) When bunker gear is sent out for advanced cleaning, the members will use their other (clean) set of bunker gear until the next cleaning cycle. This other set of gear (clean) will be worn unless it is drying or is being repaired.

Answer 140

ANSWER: C) If a member has sent their bunker gear out for decontamination to the Decontamination Support Unit (DSU) in the previous 6 months they do not have to provide a set of bunker gear for advanced cleaning. (INCORRECT) * Member STILL HAS TO PROVIDE a set of bunker gear for cleaning. (AUC 310 6.2)

Question 141

Which choice is incorrect concerning the cleaning, wearing, and storage of PPE? A) Firefighting PPE should only be worn responding to, operating at and returning from alarms. B) "No Bunker Gear" signs shall be displayed at the entrance to all rooms in the firehouse. C) Company Commanders shall ensure that "No Bunker Gear" signs are posted and remain in place. D) PPE exposed to contaminants not removed by routine cleaning in a utility sink shall be sent to DSU. E) Members are responsible to use their issued gear bag with the plastic liner anytime they transport firefighting PPE.

Answer 141

ANSWER: B) “No Bunker Gear” signs shall be displayed at the entrance to all rooms in the firehouse (INCORRECT) * In all LIVING AREAS. (AUC 310 - Addendum 1,3,4)

Question 142

While writing the roll call entry in the company journal, FF Blue approaches you and asks you several questions about decontamination of bunker gear and PPE. In which choice were you incorrect? A) PPE that has been contaminated with large amounts of body fluids shall be placed in double (two) clear bags, tied or taped close. B) An Equipment Decontamination Report (EDR-1) shall be completed and placed in between the two bags, facing outward. C) Bagged items shall be left, is possible, in a light traffic area adjacent to the housewatch for pickup by DSU members. D) If both bunker pants and PSS system have been contaminated, both items shall be bagged together to ensure proper decontamination and avoid cross contamination. E) The EDR-1 shall be faxed to the DSU.

Answer 142

ANSWER: D) If both bunker pants and PSS system have been contaminated, both items shall be bagged together to ensure proper decontamination and avoid cross contamination. (INCORRECT) * Bag them SEPARATELY. (AUC 310 - Addendum 5 2.3)

Question 143

A crime scene is the area where a crime was committed and any path to and from the scene. Proper procedures to follow at a crime scene can be found in all but which choice? A) Firefighting operations and patient care should never be compromised in order to protect the crime scene. Life is paramount. B) Members shall take a single path of travel entering and leaving the crime scene, and all required personnel shall use the same path when possible. C) No obviously dead victim of a hanging should be cut down, unless in public view. D) No statements should be given to the press, civilians, or other agencies.

Answer 143

ANSWER: C) No obviously dead victim of a hanging should be cut down, unless in public view. (INCORRECT) * Refrain from COVERING any corpse except in public view. * No obviously dead victim of a hanging should be cut down and no bound body should be untied. (AUC 317 5.2)

Question 144

While pulling ceilings, the Can FF noticed a bundle wrapped in tinfoil fall from the ceiling. Upon further investigation, the bundle was determined to contain $30,000. Who should be entrusted to voucher this money? A) NYPD B) Fire Marshals C) The highest ranking Officer on scene D) The highest ranking Officer on scene in the rank of BC or above.

Answer 144

ANSWER: B) Fire Marshals | AUC 317 5.14

Question 145

All members should be aware of requirements to ensure that evidence collected at a fire can be used in a trial if necessary. Which is the incorrect action to take? A) If it is necessary to leave the scene prior to the Fire Marshals arrival, a Firefighter or unit fulfilling a watchline is sufficient to maintain FD control of the premises. B) The need for an administrative search warrant to determine the cause and origin of a fire is eliminated if FD units maintain control of the scene until the Fire Marshals arrive. C) If evidence was moved during operations, make note of the location where it was first discovered and notify the Fire Marshals. D) When FD members discover drugs or weapons during legitimate searches, they should seize the evidence and turn it over to the Fire Marshalls or PD.

Answer 145

ANSWER: D) When FD members discover drugs or weapons during legitimate searches, they should seize the evidence and turn it over to the Fire Marshalls or PD. (INCORRECT) * Notify PD / DO NOT seize evidence (AUC 317 6.3)

Question 146

Training new FFs is very important to ensure that units operate at a high level. Which choice is incorrect concerning the Probationary FFs Development Program? A) Drills are essential components of a Probationary Firefighter's development. While Company Officers generally lead the drills, the participation of all members, particularly senior members, is necessary to pass on lessons learned. B) Probationary Firefighter's are provided with monthly training modules consisting of reading assignments and training videos that can be accessed via the "Probie Corner" section on Diamondplate. C) At the end of each monthly training module is a 20 question quiz that must be completed. D) If a Probationary FF does not attain a passing mark on a quiz after 2 attempts, the Company Commander must email the Probationary Firefighter's Development Program Group to unlock the program. E) When Probationary FFs have successfully completed a quiz, they will print their completion receipt and staple it in their notebook.

Answer 146

ANSWER: D) If a Probationary FF does not attain a passing mark on a quiz after 2 attempts, the Company Commander must email the Probationary Firefighter's Development Program Group to unlock the program. (INCORRECT) * THREE (30 attempts * Company OFFICER will email to unlock program (AUC 323 1.1)

Question 147

Which choice contains only correct statements concerning cross unit details of Probationary FFs? 1. The detail shall be initiated by the Company Commander in consultation with the Battalion Training Coordinator. 2. The Probationary FF must have completed 90 days of service in the Fire Department. 3. Probationary FFs assigned to Engines shall be detailed to Ladders, and those assigned to Ladders shall be detailed to Engines. 4. Prior to commencement of the detail, Company Commanders shall ensure Probationary FFs have familiarized themselves with FDNY Firefighting Procedures/Bulletins relevant to the area in which they will be detailed. 5. Cross unit details shall be for a period of 60 days. 6. Probationary FFs shall not be detailed out of the cross training unit for the duration of their detail. 7. OSA-2 (Detail more than 30 days) shall be forwarded to the Bureau of Operations. A) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7 B) 1,2,3,4,5,7 only C) 1,3,4,7 only D) 2,5,6 only

Answer 147

ANSWER: C) 1,3,4,7 only (2,5,6 are INCORRECT) 2 - 90 days of service in FIREHOUSE 5 - Cross unit details are NINETY (90) DAYS 6 - Probies shall not be detailed out UNLESS ABSOLUTELY NECESSARY. (AUC 323 2.6)

Question 148

Probationary FFs must maintain a Training Notebook until the end of the probationary period. Which choice concerning these notebooks is incorrect? A) Members shall ensure a tool list from their current unit is attached to the 1st page of the notebook. B) The notebook is intended to be used as a positive motivational tool, and shall be brought to all drills held in quarters. C) Each tour, Probationary FFs shall make an entry in the training notebook relating to lessons learned, experience gained, or information gathered from senior members during their tour. D) The notebooks shall be kept locked in the member's locker when not in use. E) Probationary Firefighters shall document all leaves other than regular leaves in their training notebooks. An entry shall be made in the notebook listing the date the leave started and ended. On the 1st tour after the leave has concluded, the Officer on duty will verify the dates and sign the entry.

Answer 148

ANSWER: D) The notebooks shall be kept locked in the member's locker when not in use. (INCORRECT) * COMPANY OFFICE (AUC 323 Addendum 2)

Question 149

Company Commanders have several specific duties concerning the Probationary FF Training Notebook. Which is not one of them? A) If the training notebook is lost or destroyed, the Company Commander must forward a report through the chain of command to the Administrative Division within 30 days. B) The Company Commander shall review the notebook weekly, and sign and date the notebook in red ink. C) The company commander shall ensure the Training Notebooks are forwarded to the Battalion & Division Training Coordinator for evaluation in the FFs 13th and 17th months. D) Company commanders must ensure that modules and quizzes are completed in a timely manner. E) Company commanders should assign additional reading assignments that emphasize familiarization of their unit type, apparatus, and predominant building construction for the company's response area.

Answer 149

ANSWER: B) The Company Commander shall review the notebook weekly, and sign and date the notebook in red ink. (INCORRECT) * Review MONTHLY * INITIAL and date (AUC 323 2.2)

Question 150

Which entry in a Probationary FFs Training Notebook is incorrect? A) Probationary FF - enter and date in blue or black ink when subject matter has been read and/or video has been viewed. B) Probationary FF - Review monthly. Initial and date in blue or black ink. C) Officer on Duty - Initial and date in red ink when the subject matter has been reviewed or drilled on. D) Officer on Duty - Review each tour the member works. Initial and date in red ink.

Answer 150

ANSWER: B) Probationary FF - Review monthly. Initial and date in blue or black ink. (INCORRECT) * Review WEEKLY (AUC 323 Addendum 2)

Question 151

Major aircraft emergencies at JFK and LaGuardia airports require extensive inter-agency cooperation for successful control. Choose an incorrect choice regarding FDNY operations at these emergencies. A) Under no circumstances are FDNY units to enter the aeronautical field without a Port Authority Escort. B) Ensuring an adequate delivery of water is a primary function of the FDNY at airport emergencies. C) Responding units should follow the PA Escort closely as runways may be in use. Stay on asphalt roads or edge of runway to avoid getting stuck in the ground. D) Immediately upon reaching a hydrant or other water source, the PA Escort should return to the Staging Area to escort another unit to the field.

Answer 151

ANSWER: D) Immediately upon reaching a hydrant or other water source, the PA Escort should return to the Staging Area to escort another unit to the field. (INCORRECT) * PA Escort REMAINS UNTIL WE HAVE A POSITIVE WATER SUPPLE ESTABLISHED. (AUC 325 6.1.1)

Question 152

As a general rule, voice and flight data recorders are located in the rear of the fuselage of the aircraft. The recorders are listed as possibly being all but which color? A) Black B) Orange C) Red D) Yellow

Answer 152

ANSWER: A) Black (INCORRECT) * The flight data recorder (black box) is NOT BLACK * Can be ORANGE or RED (Rectangular - brick) * Can be YELLOW (Spherical - sun) (AUC 325 6.2.3)

Question 153

Northern Queens units are responding to a report of a plane crash at LaGuardia Airport. FDNY units should know all of the following points with the exception of which choice? A) All responding units, other than the 1st arriving BC, shall respond to the Staging Area, located in front of Gate #3. B) Units shall form up in double convoy fashion with Ladder Companies, Rescue Companies, and Special units on the left and Engine Companies on the right. C) Hydrants are located along the fingers of the terminal buildings on the ramp side. D) High Pressure hydrants (125 psi) are painted with a black body and a silver top.

Answer 153

ANSWER: D) High Pressure hydrants (125 psi) are painted with a black body and a silver top. (INCORRECT) * High Pressure Hydrants are painted YELLOW (AUC 325 4.2.1)

Question 154

At LaGuardia Airport some wall hydrants, located on the exterior of the terminal buildings on the ramp side, are designated by large phosphorescent signs composed of? A) A green "H" on a white background B) A white "H" on a red background C) A white "H" on a green background D) A green "H" on a red background

Answer 154

ANSWER: C) A white "H" on a green background | AUC 325 4.2.2

Question 155

When supplying water to the Port Authority ARFF crash trucks at JFK, FDNY ECCs should not exceed _____ psi discharge pressure. A) 30 B) 45 C) 65 D) 80

Answer 155

ANSWER: D) 80 | AUC 325 Addendum 2 4.1

Question 156

Cell phone sites are being installed in commercial, residential and public buildings. Each individual site and cell company will have different configurations and equipment setups. How many of the following show proper knowledge of these sites? 1. Antennas may not extend higher than 3 feet above the height of the roof or parapet on the roof, or 3 feet above any penthouse or bulkhead, if placed on such. 2. The administrative company must do an onsite inspection of buildings with cell sites and submit a CIDS card. 3. The administrative company must notify their Battalion, Division, and all 1st alarm units via telephone followed by written notification. 4. Roof mounted gas generator piping may extend via the exterior of the building. It is illegal to run gas generator piping through interior vertical arteries. 5. Cell site rooms have limited ventilation; operate from the exterior if at all possible. A) 5 B) 4 C) 3 D) 2

Answer 156

ANSWER: C) 3 (2/3/5 are CORRECT) 1 - Antennas may not extend higher than SIX (6) FEET above roof or parapet or SIX (6) feet above any penthouse or bulkhead. 4 - Gas generator piping may be run on the EXTERIOR OR INTERIOR of the building (AUC 331)

Question 157

At an operation, units must notify the IC once they become aware of a cell site. If the address was not given on the initial response ticket, verify it and request CIDS information from the dispatcher. Units should also be guided by all but which choice? A) Special call an additional Engine and Ladder if the cell site installation is involved. B) Insure a TL response on the initial alarm for a reported fire in buildings with a cell site. C) Consider stretching a handline to the roof at upper floor fires. This line can be used to maintain egress and to cool supporting "I" beams. D) Ladder Companies should consider using a foam extinguisher at incipient fires.

Answer 157

ANSWER: D) Ladder Companies should consider using a foam extinguisher at incipient fires. (INCORRECT) * PORTABLE DRY CHEMICAL EXTINGUISHER (AUC 331 6.9)

Question 158

Engine 332 is taking up from a scene where two pedestrians were struck and transported to the hospital by EMS, when a member of the press asks the Officer for details of the incident. As the IC at the scene, the officer may respond to the press inquiry by giving all but which of the following information? A) Type of incident or event B) Condition of the patients C) Number of patients D) The hospital(s) to which the patients were transported to

Answer 158

ANSWER: B) Condition of the patients (INCORRECT) (AUC 332 3.4.2) IC may provide to the press: Type of incident or event / Number of patients & The hospital(s) to which the patients were transported to.

Question 159

All requests to ride in FD vehicles by an individual not authorized to be present in an FDNY vehicle, must be forwarded to and approved by whom? A) Fire Commissioner B) Chief of Operations C) Borough Commander D) Division Commander

Answer 159

ANWSER: B) Chief of Operations (Richardson) | AUC 331 3.5.1

Question 160

FDNY units are responding to a fire involving electrical transformers and equipment inside a Con Ed facility. Upon arrival, 1st due units find a major fire involving a transformer within the facility. Units should know that which statement is correct regarding operations at this fire? A) Handlines shall never be used on electrical components at Con Ed facilites. B) The decision to apply water streams to electrical components will have to be made by the 1st arriving company officer. C) The primary means of applying water at this fire will be through the use of a TL or Aerial Ladder using the Aquastream Master Stream. D) Once the TL is properly positioned and water is flowing to the intended target, all members must be removed from the apparatus.

Answer 160

ANSWER: A) Handlines shall never be used on electrical components at Con Ed facilites. B - The decision to apply water streams to electrical components will have to be made by a STAFF CHIEF. C - DO NOT use AQUASTREAM at these fires D - One TL is properly positioned REMOVE MEMBERS FROM APPARATUS before water is flowing. (AUC 338 5.5)

Question 161

FDNY units are responding to a fire involving electrical transformers and equipment inside a Con Ed facility. Upon arrival, 1st due units find a major fire involving a transformer within the facility. The Officer of the 1st arriving TL has been ordered by the IC to begin flowing water on the energized transformer fire. The IC states to use the straight stream and informs you that the transformer is 138kV. You should ensure your TL maintains a safe distance of at least how many feet? A) 15 B) 25 C) 75 D) 125

Answer 161

ANSWER: C) 75 * Remember 15 and 25 (Multiply both by 5) 138 kV 30 degree or greater fog = 15 Feet Straight = 75 Feet (15 x 5) 345 kV 30 degree or greater fog = 25 Feet Straight = 125 Feet (25 x 5) (AUC 338)

Question 162

FDNY units are responding to a fire involving electrical transformers and equipment inside a Con Ed facility. Upon arrival, 1st due units find a major fire involving a transformer within the facility. Which safety consideration taken is stated incorrectly? A) FDNY members shall never enter inside the Con Edison facility property lines unless escorted by a qualified Con Edison station personnel and with the approval of the IC. B) Con Edison personnel shall confirm that all FDNY equipment inside the Con Ed property line is connected to the facility's station ground grid. C) Fresh water or salt water (if drafting) may be used on the electrical equipment. D) The possibility of water run off from a Con Ed facility being charged with electrical current is extremely remote.

Answer 162

ANSWER: C) Fresh water or salt water (if drafting) may be used on the electrical equipment. (INCORRECT) * FRESH WATER ONLY / NEVER SALT WATER (AUC 338 7.6)

Question 163

Which one action should take place at a fire in a Con Edison Transmission and Distribution substation? A) a 3 1/2" supply line was stretched to the sprinkler siamese and charged while awaiting the arrival of the Con Ed White hat. B) Water was applied to a fire in a battery room. C) A TL bucket was raised at a distance of 15 feet from the substations exterior fence line. D) Fences were cut to gain access to the area of the burning electrical equipment.

Answer 163

ANSWER: B) Water was applied to a fire in a battery room. A - You can stretch to the siamese but DO NOT CHARGE siamese before arrival of Con Ed. B - Battery Room fires - Carbon dioxide should NOT be used as an extinguishing agent at these fires. Dry chemical extinguishers will work here as will WATER APPLICATION from a safe distance. C - Safe distance is EIGHTEEN (18) FEET from the exterior fence line D - DO NOT CUT FENCES (AUC 338 Addendum 2 - pg 8)

Question 164

Firefighters may be confronted with incidents that range from accidental fires or terrorist' attack on bridges. Which point below about the First Responder Bridge & Tunnels Manual is incorrect? A) The manuals are comprised of 2 standalone guides, a field guide and a risk management guide for each agency. B) The manuals comprise of a total of 8 different manuals, 2 each for NYCDOT bridges, MTA bridges, MTA tunnels, and the NYSDOT Kosciuszko Bridge. C) The field guide is for use by first responders to increase awareness of potential hazards, identify structural components and accurately report details at the scene. The risk management guide is for use by the Command Chief who is tasked with assessing the compromise of the structure from the information provided. D) Information sharing between agencies is critical to the safety of all 1st responders. Assessment could be made from land units, marine units and helicopters. This information MUST be directly transmitted to the FDNY IC at the scene. E) Company Commanders shall ensure that the field guides are stored in a secure location at the housewatch desk. Lost or stolen manuals should be reported to the NYPD within 5 days.

Answer 164

ANSWER: E) Company Commanders shall ensure that the field guides are stored in a secure location at the housewatch desk. Lost or stolen manuals should be reported to the NYPD within 5 days. (INCORRECT) * Secured ON APPARATUS * Lost/stolen report forthwith by telephone and email to PTSU UNIT followed by a LOST PROPERTY REPORT. (AUC 344)

Question 165

Your unit has just arrived for a report of a car fire on the 59th street bridge. When you arrive, the NYPD Lieutenant on scene tells you it was a car bomb that went off about mid span. You call your ECC on the radio and tell him to bring you the First Responders Field Guide for NYCDOT bridges. He then asks you what color the guide is. You would be correct to tell him the Field Guide is which color? A) Red B) Green C) Yellow D) Orange

Answer 165

ANSWER: B) Green * Risk Management Guide is RED * Emergency Response Guidebook for Hazardous Materials Incidents is ORANGE. (AUC 344)

Question 166

Lt. Reilly is UFO in E99 and is asking Captain Hoyer a few questions about the pre incident guideline procedure. The Captain gave Lt. Reilly correct information in which choice listed below? A) An on-site visit by the administrative Battalion and company shall be made during a time that does not interfere with regularly scheduled BISP periods. These visits can take place during daily drill periods of MUD. B) Any building which has a Pre-Incident Guideline should, if possible be included in the CIDS program. The FD designation "PIG" must be included at the beginning of the transmitted data section as per the Communications Manual Chapter 4. C) Each Division, Battalion & company shall establish on Pre-Incident Guideline binder for their respective administrative and response districts. The binder shall be carried on the apparatus. D) At a minimum, all sites with a Pre-Incident Guideline shall be the scene of a familiarization drill at least twice a year.

Answer 166

ANSWER: A) An on-site visit by the administrative Battalion and company shall be made during a time that does not interfere with regularly scheduled BISP periods. These visits can take place during daily drill periods of MUD. B - Any building which has a Pre-Incident Guideline MUST BE INCLUDED in the CIDS program. The FD designation "PG" must be included at the beginning of the transmitted data section as per the Communications Manual Ch 4. C - Each Division, Battalion and Company shall establish TWO (2) Pre-Incident Guideline binders for their respective administrative as well as necessary response districts. One binder shall be carried in an accessible location on the APPARATUS and the other shall be kept in the COMPANY OFFICE for necessary reference. D - At a minimum, all sites with a Pre-Incident Guideline shall be the scene of a familiarization drill ONCE A YEAR. (AUC 345)

Question 167

During the FLTSP's class the instructors were discussing the EBF-4 and made the following four points. In which point below did they give their students incorrect information? A) A preliminary EBF-4 is when a unit is awaiting further manpower for the tour. Members awaiting relief shall be included on the preliminary EBF-4 pending the arrivl of details. B) A final EBF-4 is when all members for the tour have reported for duty and were assigned riding positions. C) Only members actually riding on the apparatus of a unit shall be included in the EBF-4. Do notinclude members detailed to another unit for the tour. D) When a proby is granted tenure on the department orders, the Company Commander shall forward a report to the Bureau of Personnel to have the "PR" designation next to their name be removed.

Answer 167

ANSWER: D) When a proby is granted tenure on the department orders, the Company Commander shall forward a report to the Bureau of Personnel to have the "PR" designation next to their name be removed. (INCORRECT) * When the probationary firefighter is granted tenure on the Department Order, the COMPANY COMMANDER SHALL REMOVE the (PR) designation from the probationary firefighter’s name. The (PR) designation shall NOT be removed in advance of the Department Order. (AUC 346)

Question 168

Any Chief Officer or Company Officer interested in initiating Out of Service Training or event request shall complete a request for training event form (TR1) and email it to the scheduling unit and the Bureau of Operations. To ensure a timely response, the TR1 must be received by the Scheduling and Planning units at least 14 days in advance of the date of the proposed training/event. Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? A) Agree B) Disagree

Answer 168

ANSWER: B) Disagree * CHIEF OFFICERS ONLY fill out the TR1 form * TR-1 must be received by the Scheduling and Planning Units at least 14 days in advance of the date of the proposed training/event. (AUC 347)

Question 169

L100 has been assigned to respond with the PPF's to a fire on the 30th floor of a 40 story HRFPMD. L100 is designated as the Ventilation Support Group. Members of this group have specific designations when operating as the Vent Support Group. Which designation below is not correct? A) The Officer shall be designated the "Vent Group Supervisor" B) The members operating the fans in the lobby shall be designated as the "Vent Group Lobby Unit" C) The members operating the fans on the fire floor shall be designated as the "Vent Group Fire Floor Unit" D) The member assigned the roof shall be designated as the "Vent Group Roof"

Answer 169

ANSWER: C) The members operating the fans on the fire floor shall be designated as the "Vent Group Fire Floor Unit" (INCORRECT) * PPF are NOT OPERATED ON THE FIRE FLOOR. * The members assigned to operate the fans shall be designated “Vent Group Lobby Unit” and the “Vent Group Fire Unit.” (AUC 349 6.1)

Question 170

During a drill the discussion centered around the general operations of the Vent Support Group at a fire operation. Which point made during the discussion was not entirely correct? A) When fans are in position, the IC shall be notified. Stairwell pressurization will not be initiated until authorized by the IC. B) PPFs in operation should never be left unattended. A radio equipped member must continually monitor each operating fan. C) The priority order for the use of PPFs is pressurizing the evacuation stairwell first, the pressurizing the attack stairwell and finally ventilating the public hallways for smoke and CO control. D) If negative results are encountered, discontinue pressurization by throttling down fans to idle and closing the door to the stairwell that the fan is pressurizing. The IC must be notified when the fans have been deactivated and the stairwell doors are secured.

Answer 170

ANSWER: C) The priority order for the use of PPFs is pressurizing the evacuation stairwell first, the pressurizing the attack stairwell and finally ventilating the public hallways for smoke and CO control. (INCORRECT) Priority order for use of PPFs "AEV" Attack stairwell / Evacuation stairwell / Ventilating Hall (AUC 349 6)

Question 171

Pressurization of the attack stairway is the most effective if done simultaneously with the fire attack. There are many benefits of positive pressure ventilation such as to provide a safer environment for units operating or searching above the fire area and to provide an uncontaminated area of refuge for members. In order for PPV to be successful it must be done correctly. Which point below is incorrect regarding PPV? A) The optimum placement of the fan is 4' to 6' from the attack stairway door on the ground floor and directly facing the door to the stairwell at an angle tilt of 80 degrees. B) The fan shall be placed to blow into the stairwell. The fan can be placed in the stairwell if necessary, as this will generate even higher pressures in the stairway. C) The pressure delivered to the attack stair by the PPF will be great enough to allow for up to three stairwell doors to be open and pressurization to remain effective. D) When units are committed before fan activation and a line is stretched through a stairwell door, the door should be closed as much as possible to maintain positive pressure.

Answer 171

ANSWER: B) The fan shall be placed to blow into the stairwell. The fan can be placed in the stairwell if necessary, as this will generate even higher pressures in the stairway. (INCORRECT) * The fan shall be positioned to blow into the stairwell; it should NOT be placed in the stairwell. (AUC 349 7)

Question 172

L100 has just arrived at a fire on the 11th floor of a 14 story HRFPMD. The IC orders L100 to use their fans to pressurize the attack stairwell. L100 would be most correct to place the fans where? A) Place one fan in the lobby and another fan on the 8th floor B) Place one fan in the lobby and another fan on the 10th floor C) Only one fan is needed and it is placed in the lobby D) Only one fan is needed and it is placed on the 9th floor.

Answer 172

ANSWER: A) Place one fan in the lobby and another fan on the 8th floor. * One fan can pressurize up to 10 stories. * Two fans will pressurize a 40 story building * If the fire floor is above the 10th floor or additional pressures are required to maintain the stairwell free of smoke, a second fan must be brought to THREE FLOORS BELOW the fire floor and set up, following the proper positioning (4 to 6 feet back, 80 degree angle). * This will maintain proper pressure throughout the stairwell, up to a 40 story building. This same concept, of placing a fan on the ground floor and a second fan three floors below the fire, can also be applied to buildings greater than 40 stories. (AUC 349 7.3)

Question 173

The PPFs are highly mobile units and can be very dangerous if not handled properly/ Members using the fans should follow all but which safety precaution? A) The PPF should never be transported while in operation. If the need arises to move the fan, it shall be shut down before transportation. B) Fans should be inspected and started daily at the beginning of the 9x6 tour. Weekly at MUD, fans should be started and allowed to run at full RPM for 5 minutes. C) When running fans at an incident, exhaust hoses must always be attached to the operating fan in order to limit and control the introduction of CO inside the structure. D) Fans should normally not be refueled inside of a structure. If the fan needs to be refueled at an extended operation, it can be done inside the structure however extreme caution must be used.

Answer 173

ANSWER: D) Fans should normally not be refueled inside of a structure. If the fan needs to be refueled at an extended operation, it can be done inside the structure however extreme caution must be used. (INCORRECT) * NEVER refuel PPF inside of the structure. (AUC 349 11)

Question 174

Sequential ventilation can be used to vent the products of combustion vertically through the attack stairway after the fire has been extinguished. Which point about sequential ventilation is not correct? A) Sequential ventilation will create an area of high pressure in the attack stairway and utilize an area of low pressure in the evacuation to facilitate smoke removal. B) Placement of the fan for sequential ventilation shall be on the exterior of the building with the exhaust hose in place. C) The bulkhead should be opened in the attack stairwell while all other doors in the attack stairwell are closed. The evacuation stairwell bulkhead door remains closed. D) Sequential ventilation shall begin on the ground floor or cellar and continue on each floor until the CO or other contaminants are reduced to acceptable levels.

Answer 174

ANSWER: A) Sequential ventilation will create an area of high pressure in the attack stairway and utilize an area of low pressure in the evacuation to facilitate smoke removal. (INCORRECT) * Creates area of high pressure in EVACUATION stair * Utilizes area of low pressure in ATTACK stair (AUC 349 8)

Question 175

Listed below are the different types of ventilation methods discussed in this the PPF bulletin and the recommended distances the PPV fans should be placed when these methods are used. Please choose the incorrect placement of the fans for the corresponding ventilation method. A) Positive pressure ventilation - place fan 4' to 6' from the door at an 80 degree angle. B) Sequential ventilation - place fan on exterior of building at the base of the stairwell. C) Mechanical ventilation of large areas/structures - place the fan farther back than 4' to 6' at an 80 degree angle. D) Negative pressurization - If using the fan because tarps are not available or the box fan can't be hung, place the fan facing the exhaust opening 4 to 6 feet at an 80 degree angle.

Answer 175

ANSWER: D) Negative pressurization - If using the fan because tarps are not available or the box fan can't be hung, place the fan facing the exhaust opening 4 to 6 feet at an 80 degree angle. (INCORRECT) * SIX TO EIGHT FEET (6-8 feet) back at a THIRTY (30) DEGREE ANGLE for negative pressurization. (AUC 349)

Question 176

Members on BISP see photos in a commercial occupancy that they believe indicate possible terrorist plans to attack NYC. After gathering information on a Suspicious Activity Report Form, it would be most correct for the company Officer to? A) Immediately upon return to quarters, notify the FDNY terrorism center by telephone. B) Send the original SAR form to the Bureau of Fire Investigation through intra-departmental mail, and also call the Bureau of Fire Investigation. C) Place a copy of the SAR form in a secure location in quarters. D) Make a journal entry concerning this incident, indicating only the address and the notifications that were made.

Answer 176

ANSWER: B) Send the original SAR form to the Bureau of Fire Investigation through intra-departmental mail, and also call the Bureau of Fire Investigation. A - Enter information in the reporting system on DIAMONDPLATE C - DO NOT keep a copy of SAR in quarters D - Make a journal entry DO NOT INCLUDE PARTICULARS (AUC 363 4.6)

Question 177

All FDNY Officers should know that which one of the following responses is a Unified Command type of incident as per the Citywide Incident Management System? A) Boat in distress B) Structural collapse C) Explosion D) HazMat with confirmed terrorism

Answer 177

ANSWER: C) Explosion “UHEARD” U - Utility Emergencies H - HazMat (NOT TERRORISM) E - Explosion A - Aviation R - Disasters (natural disasters) Also Telecommunications and Public Health Emergencies (AUC 276 - pg 3)

Question 178

Engine 326 is special called as a FireIce unit to a manhole fire by B53. On arrival they are ordered to direct a stream of FireIce solution into a manhole by the IC. In this situation, they would be correct to? A) Use a nozzle pressure of 80-100 psi, as this is optimal. B) Use a circular vacuuming motion with the pick up tube in the FireIce container. C) Commence operations with the nozzle at a safe standoff distance of at least 25 feet. D) Direct the stream of FireIce solution to fall approximately 2-3 feet in front of the manhole opening.

Answer 178

ANSWER: B) Use a circular vacuuming motion with the pick up tube in the FireIce container. A - Nozzle Pressure of 60 to 80 psi C - Safe stand-off distance of at least 25 feet D - Direct FireIce stream to fall approximately ONE (1) FOOT in front of manhole. (AUC 180 - Addendum 2 - 8.1)

Question 179

While performing hydrant inspection duty, members of E281 encounter a 10 year old male child who states that he is being beaten by his father and does not want to go home. In this situation, it would be most correct for the officer to? A) Notify the dispatcher that the unit is operating at a verbal alarm and will only respond at the dispatcher’s discretion. B) Request the dispatcher to have NYPD, an FDNY EMS Supervisor, and an ambulance respond to the scene. Remind the EMS Supervisor on arrival that he/she is required to file the mandated report required by NYS Social Services Law. C) Forward a letterhead report of this incident to the Chief of Department, that must include the child’s name and the identity of the EMS Supervisor left in charge. D) Take a mark in the Company Journal indicating the child’s name and the identity of the Police Officer left in charge.

Answer 179

ANSWER: D) Take a mark in the Company Journal indicating the child’s name and the identity of the Police Officer left in charge. A - Call Dispatch to be placed OUT OF SERVICE B - AMBULANCE CREW does mandated report C - POLICE OFFICER left in charge (AUC 3 1.4)

Question 180

Regarding the storage and wearing of Bunker Gear and PPE in quarters, it would be correct to state that? A) Members may not store Bunker Gear in their personal locker. Helmets, gloves and hoods, if properly cleaned, may be stored in lockers. B) “No bunker gear” signs shall be displayed at the entrances to every area of the firehouses. C) Replacement or additional “no bunker gear” signs can be obtained by contacting the Safety Command. D) Conducting a search drill with newly laundered bunker gear in the bunk room is permitted.

Answer 180

ANSWER: C) Replacement or additional “no bunker gear” signs can be obtained by contacting the Safety Command. A - NO PPE IN PERSONAL LOCKERS B - Displayed in all LIVING AREAS of firehouse D - NEVER conduct drill with bunker gear in living areas (AUC 310 - 1.2)

Question 181

Captain Seltzer is working a night tour in Engine 99 when he walks into the kitchen of E99 and L100 at 1905 hours and finds 3 red cups on the kitchen table with alcohol in all 3 cups. He then walks outside in the rear yard and sees 12 firefighters and one Lieutenant having some barbecue wings for “nosh”. Nine of the firefighters are on-duty for the 6x9 tour, and three firefighters are hanging over from the day tour. In this situation, the Captain would be correct to immediately? A) Conduct a roll call of all on duty and off duty members and advise them of their right to representation before being questioned by the investigating officer. B) Prohibit any on duty or off duty member from leaving the premises without his permission. C) Immediately relieve all on duty members from emergency response duty and have both units placed out of service. D) Personally notify the Administrative Battalion, Administrative Division and BITS.

Answer 181

ANSWER: C) Immediately relieve all on duty members from emergency response duty and have both units placed out of service. A - INVESTIGATING OFFICER does this “RAIT” (Roll call / Advise right of counsel / Investigation / Testing) B - Prohibit members from leaving without permission of INVESTIGATING OFFICER. D - Notify BATTALION (If BC involved notify next superior officer) (AUC 202 - 5)

Question 182

The Captain of Engine 55 was discussing the Probationary Firefighter’s Development Program with a new proby firefighter. He was correct when he told the proby? A) When you successfully complete a quiz at the end of a module, print the completion receipt so the on-duty Officer can place it inside the Proby Firefighter’s folder. B) The Proby FF Control Sheet will be affixed to the inside of the Proby FFs notebook. C) A tool list from the proby FFs current unit should be attached to the inside cover of the Proby notebook. D) The Proby FF will go on a cross unit detail for 90 days to a Ladder Company, but only after the Proby FF has completed at least 90 days of service in the firehouse.

Answer 182

ANSWER: D) The Proby FF will go on a cross unit detail for 90 days to a Ladder Company, but only after the Proby FF has completed at least 90 days of service in the firehouse. A - PROBY will print receipt and staple it in their notebook. B - Control Sheet shall be affixed on the inside cover of the Probationary FFs FOLDER (BP-90) C - Tool list of current unit attached to FIRST PAGE of notebook. (AUC 323 - 2.4 - Addendum 2)

Question 183

FDNY Engine Company Chauffeurs should be aware that when they are supplying water to a Port Authority / ARFF Crash Truck at JFK International Airport, FDNY ECC’s should not exceed _______ psi discharge pressure. A) 70 B) 80 C) 90 D) 100

Answer 183

ANSWER: B) 80 | AUC 325 - Addendum 2 4.1

Question 184

An Officer discussing Exterior Insulation Finishing Systems (EIFS) at a drill was correct when he made which statement below? A) The component of primary concern during firefighting operations is the middle layer of fiberglass mesh. B) Upon transmission of a 10-75 for a fire in an EIFS building, an additional Engine and Ladder shall be special called. The special ladder called must be a TL. C) A TL monitor with a 2” tip, at 100 psi nozzle pressure, has a vertical reach of 135 feet from the tip of the nozzle. D) A cockloft nozzle supplied with a 2 1/2” handline, with one tip capped, that is operated upward on the exterior of a building, can provide a vertical reach of up to three floors.

Answer 184

ANSWER: C) A TL monitor with a 2” tip, at 100 psi nozzle pressure, has a vertical reach of 135 feet from the tip of the nozzle. A - Primary concern is the INNERMOST SHEATHING LAYER B - Special called Ladder SHOULD be a TL IF ONE EAS NOT ASSIGNED ON THE INITIAL ALARM. D - Can provide vertical reach of up to TWO (2) FLOORS (AUC 362 - 1.3)

Question 185

You are a Lieutenant of a Ladder Company that has just finished operating at a 10-18 for a food on the stove in a PD. The Battalion was monitoring the box, and is not continuing in. Unfortunately, due to the smoke condition, the dog inside the house is found dead by members and there is no one around. Since there is no responsible party to secure the dog with, as the IC, you would be most correct to contact the ____________________ through the respective Borough Dispatcher. A) ASPCA B) NYC Emergency Management C) Animal Care Center D) FDNY Watch Command

Answer 185

ANSWER: C) Animal Care Center “PORN” P - PD / O - Owner / R - Representative from Building / N - Neighbor * If none of the above are available call Animal Care Center (AUC 361 2.1)

Question 186

First alarm units arrive on the scene of a 10-75 for an attic fire in a 2 1/2 story peaked roof PD. In this situation they should be aware that? A) On sloped roofs, PV arrays are generally installed on the North and East facing sides. B) Combiner boxes should be opened by firefighters in an attempt to shut the PV array. C) Straight streams or foam should not be used as an extinguishing agent near PV components since they are excellent conductors of electricity. D) A hose stream may be applied directly onto an energized PV system component, if a fog nozzle of at least 25 degrees or more is used from a distance.

Answer 186

ANSWER: C) Straight streams or foam should not be used as an extinguishing agent near PV components since they are excellent conductors of electricity. A - SOUTHWEST B - SHOULD NOT BE OPENED D - Fog nozzle of AT LEAST THIRTY (30) DEGREES OR MORE (AUC 351 6.4)

Question 187

At 2300 hours, first alarm units respond to a reported explosion on the Brooklyn Bridge and are requested by the dispatcher to give an immediate preliminary report on arrival for the Tour Commander. In this situation, they would be correct to think that they should? A) Use the first responders Bridge Manual which is an orange book. B) Refer to the Risk Management/Executive Guide to identitfy affected structural members. C) Transmit an incident assessment to the Dispatcher using the “size-up” section of the field guide. D) Report any lost or stolen manuals forthwith to the Bureau of Fire Investigation by phone and email.

Answer 187

ANSWER: C) Transmit an incident assessment to the Dispatcher using the “size-up” section of the field guide. A - First Responders Bridge Manual FIELD GUIDE is GREEN B - Refer to FIELD GUIDE to identify affected structural members D - Report lost or stolen manuals to PTSU (Public Trans Safety Unit) (AUC 344 1.4)

Question 188

Probationary FFs are designated on the EBF-4 by the? A) Prefix “(PF)” before their name B) Prefix “(PR)” before their name C) Suffix “(PF)” after their name D) Suffix “(PR”) after their name

Answer 188

ANSWER: B) Prefix “(PR)” before their name | AUC 346 2.7

Question 189

All members must be a aware that the Inspector General required direct notification regarding any situation where an FDNY Employee? A) Is arrested B) Misappropriates Department time C) Claims an off duty injury occurred while on duty D) Has an on duty incident involving possession of illegal drugs.

Answer 189

ANSWER: C) Claims an off duty injury occurred while on duty A - Immediate notification to BITS B - Written notification to BITS D - Immediate notification to BITS Immediate to BITS “AABBCCDD” A - Alcohol / Arrest B - Boxing with Brothers C - Confrontation with civilian / confrontation with PD or other agency D - Drugs / Dangerous misuse of Department vehicles Written to BITS “IMMAC” I - Incompetence in which officer believes charged are warranted M - Misconduct not falling under IG M - Misuse or misappropriation of Department time A - Arrest follow up information C - Charges ``` Inspector General “CCCMM” C - Corruption C - Criminal activity C - Conflict of Interest M - Misconduct M - Mismanagement ``` (AUC 268 2.1.7)

Question 190

You are a company officer that has just finished hydrant inspection duty. You should know that which hydrant(s) below should be identified to the DEP as requiring priority repair? A) Two adjacent hydrants in the same block, one is out of service, and the other has a defective drain. Report the out of service hydrant as a priority repair. B) A hydrant vital to the protection of the Brooklyn Bridge that has a defective drain. C) A hydrant that is the only hydrant on the block that is OOS. D) Two hydrants, not adjacent, but both in the same block, and both are OOS. There is a serviceable hydrant in between the two out of service hydrants. Report both OOS hydrants as requiring a priority repair.

Answer 190

ANSWER: C) A hydrant that is the only hydrant on the block that is OOS. “HOT” H - Hazard (target hazard or critical infrastructure) O - Only Hydrant on the block T - Two adjacent hydrants in block that are OOS (AUC 205 3.2)

Question 191

You are a company officer covering a day tour in E308 when you receive a phone call from a 4th grade school teacher who wishes to bring a class of 24 students to the firehouse for a visit next week. In this situation, you would be correct to advise the teacher? A) You can schedule the visit for 1400 hours next Friday because the unit has BISP that morning. You also advise her that she needs to have 2 adult supervisors present. B) You can schedule the visit for 1100 hours next Thursday because the unit has no activities that day. You also advise her that she needs to have 3 adult supervisors present . C) You can schedule the visit for 1000 hours next Wednesday because the unit has no activities that day. You also advise her that she needs to have 2 adult supervisors present. D) You are unable to schedule the visit, she must either call or email the FDNY Fire Safety Education Unit and they will gladly accommodate her.

Answer 191

ANSWER: C) You can schedule the visit for 1000 hours next Wednesday because the unit has no activities that day. You also advise her that she needs to have 2 adult supervisors present. * CANNOT schedule when Company has BISP or Hydrants scheduled “415-3020” Up to 2nd grade - 1 for 4 3rd and 4th grade - 1 for 15 5th grade and over - 1 for 30 Boy Scout troops - 1 for 20 (AUC 4 / Regs 19)

Question 192

Ladder 127 and Engine 298 are setting up a HT relay for a reported fire at a subway station. Which two members in the relay must be positioned within line of sight with each other? A) The LCC and the OV B) The OV and the Roof FF C) The Roof FF and the Engine Officer D) The Engine Officer and the Ladder Officer

Answer 192

ANSWER: C) The Roof FF and the Engine Officer “CORE” “Stairs/man/stairs/man” LCC within 50 yards of STAIRS OV within 50 yards of LCC Roof within 50 yards of STAIRS Engine Officer 100 yards LOS with a Roof FF (AUC 207 4.1)

Question 193

Two members of SOC were discussing the features and hazards of photovoltaic (PV) systems. In which choice below was an incorrect comment made? A) Both residential and commercial PV systems operate on the same principle and both pose simliar dangers, the greatest hazard of which is collapse of the roof onto the top floor. The residential system generally is smaller and may contain fewer safety features that the larger commercial system. B) The basic PV or solar cell produces only a small amount of power (1-2 watts). When interconnected to form modules (panels), output ranges from 10 to 300 watts. If more power is needed, several modules can be installed to form a PV array. C) PV systems can still produce electricity on cloudy days, but not as much as they do on sunny days. PV systems do not produce electricity at night. D) Most PV arrays use an inverter to convert the direct current (DC) power produced into alternating current (AC) that can tie into existing infrastructure to power lights and other electrical loads.

Answer 193

ANSWER: A) Both residential and commercial PV systems operate on the same principle and both pose simliar dangers, the greatest hazard of which is collapse of the roof onto the top floor. The residential system generally is smaller and may contain fewer safety features that the larger commercial system. (INCORRECT) * DIRECT CURRENT (DC) is the GREATEST HAZARD (AUC 351 2.1)

Question 194

There are many variations in the types and arrangements of PV systems. Of the following choices, which is described incorrectly? A) Stand alone PV systems operate independent of the utility grid. On grid connected systems utilize grid tie in inverters that are integrated with the public utility. B) Stand mounted systems are also known as a universal mounting because they can be installed both on rooftops as well as on the ground. Stand mount systems atop roofs must be installed to withstand wind loads and are typically used with larger solar panel systems. C) Flush mounted systems are commonly used with small solar arrays and are on peaked roofs because the structural design cannot support large ones. D) Integrated design systems serve as a structural element (Roof, wall, canopy, or skylight) which reduces concentrations of added weight and avoids penetrations required for mountings and wiring. Integrated systems are easily detectable to members during both day and nighttime hours.

Answer 194

ANSWER: D) Integrated design systems serve as a structural element (Roof, wall, canopy, or skylight) which reduces concentrations of added weight and avoids penetrations required for mountings and wiring. Integrated systems are easily detectable to members during both day and nighttime hours. (INCORRECT) * Integrated as well as flush mounted arrays MAY BE DIFFICULT OR IMPOSSIBLE TO DETECT DURING NIGHTTIME HOURS. (AUC 351 4.1)

Question 195

Each of the statements below contain correct information about PV system operations except? A) FFs must avoid walking on modules since this can expose them to electric shock. Additionally, FFs should only cut wires associated with a PV array when power to the inverter has been shut. B) If feasible, tactical operations should be performed away from all PV components. Shutting off power at the main electrical panel, does not ensure that all power to the building has been removed. C) When exposed to sunlight, PV arrays will continue to generate electricity and energize conduit and components up to the inverter. The use of rooftop disconnects should not be relied upon; shut off electrical power to the inverter to ensure power does not enter the building from the PV array conduit, batteries or backup generator. D) At fires, the opening/removal of skylights and scuttles as well as horizontal ventilation should be the prime focus of ladder company operations.

Answer 195

ANSWER: A) FFs must avoid walking on modules since this can expose them to electric shock. Additionally, FFs should only cut wires associated with a PV array when power to the inverter has been shut. (INCORRECT) * NEVER CUT ANY WIRES ASSOCIATED WITH A PV ARRAY. (AUC 351 6.1)

Question 196

FDNY operations may prove difficult when dealing with PV arrays. Of the following choices, all contain correct information except? A) Inform the IC if the PV system is involved in fire and if it is going to negatively impact vertical ventilation operations. B) Using water on energized PV system components is a decision that should only be made by the IC after careful sizeup. If decided upon to use water as an extinguishing agent, Engine Officer should position hoselines to cut off fire extension and push the fire back toward the main fire area. C) Hose streams should not be applied directly onto energized PV system components. A foam nozzle utilized from a distance and set to a 30 degree spray pattern is recommended to prevent electric current from traveling upstream towards members operating hoselines. D) When the weight of the PV array is placed directly on the roof beams, a concern should be the added load. Under heavy fire conditions where exposed roof beams lose their strength, early roof collapse should be anticipated.

Answer 196

ANSWER: C) Hose streams should not be applied directly onto energized PV system components. A foam nozzle utilized from a distance and set to a 30 degree spray pattern is recommended to prevent electric current from traveling upstream towards members operating hoselines. (INCORRECT) * A FOG NOZZLE (NOT FOAM) (AUC 351 6.3)

Question 197

Fire involving PV systems can be quite difficult and hazardous to operating forces. All choices below are in accordance with FDNY policy except? A) For fires involving PV systems, de-energize all of the PV components along with any other utility supplied electrical power serving the building. B) It May prove difficult or dangerous to attempt to remove all burning or smoldering materials from under or around PV modules without subjecting members to electrical shock. One option is to have members carefully remove the PV modules to ensure proper extinguishment and overhaul. C) The utility company and the licensed solar power installer/electrician (if contact information is available) should be requested to respond through the dispatcher. D) Incipient fires can be extinguished using Class C (dry chemical) portable fire extinguishers. Advanced fires may dictate the limited use of water in a fog pattern from a safe distance. Avoid standing in areas where pooling water is located.

Answer 197

ANSWER: B) It May prove difficult or dangerous to attempt to remove all burning or smoldering materials from under or around PV modules without subjecting members to electrical shock. One option is to have members carefully remove the PV modules to ensure proper extinguishment and overhaul. (INCORRECT) * Removal of modules by FFs IS NOT AN OPTION. (AUC 351 6.6)

Question 198

The various components of a PV system are dangerous in different ways and require a methodical approach to mitigation. Which choice below does not contain correct information? A) Lithium batteries may burn rapidly and ignite nearby combustibles. The use of dry chemical or foam extinguishing agents had proven to be effective in battery fires. B) Company Officers on BISP or other outside activities finding a hazardous condition relative to a PV system installation that is immediately perilous to members or occupants due to size, location, arrangement, defects, or lack of maintenance should be instructed to request the immediate response of the Department of Buildings. C) Buildings with PV systems necessitate that they be entered into CIDS D) The ability of PV arrays to trap snow and debris will add more weight to the roof. This, in conjunction with the PV system’s inherent dead load, will increase the possibility of roof collapse.

Answer 198

ANSWER: B) Company Officers on BISP or other outside activities finding a hazardous condition relative to a PV system installation that is immediately perilous to members or occupants due to size, location, arrangement, defects, or lack of maintenance should be instructed to request the immediate response of the Department of Buildings. (INCORRECT) * Immediate response of ADMINISTRATIVE BC (AUC 351 6.7)

Question 199

Which safety consideration is inaccurate regarding fire operations at buildings equipped with a PV system? A) Combiner boxes should not be opened by FFs in an attempt to shut down the PV array. B) PV systems do not produce electricity at night. However, lightning flashes occurring at night can energize the PV system. C) Auxiliary lighting equipment and apparatus headlights are not powerful enough to generate dangerous voltage from a PV array. D) On buildings with sloped roofs, PV arrays will generally be installed on the North and East facing sides.

Answer 199

ANSWER: D) On buildings with sloped roofs, PV arrays will generally be installed on the North and East facing sides. (INCORRECT) * SOUTH AND WEST facing sides (AUC 351 7)

Question 200

Proper communication and coordination with facilities and construction personnel is necessary when work is being completed in a Fire Department facility to ensure that the project is finished efficiently and as designed. Of the following choices, which is incorrect? A) The scope of the project is developed by the Assistant Commissioner of Facilities and their designee. The Commanding Officers of the affected units will be consulted, but Facility staff has final determination with regard to construction projects in FD facilities. B) All requests from the unit for additional work must be submitted in writing through the chain of command to the Assistant Commissioner of Facilities. C) An FDNY Project Manager will be assigned to each project and will be the point of contact for the officers of the affected unit. If a member has a problem with the construction method of material being used, The involved Engineer, Contractor or Architectural should be directly consulted with to resolve the issue. D) Members should not direct a contractor to stop working; the only exemption is in the event of an imminent health or safety issue. Members shall not enter designated construction zones unless requested to do so by project Engineers, Contractors or Architects.

Answer 200

ANSWER: C) An FDNY Project Manager will be assigned to each project and will be the point of contact for the officers of the affected unit. If a member has a problem with the construction method of material being used, The involved Engineer, Contractor or Architectural should be directly consulted with to resolve the issue. (INCORRECT) * Member SHALL NOT CONTACT DIRECTLY * Contact through the OFFICER/SUPERVISOR (AUC 358)

Question 201

“DANGER DO NOT ENTER” tape adds an additional layer of protection at hazardous Fire Department operations. Of the following choices, which contains correct information? A) This tape shall be used to isolate designated areas that members should not enter. This applies at all times, to all members of the Department during all stages of operations; no exceptions. B) The tape is red with black lettering and is carried in all Engine and Ladder vehicles. C) When a danger area has been identified, the IC shall have the DANGER DO NOT ENTER tape put in place to mark the danger zone. The IC shall make a transmission via HT alerting units that a danger zone has been established. D) Units are reminded that the danger zone should not be entered except to save a life or authorized by the IC, Safety Chief or SOC Officer.

Answer 201

ANSWER: C) When a danger area has been identified, the IC shall have the DANGER DO NOT ENTER tape put in place to mark the danger zone. The IC shall make a transmission via HT alerting units that a danger zone has been established. A - EXCEPT TO SAVE A LIFE B - Carried in all BATTALION AND DIVISION VEHICLES D - Authorized by IC OR SECTOR CHIEF (AUC 360)

Question 202

When encountering displaced pets/pet remains at the scene of a fire or emergency, the FDNY shall take certain actions. Of the following choices, which action is described incorrectly? A) The FDNY shall protect/secure the pet with a responsible party (owner, neighbor, building representative, NYPD) if possible and/or cover the pet remains and keep them out of view of the public and media. B) If reunification with the owner is not possible, the FDNY IC shall contact the Animal Care Center (ACC) through the respective borough dispatcher. C) If a NYC Emergency Management (NYCEM) is on scene, and the owner/responsible party has not been contacted, the FDNY IC is still responsible for notifying the ACC; this shall not be left to NYCEM. D) Once on scene, ACC is responsible to take possession of the displaced pet/pet remains, remove them to their facility, and attempt further contact with the owner.

Answer 202

ANSWER: C) If a NYC Emergency Management (NYCEM) is on scene, and the owner/responsible party has not been contacted, the FDNY IC is still responsible for notifying the ACC; this shall not be left to NYCEM. (INCORRECT) * NYCEM will be responsible to facilitate notification to the ACC (AUC 361)

Question 203

Exterior Insulation Finish Systems (EIFS) is an exterior wall covering system that uses layered insulation and a waterproofing finish. Which of the following choices contains incorrect information regarding this system? A) When first introduced, EIFS was used almost exclusively on commercial structures. Today, EIFS can be found in combustible and non combustible occupancies including offices, taxpayers, factories, hotels, multiple dwellings, and private houses. B) EIFS can be glued or mechanically fastened to the exterior wall of the structure. C) EIFS consists of 3 layers; the innermost, Insulation layer composed of foam plastic insulation; the middle reinforcing fiberglass mesh; and the outermost finish coat layer (usually a cement based polymer) D) The component of primary concern during firefighting operations is outermost, finish coat layer (usually a cement based polymer)

Answer 203

ANSWER: D) The component of primary concern during firefighting operations is outermost, finish coat layer (usually a cement based polymer) (INCORRECT) * Primary concern is the INNERMOST SHEATHING LAYER OF FOAM PLASTIC INSULATION (FPI) (AUC 362 1.3)

Question 204

The aesthetic design of an EIFS finish coat layer makes it look like other types of building materials are used. Prior knowledge of the existence of EIFS on a building will be beneficial to operating members. Which choice below contains incorrect information? A) If EIFS is compromised and the FPI is ignited, expect high heat conditions, rapid flame spread and dense black smoke. The rate of heat release for thermoplastics can be one to two times higher than that of ordinary combustibles, such as wood or paper. B) EIFS buildings are especially vulnerable to adjacent outside fires (car, rubbish etc.) and ignition sources found during the construction phase (portable heaters, salamanders, torches, welding equipment etc.) C) The rapidity of Fire spread is dependent on the thickness of the finish coat layer, the thickness of the innermost layer (the FPI) and the integrity of the EIFS installation. EIFS fires often extend via a poorly maintained or damaged finish coat layer. D) The energy efficient, insulating properties of EIFS are designed to prevent any heat from escaping the building. At structural fires, these same properties can adversely affect firefighting operations by increasing the potential for flashover.

Answer 204

ANSWER: A) If EIFS is compromised and the FPI is ignited, expect high heat conditions, rapid flame spread and dense black smoke. The rate of heat release for thermoplastics can be one to two times higher than that of ordinary combustibles, such as wood or paper. (INCORRECT) * Rate if heat release is THREE TO FIVE TIMES (3-5) FASTER (AUC 362 1.4)

Question 205

Proper control of EIFS fires is essential to an effective operation. Of the following actions, which is described incorrectly? A) The first arriving Engine should consider using the deck gun for a road attack and knockdown. B) Initial handlines should be positioned for both an interior and exterior attack on the fire. Depending on conditions, a fire may be quickly knocked down from the exterior before the interior attack commences. C) After complete sizeup when conditions dictate, a handline should be dedicated to exterior extinguishment. If possible, the number of lengths stretched should be enough to cover all sides of the building. D) The size of the exterior handline stretched shall be 2 1/2” due to the size of buildings equipped with EIFS and extent of expected fire.

Answer 205

ANSWER: D) The size of the exterior handline stretched shall be 2 1/2” due to the size of buildings equipped with EIFS and extent of expected fire. (INCORRECT) * Size of handline dependant on SIZE OF BUILDING AND EXTENT OF FIRE. * A building 3 story or higher or a large area building may require the use of a 2 1/2” line. * An 1 3/4” line may be sufficient for a smaller PD. (AUC 362 2.1)

Question 206

The department has developed many methods to combat the dangers posed by EIFS clad buildings. Which of the following statements below are correct? 1. Additional alarms should be transmitted early to request the necessary resources to control a rapidly advancing fire. 2. Upon response to a reported fire in an EIFS building, an additional Engine and Tower Ladder shall be special called. 3. Exterior streams should be positioned to operate on the fire building and to protect exposures. 4. Thermal Imaging Cameras (TIC) should be used by both the interior and exterior to determine the extent of fire spread. 5. Members are only permitted to conduct a limited examination during the overhaul phase to ensure that the EIFS fire does not spread via openings in the EIFS. 6. Officers encountering EIFS buildings should make a determination whether or not such buildings should be entered into CIDS. When entered into CIDS “EIFS Throughout” should be in the transmitted data portion. 7. Structural integrity reports issued by the Department of Buildings may identify buildings utilizing EIFS, providing units with another opportunity to identify such locations. A) 1,2,3,4,7 B) 1,3,4,5,6 C) 2,4,5,7 D) 1,3,4,7

Answer 206

ANSWER: D) 1,3,4,7 are CORRECT (2/5/6 INCORRECT) 2 - UPON TRANSMISSION OF A 10-75 (additional Engine and TL) 5 - THROUGH examination required during overhaul 6 - ALL EIFS NEEDS TO BE ENTERED INTO CIDS / The SPECIFIC LOCATION of the areas of the building with EIFS should be outlined (“EIFS Exposure 2” or “EIFS present on all sides”) (AUC 362 2.4)

Question 207

What would be the effective vertical reach of a solid stream from a 2” tip nozzle of the TL Monitor at 100 psi? A) 150’ B) 135’ C) 110’ D) 70’

Answer 207

ANSWER: B) 135’ | AUC 362 3.2

Question 208

A 2 1/2” line equipped with the cockloft nozzle can be used to apply water to an exterior fire that is above the reach of ground based streams. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding this procedure? A) One tip of the cockloft nozzle should be capped with a 1 1/2” shutoff. B) The cockloft nozzle operated upward on the exterior of the building can provide a vertical reach of up to two floors. C) The nozzle should be extended approximately 3 feet from the windowsill and then operated at a slight angle away from the building. D) Fires in combustible wall assemblies can produce significant fire and may require large water flows to overcome the heat release rate of the fire. Additional cockloft nozzles should be deployed as necessary.

Answer 208

ANSWER: C) The nozzle should be extended approximately 3 feet from the windowsill and then operated at a slight angle away from the building. (INCORRECT) * Operate cockloft nozzle at a slight angle TOWARD THE BUILDING. (AUC 362 3.2)

Question 209

While performing BISP, the member of Engine 317 are approached by a young child who states his parents have abused him and he is afraid to return home. The Officer of this unit would be correct to take all but which of the following actions? A) Notify the dispatcher that the company is out of service and the unit is operating at a verbal alarm to assist a civilian. B) Request the response of the Police Department, an FDNY EMS Supervisor, and an ambulance through the dispatcher. C) Take the child into protective custody. Such custody shall be transferred to the PD at the time of their arrival. D) Upon return to quarters complete the mandated report of suspected child abuse as required under NYS Social Services Law.

Answer 209

ANSWER: D) Upon return to quarters complete the mandated report of suspected child abuse as required under NYS Social Services Law. (INCORRECT) * AMBULANCE CREW completes report. (AUC 3 1.7)

Question 210

After taking up from a box, the members of Ladder 13 are requested for assistance by a civilian who states they are being harassed by another civilian. The Officer requests the response of the NYPD and places the unit out of service to assist the civilian. Upon return to quarters, the officer must forward a letterhead report, which includes the name of the civilian and the identity of the Police Officer left in charge of the civilian’s care to whom? A) The Fire Commissioner B) The Chief of Department C) The Chief of Operations D) The Borough Commander

Answer 210

ANSWER: C) The Chief of Operations * Forward through the chain of command to the CHIEF OF OPERATIONS (Richardson) * Take a mark in company journal with the civilian and POs name (AUC 3 1.5)

Question 211

Lt. Rogers receives a phone call from a 3rd grade teacher at a local elementary school who requests to bring her class to the firehouse for a visit. Lt. Rogers would be correct to take which action listed below? A) Advise the teacher to contact the Fire Safety Education Unit by email or phone to schedule a firehouse visit. B) Email the scheduling unit to ensure the firehouse visit is scheduled during a BISP period. C) During the visit, have the unit placed out of service. D) Ensure the class has one adult supervisor for every 15 children during the visit.

Answer 211

ANSWER: D) Ensure the class has one adult supervisor for every 15 children during the visit. A - COMPANY OFFICER schedules visits by school children B - DO NOT schedule visits by school children on BI, hydrant or other schedules activity days. C - Unit remains IN SERVICE “415-3020” 2nd grade - 1 for 4 3rd and 4th - 1 for 15 5th grade - 1 for 30 Boy Scouts - 1 for 20 (AUC 4 3.1.6) (Regulations 19)

Question 212

Units performing fire safety education functions and placed out of service by the Bureau of Operations will be out of service for approximately 1 1/2 hours. All fire safety education programs are exempt from the 10-51 signal except _________________________. A) Operation sidewalk B) Open firehouses C) Firehouse visits D) All are exempt from a 10-51 signal

Answer 212

ANSWER: A) Operation Sidewalk * Operation Sidewalk WILL BE CANCELLED on a 10-51 * Firehouse visits and open firehouses will NOT be cancelled (AUC 4 2.5)

Question 213

An Engine Company Officer operating at a CFRD run discovers what he believes to be indicators of possible terrorist activity within the apartment. The Officer would be correct to take all but which one action? A) Utilize a Suspicious Activity Reporting (SAR) Form that should be carried on the apparatus. B) Immediately upon return to quarters, using the reporting system link on DiamondPlate, fill out the required fields and use the narrative section for any other information relevant to the incident. Use notes from the SAR Form to report accurate information. C) Send the original SAR form through intra-departmental mail to the Bureau of Fire Investigation. Place a copy of the form in the company uniform filing system. D) Make a Company Journal entry of the incident with no particulars.

Answer 213

ANSWER: C) Send the original SAR form through intra-departmental mail to the Bureau of Fire Investigation. Place a copy of the form in the company uniform filing system. (INCORRECT) * NO COPIES KEPT IN FIREHOUSE * Send original through the bag to Fire Marshals (AUC 363 4.6)

Question 214

The Officer of Ladder 100, while monitoring the Department radio, hears a response for a possible leak from one of the two 12” steel pipes of the Buckeye Pipeline. The Officer was incorrect in which thought? A) One pipe carries gasoline while the other carries kerosene base aviation fuel. B) A short tee wrench is used for opening the hinged cover of a manual valve. A 3 1/2 foot yellow wrench with a female fitting is used to shut the manual valve down. C) Combination wrenches are 3 1/2 feet long, painted yellow, and combine the short tee wrench and the long wrench into one tool. D) All assigned and Alternate unit’s have been issued two sets of all three types of wrenches (short tee, 3 1/2 feet long yellow wrench, Combination wrench).

Answer 214

ANSWER: D) All assigned and Alternate unit’s have been issued two sets of all three types of wrenches (short tee, 3 1/2 feet long yellow wrench, Combination wrench). (INCORRECT) * MOST ASSIGNED AND ALTERNATE UNITS HAVE TWO (2) SEPARATE TYPES OF WRENCHES, however a newer combination wrench has been provided which combined both tools. * The combination wrench are issued as REPLACEMENTS FOR MISSING OR BROKEN TOOLS. (AUC 149 4.9)

Question 215

When shutting down manual shut off valves, other than the valves found on the shipper’s lines extending from the LIC terminal, the 3 1/2 foot long wrench with a female fitting is inserted onto a male square fitting and turned _________________. A) 42 full turns clockwise B) 48 full turns clockwise C) 42 half turns counter clockwise D) 24 turns counter clockwise

Answer 215

ANSWER: A) 42 full turns clockwise * 84 half turns clockwise to CLOSE * Shipper’s Line = 24 turns clockwise (48 half turns) (AUC 149 2.3.2)

Question 216

Lt. James is working in L-175 when they are assigned as an alternate unit to buckeye pipeline box 9006. Remembering that L-175 is an alternate unit for several units at box 9006, Lt. James was correct in which action? A) After determining that the Dispatcher did not specifically assign L-175 as an alternate for a particular company, Lt. James ascertained from the dispatcher which unit L-175 was an alternate for. B) Lt. James contacted the dispatcher to ascertain the location of the nearest Assigned Unit in order to obtain the wrenches, assignment instruction cards, and map. C) Lt. James ordered members to search the company office, where the only set of unit alarm assignment and instruction cards are required to be stored. D) Lt. James ordered members to place additional cans of foam on the Ladder apparatus.

Answer 216

ANSWER: A) After determining that the Dispatcher did not specifically assign L-175 as an alternate for a particular company, Lt. James ascertained from the dispatcher which unit L-175 was an alternate for. * Alternate Units already have wrenches cards and maps therefore they would not have a reason to go to the quarters of a company with this equipment. * ENGINE COMPANIES responding on the 2ND ALARM from QUARTERS place extra can of foam on the rig. * ENGINE COMPANIES responding on the 2ND ALARM that are OUT OF QUARTERS do not return to quarters to place additional cans of foam on the rig. (AUC 149 4.2.1)

Question 217

Ladder 800 is dispatched to a response for fumes in the area. Upon arrival at the reported location, the Captain of Ladder 800 discovers that a construction crew has ruptured a pipe of the Buckeye Pipeline, and there are 100 gallons of product in the street. The Captain would be correct to transmit which signal? A) 10-40-1 and 10-80 Code 1 B) 2nd alarm C) 10-75 D) 10-75 and 10-80 no code

Answer 217

ANSWER: B) 2nd alarm | AUC 149 5.4

Question 218

Department Apparatus should not be brought closer than ________ feet to a leak. A) 150 B) 300 C) 600 D) 1000

Answer 218

AMSWER: 600 | AUC 149 6.5.7

Question 219

There is a potential for product that has leaked from the Buckeye Pipeline to ignite. Which choice is incorrect concerning this ignition? A) The primary consideration is the evacuation of the area involved. B) If a strong wind is blowing, all ignition sources in the path of drifting vapors must be extinguished. Then, all ignition sources in the area must be extinguished. C) The potential for explosion is greatest on hot, humid and calm days. D) Fog streams half horizontally a few feet above the ground and moved side to side slowly will wash burning gasoline or aviation fuel aside to provide a path for rescue.

Answer 219

ANSWER: D) Fog streams half horizontally a few feet above the ground and moved side to side slowly will wash burning gasoline or aviation fuel aside to provide a path for rescue. (INCORRECT) * SOLID STREAMS a few INCHES above the ground and moved side to side RAPIDLY. (AUC 149 6.5.5)

Question 220

Lt. Garnett is conducting a drill on a Fire Department Operations at a Buckeye Pipeline leak. Which statement made by Lt. Garnett should be corrected? A) When a unit that is assigned to shut down valves is required to protect life in a serious life threatening situation they must shut down the valve before attending to the life threatening situation. B) When a Unit has the responsibility of closing a manual valve and patrolling to adjacent valves, both duties should be carried out simultaneously. C) Patrols will be on foot or by apparatus. D) Foot patrols are conducted by 2 HT equipped firefighters

Answer 220

ANSWER: A) When a unit that is assigned to shut down valves is required to protect life in a serious life threatening situation they must shut down the valve before attending to the life threatening situation. (INCORRECT) * LIFE TAKES PRECEDENCE, Notify dispatch of situation and address the life hazard. (AUC 149 6.1)

Question 221

Units dispatched to a 9000 box for a leak in the Buckeye Pipeline in Brooklyn discover the leak adjacent to railroad tracks used by Con Rail for freight transportation. Which is the correct action to take? A) After contacting the Brooklyn Dispatcher to shut power, take no further precautions. B) Position “flag persons” at least 1000 feet on each side of the incident. C) After contacting the Brooklyn Dispatcher to stop train traffic, no further precautions are necessary. D) Send two members to the nearest power removal box, in addition to contacting the Brooklyn Dispatcher to shut power and stop train traffic.

Answer 221

ANSWER: B) Position “flag persons” at least 1000 feet on each side of the incident. * These trains are diesel powered (non-electric) and therefore have NO POWER REMOVAL BOXES. (AUC 149 6.6.2)

Question 222

Company Commanders of units having Buckeye Pipeline control valves in their administrative area shall have them inspected during semi-annual hydrants and inspections and also during familiarization drills. Which choice is incorrect concerning these inspections? A) Needed repairs or recommendations should be the subject of a letterhead report to the Buckeye Pipeline Coordinator at Division 8. B) Reports of critical repairs should be the subject of an immediate telephone notification to the Buckeye Pipeline Coordinator at Division 8. C) Valve pits subject to flooding must be inspected during sub freezing weather. D) Flooded valve pits are require immediate notification to DEP through the Hansen Hydrant Application.

Answer 222

ANSWER: D) Flooded valve pits are require immediate notification to DEP through the Hansen Hydrant Application. (INCORRECT) * Immediate notification to BUCKEYE PIPELINE COORDINATOR AT DIVISION 8. (AUC 149 9.2)

Question 223

During which drills can Buckeye Pipeline valves be turned, closed or operated? A) They can never be turned, closed or operated at any drills. B) During Familiarization Drills. C) During Division Drills D) During Borough Drills.

Answer 223

ANSWER: D) During Borough Drills * UNDER NO CIRCUMSTANCES shall valves be opened during Familiarization and Division drills. (AUC 149 10.5.10)

Question 224

Proper aggressive utilization of the capabilities of Brush Fire Units (BFUs) at brush fire operations can often equal the equivalent of an additional alarm assignment. Which point about the BFUs is incorrect? A) The term “out of service” is not to be used when BFUs revert to unstaffed status. B) A separate Fire Record Journal shall be kept for each BFU. C) Regardless of operating location, BFUs shall always be designated by their assigned number on the Department Radio and HT. D) BFU winches can be used to tow out full size apparatus and heavy trucks.

Answer 224

ANSWER: D) BFU winches can be used to tow out full size apparatus and heavy trucks. (INCORRECT) * Winches are for SELF EXTRICATION or used to pull SIMILARLY SIZED VEHICLES. * CANNOT be used to tow full size apparatus. (AUC 151 4.5.10)

Question 225

While drilling on brush fire operations, the Office of Engine 151 made several statements. Which one was incorrect? A) Forestry hope can be used for structural firefighting or wild land operations. B) Units are not to self commit to operations unless structures are exposed. C) Initial attack operations should concentrate on mobility. Avoid hooking up to hydrants, except to protect exposures. D) Members can operate in front of the fire only to protect life. To do this, there must be sufficient charged lines in place capable of protecting operating forces.

Answer 225

ANSWER: A) Forestry hope can be used for structural firefighting or wild land operations. (INCORRECT) * WILDLAND ONLY (Not structural fires) (AUC 151 4.7.3)

Question 226

Stretching handlines is labor intensive at brush fire operations. Often, fire spread is so rapid that stretching handlines is ineffective. Handlines should be considered in all of the following with the exception of which choice? A) When operating beneath high voltage lines. B) When protecting exposures C) When cutting off forward fire travel D) For deep seated fires

Answer 226

ANSWER: A) When operating beneath high voltage lines. (INCORRECT) *NEVER operate handlines beneath high voltage lines (AUC 151 5.4.7)

Question 227

All units shall be familiar with brush fire operations, due to their potential in many areas of the city. Which statement is incorrect concerning these operations? A) The majority of brush fires are controlled by two firefighter teams working with Indian pumps and brooms along the flanks near the head of the fire. B) Bypass stumps, trees and other smoldering items inside the burned out areas until the fire is controlled and sufficient staffing is available for final extinguishment. C) Attempting to break up heat waves by using a water curtain is generally ineffective. D) It is unsafe to operate from burnt out, blackened areasdue to the unpredictable nature of brush fires.

Answer 227

ANSWER: D) It is unsafe to operate from burnt out, blackened areasdue to the unpredictable nature of brush fires. (INCORRECT) * It IS SAFE to operate from burnt out and blackened areas. (AUC 151 5.4.18)

Question 228

In addition to general guidelines, there are specific Engine and Ladder operations at brush fires. Which is not one of them? A) Fire attack can begin once exposures are covered. B) Heavy reliance should be placed on the use of Indian pumps, brooms, and booster lines from BFUs during the initial attack. C) Firefighting teams operating with Indian pumps and brooms may operate in front of the fire if the wi d has diminished. D) Indian pumps contain 5 gallons of water. BFUs can be used to refill expended Indian pumps.

Answer 228

ANSWER: C) Firefighting teams operating with Indian pumps and brooms may operate in front of the fire if the wind has diminished. (INCORRECT) * DO NOT OPERATE IFO FIRE with Indian pumps and brooms. * AVOID operating in front of the fire. If necessary to operate IFO fire (only to protect life) Need SUFFICIENT CHARGED LINES. (AUC 151 5.7.2)

Question 229

While discussing safety at brush fire operations, Captain Jackson made several statements. Which one was correct? A) All operating members shall wear proper PPE including helmet with chinstrap, except in periods of hot weather. B) If necessary to cross a creek, use department ladders. C) Make shift bridges can be used to cross creeks if they are tested first before a member places their full weight on it. D) In cold weather in marshland areas, step into the footsteps of members walking ahead of you to move quicker and easier.

Answer 229

ANSWER: B) If necessary to cross a creek, use department ladders. A - All operating members shall wear proper PPE including helmet with chinstrap PERIOD. C - DO NOT USE MAKESHIFT BRIDGES D - DO NOT step into footholes in cold weather. If the hard surface is broken by the previous members step, the next step in that area may result in sinking deeper into the mud. (AUC 151 5.11.7)

Question 230

Upon arrival at a brush fire, the 1st arriving Officer should Immediately request additional resources if necessary. Other tactics that shall be taken can be found in all but which choice? A) Units operating remotely and completing an assignment are not to go 10-8. They shall Advise the IC and await additional orders. B) Attack The Fire from the flanks and attempt to narrow its spread. Extinguish the perimeter from the flanks first, and then move to interior burning areas. C) Streams should be directed at the burning brush, not at the flames burning above the brush. D) Fire burning on hillsides will burn rapidly down the hill. Have units positioned in streets at the top of the hill to attack the fire and work downward.

Answer 230

ANSWER: D) Fire burning on hillsides will burn rapidly down the hill. Have units positioned in streets at the top of the hill to attack the fire and work downward. (INCORRECT) * Fires on hills will burn rapidly UPHILL * Position units ON TOP OF THE HILL TO PROTECT EXPOSURES but attack the fire from the BOTTOM OF THE HILL AND WORK UPWARD. (AUC 151 5.4.16)

Question 231

The Buckeye Pipeline is compromised of two steel pipes that carry gasoline in one pipe and kerosene base aviation fuel in the other pipe. When units are assigned to shut manual valves to isolate sections of the pipeline (other than the Shipper's line from the LIC terminal), they would be most correct to think that the long wrench with the square female fitting is inserted into the valve box onto a male square fitting and turned __________? A) 24 full turns B) 42 half turns C) 48 full turns D) 84 half turns

Answer 231

ANSWER: D) 84 half turns (AUC 149) * 84 half turns/42 full turns (Buckeye Pipeline) * 24 full turns (Shippers Line)

Question 232

Regarding FDNY response and tactics at Pipeline incidents, it would be correct to state which choice below? A) An Engine out of quarters receiving notification to respond to a 2nd alarm for a pipeline leak should return to quarters to pick up the additional cans of foam only if nearby. B) Manual valves should always be closed as per duties required by Instruction Cards, except in serious situations where a unit is required to protect life or property. C) Patrols by units may be on foot or by apparatus. Foot patrols are to be conducted by two HT equipped FF's. D) If a unit is required to both close a manual valve and patrol to an adjacent valve, they must first close the valve, then perform their patrol duties. E) A unit performing isolation duties should indicate that they are 10-84 on their apparatus MDT when they reach a valve location, then inform the dispatcher by apparatus radio of valve closure and patrol duty completion.

Answer 232

ANSWER: C) Patrols by units may be on foot or by apparatus. Foot patrols are to be conducted by two HT equipped FF's. (AUC 149 4.12) A - MUST NOT RETURN TO QUARTERS to pick up foam B - To protect LIFE ONLY not property D - Perform these duties SIMULTANEOUSLY E - Everything at pipeline incidents is announced over the department radio. Unit will announce they are 10-84 on the department radio NOT THE MDT.

Question 233

Department apparatus should be brought no closer than _____ feet to a leak in the Buckeye Pipeline, and the IC must position flag persons at least _______ feet on each side of an incident adjacent to railroad tracks? A) 600, 800 B) 600, 1000 C) 800, 1000 D) 1000, 600

Answer 233

ANSWER: B) 600, 1000 | AUC 149 6.5.7

Question 234

Units responding to an alarm for a Buckeye Pipeline incident would know which choice below to be incorrect? A) Unless otherwise instructed, Chiefs should respond to a rendezvous location until the leak is located and a command post established. B) Upon confirmation of a confirmed leak, transmit a 2nd alarm. If ignition occurs, additional alarms must be transmitted. C) Once the leak location is identified, the location, an estimate of the amount of product in the street, the topography and exposures should be included in the preliminary report to the dispatcher. D) Manually closed valves should never be re-opened before the fire or emergency is over. E) Re-opening a valve may actually decrease the amount of a fuel spill. this may only be done after an evaluation.

Answer 234

ANSWER: D) Manually closed valves should never be re-opened before the fire or emergency is over. (INCORRECT) (AUC 149 6.2.3) * Manually closed valves are to be re-opened only by personnel of the Buckeye Pipeline Company when the fire or emergency is over, when directed to do so by the Incident Commander, or to locate the leak upon direction of the Incident Commander.

Question 235

Units arrive at the scene of a 2nd alarm transmitted for a Buckeye Pipeline leak and find a large spill of unignited gasoline near a manual valve location due to an accident by construction workers. There is a strong wind blowing from North to South. Which action below would be incorrect for them to consider in this situation? A) The primary consideration is for the evacuation of the area involved. B) The spilled fuel should be covered with foam. C) Ignition sources to the south of the spill should be extinguished first. D) If ignition occurs with trapped workers, a solid hose stream held horizontally a few feet above ground and moved rapidly from side to side will wash burning gasoline aside to provide a oath for rescue.

Answer 235

ANSWER: D) If ignition occurs with trapped workers, a solid hose stream held horizontally a few feet above ground and moved rapidly from side to side will wash burning gasoline aside to provide a path for rescue. (Incorrect) (AUC 149 6.5.2) * Hose stream is held a FEW INCHES above ground

Question 236

Manual valves at the Buckeye Pipeline may be actually operated (turned, closed) only during which type of drills? A) Familiarization Drills B) Division or Borough Drills C) Division Drills

Answer 236

ANSWER: D) Borough Drills | AUC 149 10.4.7

Question 237

When shall requisitions for needed winter operation supplies at the company level commence? A) July 1st B) July 31st C) August 1st D) October 1st

Answer 237

ANSWER: A) July 1st | AUC 200, 3.7

Question 238

When sub-freezing weather occurs (25 degrees of below for a 24 hour period) a lieutenant should cause the inspection of which type of hydrant listed below? A) Hydrants having defective drainage assemblies previously reported and repaired. B) Hydrants at construction and demolition sites C) Hydrants used within the past 72 hours D) Hydrants with unplugged drains

Answer 238

ANSWER: B) Hydrants at construction and demolition sites A - Hydrants having defective drainage assemblies previously reported, BUT NOT YET REPAIRED. C - Hydrant used in the past TWENTY FOUR (24) HRS. D - Hydrants with PLUGGED DRAINS * Also Hydrants where experience has shown ground water to be a problem and Long Island pipeline valve pits subject to freezing. (AUC 200 4.6)

Question 239

Your ladder company has just arrived to a report of smoke in a subway. As you enter the station, the BC orders you to turn your radio to the primary handie talkie subway repeater channel. You would be correct to turn your radio to which channel? A) 11 B) 12 C) 14 D) 15

Answer 239

ANSWER: C) 14 | AUC 207, Add 16, 4.4

Question 240

The possibility of a delay in communications from a "light train" must be anticipated. Therefore, progress reports from the "light train" must be transmitted as soon as possible, but at least every _____ minutes. A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20

Answer 240

ANSWER: C) 15 | AUC 207, Add 7, 2.5

Question 241

Ladder 500 has been directed by the Chief in charge of a subway operation to board a "light train" and investigate an odor of smoke inside a subway tunnel. After boarding the "light train" the officer must confirm that a communications link is established. The officer of Ladder 500 should know that which one of the following choices is correct? A) The Train Operator's radio is the primary means of communication, and it will operate from any Train Operator's compartment in any subway car. B) The Train Operator's radio is the primary means of communication, and it will operate only from the Train Operator's compartment in the front subway car. C) The Train Conductor's radio is the primary means of communication, and it will operate from any Train Operator's compartment in any subway car. D) The Train Conductor's radio is the primary means of communication, and it will operate only from the Train Operator's compartment in the front subway car.

Answer 241

ANSWER: A) The Train Operator's radio is the primary means of communication, and it will operate from any Train Operator's compartment in any subway car. (AUC 207, Add 7, 2.2.1)

Question 242

At 0450 hours on Monday morning, a company officer is notified by a member that he was just arrested for DWI. In this situation, the officer should notify? A) The IG by phone during business hours B) The IG immediately, by calling FDOC and requesting the IGson call supervisor. C) BITS during business hours D) BITS immediately by calling FDOC

Answer 242

ANSWER: D) BITS immediately by calling FDOC. (AUC 268, 3) "AABBCCDD" = DIRECT notification to BITS AA - Arrest / Alcohol BB - Boxing with Brothers CC - Confrontation with civilian / Confrontation with another Govt. Agency DD - Drugs / Dangerous driving

Question 243

You are the Engine Company Officer who has arrived first due at a serious brush fire on a windy day. You would be most correct to consider which tactic below? A) For the initial attack, hooking up to a hydrant is a prime consideration. B) Wetting unburned areas ahead of the fire is generally ineffective. C) Any fire on a hillside will burn rapidly up the hill and must be attacked from the bottom of the hill working upward. D) Streams should be directed at the burning flames above the brush

Answer 243

ANSWER: C) Any fire on a hillside will burn rapidly up the hill and must be attacked from the bottom of the hill working upward. (AUC 151, 5.4.16) A - Initial operations based on MOBILITY. Avoid hooking up to a hydrant except to protect exposures. B - Wetting unburned areas ahead of the fire is EFFECTIVE. C - Correct, fire burns rapidly uphill, position members on top of hill to protect exposures but extinguish fire from the bottom of the hill working upward. D - Streams should be directed AT THE BURNING BRUSH, not the flames above.

Question 244

Lt. Harris is working in Engine 99, when his unit responds to a manhole emergency. Once 10-84 he has no fire or smoke condition, but the manhole is randomly making a loud popping noise. Engine 99 is the only unit on scene and would be correct to give which code? A) 10-25 No Code B) 10-25 Code 1 C) 10-25 Code 2 D) 10-25 Code 3

Answer 244

ANSWER: A) 10-25 No Code 10-25 No Code - Situation other than 1-4 10-25 Code 1 - Fire from street to building (2 places) 10-25 Code 2 - Smoke under pressure 10-25 Code 3 - Smoke seeping !0-25 Code 4 - Transformer (AUC 180 1.1)

Question 245

While waiting on the arrival of Con Ed at a manhole fire, your members were discussing tactics on how to operate. From the statements below, which is the most correct answer? A) Units should not operate water into manholes unless requested by a Battalion Chief at the scene. If requested to place water into a manhole, do not direct the stream directly into the manhole. Instead, let the water flow or pour into the manhole. Use a fog nozzle to reduce or prevent any shock hazard. B) Members should not pull covers off electrical manholes at manhole fires or if a manhole fire is in the area. It is the responsibility of utility crews to open manhole covers at these incidents. C) Members can attempt to move vehicles located in the area of danger. D) When operating at manhole emergencies, the location of traffic control boxes doesn't have to be taken into account when deciding the size and location of the "Area of Danger"

Answer 245

ANSWER: B) Members should not pull covers off electrical manholes at manhole fires or if a manhole fire is in the area. It is the responsibility of utility crews to open manhole covers at these incidents. A - CON ED EMPLOYEE on scene C - Members SHALL NOT attempt to move vehicles D - Traffic control boxes MUST BE taken into consideration (AUC 180 2.4)

Question 246

FireIce is a dry chemical extinguishing agent that is intended for use at manhole fires (Class C Fires) involving electrical cables. FireIce is not effective on Class B fires. Therefore, it is not intended for use at any type of transformer fire. FireIce is a powder which when added to water produces a gel for the purpose of insulating and extinguishing burning electrical cables at manhole fires and reducing the levels of CO. Which choice is the incorrect statement concerning fires at these operations? A) When assigned on the initial alarm for manhole fires, FireIce units shall respond with their associated apparatus which carries the product and associated equipment. B) Only members trained in conducting FireIce operations can utilize the specialized equipment. C) The FireIce nozzle has a built in eductor and shutoff. The associated equipment comprises of a 25 feet length of 3/4" hose connected to the eductor with a pick-up tube attached. The system is supplied by a 1 3/4" handline. Equipment also comprises of a 25 pound container of FireIce. D) FireIce units will be designated by the letter suffix "F" on the response ticket when assigned to respond as a FireIce unit.

Answer 246

ANSWER: D) FireIce units will be designated by the letter suffix "F" on the response ticket when assigned to respond as a FireIce unit. (INCORRECT) * FireIce designated by letter suffix "I" (AUC 180 - Addendum 2 - 4.1 / 6.1)

Question 247

Captain Diaz is working in a FireIce unit when they are special called to a manhole fire in the Bronx. He knows that only a Chief Officer can order the application of FireIce into a manhole. Once on scene, he sees Battalion 19 consulting with the on-scene Con-Ed supervisor. Battalion 19 orders your unit to place FireIce into the manhole. Which is the most correct statement? A) The product container shall be placed at the point of the nozzle operation, ensuring that the 25 foot length of 3/4" hose is fully extended without any kinks (the eductor is connected to the nozzle). Using a nozzle pressure between 60-100 psi is optimal. B) The member operating the nozzle should commence operations at a safe standoff distance of 50 feet. After establishing an adequate gel solution, and as conditions allow, the nozzle team may advance toward the manhole while maintaining a minimum safe distance of 25' from the manhole opening. C) Direct the stream of FireIce solution to fall approximately two feet in front of the manhole opening and allow the product to flow into the manhole. D) Once operations have concluded, remove the pick-up tube from the FireIce container and close the eductor shutoff. Flush the nozzle with fresh water for a minimum of 15 minutes.

Answer 247

ANSWER: B) The member operating the nozzle should commence operations at a safe standoff distance of 50 feet. After establishing an adequate gel solution, and as conditions allow, the nozzle team may advance toward the manhole while maintaining a minimum safe distance of 25' from the manhole opening. A - Using a nozzle pressure between 60-80 psi is optimal. C - Direct the stream of FireIce solution to fall approximately ONE FOOT in front of the manhole opening, and allow the product to flow into the manhole. D - Flush the nozzle with fresh water for a minimum of THIRTY (30) SECONDS. (AUC 180 - Addendum 2 - 8.2 / 8.3 / 8.4 / 8.5)

Question 248

Units encountering frozen hydrants during operations or while on inspection duties shall place a disc on a hydrant and use the Hansen Hydrant application to report frozen hydrants. Units placing a disc on a hydrant not in their administrative area shall promptly notify the Officer on duty who is administratively responsible for the hydrant. The notified officer shall then enter the frozen hydrant information in the Hansen Hydrant Application. What color is the unserviceable / out of service hydrant disc? A) Yellow B) Blue C) White

Answer 248

ANSWER: C) White (AUC 200 4.6.3) * Read the question thoroughly. It begins by explaining the procedures for frozen hydrants which would be a yellow disc. * The question then asks what color the OOS / unserviceable hydrant disc which is WHITE.

Question 249

During periods of a snow emergency, special precautions are necessary for the safety of the public and department members. Extreme cold weather and snow calls for adjustment to Firefighting operations. From the choices below, which is the most correct statement about operating at a snow emergency? A) Units should anticipate special calls to assist EMS with patient access and removal. Where conditions render EMS crews stranded, units shall provide support in moving the ambulance and/or relocating the patient as necessary. When activated, BFUs and Tactical Support Units may be special called for use of their winches which have proven effective in freeing apparatus. B) Only first alarm units can enter a block where poor street conditions exist. C) Where the building involved is 3 stories or less, preference shall be given to the ladder company entering the block first with the engine company personnel hand stretching from the nearest hydrant, if necessary. D) Where the building involved is 3 stories or more, preference shall be given to the engine company apparatus entering the block first with ladder company personnel carrying portable ladders.

Answer 249

ANSWER: A) Units should anticipate special calls to assist EMS with patient access and removal. Where conditions render EMS crews stranded, units shall provide support in moving the ambulance and/or relocating the patient as necessary. When activated, BFUs and Tactical Support Units may be special called for use of their winches which have proven effective in freeing apparatus. (AUC 200 - 5.3 / 10C / D4) * BFU’s can only pull similar sized apparatus such as ambulances. B - Only first ARRIVING engine company and ladder company apparatus enter a block where poor street conditions exists, except where proper placement is assured and the extent of the fire dictates C - Where building involved is higher than THREE (3) stories, preference shall be given to ladder company apparatus entering block first with the engine company personnel hand stretching from the nearest hydrant, if necessary. D - Where building involved is THREE (3) stories or less, preference shall be given to the engine company apparatus entering block first with ladder company personnel carrying portable ladders.

Question 250

Lt. Boozebag walks into the kitchen and sees members of Engine 100 celebrating their victory as new softball champions of Battalion 99. They are blending up some margaritas and drinking some celebratory beers. The Lt. would be correct in all his actions below except which? A) Prohibit all on and off duty members present from leaving the premises and immediately relieve the on duty members from emergency response duty. B) Immediately have only Engine 100 placed OOS and document the incident in the company journal. C) Notify the administrative BC and BITS. D) Conduct a roll call. All on duty and off duty members present in premises shall be part of the roll call.

Answer 250

ANSWER: D) Conduct a roll call. All on duty and off duty members present in premises shall be part of the roll call. (INCORRECT) * INVESTIGATING OFFICER will do a roll call. Officer on Duty shall "PROBBE" P – Prohibit on & off duty members from leaving without permission of investigating officer. R – Relieve all on duty members from response. O – Out of service (place affected unit OOS) B – Battalion notified (If BC is involved, notify next superior officer) B – BITS notification E – Entry in Journal Investigating Officer shall "RAIT" R – Roll Call A – Advise all who may be subject to charges of right to representation before questioning. I – Investigation to ascertain which members have engaged in prohibited conduct. T – Testing ordered for illegal drugs & alcohol. (AUC 202 5.5)

Question 251

The Department deems the repair of certain OOS hydrants to be a priority. In such instances a "priority repair" designation must be communicated to DEP in the Hansen Hydrant application. From the choices below, all are priority repairs except which? A) A hydrant that is the only hydrant in the block. B) A hydrant which is vital to the protection of high profile locations or critical infrastructure locations such as bridge, tunnels and mass transit systems. C) Any hydrant that has been OOS for more than 6 months. D) Two adjacent hydrants in a block that are both out of service.

Answer 251

ANSWER: C) Any hydrant that has been OOS for more than 6 months. (INCORRECT) Priority Hydrants "HOT" H - Hazard (target hazard or critical infrastructure) O – Only hydrant on block. T – Two adjacent hydrants on a block that are OOS. (AUC 205 3.2)

Question 252

When a person enters quarters requesting a spray cap for a hydrant, the member on housewatch duty shall do all of the following except which? A) Ensure that the requesting party is at least 21 years old. B) Require that a request for Spray Caps Form be completed. C) Provide a copy of the Spray Caps Permit/Instructions Sheet. D) Officer on duty shall review documents and notify the applicant approximately when the company will be able to turn on the hydrant. This should usually be scheduled within the hour.

Answer 252

ANSWER: A) Ensure that the requesting party is at least 21 years old. (INCORRECT) * At least EIGHTEEN (18) YEARS OLD. (AUC 205 5.3)

Question 253

On a hot, humid day, Lt. McSally is discussing the use of hydrant spray caps. He informs the members of L77 that an open hydrant discharges approximately 1,000 GPM whereas a spray cap discharged 25 GPM. From the statement below, which is the most correct answer? A) If a unit receives numerous requests to turn on hydrants with spray caps, the Company Commander may want to set up a policy where the unit goes out and places spray caps on all hydrants for the day with applications on file. B) Hydrants with spray caps should be fully opened to develop an adequate spray stream. C) The Officer on duty should schedule to turn off the hydrant during the 9x6 tour and remove the spray caps. D) Units shall carry spray caps on the apparatus. When shutting down open fire hydrants, if a tense situation develops, the Officer should consider having a member place a spray cap on the hydrant. If tensions escalate, call the the Fire Marshals. Units shall fill out a Request for Spray Caps Form for record keeping purposes.

Answer 253

ANSWER: A) If a unit receives numerous requests to turn on hydrants with spray caps, the Company Commander may want to set up a policy where the unit goes out and places spray caps on all hydrants for the day with applications on file. B - Hydrants with spray caps should be opened JUST ENOUGH TO DEVELOP AN ADEQUATE STREAM. C - The officer on duty should schedule to turn off the hydrant during the 6x9 tour and remove the spray cap(s). D - If tensions escalate call for NYPD. (AUC 205 5.2 / 5.4)

Question 254

Phase 2 "Water Pressure Emergency" shall start at 1000 hours. Each unit should take and record the pressure on the hydrant nearest to quarters, every hour until 2200 hours. These readings shall be recorded in the company journal. Units shall patrol their district as per schedules established by Deputy Chiefs. Upon completing their assigned patrol duties, officers on duty shall fax to the Battalion all of the following information except which? A) Any areas experiencing dangerously high water pressure that could affect firefighting operations. B) The number of illegally opened hydrants C) The number of hydrants shut down D) The number of Spray Caps placed.

Answer 254

ANSWER: A) Any areas experiencing dangerously high water pressure that could affect firefighting operations. (INCORRECT) * Dangerously LOW WATER PRESSURE. "SOSA" S - The number of hydrants shut down O - The number of ILLEGALLY opened hydrants S - The number of Spray Caps placed A - Any areas experiencing dangerously low water pressure that could affect firefighting operations. (AUC 205 8.1)

Question 255

During a street fair on a hot summer day the Officer of E299 was explaining the installations and operating guidelines of issuing a spray cap to a civilian. He was correct in all statements below except which? A) Spray caps shouldn't be placed on hydrants painted red or yellow. B) Spray caps should not be installed on hydrants on two way streets, near intersections, on bus routes or access routes to main traffic arteries. C) Spray caps shall not be installed on hydrants located on mains larger than 6 inches. D) Hydrants shall not be operated without a spray cap. Spray caps may only be used between 10:00 AM and 9:00 PM. Hydrants must be turned off when children are not using the spray cap. Spray caps must be under the direct supervision of a responsible adult.

Answer 255

ANSWER: C) Spray caps shall not be installed on hydrants located on mains larger than 6 inches. (INCORRECT) * Larger than TWENTY (20") INCHES (AUC 205 - Addendum 1 - Spray Cap Form)

Question 256

At 3:30 AM Engine 308 responded to a report of a fire in a grocery store. Once on scene you see white smoke through the front glass window. You accessed the building by using the K-tool (through the lock method). Once inside you realized that it was a refrigerator with an overheated motor, so you gave a 10-20 and unplugged the unit. After you vented the store, Battalion 51 had you secure the premises with the Battalion padlock. On return to quarters you should do all of the following except? A) Engine 308 Officer notifies dispatch of the securing of the premises for their Secured Premises List. He also makes the appropriate company journal entry. B) Pad lock key shall be put in a secure place in the company office selected by the Officer on duty. C) Upon receipt of instructions from the dispatcher that the owner or other appropriate person is at the premises the company shall respond to the premises as soon as practicable. D) The officer shall secure positive identification of the person desiring entry, have the appropriate receipt signed and have the padlock removed.

Answer 256

ANSWER: B) Pad lock key shall be put in a secure place in the company office selected by the Officer on duty. (INCORRECT) * Stored on APPARATUS (AUC 231 4.2)

Question 257

Ladder 108 has been assigned to shut off a Buckeye Pipeline valve during a leak in the Greenpoint section of Brooklyn. After placing the three and a half foot long wrench with a female fitting onto the valve, they would be correct to turn the wrench how many full turns? A) 24 B) 42 C) 84 D) 213

Answer 257

ANSWER: B) 42 (AUC 149 2.3.2) A - 24 full turns (Shippers Line LIC) B - 42 full turns (Buckeye Pipeline valve) C - 84 half turns (Buckeye Pipeline valve) D - 213 full turns (Iroquois Natural Gas Pipeline Bulletin)

Question 258

While conducting semi annual hydrant inspection you come across a few hydrants in need of repair. All but which one of the following should be entered as a priority repair? A) The only hydrant on a block, with no structures on either side of the street. B) A hydrant that would be critical to the protection of the midtown tunnel. C) Two adjacent hydrants on a block, one hydrant is defective. D) The only hydrant on a block, with structures on both sides of the street.

Answer 258

ANSWER: C) Two adjacent hydrants on a block, one hydrant is defective. (INCORRECT) * Hydrants should be identified to DEP as requiring priority repair: 1. The hydrant is a priority hydrant which is O.O.S. 2. Two adjacent hydrants on a block that are both O.O.S. * A priority hydrant is: "HOT" H - High profile location (vital to the protection of critical infrastructure / GWB / Midtown Tunnel etc.) O - Only Hydrant on the block that is OOS T - Two adjacent hydrants that are OOS (AUC 205 and 9.2)

Question 259

Every company officer who reasonable suspects or knows that a member has engaged in conduct prohibited by AUC 202 shall immediately do all of the following except? A) Conduct a roll call, all on duty and off duty members present in premises shall be part of the roll call. B) Prohibit on and off duty members from leaving premises without permission of the investigating officer. C) Immediately relieve the on duty members from emergency response duty. D) Immediately have the affected unit placed O.O.S.

Answer 259

ANSWER: A) Conduct a roll call, all on duty and off duty members present in premises shall be part of the roll call. (AUC 202 5.7) * It is the duty of the INVESTIGATING OFFICER to conduct a roll call, not the officer who suspects an AUC 202 violation. "RAIT" (Roll call / Advise members of right to counsel / Investigate / Testing ordered) * Officer making the discovery "PROBBE" P - Prohibit on and off duty members involved from leaving R - Relieve on duty members of response duty O - OOS (place effected unit OOS only) B - BC (If its a BC then advise next superior Officer) B - BITS E - Entry in Company Journal

Question 260

You are the Lt. working in a single Engine company. As you enter the kitchen, you see two on duty and one off duty members drinking alcohol. You should immediately take which action? A) Order the off duty member to leave the firehouse. B) Have the unit placed O.O.S. Only if the ECC is one of the members involved. C) Document the incident in the company journal. D) Notify the Inspector General.

Answer 260

ANSWER: C) Document the incident in the company journal. (AUC 202) A - Prohibit ON AND OFF DUTY MEMBERS from leaving premises. B - Immediately have the affected unit placed O.O.S. D - Notify BITS

Question 261

Every member selected for random drug testing shall be tested on the date and time designated by the FDNY. No member's request to be excused or rescheduled (including emergency leaves) shall be granted without approval of who? A) Chief of Department B) Division Commander C) Battalion Chief D) Supervising BITS investigator

Answer 261

A) Chief of Department | AUC 202 ADD 1 4.6.1

Question 262

Regarding the use of Brush Fire Units (BFU), it would be correct to state _________________? A) BFU's have MDTs and can also be dispatched by radio. B) BFU's shall always be designated by their assigned number on Department radio and handie-talkie ("BFU 3 to Command"). C) BFU winches can be used for self extrication or used to tow out full sized apparatus. D) BFU's can knock over trees, go through hedgerows, or traverse streams.

Answer 262

ANSWER: B) BFU's shall always be designated by their assigned number on Department radio and handie-talkie ("BFU 3 to Command"). (AUC 151 4.5) A - BFU's DO NOT HAVE MDTs C - Winches can tow SIMILAR SIZES VEHICLES D - BFU CANNOT knock over trees and traverse streams

Question 263

A captain conducting drill on brush fire operations was correct in which statement he made? A) Streams should be directed at the flames above the burning brush. B) Fire burning on hillsides will burn rapidly towards the top of the hill. Therefor units should be positioned at the top of the hill to protect exposures, and attack the fire from that position. C) Using a water curtain to break up heat waves is generally effective. D) Members can raise brooms in the air or operate streams into the air to verify their location to the IC.

Answer 263

ANSWER: D) Members can raise brooms in the air or operate streams into the air to verify their location to the IC. (AUC 151 5.5.6) A - direct streams AT BURNING BRUSH B - position at top of hill to protect exposures, but ATTACK FROM BOTTOM C - water curtain to break up heat is INEFFECTIVE

Question 264

Never operate a hose line beneath a high voltage line at a brush fire incident because electric current may be transmitted via the particles in the smoke. Do you agree or disagree with this statement? A) Agree B) Disagree

Answer 264

ANSWER: A) Agree | AUC 151 5.11.11

Question 265

A Lt. arriving first due at a 75 foot high-rise office building and seeing fire issuing from a room with a sign that reads "caution transformer high-voltage" should transmit which of the following signals? A) 10-84, 10-75, 10-25 Code 1 B) 10-84, 10-76, 10-25 Code 2 C) 10-84, 10-76, 10-25 Code 4 D) 10-84, 10-77, 10-25 Code 4

Answer 265

ANSWER: C) 10-84, 10-76, 10-25 Code 4 (AUC 180 1.1) 10-84 Unit arrival 10-76 Fire in a high rise office building 10-25 Code 4 Fire in the transformer at any location (pole, vault, room etc.)

Question 266

Units arrive at the scene of a building fire on the second floor of a four-story OLT. Poor street conditions exist due to a heavy snowfall. Which would be considered a proper tactic for units to take? A) The 1st arriving engine and the 1st and 2nd arriving ladder company shall enter the block. B) Preference shall be given to the engine company to enter the block prior to the ladder, with the ladder company carrying portable ladders. C) The engine apparatus should slowly proceed forward into the block for greater traction, and position the hose bed just past the building in anticipation of a backstretch. D) If hydrants are inaccessible or frozen, units should consider the use of standpipes in nearby buildings.

Answer 266

ANSWER: D) If hydrants are inaccessible or frozen, units should consider the use of standpipes in nearby buildings. (AUC 200 5.3.10 C and D) A - ONLY FIRST DUE UNITS will enter the block. B - LADDER GETS PREFERENCE (if building is greater than 3 stories) C - Engine apparatus should proceed BACKWARD into block.

Question 267

A Lt. who is off duty in the parking lot of the firehouse witnesses some of the on duty firefighters moving beer taps and an empty keg between cars of off duty members after a softball game. How many of the following actions is the Lt. mandated to take? 1. Report this as a violation of AUC 202 to the on duty officer and the administrative battalion, or the next superior officer. 2. Take no action as this is not a violation of AUC 202. 3. Prohibit only on duty members from leaving the premises without permission of the investigating officer. 4. Prohibit on and off duty members from leaving the premises without permission of the investigating officer. 5. Immediately relieve the on duty members from emergency response duty only if they exhibit signs of being intoxicated. 6. Immediately have the unit placed out of service if the number of members relieved from duty puts the unit below minimum manning levels, otherwise leave the unit in service. 7. Notify BITS immediately 8. Take a company journal entry 9. Notify the IG immediately A) 4 B) 6 C) 1 D) 7

Answer 267

ANSWER: A) 4 (choices 1, 4, 7 and 8 are CORRECT) * 2, 3, 5, 6 and 9 are INCORRECT (AUC 202 5.5) 2 - This IS A VIOLATION of AUC 202 (even if officer observing violation is off duty) 3 - Prohibit BOTH ON AND OFF DUTY from leaving premises without permission of the investigating officer. 5 - Immediately relieve ALL ON DUTY MEMBERS INVOLVED (regardless if they appear intoxicated or not) 6 - PLACE THE UNIT OOS IMMEDIATELY. 9 - Only notify IG in cases of "CCC" criminal/corruption/conflict of interest

Question 268

If you are deemed to be the investigating officer at an incident in quarters, which actions would be correct to take? 1. If you permit anyone who was present at the time of the violation to leave quarters you must document the reason for the release in a report to the Chief of Department. 2. Conduct a roll call of all on duty and off duty members present. 3. Advise all officers and firefighters whom you reasonably believe may be subject to charges of their right to representation before questioning them. 4. If you believe that any member has violated AUC 202, order that member to be tested for alcohol and illegal drugs. A) 1, 2 and 3 B) 1, 3 and 4 C) 2, 3 and 4 D) All

Answer 268

ANSWER: D) All (AUC 202 5.7) INVESTIGATING OFFICER "RAIT" R - Roll Call of all on and off duty members A - Advise all who you believe may be subject to charges of their right to counsel before questioning them. I - Investigate T - Testing for members who have violated AUC 202

Question 269

Which of the following conducts by members would a Lt. know are strictly prohibited? 1. Members off duty carrying a bag of unopened beer back to Penn Station for the train ride home after the Saint Patrick's day parade, while still in uniform. 2. Off duty members becoming intoxicated while in a bar. 3. Off duty members after a softball game having a beer in the firehouse parking lot. 4. An off duty member is present at the time of the discovery of alcohol in quarters and leaves quarters after receiving permission from the investigating officer. A) 2 and 3 B) 1 and 4 C) 2 and 4 D) 1 and 3

Answer 269

ANSWER:D) 1 and 3 | AUC 202 section 4

Question 270

At 0308 hours first alarm units respond to a report of a fire in a deli and on arrival at the scene determine that there is a minor smoke condition showing from the storefront window. After cutting a padlock, they are able to gain entry easily through the front entrance with no other damage. They then find a very small electrical fire that they extinguish with the can. Because they cannot locate anyone to safeguard the premises, they consider using the Battalion padlock. In this situation they would be correct to think that using the Battalion lock is? A) Appropriate provided there is no other damage to the entire perimeter B) Inappropriate because of the nature of the occupancy C) Inappropriate because they forced entry D) Inappropriate because there was a fire condition.

Answer 270

ANSWER: A) Appropriate provided there is no other damage to the entire perimeter. (AUC 231, 2.1)

Question 271

After using the Battalion lock to safeguard a premises, who is responsible to notify the dispatcher for entry on their Secured Premises List? A) Company officer, from the scene, and should place the key on the apparatus. B) Company officer, on return to quarters, and he should place key on the apparatus. C) BC, from the scene, and he should place the key in Battalion vehicle D) BC, on return to quarters, and he should place key in Battalion office

Answer 271

ANSWER: B) Company officer, on return to quarters, and he should place key on the apparatus. (AUC 231, 4.2)

Question 272

Regarding the selection of chauffeurs, department policy is accurately indicated in all of the following points except? A) Members must have 3 years experience in the FDNY to be considered for Chauffeur Training School. B) The Chauffeur Qualification checklist shall be a tool to assist the training officer and forwarded with the candidate when they are selected to attend Chauffeur Training School. C) Members who have passed Chauffeur Training School are eligible for a position as a regular unit chauffeur. D) If qualified chauffeurs are not assigned as Chauffeurs and/or Tiller FFs for an extended period of time, they shall practice operating the apparatus during drills and responding to alarms.

Answer 272

ANSWER: D) If qualified chauffeurs are not assigned as Chauffeurs and/or Tiller FFs for an extended period of time, they shall practice operating the apparatus during drills and responding to alarms. (INCORRECT) (AUC 254, 3) * They shall practice during drill and RETURNING FROM ALARMS.

Question 273

M2 Metro North Railroad cars are the only cars operated by Metro North with transformers containing PCBs. Which choice incorrectly describes these cars? A) M2 cars always operate in pairs, one "A" car and one "B" car. B) The "A" car is an even numbered car, and the "B" car is an odd numbered car. C) Each "A" and "B" car will have a pantograph and a PCB containing transformer which will have attached to it the EPA approved label. D) The pantograph will be unfolded when receiving power from catenary (overhead) wires.

Answer 273

ANSWER: C) Each "A" and "B" car will have a pantograph and a PCB containing transformer which will have attached to it the EPA approved label. (INCORRECT) (AUC 266 PCB INCIDENTS ADD 2) * Car "A" has a pantograph (even # cars) * A hAs a pantograph * Car "B" has NO pantograph (odd # cars)

Question 274

At 1000 hours on a Wednesday morning, you are informed by your members that a store manager attempted to give them a bribe to overlook building violations on BISP. You would be correct to take which action? A) Notify the IG on call supervisor through FDOC. B) Notify BITS via telephone C) Notify the IG directly via telephone. D) Notify BITS through the FOC.

Answer 274

ANSWER: C) Notify the IG directly via telephone. (AUC 268 Notifications to the IG and BITS) * Any allegation concerning the offer or accepting of bribes to or by a department employee requires a direct phone call to IG.

Question 275

BC Smith is operating as the IC at a 2nd alarm fire in a taxpayer that has extended to the cockloft. While BC Smith is directing units, his aide tells him that a civilian just alleged that firefighters were stealing from the taxpayer while operating. Which choice is incorrect concerning this situation? A) BC Smith must immediately notify the IG. This notification must be made immediately, even if the chief is busy with other matters. B) A cell phone shall be used to notify the IG. C) The IG shall be notified via the Fire Operations Center. D) The notification to the IG shall not be delegated to the aide.

Answer 275

ANSWER: A) BC Smith must immediately notify the IG. This notification must be made immediately, even if the chief is busy with other matters. (INCORRECT) (AUC 268 Notification to IG and BITS 2.1.10) * AS SOON AS FIRE/EMERGENCY OPERATIONS PERMIT, make a notification to IG.

Question 276

Which one of the following would not require immediate notification to the Bureau of Investigations and Trials? A) Arrest of Department employees B) Physical altercations among members C) On duty confrontations between Department members and members of the police department which may lead to possible disciplinary action. D) Preference of charges against a member.

Answer 276

ANSWER: D) Preference of charges against a member. (INCORRECT) (AUC 268 3.1.1) IMMEDIATE NOTIFICATION TO BITS "AABBCCDD" A - Arrest / Alcohol B - Boxing with Brothers (physical altercations among members) C - Confrontations w/NYPD (other city agency) / Civilian confrontations D - Drugs / Dangerous misuse of department vehicles

Question 277

Which of the following would require written notification to the Bureau of Investigations and Trials? A) Dangerous misuses of Department vehicles B) Serious confrontations with civilians. C) Misuse or misappropriation of the departments time D) On duty incidents involving possession or use of drugs and alcohol.

Answer 277

ANSWER: C) Misuse or misappropriation of the departments time (AUC 268 2.1.7) WRITTEN NOTIFICATION TO BITS "IMMAC" I - Incompetence M - Misconduct M - Misuse / Misappropriation of dept time A - Follow up information on Arrest C - Charges

Question 278

A High Rise Roof Team consists of a trained and properly equipped ladder company staffed with an officer and 5 FFs. Which of the following would not be found in the High Rise Roof Kit? A) 1 Bolt Cutter B) 1 Rabbit Tool C) 2 Halligans and 2 Axes D) 2 Life Saving Ropes E) 6 SCBAs with 1 hour cylinders

Answer 278

ANSWER: D) 2 Life Saving Ropes (INCORRECT) (AUC 269 ADD 1) * 2 SEARCH ROPES (not LSR) "BRASH - 11222" HIGH RISE ROOF KIT - 1 Bolt Cutter - 1 Rabbit Tool - 2 Halligans and 2 Axes - 2 Search Ropes - 6 SCBAs with 1 hour cylinders - Bags for tools

Question 279

The Electronic BF-4 (EBF-4) is a web based software application accessible via the FDNY Intranet, requiring FDNY personnel (officers, Battalion Chiefs, Deputy Chiefs) to prepare, print and submit an electronic version of the BF-4 riding list form. Please choose an incorrect procedure from the list below in regards to the EBF-4. A) The EBF-4 shall be completed and printed for each 9x6 and 6x9 tour B) Chief and company officers shall submit a Preliminary or Final EBF-4 at the start of each tour. C) Members awaiting relief shall be included on the Preliminary EBF-4 pending arrival of details. D) The officer only has to update the EBF-4 after all of the details arrive. Upon arrival of all details, a Final EBF-4 shall be submitted. E) Only members actually riding on the apparatus of that unit shall be included on the unit EBF-4. Do not include members detailed to another unit for that tour.

Answer 279

ANSWER: D) The officer only has to update the EBF-4 after all of the details arrive. Upon arrival of all details, a Final EBF-4 shall be submitted. (INCORRECT) (AUC 346, 1-2) * After EACH detail arrives update the EBF-4 * When all members for the tour have arrived and are assigned positions, you can submit a FINAL EBF-4.

Question 280

Please choose an incorrect safety item from the list below in regards to positive pressure fans (PPF)? A) The PPF shall never be transported while in operation. B) PPFs should be lifted by two members whenever the fans need to come off the ground (e.g. on and off apparatus, up stairs) C) Fans shall never be refueled inside a structure, unless absolutely necessary. D) Fans should be inspected and started daily at the beginning of the 9x6 tour. Weekly at MUD, fans shall be started and allowed to run at full RPM for 5 minutes. E) When running fans at an incident, exhaust hoses must always be attached to the operating fan in order to limit and control the introduction of CO inside the structure.

Answer 280

ANSWER: C) Fans shall never be refueled inside a structure, unless absolutely necessary. (INCORRECT) (AUC 349, 11) * Fans are NEVER refueled inside PERIOD.

Question 281

The buckeye pipeline differs from the Iroquois pipeline in that it carries different products and makes landfall in three different boroughs. It is important to have a thorough knowledge about the pipeline since a leak can have disastrous consequences. Which point about the buckeye pipeline is correct? A) The buckeye pipeline components are (2) 12" steel pipes. One carries gasoline and the other carries natural gas in the gaseous state. B) The pipeline operates at 1440 psi. The maximum service pressure on terminal piping and delivery lines to shippers from the LIC terminal is 1200 psi. C) Control valves automatically limit pressure buildup to 1200 psig maximum in the main line. Pressure switches shut down the pumps if the relief valve fails. D) Thermal relief valves bleed off excessive pressure which is due to a rise in product temperature in the delivery lines. Automatic valves normally require no action of the part of the FDNY.

Answer 281

ANSWER: D) Thermal relief valves bleed off excessive pressure which is due to a rise in product temperature in the delivery lines. Automatic valves normally require no action of the part of the FDNY. (AUC 149, 1.1, 2.1) A - (2) 12" steel pipes. One has gasoline, one has KEROSENE BASED AVIATION FUEL. B - Pipeline operates at 1200 PSI. (1400 for Iroquois) / LIC terminal max service pressure is 200 psi C - Control valves limit pressure buildup to 1200 psig max in main line. Pressure switches shut down the pumps if CONTROL VALVE fails.

Question 282

You are operating with your unit at a leak from the buckeye pipeline. The valve that your unit has been assigned to shutdown is located on a shippers line that extends from the LIC terminal. The proby has opened the valve cover and inserted the 3 1/2' long yellow wrench into the valve. The proby asks you "how many times and in which direction should I turn the wrench to shut the valve?" What should you tell him? A) Clockwise and 42 full turns B) Counterclockwise and 84 half turns C) Clockwise and 48 half turns D) Counterclockwise and 24 full turns

Answer 282

ANSWER: C) Clockwise and 48 half turns (AUC 149, 2.3.2) * EVERY VALVE in the buckeye pipeline is turned CLOCKWISE to shut off. * Shippers line = 24 full turns to close / 48 half turns * Main line = 42 full turns to close / 84 half turns

Question 283

During a drill at quarters members were discussing the buckeye pipeline and made the following statements. Which statement is incorrect? A) Pipeline profile cards showing the elevation of valves above sea level and the amount of product carried in barrels between each valve have been issued to all assigned and alternate units. B) Some alternate units are designated as such for more than one company. When the Officer is not sure as to who his unit is an alternate for he shall ascertain from the Incident Commander which company his unit is an alternate for. C) Each assigned and alternate unit has been issued two sets of alarm assignment and instruction cards. One set shall be carried on the apparatus and the other set shall be placed in a prominent and clearly marked and protected place at the housewatch desk for use by relocated units. D) Any unit special called to a pipeline box, 9000 series, which does not have the special wrenches, assignment, and instruction cards, and maps shall ascertain from the dispatcher the location of the nearest unit so equipped and secure this equipment at the housewatch area.

Answer 283

ANSWER: B) Some alternate units are designated as such for more than one company. When the Officer is not sure as to who his unit is an alternate for he shall ascertain from the Incident Commander which company his unit is an alternate for. (INCORRECT) (AUC 149, 3.3.1) * DISPATCHER will let you know who you are an alternate for.

Question 284

E-99 is operating at an EMS run for a person having chest pain. After EMS takes over patient care E-99 transmits a 10-37-3 and goes 10-8. While enroute back to quarters a second alarm is given for a leak from the buckeye pipeline and E-99 is assigned 3rd due on the 2nd alarm. The officer of E-99 should order his ECC to _____________________. A) proceed to the 2nd alarm and operate as directed. B) return to quarters and place additional cans of foam on the apparatus.

Answer 284

ANSWER: A) proceed to the 2nd alarm and operate as directed (AUC 149, 4.12) * If out of quarters = respond directly to 2nd alarm * Responding from qtrs. on 2nd alarm = place additional foam on rig

Question 285

E-99 responds alone to an ERS no contact box and finds that the box was transmitted for a leak from the buckeye pipeline. There is gasoline flowing into the street from the break in the pipeline just after a pipeline valve. There is approximately 85 gallons of gasoline in the street. From the choices below, which is the only correct one? A) The Officer of E-99 should transmit a 2nd alarm and know that there is approximately 2 barrels of product on the ground. B) The Officer of E-99 should transmit a 3rd alarm and know that there is approximately 55 gallons of product in the street. C) The Officer of E-99 should transmit the box and know that there is approximately 1 barrel of product on the ground. D) The Officer of E-99 should transmit the box and know that there is approximately 3 barrels of product on the ground.

Answer 285

ANSWER: A) The Officer of E-99 should transmit a 2nd alarm and know that there is approximately 2 barrels of product on the ground. (AUC 149, 5.2.1) * Leak from pipeline = 2ND ALARM * 42 gallons of gasoline per barrel. If there is 85 gallons of gasoline in street there is approximately 2 barrels of product that has been leaked.

Question 286

E-99 responds alone to an ERS no contact box and finds that the box was transmitted for a leak from the buckeye pipeline. There is gasoline flowing into the street from the break in the pipeline just after a pipeline valve. There is approximately 45 gallons of gasoline in the street. From the choices below, which is the only correct one? A) The Officer of E-99 should transmit a 2nd alarm and know that there is approximately 2 barrels of product on the ground. B) The Officer of E-99 should transmit a 3rd alarm and know that there is approximately 55 gallons of product in the street. C) The Officer of E-99 should transmit a 2nd alarm and know that there is approximately 1 barrel of product on the ground. D) The Officer of E-99 should transmit the box and know that there is approximately 3 barrels of product on the ground.

Answer 286

ANSWER: C) The Officer of E-99 should transmit a 2nd alarm and know that there is approximately 1 barrel of product on the ground. (AUC 149 5.2.1) * Leak from pipeline = 2ND ALARM * 42 gallons of gasoline per barrel. If there is 45 gallons of gasoline in street there is approximately 1 barrel of product that has been leaked.

Question 287

E-99 responds alone to an ERS no contact box and finds that the box was transmitted for a leak from the buckeye pipeline. There is gasoline flowing into the street from the break in the pipeline just after a pipeline valve. There is approximately 125 gallons of gasoline in the street. From the choices below, which is the only correct one? A) The Officer of E-99 should transmit a 2nd alarm and know that there is approximately 2 barrels of product on the ground. B) The Officer of E-99 should transmit a 3rd alarm and know that there is approximately 55 gallons of product in the street. C) The Officer of E-99 should transmit the box and know that there is approximately 1 barrel of product on the ground. D) The Officer of E-99 should transmit a 2nd alarm and know that there is approximately 3 barrels of product on the ground.

Answer 287

ANSWER: D) The Officer of E-99 should transmit a 2nd alarm and know that there is approximately 3 barrels of product on the ground. (AUC 149 5.2.1) * Leak from pipeline = 2ND ALARM * 42 gallons of gasoline per barrel. If there is 125 gallons of gasoline in street there is approximately 3 barrels of product that has been leaked.

Question 288

If a strong wind is blowing at an incident where a leak in the buckeye pipeline is detected, which action listed below should be taken first? Solid hose streams held horizontally a few ________ above ground and moved rapidly from side to side will wash burning gasoline or aviation fuel aside to provide a path for rescue. Department apparatus should not be brought closer than _______ feet to a leak. A) All ignition sources in the path of the drifting vapors must be extinguished / Inches / 600' B) All ignition sources in the area must be extinguished / Feet / 1000' C) All ignition sources in the path of the drifting vapors must be extinguished / Feet / 600' D) All ignition sources in the area must be extinguished / Inches / 1000'

Answer 288

ANSWER: A) All ignition sources in the path of the drifting vapors must be extinguished / Inches / 600' (AUC 149, 6.5.3)

Question 289

True or false? Isolation of a buckeye pipeline or valve leak is vital in controlling the amount of fuel lost, and thereby reduce the danger of, and intensity of a possible fire. Isolation duties are carried out by manually shutting down valves. Valves should always be closed as per duties required by instruction cards under all circumstances. A) True B) False

Answer 289

ANSWER: B) False (AUC 149) * ALWAYS close valves EXCEPT to save life.

Question 290

After operating at a leak from the buckeye pipeline the IC kept all the units on the scene for an informal critique. The actions taken by different units were being discussed. Which was the only correct action taken by units on scene? A) E-99 had a responsibility to close a manual valve and to patrol the pipeline to an adjacent valve. The officer had his members close the manual valve first and then patrol the pipeline after the valve was closed. B) E-98 was assigned to patrol 2 different sections of the pipeline. The Officer assigned his nozzle and backup firefighters to patrol one section and assigned his control firefighter to patrol the other. The Officer and ECC remained with the apparatus. C) E-97 was assigned to shut down a valve and to patrol a section of the pipeline. E-97 announced that they were 10-84 at the valve, they informed the dispatcher of the valve closure as well as the completion of their patrol duties. D) Since this incident was near the Bay Ridge Line of the LIRR the IC ordered E-96 to be flag persons. The officer from E-96 had his members take a position 500' on each side of the incident. Each member had handie talkies and flashlights.

Answer 290

ANSWER: C) E-97 was assigned to shut down a valve and to patrol a section of the pipeline. E-97 announced that they were 10-84 at the valve, they informed the dispatcher of the valve closure as well as the completion of their patrol duties. (AUC 149, 6.2.2) A - Closing valves and patrolling pipeline DONE SIMULTANEOUSLY. B - Split up into teams of TWO (2) D - Flag persons = 1000' on each side of the incident

Question 291

Another aspect of the buckeye pipeline is the inspection of the valves and record keeping. What point listed below is incorrect regarding inspection and record keeping? A) Pipeline control valves shall be inspected during semi-annual hydrant inspection and during familiarization drills. B) Needed repairs or recommendations should be the subject of a letterhead report to the Buckeye Pipeline Coordinator at Division 8. C) A valve pit that is subject to flooding must be inspected during sub-freezing weather. Flooded pits require an immediate notification to the Buckeye Pipeline Coordinator at Division 8. D) A critical repair should be the subject of a letterhead report to the Buckeye Pipeline Coordinator at Division 8.

Answer 291

ANSWER: D) A critical repair should be the subject of a letterhead report to the Buckeye Pipeline Coordinator at Division 8. (INCORRECT) (AUC 149, 9) * Critical repairs = PHONE CALL to BPC at Div 8 * Needed repairs = Letterhead to BPC at Div 8 * Valve pit subject to flooding = PHONE CALL

Question 292

During which drill are FDNY units allowed to shut down Buckeye Pipeline valves? A) Familiarization Drills B) Borough Drills C) Division Drills D) MUD

Answer 292

B) Borough (AUC 149, 10.5.10) * BOROUGH DRILL = only time you can shut down valves

Question 293

If a leak from the Buckeye Pipeline occurs, vapors may drift into cellars, sewers, manholes or subways with a potential for explosion or fire. The potential for explosion is greatest if all but which of the following weather conditions are present? A) Hot day B) Humid day C) Calm day D) Windy day

Answer 293

ANSWER: D) Windy day (INCORRECT) (AUC 149, 6.5.4) * Windy day will dissipate vapors. * Potential for explosion is greatest on HOT, HUMID and CALM days.

Question 294

Ladder 21 has been assigned as the High Rise Roof team at. Multiple alarm fire in a HROB. The members of Ladder 21 are checking their tools that will be brought on the helicopter. They should ensure all but which one of the following tools are brought? A) 6 SCBA's with one hour cylinders B) 1 Halligan tool C) 1 Bolt cutter D) 2 axes

Answer 294

ANSWER: B) 1 Halligan tool (INCORRECT) (AUC 269 ADD 1, 3.3.1) * TWO (2) HALLIGANS "BRASH - 11222" ``` 1 Bolt cutter 1 Rabbit tool 2 Axes 2 Search Ropes 2 Halligans 6 SCBAs with one hour cylinders Bags for tools ```

Question 295

Your Ladder company has been assigned to a fire in a High Rise Multiple Dwelling for the use of your Positive Pressure Fans. Upon arrival, the IC orders your company to pressurize the attack stairwell. When setting up your fan at the door to the attack stairway, you should know that the optimum placement of the fan would be on the ground ______ feet from the attack stairway door at an angle of _____ degrees. A) 4-6, 80 B) 4-6, 60 C) 2-4, 80 D) 2-4, 60

Answer 295

ANSWER: A) 4-6, 80 | AUC 349 7.2

Question 296

Your ladder company arrives at the scene of a person pinned under a NYC subway car in a subway tunnel. The assigned BC will be delayed to the scene. As the officer in charge, your 1st consideration should be to determine? A) Whether power should remain on or be removed. B) Are additional units needed C) Is the victim alive D) Is a communicated relay required

Answer 296

ANSWER: A) Whether power should remain on or be removed | AUC 207 3.2

Question 297

Your ladder company is responding to a confirmed leak in the Buckeye Pipeline system in Bay Ridge, Bklyn. The first arriving companies are attempting to shut down the valve alongside the railroad tracks.mthe dispatcher informs you that you are being assigned to provide "flag persons" along the tracks to warm operating members of oncoming diesel rail cars. You would be correct to order your "flag persons" to position themselves at least ______ feet on each side of the operating members. A) 200 B) 400 C) 600 D) 1000

Answer 297

ANSWER: D) 1000 | AUC 149 6.6.2

Question 298

Engine 206 arrives at the scene of a reported leak in a section of the Buckeye Pipeline, and confirms there is a leak. The officer would be correct to transmit which signal? A) 10-75 B) 10-60 C) 2nd alarm D) 10-66

Answer 298

ANSWER: C) 2nd alarm | AUC 149 7.3.1

Question 299

As the first arriving officer at the scene, you will assume the role of IC until the arrival of a superior officer. According to the Citywide Incident Management System (CIMS), the FDNY will be the primary agency at all but which one of the following single command incidents? A) Water rescue B) Elevator incident, NYPD ESU on scene 1st C) Structural collapse D) Boat in distress, FDNY on scene first.

Answer 299

ANSWER: A) Water rescue (INCORRECT) (AUC 276 5.1) * FDNY is the primary agency for: "ABCCDEEF" (Single Command) ``` Auto extrication (1st on scene) Boat in distress (1st on scene) Confined space rescue Collapse (structural) Downed tree Entrapment/Impalement Elevator incident/Emergency Fire ```

Question 300

L-40 has arrived 1st at a reported rubbish fire on the underground subway tracks at a local subway station. The members of L-40 set up a HT relay. Which member was positioned in the wrong location? A) LCC positioned at the token clerk booth, since it is 40 yards from the bottom of the subway entrance stair. B) The OV positioned at the foot of the stairs leading to the platform, since it was within 50 yards of the LCC. C) Roof positioned approximately 100 yards from the stairs on the platform for relay. D) The Engine officer positioned approximately 100 yards (line of sight) from the Roof FF on the platform.

Answer 300

ANSWER: C) Roof positioned approximately 100 yards from the stairs on the platform for relay. (INCORRECT) (AUC 207 4.1) * Roof FF should be approximately FIFTY (50) YARDS from the stairs on the platform for relay. "CORE100" Stairs/Man/Stairs/Man C - LCC 50 yards / Stairs O - OV 50 yards / Man (LCC) R -Roof 50 yards / Stairs E - Engine Officer 100 yards LOS / Man (Roof)

Question 301

Battalion 45 has just transmitted a second alarm for a confirmed leak in the buckeye pipeline. Which units are required to bring extra cans of foam with them when responding? A) Engine companies responding from quarters on the second alarm. B) Engine and Ladder companies responding from quarters on the second alarm. C) All Engine companies, whether responding from quarters or not, responding on the second alarm. D) All units, whether responding from quarters or not, responding on the second alarm.

Answer 301

ANSWER: A) Engine companies responding from quarters on the second alarm. (AUC 149 4.12)

Question 302

You are the officer working in E-253 and respond as the only unit to respond as the only unit to an ERS no contact box. Upon arrival you find a serious leak from the Buckeye Pipeline valve on the corner near the ERS box. As the IC, you should know that your primary consideration should be? A) To ensure the appropriate number of units are dispatched to the location. B) The evacuation of the area involved. C) To insure all ignition sources in the path of drifting vapors are extinguished. D) To cover the spilled product with foam.

Answer 302

ANSWER: B) The evacuation of the area involved | AUC 149 6.5.2

Question 303

It is 0300 on a Saturday morning. You are a lieutenant operating at a manhole fire where the fire has blown the cover off of the manhole. Your OV FF has also informed you via handie talkie that smoke has extended and is issuing under pressure from the electrical service box inside of the multiple dwelling opposite he manhole. What signal should the BC use at this incident? A) 10-25 code 1 B) 10-25 code 2 C) 10-25 code 3 D) 10-25 code 4

Answer 303

ANSWER: B) 10-25 code 2 (AUC 180, 1.1) 10-25-1 = FIRE has extended to building (NOT SMOKE) 10-25-2 = Blown cover or smoke issuing under pressure 10-25-3 = Smoke is seeping from manhole 10-25-4 = Fire in a transformer

Question 304

The first responders Bridge Manual Guide is comprised of two standalone manuals, a Field Guide and a Risk Management Guide. The Field Guide is for use by First Responders to increase awareness of potential hazards, identify structural components and accurately report details at the scene. The Field Guide is carried on every apparatus with the Emergency Response Guidebook for Haz-Mat incidents. Which is the correct color of the Field Guide from the list below? A) Orange B) Green C) Red D) Blue

Answer 304

ANSWER: B) Green | AUC 344 1.4

Question 305

The first responders Bridge Manual Guide is comprised of two standalone manuals, a Field Guide and a Risk Management Guide. The Field Guide is for use by First Responders to increase awareness of potential hazards, identify structural components and accurately report details at the scene. The Field Guide is carried on every apparatus with the Emergency Response Guidebook for Haz-Mat incidents. Which is the correct color of the Emergency Response Guidebook from the list below? A) Orange B) Green C) Red D) Blue

Answer 305

ANSWER: A) Orange (AUC 344 / HAZMAT ERP) * Be careful of long winded answers that try to trick you. Even though this paragraph is about the Green Field Guide of the Bridge Manual it ultimately asks you about the color of the Orange Emergency Response Guidebook.

Question 306

You are working a 9x6 tour when you respond to a CFRD run around noon. After returning from the response your Control FF informs you that he twisted his ankle when he stepped in a pothole as he dismounted the rig. You insure that the firefighter is transported to the hospital by EMS and begin the car 32 procedure. After you hang up with car 32 another FF walks into your office around 1 pm and informs you that he played softball with the Control FF yesterday and the Control FFs ankle injury occurred on the softball field. You would know to contact which authority from the list below? A) Inspector General B) Bureau of Investigation and Trials C) Administrative Battalion D) Administrative Division

Answer 306

ANSWER: A) Inspector General (AUC 268, 2) Notify Inspector General = "CCC" (Criminal Corruption Conflict of Interest involving dept. employee) * Any allegation concerning false claims by employees that off-duty injuries occurred while on-duty.

Question 307

You are working you first day tour as a new officer when you are assigned by the Division as a Rapid Response Vehicle Task Force Leader. The primary means of communication used by Task Force Leaders in order to communicate with Sector/Group Supervisors and/or the Incident Command Post would be correctly found in which choice below? A) 800 MHz radios B) Department Administrative Radio System (DARS) 400 MHz. C) Cell phones D) Department radio

Answer 307

ANSWERS: B) Department Administrative Radio System (DARS) 400 MHz (AUC 159, addendum 8, section 4) Order of priority: 1. DARS 2. 800 MHz 3. Cell phones 4. Department radio (last resort)

Question 308

You are working you first day tour as a new officer when you are assigned by the Division as a Rapid Response Vehicle Task Force Leader. The last resort of communication used by Task Force Leaders in order to communicate with Sector/Group Supervisors and/or the Incident Command Post would be correctly found in which choice below? A) 800 MHz radios B) Department Administrative Radio System (DARS) 400 MHz. C) Cell phones D) Department radio

Answer 308

ANSWER: D) Department radio (AUC 159, addendum 8, section 4) Order of priority: 1. DARS 2. 800 MHz 3. Cell phones 4. Department radio (last resort)

Question 309

In underground areas, handie talkie communication with the surface will be adversely affected. A handie talkie relay system shall be set up to overcome this. Conditions may be as such that all members are not needed in the relay to transmit messages to grade level. In this case only the members needed to establish an effective relay shall be used, beginning with the ____________. A) LCC B) OVM Firefighter C) Roof Firefighter D) Engine Officer

Answer 309

ANSWER: A) LCC (AUC 207, 4) "CORE" Chauffeur / OVM / Roof / Engine Officer (100 yards)

Question 310

You are a newly promoted lieutenant assigned to a Ladder Company that is trained as a High Rise Roof Team. You would know that certain equipment should be included in the high rise roof kit. Which item below is the only item, that is correctly listed as part of this kit? A) 6 SCBAs with 45 min cylinders B) 1 Bolt Cutter / 1 Rabbit Tool C) 4 Halligans / 4 Axes D) 2 LSRs

Answer 310

ANSWER: B) 1 Bolt Cutter / 1 Rabbit Tool (AUC 269, 3.3) "BRASH - 11222" ``` 1 Bolt cutter 1 Rabbit tool 2 Axes 2 Search Ropes 2 Halligans 6 SCBAs with ONE HOUR CYLINDERS (Bag for tools) ```

Question 311

Every officer, whether on duty or while in any department premises, property or vehicle(s) who reasonably suspects or knows that any member has engaged in conduct prohibited by AUC 202 (Substance Policy-Drugs/Alcohol) shall immediately do all of the following below except which? A) Relieve the on duty member(s) from emergency response duty. B) Have the affected unit placed OOS C) Notify the administrative BC in all cases D) Notify BITS E) Document the incident in the company journal

Answer 311

ANSWER: C) Notify the administrative BC in all cases (INCORRECT) (AUC 202, 5.5) * NOT ALL CASES (If BC is the member drinking then you would contact the next superior officer)

Question 312

Due to an impending hurricane, the FDNY has assembled several Rapid Response Vehicle Task Forces. You, a lieutenant, have been placed in command of RRV-173. Because you are a sharp officer you know that your last means of communication between yourself and the IC, should all other communication systems available to you fail is: A) 800 mhz radio B) Cell phones C) DARS radio D) None of the above

Answer 312

ANSWER: D) None of the above (AUC 352, 4.1) * DEPARTMENT RADIO is last resort of communications for a Rapid Response Vehicle. * DARS / 800 mhz / Cell phones / Department radio

Question 313

Your engine company responds first due to a report of a possible subway derailment on Atlantic Avenue. After arriving at the scene, you proceed into the station and find a subway car that is derailed with numerous victims injured. In this situation, what should be your first consideration? A) The need for additional units B) Determine whether power is to remain on or turned off C) Provide an estimate number of victims to the Chief in charge D) Determine the best access point for FDNY units.

Answer 313

ANSWER: B) Determine whether power is to remain on or turned off (AUC 207, 3.2)

Question 314

You are in charge of an Engine Company when you receive a ticket for a fire on the 3rd floor of a 4 story Brownstone that is being used as a Russian Consulate. Upon arrival, you perform which correct action? A) Stand Fast. FDNY has no jurisdiction in Foreign Embassies, Consulates, and Missions at all times.....Protect exposures if necessary B) After receiving permission to enter, you order your FFs to stretch a 1 3/4" handline to extinguish the fire. C) After receiving permission to enter, you order your FFs to stretch a 2 1/2" handline to extinguish the fire D) Stand Fast until a Battalion Chief arrives on scene

Answer 314

ANSWER: B) After receiving permission to enter, you order your FFs to stretch a 1 3/4" handline to extinguish the fire. (AUC 196 sec 4.6) * Stretch hoselines compatible with the occupancy and fire conditions found (AUC 196 sec 5.1) * For Brownstones all interior hoselines stretched will be considered 1 3/4" (Brownstones sec 3) * If entry is denied, do not cause an incident and DO NOT ENTER. Protect exposures and set up a TL in front of building for exterior operations and rescue of embassy personnel that request it

Question 315

Snow chains are an "emergency traction device" and should be used as conditions warrant. When chains are applied, apparatus must not exceed ______ MPH A) 15 B) 20 C) 25 D) 30

Answer 315

ANSWER: D) 30 | AUC 200

Question 316

FireIce is a dry-chemical extinguishing agent that is intended for use at which type of fire? A) Manhole fires involving electrical cables B) Subsurface transformer fires C) Pole mounted transformer fires D) Used strictly for Class B fires

Answer 316

ANSWER: A) Manhole fires involving electrical cables (AUC 180 add 2 sec 7) * FireIce is NOT effective on class B fires * It is NOT intended for use at any type of transformer fire; that includes transformers located in below-grade vaults or rooms, and transformers that are mounted on poles

Question 317

The most correct signal to give for smoke seeping from a manhole can be found in which choice? A) 10-25 B) 10-25-1 C) 10-25-2 D) 10-25-3 E) 10-25-4

Answer 317

ANSWER: D) 10-25-3 10-25 (without code) Situation other than code 1,2,3,4 10-25-1- Fire has extended from a manhole, conduit, or transformer into a building (Fire in 2 places) 10-25-2- Fire has blown one or more manhole covers, or smoke is issuing from a manhole under pressure 10-25-3- Smoke is seeping from a manhole 10-25-4- Fire or smoke condition from a transformer at any location (AUC 180 sec 1.1)

Question 318

The incident of brush fires is usually greatest during which time of year? A) Summer season B) Spring and Summer seasons C) Summer and Fall seasons D) Spring and Fall seasons

Answer 318

ANSWER: D) Spring and Fall seasons (AUC 151 sec 3.1) * In anticipation of this problem, Brush Fire Units (BFUs) assigned to Staten island Borough Command are staffed independently on 9X6 tours, from March 17th through April 30th and October 17th through November 30th.

Question 319

All units assigned portable dewatering pumps shall ensure that such pumps are placed on the apparatus, in the space previously determined for this purpose, how many hours prior to the storms predicted impact? A) 48 hours B) 24 hours C) 12 hours D) 6 hours

Answer 319

ANSWER: A) 48 hours | AUC 159 sec 5.2.3

Question 320

During periods of severe storm emergencies the FDNY may be called upon to rescue numerous stranded civilians who become trapped due to rising, but non-flowing, flood waters, referred to as still water. From the list below, choose the incorrect Still Water Operation. A) Members of Water Rescue Companies trained in the use of Cold Water Suits shall don the suits prior to commencing operations. The remaining members of the Water Rescue Team shall be equipped with waders and a PFD. No member shall enter the water unless equipped with a Cold Water Suit or waders and a PFD B) If possible, stranded victims should be removed to the Water Rescue Company's point of entry C) The assisting Engine Company will not enter the water to assist D) The maximum capacity of the 14' foot, 140 lb. Flat Bottom boat used during Still Water Operations is 2 persons or 300 lbs

Answer 320

ANSWER: D) The maximum capacity of the 14' foot, 140 lb. Flat Bottom boat used during Still Water Operations is 2 persons or 300 lbs (INCORRECT) * THREE (3) persons or THREE HUNDRED AND EIGHTY (380 lbs) * Test writers often reference pictures C - The assisting Engine Company will not enter the water to assist. Instead, they will remain at the entry point with their CFRD equipment to assist with the removal of victims from the Flat Bottom Boat, perform patient assessment, and provide treatment when indicated. (AUC 159 add 7)

Question 321

When a snow or ice emergency is imminent or Phase A or B is established, all of the following equipment shall be assembled in readiness and placed on company apparatus except? A) At least 6 extra lengths of 1 3/4" hose, rolled or folded, on each Engine and Ladder apparatus. B) 2 shovels, containers of salt and/or sand C) Vehicle recovery strap with shackle D) Tire chains, spare links and link tool

Answer 321

ANSWER: A) At least 6 extra lengths of 1 3/4" hose, rolled or folded, on each Engine and Ladder apparatus. (INCORRECT) (AUC 200 sec 3.3.3) * At least 6 extra lengths of TWO AND A HALF INCH (2 1/2") hose, rolled or folded, on each Engine and Ladder apparatus. * Also, specialized hydrant connection set-up as determined by individual commanding officers

Question 322

The incorrect statement made in reference to spray caps can be found in which choice? A) Spray caps shall not be installed on hydrants located on mains larger than 20 inches in diameter B) No spray caps are to be placed on hydrants painted red or yellow C) Spray caps should not be installed on hydrants on two way streets, near intersections on bus routes or access routes to main traffic arteries D) Spray caps may be used only between 10:00 AM and 4:00 PM

Answer 322

ANSWER: D) Spray caps may be used only between 10:00 AM and 4:00 PM (INCORRECT) * 10:00 AM - 9:00 PM (AUC 205 add 1)

Question 323

The Hydrant Pressure Chart is used to monitor and record the P.S.I. of the hydrant nearest quarters during the first full week in May. This chart shall be posted where and for how long? A) Company office for the remainder of the year B) Housewatch area for the remainder of the year C) Uniform Filing System (UFS) for the remainder of the year D) Housewatch area throughout the summer season

Answer 323

ANSWER: D) Housewatch area throughout the summer season | AUC 205 add 2

Question 324

Units encountering frozen hydrants during operations or while on inspectional activities shall place a Yellow Disc and utilize the Hansen Hydrant application to report frozen hydrants for transmittal to the appropriate Thawing Apparatus. If after a hydrant has been thawed and pumped out, and it is determined that the frozen condition will recur due to a leaking valve or other defect, the company officer shall notify who? A) Administrative Battalion to report defect B) Administrative Division to report defect C) Department of Environmental Protection (DEP) via phone to report defect D) Department of Environmental Protection (DEP) via Hansen Hydrant Application to report defect

Answer 324

ANSWER: D) Department of Environmental Protection (DEP) via Hansen Hydrant Application to report defect (AUC 200 sec 4.6.4)

Question 325

Ladder 24 is dispatched to a reported person struck by a train in the subway at Penn Station in Manhattan. On arrival, transit authority representatives inform the Officer that there is a person under the train. Die to the imminent life hazard, the Officer directed a member to shut the power at the nearest power removal box. Which additional action below is correct? A) It is not necessary to confirm power removal through the dispatcher at this operation. B) After shutting power at the nearest box, the member immediately contacted the IC via handle talkie to ensure that power remain off. C) Following this operation, the IC is required to forward a letterhead report with full particulars through the chain of command to PTSU. D) Because his members were required to operate under the subway car, the Officer requested that transit personnel protect the contact rail shoes of the affected cars with wooded slippers to further insure that no power can be transmitted.

Answer 325

ANSWER: D) Because his members were required to operate under the subway car, the Officer requested that transit personnel protect the contact rail shoes of the affected cars with wooded slippers to further insure that no power can be transmitted. (AUC 207 - 3.2.4A / 3.3.1) A - It IS NECESSARY to confirm power removal through the dispatcher at this operation. B - After shutting power at the box, contact the DESK SUPERINTENDED VIA THE EMERGENCY TELEPHONE to ensure that power is off. C - Letterhead report through the chain of command to the CHIEF OF OPERATIONS (Richardson)

Question 326

In underground areas, HT communications with the surface will be adversely affected. HT communications are poor level to level, and communications in a straight line are from fair to poor. A relay system shall be set up to overcome this. Which person within the subway communications relay is described incorrectly? A) The LCC proceeds to the bottom of the subway entrance stairs. If the token booth is within 50 yards of the stairs to the street, contact the dispatcher through the clerk. B) The OV FF proceeds to the foot of the stairs leading to the platform if it is within 50 yards of the LCC. C) The Roof FF proceeds approximately 50 yards from the OV FFs location for relay. D) The Engine Officer proceeds approximately 100 yards line of sight from the Roof FF on the platform.

Answer 326

ANSWER: C) The Roof FF proceeds approximately 50 yards from the OV FFs location for relay. (INCORRECT) (AUC 207 - 4.1) HANDIE TALKIE SUBWAY RELAY "CORE" (Stairs/man/stairs/man) Chauffeur - Bottom of subway entrance stairs (stairs) OV - Foot of stairs leading to platform, if within 50 yds of LCC (man) Roof - Approximately 50 yds from the stairs on the platform (stairs) Engine Officer - Approx. 100 yds LOS from Roof FF on platform (man) Truck Officer - To location of fire * Additional HT equipped members every 100 yards if necessary

Question 327

Additional provisions regarding the use of HT relays at subway incidents are outlined below. Which one is correct? A) An Engine and Truck can set up a relay with 2 to 6 members. The members who are part of the communications relay must maintain their position throughout the operation until relieved by the IC. B) Any member after the LCC who is not needed in the relay, as determined by the truck Officer, shall remain at the subway entrance unless otherwise directed. C) Conditions may be such that all members are not needed in the relay to transmit messages to grade level. In this case, only members needed to establish an effective relay shall be used beginning with the OV FF. D) All members in the relay will be identified by their unit number and riding assignment and the term "RELAY"

Answer 327

ANSWER: A) An Engine and Truck can set up a relay with 2 to 6 members. The members who are part of the communications relay must maintain their position throughout the operation until relieved by the IC. (AUC 207 - 4.1) B - Any member after the LCC who is not needed in the relay, as determined by the truck Officer, shall PROCEED TO THE INCIDENT WITH THE LADDER OFFICER unless otherwise directed. C - Only members needed to establish an effective relay shall be used beginning with the LADDER COMPANY CHAUFFEUR. D - All members OTHER THAN THE LADDER OFFICER ("L153 to L153 OV RELAY")

Question 328

Units are dispatched to a reported track fire on the "A" line at the Broadway Junction station in Brooklyn. On arrival, the 1st arriving ladder company is met with a medium smoke condition on the Manhattan bound platform. The Officer has the following thoughts. Which one is correct? A) For a confirmed fire on any track, the FDNY Dispatcher must be notified to have the power to that track removed. B) When walking out not he bench wall to extinguish a fire in the track area of a tunnel, the Officer, the Can FF and the Irons FF should be sufficient to achieve our purposes. C) The other members of the company act as safety people and be stationed on the platform where the bench wall is located, and also on the opposite platform. D) The only justification for being on the track area with live (energized) 3rd rail power and moving trains, is if civilians (including TA workers) are on the tracks and we must keep them away from the 3rd rail to save their lives or if we are going to the blue light to remove power because of the life hazard.

Answer 328

ANSWER: C) The other members of the company act as safety people and be stationed on the platform where the bench wall is located, and also on the opposite platform. (AUC 207 - 5.4.1 / 5.4.2) A - Fire in the track area may or may not require the power to be off, depending on the severity of the fire and smoke conditions. If the fire is on an EXPRESS TRACK, and our extinguisher cannot reach the fire, then power will have to be removed. B - Officer and Can FF ONLY (NOT IRONS FF) D - CIVILIANS ONLY / NOT TA WORKERS (TA workers are trained to operate on tracks near an energized 3rd rail)

Question 329

You are working your 1st night tour as a Captain in Manhattan. The BC comes for a visit and wants to discuss an operation from his previous tour where members had to evacuate passengers from a disabled train between stations. He mentions the following points but was incorrect in which one? A) Upon reaching the train, make contact with the train operator or conductor and see if the intercom system works. If it does, have that person make an announcement that the Fire Department is on scene and the situation will be shortly under control. B) If the intercom system does not work, several members walking either on bench walls or alongside the train can go as far as the last car, notifying people of our presence. This is critical to controlling panic and subsequent self-evacuation. C) One of the best ways tor reduce panic is to provide increased lighting. There should be adequate lighting along the right of way, in addition to a high degree of lighting at the train debarkation point and close tot he exit. D) As a last resort to evacuate passengers, walk them out of the tunnel using the bench wall The roadbed must not be used.

Answer 329

ANSWER: D) As a last resort to evacuate passengers, walk them out of the tunnel using the bench wall The roadbed must not be used. (INCORRECT) (AUC 207 5.6) * The bench wall OR roadbed MAY BE USED to evacuate passengers.

Question 330

Ladder 9 operated at a person pinned under a subway car at the Houston Street Station in Manhattan. Due to the imminent life hazard, the Officer directed one of his members to the nearest blue light for power removal. After encountering an OOS power removal box, this member took the following actions but was only correct in which one? A) The power removal box was covered by a red bag with white lettering. B) The member used the associated telephone to contact the Rail Control Center to request power removal. He made sure to release the button on the handset after speaking to ensure a response can be heard. C) The member identified himself, stated the reason for power removal, and remained on the phone until confirmation that power had been removed. D) If he did not immediately contact the Desk Superintendent at the Rail Control Center via the telephone, power would be restored in one minute after he operation of the power removal box.

Answer 330

ANSWER: C) The member identified himself, stated the reason for power removal, and remained on the phone until confirmation that power had been removed. (AUC 207 - 8.1) A - WHITE BAG W/ RED LETTERS (OOS PRB) B - Button ont he handset must be HELD DOWN DURING THE ENTIRE CALL or the call will be terminated. D - If you do not contact the Rail Center via the telephone, power will be restored IMMEDIATELY.

Question 331

When a MetroCard is reported lost, stolen or damaged, the Officer on duty shall immediately notify ____________ advising of the particulars, including the ID number of the MetroCard, to ensure that the card is deactivated. In addition, the Officer on duty shall file a police report and complete a lost property report. Both reports shall be endorsed as required and forwarded to the ______________ requesting a replacement MetroCard be issued. A) FDNY Resource Center / FDNY Resource Center B) FDNY Resource Center / Public Trans. Safety Unit C) Public Trans. Safety Unit / FDNY Resource Center D) Public Trans. Safety Unit / Public Trans. Safety Unit

Answer 331

ANSWER: A) FDNY Resource Center / FDNY Resource Center. | AUC 207 - Addendum 3 / 3.6.3 / 3.6.4

Question 332

Frequently FD units responding to reported Subway System fires are informed that the TA has a train available at the station for FD use. These trains are referred to as "Light Trains", since all passengers have been evacuated, with only the Train Operator and Conductor remaining on board. Which statement below is correct regarding "Light Train" procedures? A) It is intended that these light trains be used to transport FD personnel to medium fires readily extinguishable by one or two extinguishers, to investigate the source of a medium smoke condition or other similar type incident. B) The decision to use a light train is to be made by the IC, which ay be a company Officer. C) The light train may not travel past the next station without permission of the Chief in Charge. D) The Train Conductor's radio is the primary means of communication from the light train and is the only reliable means of communication for the FD unit on the train.

Answer 332

ANSWER: C) The light train may not travel past the next station without permission of the Chief in Charge. (AUC 207 - Addendum 7 / 2.2.1) A - Transport FD units to SMALL FIRES or to investigate source of MINOR SMOKE conditions. B - Only CHIEF IN CHARGE can authorize light train D - TRAIN OPERATOR'S RADIO is primary means

Question 333

During light train operations, the possibility of delay in communications must be anticipated. Therefore, progress reports from the light train shall be transmitted as soon as possible, but at least once every ______ minutes. A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20

Answer 333

ANSWER: C) 15 | AUC 207 - Addendum 7 / 2.5

Question 334

When operating at a fire involving catenary wires, the application of water shall be guided by the following points. Which point is correct? A) Prior to the application of water, the power to the 3rd rail, 480 volt standby power, and the catenary wires must be shut down, and the catenary wires must be grounded to remove the possibility of residual static electricity. B) If conditions warrant, a hardline using a fog stream can be operated from the adjacent platform directing water into the train or at the trains undercarriage. C) The hose stream should be directed over the top of the train where the pantograph or catenary wires are located. D) All fire teams applying water with hand-held fog nozzles should take advantage of the reach of the stream and maintain a minimum distance of four feet to catenary wires.

Answer 334

ANSWER: B) If conditions warrant, a hardline using a fog stream can be operated from the adjacent platform directing water into the train or at the trains undercarriage. (AUC 207 - Addendum 9 - 3.2.1) A - You CAN APPLY WATER BEFORE residual static electricity is removed by grounding catenary wires if: Short burst of fog nozzle at trains undercarriage, minimum of 10' away C - Hose stream SHOULD NOT BE DIRECTED over the top of the train where the pantograph or catenary wires are located. D - Maintain a minimum approach distance of TEN (10) FEET to catenary wires.

Question 335

Ladder 175 responds to a reported stalled train near a grade level station in Brooklyn. The IC determined that the passengers will have to be removed from the train and walked to the station, and he orders the Officer of Ladder 175 to have his members retrieve the Emergency Evacuation Device (EED). Where would they find the EED at this grade level station? A) The first blue light location south of the southbound platform, typically within 50 feet of the platform end. B) The full time token booth. C) At the base of the emergency exit. D) There is no EED at grade level stations.

Answer 335

ANSWER: A) The first blue light location south of the southbound platform, typically within 50 feet of the platform end. (AUC 207 - Addendum 11 . 3.2) Grade lvl - B.L. 50 feet south of southbound platform Elevated - Full time token booth Under River - base of emergency exit

Question 336

In a life threatening situation on the guideway of the Air Train members may be directed to the blue light power removal station to remove power. Which choice below related to power removal on AirTrains is correct? A) In a life-threatening situation and the blue light power removal box has been activated, one HT equipped member must remain at the blue light to ensure power remains off. B) Blue light station power removal boxes are located every 600 feet along the guideway. C) At a station, there is a blue light power removal box at each end of the platform, which when depressed, de-energizes either the inbound or outbound track (not both) on the guideway for at least the entire length of the station platform. D) Once a power removal button has been activated, power can only be restored by FDNY members upon authorization of the IC.

Answer 336

ANSWER: A) In a life-threatening situation and the blue light power removal box has been activated, one HT equipped member must remain at the blue light to ensure power remains off. (AUC 207 - Addendum 12 / 2.2 / 6.0) B - AirTrain Blue lights every EIGHT HUNDRED (800) FEET APART (Subway 600 feet apart) C - Power removal box will de-energize BOTH inbound and outbound tracks. D - Power can only be restored by AIRTRAIN PERSONNEL

Question 337

What is the primary method for removing passengers from an AirTrain that is located between stations? A) Walk them out B) Nolan Rail Cart C) Rescue Train D) Tower Ladder

Answer 337

ANSWER: C) Rescue Train | AUC 207 - Addendum 12 / Section 10

Question 338

When operating at AirTrain emergencies between stations above a high-speed roadway, certain safety considerations are required. Which one mentioned below is incorrect? A) A minimum of 2 Engines, 2 Ladders and a BC shall respond and operate at all times at AirTrain incidents on high speed roadways. B) Units shall request the immediate response of NYPD, to assist with traffic control, for all AirTrain incidents that are reported between stations regardless of the location. C) The placing of an apparatus alongside a high-speed roadway for access to the guideway will always require the complete closing of the roadway. D) The primary means of accessing the guideway between stations shall be the nearest overpass.

Answer 338

ANSWER: B) Units shall request the immediate response of NYPD, to assist with traffic control, for all AirTrain incidents that are reported between stations regardless of the location. (INCORRECT) (AUC 207 - Addendum 12 / Section 11) * Notify either NYPD or PAPD depending on the location of the incident (Is it over the Van Wyck Expressway or over JFK Airport Property?)

Question 339

The NYC Transit Authority has installed repeater radio systems for all underground subway stations and tunnels throughout NYC, except Staten Island. When authorized by the IC, these repeater systems may be used for FDNY operations at subway fires and emergencies. Which additional points below about the subway repeater system is correct? A) FDNY HTs have been programmed to provide two way subway repeater channels, channel 14 (subway 1) and channel 15 (subway 2). These are 2 watt channels. B) There is one street antenna at each station positioned to provide maximum coverage of that station. C) The repeater system will not carry the HT internal ID numbers and will not support the emergency alert function. D) Using the repeater system the IC at street level can only communicate with members at underground public platform levels. It does not support aboveground to aboveground communications.

Answer 339

ANSWER: B) There is one street antenna at each station positioned to provide maximum coverage of that station. (AUC 207 - Addendum 16 - 1.0 / 2.0 / 3.1) A - HT 14 and HT 15 are FIVE (5) WATT CHANNELS C - Repeater WILL SUPPORT emergency alert and carry our radios internal IDs. D - Using the repeater system, the Incident Commander at the Command Post at street level near the installed antenna WILL BE ABLE TO communicate with members located aboveground at subway entrance/exits, above ground emergency exit locations, and at underground public platform levels. Members underground on public platforms using the repeater system will also BE ABLE TO communicate with members at each entrance/exit serving the station.

Question 340

You are operating as the Ladder company Officer at an underground NYC Subway emergency. The IC contacts you on HT channel 1 and tells you to switch to Channel 14, the primary HT Subway Repeater Channel. Which operational procedure below is correct at this emergency? A) All operating FDNY members, other than those directed to remain on channel 1, shall switch to channel 14. B) Any member operating on the repeater channel must be teamed with a HT equipped member operating on HT channel 1. C) The HT relay does not have to be established at this operation since the the subway repeater is operational. D) The secondary repeater channel 15 cannot be used at this incident.

Answer 340

ANSWER: B) Any member operating on the repeater channel must be teamed with a HT equipped member operating on HT channel 1. (AUC 207 - Addendum 16 - 4.2 / 4.2) A - FDNY members, other than those directed to SWITCH TO CHANNEL 14, shall REMAIN on HT 1. C - HT Relay must ALWAYS be established D - Secondary repeater 15 CAN BE USED ALSO.

Question 341

While operating at a subway emergency, if the repeater system fails, HT communications on FDNY Channel 14 and 15 will not be possible. Which procedure below is incorrect if the repeater system fails? A) If members encounter unusual periods of silence or continued inability to make radio contact on the repeater channel, they should immediately abandon the use of the repeater channel and report to repeater failure to the IC. B) If it is determined that the repeater is not operational, contact shall be attempted through the HT relay on HT 1. C) The IC should have all members switch to HT 1, conduct a roll call of units, and continue to monitor the repeater channel incase service is restored and a member tries to make contact. D) Any unit experiencing a problem with the repeater system shall notify the Borough Communications Office via department radio and advise the dispatcher of the problem.

Answer 341

ANSWER: A) If members encounter unusual periods of silence or continued inability to make radio contact on the repeater channel, they should immediately abandon the use of the repeater channel and report to repeater failure to the IC. (INCORRECT) (AUC 207 - Addendum 12 - 5.1 / 5.2) * BEFORE ABANDONING repeater channel, RETURN TO AN AREA WHERE PREVIOUS COMMUNICATIONS WERE SUCCESSFUL.

Question 342

If an IC wishes to use the reverse frequency feature on the POST Radio to broadcast an emergency message to members operating on repeater channel 14, what channel would he/she need to switch to? A) Channel 17 B) Channel 18 C) Channel 19 D) Channel 20

Answer 342

ANSWER: C) Channel 19 (Communications 13 - 5.2) REVERSE CHANNELS Channel 17 - Channel 11 Channel 18 - Channel 12 Channel 19 - Channel 14 Channel 20 - Channel 15

Question 343

In an effort to help reduce damage caused by forcing of elevator and escalator machine room doors, NYC Transit has begun installing new locks on elevator and escalator machine room doors throughout the transit system for FDNY use in an emergency. Which procedure below is correct regarding these locks? A) Doors equipped with these locks can be identified by the black colored lockset and firefighter's helmet symbol affixed to the door. B) Units encountering rooms equipped with these locks must obtain a key from the token booth. C) If a door equipped with one of these locks is forced, units must forward a report to the Chief of Operations. D) If a door equipped with one of these locks is forced, units must telephone PTSU.

Answer 343

ANSWER: C) If a door equipped with one of these locks is forced, units must forward a report to the Chief of Operations. (AUC 207 - Addendum 21 - 2.1) A - RED COLORED lockset and FFs Helmet Symbol B - Use a 1620 KEY D - EMAIL to PTSU

Question 344

The FDNY has issued procedures on how to report suspicious activity. The only correct reporting procedure can be found in which choice? A) If a member witnesses an act which is by itself criminal-such as theft indicative of terrorist activity/diversion or sabotage/tampering/vandalism-- they should immediately notify the administrative battalion B) If a member suspects an individual is engaging in terrorist activity; they should immediately confront that individual C) If a member witnesses an act of terrorism, implement FDNY standard operating procedures to ensure member safety and life-saving measures to the public; they must then notify NYPD and BFI as soon as possible D) If a member is unsure of conditions, they should remain on scene and immediately notify BFI

Answer 344

ANSWER: C) If a member witnesses an act of terrorism, implement FDNY standard operating procedures to ensure member safety and life-saving measures to the public; they must then notify NYPD and BFI as soon as possible. (AUC 363 sec 8 / New as of 9/24/2019) A - Immediately notify NYPD B - Should NOT confront that individual D- If unsure of conditions request a BC to respond * In the event a member discovers any of the listed indicators, it should be reported immediately upon return to quarters by going to the reporting system on DiamondPlate.

Question 345

Lt. Underground made the following statements to the members while conducting a drill on subway operations. Which is the only CORRECT statement the officer made? A) Whenever evacuation or removal of passengers from a train at a station is contemplated, the power shall be ordered off. B) Under no circumstances will Fire Department personnel be permitted to operate on track areas unless assured that the power is off. C) Operations shall be conducted with the minimum supervision and the maximum commitment of manpower deemed necessary. D) Positive assurance of power shut-off will be verified through the Fire Department dispatcher before power is assumed to be off.

Answer 345

ANSWER: D) Positive assurance of power shut-off will be verified through the Fire Department dispatcher before power is assumed to be off. (AUC 207 - 2.3) A – At OTHER THAN a train station (2.2) B – This rule may be ignored if life is in IMMINENT PERIL C – Minimum Commitment and maximum supervision

Question 346

You are the Engine officer arriving first due to what you determine to be the insulation on the exterior wall on fire. From your past studying, you remember to follow all of the operational considerations for an Exterior Insulation Finish System (EFIS). Choose the incorrect operational consideration. A) As first arriving Engine, you considered using the deck gun for a rapid attack and knockdown B) Upon transmission of the 10-75, you requested an extra Engine and Ladder. You asked for the extra Ladder to be a TL since none were on the first alarm ticket C) You ordered your nozzle team to stretch a 2 1/2" hoseline with a 15/16" main stream tip because the building is 7 stories D) The component of primary concern during firefighting operations regarding the EFIS is the outermost sheathing layer.

Answer 346

ANSWER: D) The component of primary concern during firefighting operations regarding the EFIS is the outermost sheathing layer. (INCORRECT) (AUC 362 - 1.3) * The component of primary concern during firefighting operations regarding the EFIS is the INNERMOST sheathing layer (Foam Plastic Insulation)

Question 347

You are working in Engine 99 during the 6X9 when a EMS run comes in for possible DOA in apt 12C on the 12th floor. Upon arrival, you confirm through patient assessment that indeed the patient is DOA. EMS arrives and you turn the scene over to them, transmit the 37-1 to your chauffeur, and start to exit the apartment. On your way out, your nozzleman determines that there is a dog in the apartment. Since you are the IC on scene, you ask your FFs to contact a neighbor, building representative, etc. to secure the dog. Unfortunately, there is no one to secure the dog. As the IC at this incident, the most correct action for you to take next can be found in which choice? A) Notify the administrative Battalion Chief B) Notify Animal Care Center (ACC) via the dispatcher C) Leave the dog with EMS. EMS is required to make notification D) Notify New York City Emergency Management via dispatcher

Answer 347

ANSWER: B) Notify Animal Care Center (ACC) via the dispatcher. (AUC 361 sec 2.1) * When encountering displaced pets/pet remains at the scene of a fire or emergency, the FDNY shall protect/secure the pet with a responsible party (owner, neighbor, building representative, NYPD, etc.) if possible, and/or cover the pet remains and keep them out of view of the public and media. If reunification with the owner is not possible, the FDNY IC shall contact the ACC through the borough dispatcher "PORN" P - PD O - Owner R - Representative from building N - Neighbor

Question 348

What color is the "DANGER DO NOT ENTER" tape used to designate areas which are dangerous to FDNY members and should not be entered? A) Red with black lettering B) Black with red lettering C) Yellow with black lettering D) Black with yellow lettering

Answer 348

ANSWER: A) Red with black lettering (AUC 360) * Units are reminded that the danger zone should not be entered except to save life or authorized by the IC of Sector Chief. This applies at all times, to all members, during all stages of the operation

Question 349

Incidents involving Photovoltaic (PV) systems will require firefighters to make adjustments similar to those made with other types of electrical equipment. From the choices listed below, select the most correct procedure for your firefighters to follow when encountering a PV system. A) When a PV array covers a large portion of the roof it leaves little room for members to maneuver and operate. Members can cut wires and remove the necessary panels only after shutting off the switch at the main electrical panel B) For a top floor fire, in a non-fireproof building, Ladder Company operations should be directed toward removing PV array panels for saw operations C) Using water on energized PV systems components is a decision that should only be made by the Company Officer after careful size-up D) After receiving permission on using water on energized PV systems components, a fog nozzle shall be utilized from a distance, and set at a 30 degree spray pattern to prevent electric current from traveling upstream towards members operating hoselines

Answer 349

ANSWER: D) After receiving permission on using water on energized PV systems components, a fog nozzle shall be utilized from a distance, and set at a 30 degree spray pattern to prevent electric current from traveling upstream towards members operating hoselines. (AUC 351 - 6.4) A - Members must NEVER cut any wires associated with a PV array. Shutting off power at the main electrical panel does not ensure that all power to the building has been removed. This holds true for opening PV disconnect (isolation) switches which can be located : on the roof, next to the main electrical panel, adjacent to the inverter, nearby the charge controller, in the battery bank area, and outside the building. B - For top floor/ cockloft fires in non-fireproof buildings where fire is beneath the PV array, roof venting operations, including the use of power saws, may not be possible. Ladder Company operations should be directed toward opening ceilings to define the boundaries of the fire. C - INCIDENT COMMANDER (NOT Company Officer) D - Straight streams or foam should not be used since they are excellent conductors

Question 350

You are special called to a high-rise fire as a Ventilation Support Group to assist in ventilation operations. Your group is broken up into specific teams. Choose the incorrect team designation. A) Vent Group Leader (Officer) B) Vent Group Lobby Unit C) Vent Group Fire Unit D) Vent Group Roof

Answer 350

ANSWER: A) Vent Group Leader (Officer) (INCORRECT) (AUC 349 6.1) * Vent Group Supervisor

Question 351

You are on scene at a EMS run with the members of E-1 and faced with a severe language barrier, which is hampering your firefighters patient assessment. You decide to call the Language Interpretive Services that the FDNY has implemented since 2009. When prompted for the personal code/FDNY Unit ID, the most correct code number you give can be found in which choice? A) 5001 B) 7001 C) E001 D) E1

Answer 351

ANSWER: A) 5001 (AUC 343 3.1, 4.2) This service can be accessed from: 1 - Department telephones within firehouses or EMS stations 2 - Telephones located within a civilian residence or business 3 - Battalion or Division cell phone

Question 352

Every member upon completion of Probationary Firefighter School is issued a composition notebook to document their training. Notebooks shall be maintained until the end of the probationary period. Choose the most correct statement made in regards to the notebook. A) Members shall ensure a tool list from their current unit is attached to the inside cover of the notebook B) Notebooks shall be kept in the company office when not in use C) Company officers shall review their notebooks weekly D) Monthly training module receipt should be printed and stapled to the last page of training notebook at time of completion

Answer 352

ANSWER: B) Notebooks shall be kept in the company office when not in use. (AUC 323 add 2 1.3) A - First page of the notebook....1.3 C - Each tour the member works / Company Commander monthly / Chiefs during drills D - Monthly training module receipt should be printed and stapled to CURRENT TRAINING NOTEBOOK PAGE at time of completion.

Question 353

You are 10-84 at an EMS run in apt 14D on the 14th floor where you soon discover what you think is a deceased person. As you look around, you notice the window is open, blood on the floor, and furniture turned over with large sums on money scattered all over the floor. You quickly determine that the scene is considered a crime scene and notify P.D. Since this is now considered a crime scene, you followed which correct FDNY procedure? A) Refrained from patient care in order to preserve the crime scene B) Washed hands in sink because one of your FFs had sneezed on their hands C) After assessing patient covered corpse with a sheet D) Notified the Fire Marshals

Answer 353

ANSWER: D) Notified the Fire Marshals (AUC 317 sec 5) A - Patient care should never be compromised in order to protect the crime scene. B - Do not wash hands in sinks or use toilet facilities C - Refrain from covering any corpse except in public view D - Fire Marshals to respond to voucher currency at any operation where large amounts of currency are discovered

Question 354

During hot weather, responding without Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is permissible for all of the following runs except? A) Non-Structural fires B) BARS Alarms C) Class 3 Alarms D) Class E Alarms

Answer 354

ANSWER: C) Class 3 Alarms (AUC 310 sec 7.2.2) * Non-Structural Fires and Response to BARS Alarms, Non-Fire responses, ERS no contact, and Class E Alarms, and CFR responses.

Question 355

All probies are provided with monthly training modules consisting of reading assignments and training videos, followed by a 20 question quiz found on the DiamondPlate home page. Probies get 3 attempts to pass this quiz. If after the 3rd attempt the probie can't pass the quiz, the program will be temporarily locked and will require the company officer to contact who? A) Administrative Division B) Administrative Battalion C) Firefighters Development Program Group D) FDNY computer help desk

Answer 355

ANSWER: C) Firefighters Development Program Group (AUC 323 sec 2.1) * VIA E-MAIL

Question 356

As a Company Officer, you should be familiar with the Community Assistance Program, which assists children and adults who are experiencing trouble in the streets of NYC (harmful acts). From the following choices, select the incorrect procedure involving the Community Assistance Program. A) While in quarters, a civilian requests assistance from the officer. The officer shall immediately notify NYPD via the FDNY dispatcher and tells the dispatcher the unit is operating at a verbal alarm to assist a civilian B) While out of quarters, a civilian requests assistance from the officer. The officer shall immediately have the administrative battalion to respond via the FDNY dispatcher and tells the dispatcher the unit is operating at a verbal alarm to assist a civilian C) A letterhead report, with full endorsements shall be forwarded to the Chief of Operations. This report must include the civilian's name and the identity of the Police Officer left in charge of the civilian's care. A Company Journal entry including the same information, must also be included D) If a child is involved, and there is reasonable cause to suspect that a child has suffered or will suffer, abuse of maltreatment as a result of acts or omissions of a child's parent or guardian, members are mandated to file a report. To facilitate this report, immediately request NYPD, a FDNY EMS supervisor, and an ambulance through the dispatcher. The ambulance crew will be responsible for filing the mandated report

Answer 356

ANSWER: B) While out of quarters, a civilian requests assistance from the officer. The officer shall immediately have the administrative battalion to respond via the FDNY dispatcher and tells the dispatcher the unit is operating at a verbal alarm to assist a civilian. (INCORRECT) (AUC 3 / New, as of 8/28/2019) * The officer shall immediately notify NYPD via the FDNY dispatcher and tells the dispatcher the unit is OOS and that the unit is operating at a verbal alarm to assist a civilian * Letterhead report to Chief of Ops incuding civilian's name and identity of Police Officer left in charge. * Journal entry with civilian's name and identity of Police Officer left in charge. * Request NYPD FDNY EMS Supervisor and ambulance crew if child abuse is suspected. * Ambulance crew will fill out the mandated report.

Question 357

The incorrect statement made about the Company Officer and Firefighter temporary frontpiece can be found in which choice? A) All Engine, Ladder, Rescue and Squad companies will be issued two temporary frontpieces for the company officer and four temporary frontpieces for firefighters B) The front pieces will be stored in a location by the commanding officer and are to be used by all unassigned company officers and detailed firefighters C) At roll call, the officer on duty is to ascertain if the unit's officer and firefighter's frontpieces are accounted for D) Lost frontpieces shall be the subject of a lost property report (FS-112)

Answer 357

ANSWER: A) All Engine, Ladder, Rescue and Squad companies will be issued two temporary frontpieces for the company officer and four temporary frontpieces for firefighters (INCORRECT) (AUC 299) * ONE temporary frontpiece for the company officer and THREE temporary frontpieces for firefighters. * Also, In addition to the front pieces, an 11"X17" sign, which reminds detailed members to return the front pieces, will be issued. The sign shall be placed in an area, which is clearly visible to all members leaving quarters.

Question 358

The most correct time a unit shall leave quarters for scheduled training can be found in which choice? A) No later than 0900/1800 hours B) No later than 0915/1815 hours C) No later than 0930/1830 hours D) No later than 0945/1845 hours

Answer 358

ANSWER: B) No later than 0915/1815 hours | AUC 287 sec 5.1.3

Question 359

Communication remains an important consideration at incidents in the subway system. Which statement below is CORRECT regarding the various means of communicating underground? A) Provided members are operating on the same repeater channel, members positioned on the opposite side of a break in the repeater zone will be able to communicate with each other. B) Repeater antennas can be found at most emergency exits and provide reliable communication on the repeater channel inside emergency exit stairways. C) HT relay remains the basic means of communication in the subway system and this relay should be augmented as necessary. D) Post Radios can be considered reliable to communicate to below ground locations and in straight line areas below grade.

Answer 359

ANSWER: C) HT relay remains the basic means of communication in the subway system and this relay should be augmented as necessary. (FFP UNDER RIVER RAIL OPERATIONS 2.9.1) (AUC 207 Addendum 16 - 4.3) A – Members on the opposite side of the break will NOT be able to communicate with each other. B – There are NO repeater antennas at most emergency exits and no repeater coverage inside most emergency exit stairways. D – Experience has shown the Post Radio may prove UNRELIABLE when communicating to below grade locations.

Question 360

As a Company Officer, you should be familiar with the "Community Engagement and Public Education Programs." Choose the incorrect statement made in regards to these programs. A) Visits to the firehouse are not to be scheduled during BISP periods, hydrant inspections, scheduled training activities or any other period designated by the Chief of Operations B) All fire education programs are exempt from 10-51, except Operation Sidewalk or when ordered by the Chief of Operations C) During "Operation Sidewalk," the nearest engine company or ladder company is assigned to the activity for a period of one hour. The unit will remain in service by radio, and respond at the discretion of the dispatcher D) Upon receiving a request for a Fire Safety Education event, other than a visit to Quarters, the Officer on Duty will have the requester contact the administrative battalion.

Answer 360

ANSWER: D) Upon receiving a request for a Fire Safety Education event, other than a visit to Quarters, the Officer on Duty will have the requester contact the administrative battalion. (INCORRECT) (AUC 4 2.9) * Contact the Fire Safety Education Unit.

Question 361

To minimize illegal entry by unauthorized persons into quarters, and to facilitate reporting such occurrences, the following procedures are to be followed. Choose the incorrect procedure. A) Doors that are easily accessible from street, yard, court or adjoining roof should be kept locked when not in use B) Windows that are easily accessible from street, yard, court or adjoining roof should be kept locked when not in use C) When the company is leaving quarters, entrance and apparatus doors are to be closed and locked by assigned member D) If there is a contractor in quarters, and the company receives a run, the officer on duty shall ensure the windows and doors are locked, and leave a member behind for security during the absence of the unit.

Answer 361

ANSWER: D) If there is a contractor in quarters, and the company receives a run, the officer on duty shall ensure the windows and doors are locked, and leave a member behind for security during the absence of the unit. (INCORRECT) (AUC 300 sec 2) * If there is a contractor in quarters, and the doors and windows can be locked or secured, the officer on duty shall notify the contractor that the CONTRACTOR WILL BE HELD ACCOUNTABLE while his/her personnel are working in quarters during the absence of the unit * If windows and doors cannot be secured, a member will be assigned to perform the duties of security.

Question 362

When it comes to emergency tree cutting and clearance, the most correct procedure can be found in which choice? A) After cutting hanging tree limbs, members are responsible for the removal of debris from sidewalks B) Members cut and removed a tree that has fallen on an unoccupied parked vehicle in the parking lot of a nearby restaurant C) Members can never be used to cut or remove any tree or tree limb blocking entrance to a building D) Department operations on private property are limited to assisting trapped or injured persons and preventing unauthorized entry into the danger area.

Answer 362

ANSWER: D) Department operations on private property are limited to assisting trapped or injured persons and preventing unauthorized entry into the danger area. (AUC 301 3.4) A - NOT responsible for the removal of debris from sidewalks or private property. B - Members are NOT permitted to remove a tree which has fallen on a vehicle UNLESS such action is required to perform a rescue, administer first aid, or establish an emergency lane. C - Members CAN be deployed in the removal of obstructions blocking entrance to a building. This decision is to be based upon the existence of other adequate means of exit and the complexity of the operation.

Question 363

Today is October 25, 2019, and it is your first tour in E-99 in the great borough of the Bronx. It's two hours into your tour when the HW FF summonses you to the HW area, where you are confronted with a male civilian holding an infant. The unknown male suddenly hands you the infant and begins to walk away. Choose the incorrect procedure you took involving the Abandoned Infant Protection Act. A) Immediately notified the administrative battalion to have an ambulance respond because the unit is in custody of an abandoned infant B) You informed the ambulance crew that they are responsible to fill out and file the mandated report for abandoned infants C) You transmitted signal 10-99 to the dispatcher D) Since the male civilian did not provide any information on the infant, you accepted custody anyway

Answer 363

ANSWER: A) Immediately notified the administrative battalion to have an ambulance respond because the unit is in custody of an abandoned infant. (AUC 306 add 2) * Notify the BOROUGH COMMUNICATIONS OFFICE (dispatcher) and request the response of an ambulance, and inform the dispatcher that the unit is in custody of an abandoned infant.

Question 364

You just return from a run in which you transmitted a 10-35, and discovered that someone illegally entered quarters. Upon this discovery, you make the proper notifications. Choose the incorrect notification. A) BFI B) Administrative Battalion and Division C) NYPD D) IG (only if there is a theft in which a Department employee is a suspect)

Answer 364

ANSWER: A) BFI (AUC 300 sec 3) * Notify BFI only if incident involves a false alarm response.....You transmitted a 10-35

Question 365

Members must have _____ years experience in the FDNY to be considered for Chauffeur Training School. In unusual circumstances, exceptions to this policy will be granted with the approval of _________________. A) 3 / Chief of Operations B) 2 / Borough Commander C) 3 / Borough Commander D) 2 / Chief of Operations

Answer 365

ANSWER: A) 3 / Chief of Operations | AUC 254 1.3

Question 366

Blue light power removal boxes are located every ________ feet along the guideway of the JFK AirTrain System. A) 800 B) 200 C) 1000 D) 600

Answer 366

ANSWER: A) 800 (AUC 207 - Addendum 12 - 6) Subway (6 letters) = 600 feet Airtrain (8 letters) = 800 feet

Question 367

The incorrect procedure when using the Positive Pressure Fans (PPF) can be found in which choice? A) When using the PPFs, pressurize the evacuation stairwell before the attack stairwell. B) When placing PPF from the attack stairway door, the optimum position is 4 to 6 feet with an angle tilt of 80 degrees. C) One PPF can provide the proper pressure in the stairwell up to 10 stories depending on conditions, and two fans will pressurize a 40 story building when properly positioned D) When using PPFs for negative pressurization, place PPF inside the contaminated area facing the exhaust opening 6-8 feet back and tilted up at an angle of approximately 30 degrees.

Answer 367

ANSWER: A) When using the PPFs, pressurize the evacuation stairwell before the attack stairwell. (INCORRECT) (AUC 349 6.5) "AEP" - Attack / Evacuation / Public hallway

Question 368

When operating at a Con-Edison facility involving electrical components, all of the following are correct except? A) Handlines can be used on energized equipment if equipped with a fog tip set at a pattern 30 degrees or greater. B) The decision to apply water streams to electrical components at Con-Edison facilities will not be undertaken by first arriving units C) The primary means of applying water to energized electrical components is through the use of a Tower Ladder D) Salt water shall never be used for applying water streams on live electrical components

Answer 368

ANSWER: A) Handlines can be used on energized equipment if equipped with a fog tip set at a pattern 30 degrees or greater. (INCORRECT) (AUC 338 2.1) * HANDLINES SHALL NEVER BE USED ON ENERGIZED ELECTRICAL COMPONENTS AT CON-EDISON FACILITIES. * Decision to apply water streams made by rank above the rank of DC.

Question 369

Emergency Evacuation Devices are found in various locations throughout the subway system. Which location listed below is an INCORRECT location to find the device? A) At underground stations, the EED is located at the first blue light location south of the southbound platform. B) At grade level and elevated stations, the EED is located at the full-time token booth. C) The EED is located at the base of the Emergency Exit at both ends of each under river tunnel. D) In Staten Island, EEDs are located near Tower B, at the Saint George Rail Terminal and near the crew quarters at the Tottenville Train Yard.

Answer 369

ANSWER: B) At grade level and elevated stations, the EED is located at the full-time token booth. (AUC 207 – SUBWAY OPERATIONS 3.2) * ELEVATED STATIONS - full time token booth * GRADE LVL / UNDERGROUND - 1st blue light south... * URR = base of emergency exit at both ends of tunnel

Question 370

While performing a search during a plane crash, you come across a spherical flight data recorder (Black box). From the choices listed below, what is the correct color of this flight data recorder? A) International orange B) Bright yellow C) Red D) Black

Answer 370

ANSWER: B) Bright yellow (AUC 325 sec 6.2.3) * Spherical recorders Bright Yellow (Sun) * Rectangular rec. are Red/International Orange (Brick)

Question 371

Units with Positive Pressure Fans (PPFs) should start the fans weekly at MUD and allow the fans to run full RPM for _____ minutes. A) 10 B) 5 C) 20 D) 15

Answer 371

ANSWER: B) 5 (AUC 349 - 11.7) * They should also be inspected and started daily at the beginning of the 9x6 tour.

Question 372

While operating at the scene of a car accident a member of your company is involved in a confrontation with a member of the NYPD. You should know that you are required to make which notification below? A) Written notification to BITS B) Immediate notification to BITS C) Written Notification to the Inspector General D) Immediate notification to the Inspector General

Answer 372

ANSWER: B) Immediate notification to BITS (AUC 268 3.1.4) Immediate Notification to BITS "AABBCCDD" AA - Alcohol/Arrest BB - Boxing w/ Brothers CC - Confrontation / civilian or government agency DD - Drugs / Dangerous misuse of Department vehicles

Question 373

On the Nolan Emergency Rail Cart, one wheel is provided with a wheel lock (slide bolt). A ______ square is painted on the surface corner of the rail cart to denote the location of the wheel lock. Once assembled, the member can use the wheel lock to secure the rail cart from rolling. A) Brown B) Blue C) Red D) Black

Answer 373

ANSWER: C) Red | AUC 207 - Addendum 19 - 3.6

Question 374

All of the following incidents are considered a Single Command operation with the FDNY as the Primary Agency with the exception of which choice? A) An elevator emergency with NYPD 1st to arrive B) A water rescue operation with FDNY 1st to arrive C) A confined space operation D) An auto extrication with FDNY 1st to arrive

Answer 374

ANSWER: B) A water rescue operation with FDNY 1st to arrive. (INCORRECT) (AUC 276 - 5.1) *NYPD is primary agency at water/ice rescues. "ABCCDEEF" (FDNY in Command) A - Auto Extrication (1st to arrive) B - Boat in Distress (1st to arrive) C - Confined Space C - Collapse of Structure D - Downed Trees E - Elevators E - Entrapment / Impalement F - Fire

Question 375

When operating at a Con-Edison Substation involving 345,000V, the proper safety distance can be found in which choice? A) 10 feet B) 18 feet C) 30 feet D) 50 feet

Answer 375

ANSWER: B) 18 feet (AUC 338 add 2 sec 2) * 345,000 V - 18 feet * 15,000-38,000 V - 10 feet

Question 376

Lt. Bognino is working a day tour in E238 and at 1600 hours he receives a phone call from the DC in D11 and was told that they are going to place the reserve Engine stored in quarters, E518, in service in anticipation of an approaching snowstorm. The DC told Lt. Bognino that E518 will operate out of E229's quarters and that he is hired as the Officer of E518. Lt. Bognino would know that when calling the dispatcher he would be correct to identify his unit how? A) "E518 to Brooklyn" B) "E518 acting E238 to Brooklyn" C) "E518 acting E229 to Brooklyn" D) "E229 second station to Brooklyn"

Answer 376

ANSWER: C) "E518 acting E229 to Brooklyn" (AUC 259 - 5.2) * Reserve apparatus shall be assigned as if it were a RELOCATOR IN THE QUARTERS WHERE NEEDED.

Question 377

Lt. Bognino is working a day tour in E238 and at 1600 hours he receives a phone call from the DC in D11 and was told that they are going to place the reserve Engine stored in quarters, E518, in service in anticipation of an approaching snowstorm. The following morning, Lt. Levine is working in E238 when the reserve apparatus E518, has just returned to the firehouse to be stored. An inspection of the RT-2s has revealed that E518 is missing a hydrant wrench and a halligan tool. From the choices below, which are the correct notifications and reports that must be made regarding the missing tools on the reserve E518? (More than 1 correct) A) Lt. Levine must notify the administrative BC by phone, take a mark in the company journal, and prepare and forward a report to the Chief of Department documenting the missing items and explaining the circumstances of the loss. B) Lt. Bognino must notify the administrative BC by phone, take a mark in the company journal, and prepare and forward a report to the Chief of Department documenting the missing items and explaining the circumstances of the loss. C) Lt. Levine must complete a Lost Property Report and make the required notifications regarding the loss of department property. D) Lt. Bognino must complete a Lost Property Report and make the required notifications regarding the loss of department property.

Answer 377

ANSWER: A and D are CORRECT A) Lt. Levine must notify the administrative BC by phone, take a mark in the company journal, and prepare and forward a report to the Chief of Department documenting the missing items and explaining the circumstances of the loss. D) Lt. Bognino must complete a Lost Property Report and make the required notifications regarding the loss of department property. (AUC 259 7.5) * Upon return of a reserve apparatus to storage, the OFFICER ON DUTY in a unit which the APPARATUS IS STORED, must compelte the outstanding RT-2 with the tools and equipment being returned with the apparatus. * If any item is missing the Officer shall: Notify BC by phone / company journal mark / forward report to CHIEF OF DEPARTMENT. * Administrative BC will notify the Officer who was in charge of the reserve apparatus while it was not in storage and that Officer will prepare a LOST PROPERTY REPORT.

Question 378

A sharp Officer would know that which point concerning Reserve Apparatus is incorrect? A) Reserve CFR-D Units shall have a minimum compliment of two (2) CFRD trained FFs. B) CFR-D Battalion Depots shall be used for supplying the initial CFR-D equipment for Reserve CFR-D units. C) Reserve CFR-D Units shall exchange out of service medical equipment with CFR-D depots as necessary to keep the unit in service. D) RT-2 forms shall be used for all CFR-D equipment exchanged. Officers shall supervise the exchange of all CFR-D equipment.

Answer 378

ANSWER: B) CFR-D Battalion Depots shall be used for supplying the initial CFR-D equipment for Reserve CFR-D units. (INCORRECT) (AUC 259 - Section 9) * CFR-D Depots are NOT TO BE USED for supplying initial CFR-D equipment for Reserve Apparatus. * This will deplete the necessary stock to keep all CFR-D Units in service.

Question 379

Units were discussing operations at incidents where PCBs are present. Which point made during the discussion was not entirely correct? A) Entrance into the contaminated or suspected area shall be kept to a minimum and exposure shall be balanced with the benefits to be gained (life hazard, confinement of fire, and protection of exposed property). B) Proper extinguishing methods must be used according to the properties of the involved materials; fog stream or foam for flammable liquids and water for structural members. Operate from upwind and uphill if possible. C) Wherever possible, smoke and fire gases must be channeled to minimize exposure to civilians and fire personnel. Use of self contained masks is mandatory even in areas of a light smoke condition. This applied to all personnel in the affected area. D) Deactivation of transformers shall be performed by Con Edison or Engineering Personnel on the premises. If the area is an IDLH then members may deactivate transformers as directed or instructed by Con Ed or Engineering Personnel.

Answer 379

ANSWER: D) Deactivation of transformers shall be performed by Con Edison or Engineering Personnel on the premises. If the area is an IDLH then members may deactivate transformers as directed or instructed by Con Ed or Engineering Personnel. (INCORRECT) (AUC 266) * Deactivation of transformers shall be performed ONLY BY CON ED OR ENGINEERING PERSONNEL on the premises familiar with the procedure. * NO MEMBER OF THE FDNY SHALL ATTEMPT DEACTIVATION BY DIRECTION OR UPON INSTRUCTION OF ENGINEERING PERSONNEL.

Question 380

Decontamination procedures shall be implemented at transformer incidents where PCBs are present only when members or equipment are exposed to _____ PPM of PCB's. A) Any amount B) 50 or more C) 100 or more D) 500 or more

Answer 380

ANSWER: B) 50 or more | AUC 266

Question 381

Members operating at the various railroads that serve the tri-state area may encounter "PCB" tranformers on rail cars which can pose a hazard to an unsuspecting member. Members studying for the upcoming Lieutenant's Test should know which two points below are not correct? (More than 1 INCORRECT) A) Rail cars which receive power from a catenary (overhead wire) will be equipped with transformers which may contain PCBs. They will be found on certain cars of Amtrak and NJ transit. B) EPA laws require that after July 1st 1986, the use of railroad car transformers containing fluids with a PCB concentration of 500 ppm or greater is prohibited. C) M2 cars found on the New Haven Line of Metro North are the only cars, identified with orange stripes that have transformers containing PCBs. D) M2 cars always operate in pairs, one "A" car (an even numbered car) coupled to a "B" car (odd numbered car). Both A and B cars have a pantograph.

Answer 381

ANSWER: B and D are INCORRECT B) EPA laws require that after July 1st 1986, the use of railroad car transformers containing fluids with a PCB concentration of 500 ppm or greater is prohibited. D) M2 cars always operate in pairs, one "A" car (an even numbered car) coupled to a "B" car (odd numbered car). Both A and B cars have a pantograph. (AUC 266 - Addendum 2) B - The use of Railroad Car Transformers containing fluids with a PCB concentration GREATER THAN ONE THOUSAND (1000) PPM IS PROHIBITED. D - "A" car (even) HAS A PANTOGRAPH / "B" car (odd) does NOT have a pantograph.

Question 382

You are a new Lt. working a day tour on a weekend in L200 and at 1400 hours you are walking down the hallway on the 2nd floor and see your LCC drinking a beer and smoking marijuana in a room off the hallway. In this situation you follow all the guidelines in AUC 202 and you would be most correct to take which action listed below? A) Notify the Inspector General's Office directly by phone B) Notify the Inspector General's Office through the Inspector General's on call supervisor via FDOC. C) Send written notification to BITS D) Notify BITS directly by phone E) Notify BITS by phone via FDOC

Answer 382

ANSWER: E) Notify BITS by phone via FDOC (AUC 268) Immediate Notification to BITS "AABBCCDD" A - Arrest / Alcohol B - Boxing with Brothers C - Confrontation w/ civilian or other agency D - Drugs / Dangerous misuse of Department vehicles * During normal business hours call BITS directly. * Non-business hours (the question stated it is a weekend tour) contact BITS through FDOC.

Question 383

All but which of the following situations listed below require a direct notification to the Inspector General's Office? A) Any allegation concerning the violation of City, State or Federal law by an employee. B) Any allegation concerning a conflict of interest by an employee. C) The misuse or the misappropriation of Department's time. D) Any allegation concerning the theft of City property or services by an employee. E) Any allegation concerning the offer or acceptance of a bribe or gratuity by an employee. F) Any allegation concerning false claims by employees that an off duty injury ocurred while on duty. G) Any allegation concerning the falsification of or tampering with FDNY records, forms or computer data.

Answer 383

ANSWER: C) The misuse or the misappropriation of Department's time. (INCORRECT) (AUC 268 - 2.1) * This would require a WRITTEN notification to BITS Written notification to BITS - "IMMAC" I - Incompetence serious enough for charges M - Misconduct not falling under the IG M - Misuse/misappropriation of Department time A - Follow up information on arrest of member C - Charges

Question 384

During the FLSTP class the instructors were discussing with the new Lieutenants some points about the BITS and Inspector General's Office. Which point listed below is not entirely correct? A) If a member is not sure which office to notify, BITS or the IG, he should call BITS for direction. B) The IG shall have unrestricted access to all meetings as well as to all records, documents or data maintained by the FD. C) The IG, after presentation of official identification, shall have immediate and unrestricted access to all areas of the FD, including but not limited to offices, firehouses or other facilities. D) No FD employee shall make any notification to any superior officer or any other announcement regarding the entry or presence of the IG in any facility, if so directed by the IG.

Answer 384

ANSWER: A) If a member is not sure which office to notify, BITS or the IG, he should call BITS for direction. (INCORRECT) (AUC 268) * If unsure whom to notify, call INSPECTOR GENERAL

Question 385

The most correct order for donning Bunker Gear can be found in which choice? A) Pants and boots / HT / Protective Hood / Bunker Coat B) Pants and boots / Protective Hood / HT / Bunker Coat C) Pants and boots / HT / Bunker Coat / Protective Hood D) Protective Hood / Pants and boots / HT / Bunker Coat

Answer 385

ANSWER: A) Pants and boots / HT / Protective Hood / Bunker Coat (AUC 310 sec 7) "Puerto Ricans Hate Cockaroaches"

Question 386

You are working in E200 for the 9X6 tour on November 10, 2019, when you receive a ticket to respond to LaGuardia Airport for a possible aircraft emergency. Upon arrival to the staging area, you would be correct to order your chauffeur to position the apparatus where? A) In the order of the alarm assignment (in a single line) B) With two lines being formed, E200 will be on the right C) With two lines being formed, E200 will be on the left D) With three lines being formed, E200 will be in the middle

Answer 386

ANSWER: B) With two lines being formed, E200 will be on the right. (AUC 325 - Addendum 1 - Section 2) * Units shall form up in a double line, convoy fashion with Ladder Companies, Rescue Companies and Special Units on the left and Engine Companies on the right * Units are not to proceed into the facility or onto the field without PA escort * Ladders LEFT / Engines RIGHT

Question 387

The following actions were taken at a string of recent track fires. Which action taken was MOST CORRECT according to department guidelines for operations underground? A) Only the Chauffeur was needed for HT relay, so the other truck members proceeded with the officer to the incident location. B) The Officer, Can, and FE firefighter walked out on the bench wall to extinguish a small rubbish fire while the remaining members of the truck company stayed at the end of the platform. C) After holding the train in the station to prevent movement, the Officer and Can firefighter entered the track bed outside of the station to extinguish a small rubbish fire without power removal. D) Observing a significant smoke condition in the street, each of the engine companies assigned took and connected to hydrants upon their arrival at the box location.

Answer 387

ANSWER: A) Only the Chauffeur was needed for HT relay, so the other truck members proceeded with the officer to the incident location. (AUC 207 – SUBWAY OPERATIONS - 4.1) B – When walking out on the benchwall, the OFFICER AND CAN firefighter should be sufficient to achieve our purposes. C – Members can use the benchwall. Power MUST be removed if members are to enter the track bed. D – Engine companies are NOT to hook up to hydrants UNTIL LOCATION OF FIRE HAS BEEN DETERMINED.

Question 388

First arriving Officers should have a sound knowledge of the FDNYs core competencies and how CIMS applies to the FDNY. Which is the only correct point listed below regarding CIMS procedures? A) All agencies must share only pertinent information at emergency or terrorist incidents. CIMS requires that there be one Command Post for each agency at all incidents. B) Under CIMS, the FDNY has complete responsibility for Life Safety Operations, which the protocol states are the highest priority objectives at any incident. C) Life Safety Operations in progress can be briefly disrupted during the transition of command. At CBRN terrorist events, the IC can overrule the Fire Department's tactical direction pertaining to life safety operations. D) The primary agency directing life safety operations cannot exclude personnel from other agencies to an incident scene. Investigative operations, such as crime scenes, should be suspended while life safety operations are ongoing.

Answer 388

ANSWER: B) Under CIMS, the FDNY has complete responsibility for Life Safety Operations, which the protocol states are the highest priority objectives at any incident. (AUC 276) A - All agencies must share ALL INFORMATION at emergency or terrorist incidents. CIMS requires that there be ONE COMMAND POST at all incidents to facilitate information sharing. C - Life Safety Operations in progress WILL NOT BE DISRUPTED or suspended because of transition of command to other agencies. At CBRN terrorist events, the IC CANNOT OVERRULE the Fire Department's tactical direction pertaining to life safety operations. D - The primary agency directing life safety operations MAY EXCLUDE NON-ESSENTIAL PERSONNEL from a site when necessary to protect public or rescuer safety until those tasks are completed. Investigative operations, such as crime scenes,MAY BE INITIATED CONCURRENTLY with life safety operations.

Question 389

Lt. Waters was giving a drill on the core competencies of the FDNY and tactical operations at incidents and made two statements. Which of the following choices is correct? 1. The core competencies of the FDNY are fire supression, pre-hospital emergency medical care, search and rescue, structural and area evacuation, arson investigation, and CBRN/HazMat Life Safety Operations and mass decontamination. 2. If more than one agency is capable of performing the same tactical operations at an incident, the agency with the core competency will give tactical direction, by the ranking officer, to other agencies performing operations with that competency. A) Only statement 1 is correct B) Only statement 2 is correct C) Both statements are correct D) Both statements are incorrect

Answer 389

ANSWER: B) Only statement 2 is correct (AUC 276) 1 - Core Competencies "FEMSLAM" F - Fire Suppression E - Evacuation of STRUCTURES (NYPD has areas) M - Medical care in pre-hospital setting S - Search and Rescue (NYPD has water/ice) L - Life Safety at CBRN/HazMat A - Arson Investigation cause and origin (PD major cases) M - Mass Decontamination

Question 390

Of the following choices, which incidents would the FDNY be the primary agency? (More than 1 Correct) A) An auto extrication where ESU is first on scene. B) A boat off City Island that hit a rock and is in distress. FDNY Marine 4 was the first unit on the scene. C) A person who fell through the ice in Van Cortland Park in the Bronx where L39 arrived on the scene first, followed by NYPD ESU. D) A collapse of a vacant 2 story PD. E) A confined space rescue

Answer 390

ANSWER: B / D / E CORRECT B) A boat off City Island that hit a rock and is in distress. FDNY Marine 4 was the first unit on the scene. (FDNY PRIMARY AGENCY) D) A collapse of a vacant 2 story PD. (FDNY PRIMARY AGENCY) E) A confined space rescue. (FDNY PRIMARY AGENCY) (AUC 276) * Choice A - FDNY only primary for auto extication if they are 1st on scene. * Choice C - NYPD has WATER/ICE rescue FDNY IN COMMAND "ABCCDEEF" A - Auto Extrication (1st to arrive) B - Boat in Distress (1st to arrive) C - Confined space C - Collapse of Structure D - Downed Tree E - Elevators E - Entrapment/Impalement F - Fire

Question 391

During a recent day tour, members of the 9th Battalion respond to an incident where they find a radiological device on fire that was intentionally set in Times Square. In this situation, who is the Incident Commander and who is in charge of the operations section? A) It is a unified command (FDNY and NYPD) and a unified operations section. B) The NYPD is the Incident Commander and there is a unified operations section. C) The FDNY is the Incident Commander since there is a fire and there is a unified operations section. D) The NYPD is the overall Incident Commander (command and operations) since their is a crime and possible terrorism.

Answer 391

ANSWER: B) The NYPD is the Incident Commander and there is a unified operations section. (AUC 276) UNIFIED COMMAND "UHEARD" U - Utility Emergencies H - Hazardous Materials (NYPD has TERRORISM/CRIME) E - Explosion A - Aviation R - Rail Incident D - Disasters (Hurricanes and other natural disasters)

Question 392

You are a new Lieutenant working a day tour in E99 and have just reported for duty. There are 5 FFs reporting for duty as follows: FF Hernandez ECC RSOT / FF Brady ECC / FF Gronkowski ECC / FF Bellichek / FF Edelman. E99 is a 4 FF Engine and has to send one firefighter, an ECC to E98. Which member should the Officer send on the detail? A) FF Hernandez B) FF Brady C) FF Gronkowski D) FF Bellichek

Answer 392

ANSWER: A) FF Hernandez (AUC 287 4.3.3) * If a unit is sending out a detail and there is a member working RSOT, that member shall be detailed. * An exception can be made when special training is needed to maintain the unit (ex: only LCC/ECC working, SSL or Decon Engine)

Question 393

Officers must understand the proper terminology to use when the unit is understaffed or has reduced staffing as this will trigger certain dispatch protocols. Which choice below is incorrect regarding this topic? A) A reduced staffed Ladder company responding to alarms shall transmit to the dispatcher "We are responding with 4 FFs". If the Officer is having difficulty getting this message to the dispatcher due to heavy radio traffic, the Officer shall transmit an "URGENT" to the dispatcher to ensure the message is heard. B) In a reduced staffed Ladder Company, upon arrival at an alarm, if the necessity exist, the Officer may reassign the position of one of the inside FFs to the outside team. The Officer shall inform the IC and units operating of the unstaffed position. The IC may need to adjust tactics to ensure that required duties of any unstaffed position are performed. C) An understaffed unit responding to alarms shall transmit to the dispatcher "We are responding understaffed" and state the number of members responding. If the Officer is having difficulty getting this message to the dispatcher due to heavy radio traffic, the Officer shall transmit an "URGENT" to the dispatcher to ensure the message is heard. D) When an understaffed unit is the only unit on the scene, they shall take a defensive position. However, if a known life hazard is discovered, and immediate action could prevent the loss of life, appropriate action (rescue activity) may be taken by an individual member. This applies only for a known life hazard, not for standard search and rescue activity.

Answer 393

ANSWER: B) In a reduced staffed Ladder Company, upon arrival at an alarm, if the necessity exist, the Officer may reassign the position of one of the inside FFs to the outside team. The Officer shall inform the IC and units operating of the unstaffed position. The IC may need to adjust tactics to ensure that required duties of any unstaffed position are performed. (INCORRECT) (AUC 287) * If the necessity exists, the Officer may reassign the position of the OUTSIDE FIREFIGHTER (OV to ROOF / ROOF to OV). * Officer shall inform the IC and units operating of the unstaffed position. * The IC may need to adjust tactics to ensure that required duties of any unstaffed positions are performed.

Question 394

During the Captain's Development class at the Rock, members were discussing different points regarding unit staffing guidelines. Which point made during the discussion is not entirely correct? A) Company Commanders shall ensure records are maintained in order to provide to the greatest extent practicable an equitable distribution of firefighter details to other quarters and an equitable distribution of firefighter awaiting reliefs. B) Units scheduled for training or other activities must leave quarters no later than 0915 hours on day tours and no later than 1815 hours on night tours. C) Units with only an Officer and a Chauffeur shall remain in service and respond to all runs received from the dispatcher. D) When an understaffed unit is the only unit on the scene, they shall take a defensive position such as hooking up to a hydrant, stretching a hoseline to outside the IDLH area, or providing medical treatment to victims.

Answer 394

ANSWER: C) Units with only an Officer and a Chauffeur shall remain in service and respond to all runs received from the dispatcher. (INCORRECT) (AUC 287 - 3.5) * These units will be placed OOS, however they will still respond to ALL VERBAL ALARMS

Question 395

Two members of a busy Brooklyn firehouse were discussing proper use and maintenance of their personal protective equipment. In which choice below was an incorrect statement made? A) Bunker pants shall never be worn without knee pads in place. It is prohibited to remove or alter any part of the bunker gear. B) Bunker gear shall be kept clean. Dirty Bunker Gear can absorb more heat, causing the degree of protection to become lessened, increase your risk of developing cancer, and may actually cause the material to ignite. C) The wearing of Bunker Pants Suspenders is an essential part of the Bunker Pants function in protecting the lower extremities and is mandatory. D) The hood shall be worn whether dry, damp or saturated with moisture. Wearing the hood in a hostile environment somewhat reduces your ability to note changing fire conditions in the immediate area, therefore, you must always leave the are immediately upon feeling any pain or discomfort through the hood.

Answer 395

ANSWER: D) The hood shall be worn whether dry, damp or saturated with moisture. Wearing the hood in a hostile environment somewhat reduces your ability to note changing fire conditions in the immediate area, therefore, you must always leave the are immediately upon feeling any pain or discomfort through the hood. (INCORRECT) (AUC 310 - 6.8) * UNLESS THE AREA CAN BE IMMEDIATELY COOLED BY A HOSELINE.

Question 396

There are 2 types of Bunker Gear cleaning, routine and advanced. Which choice is incorrect regarding these procedures? A) Advanced cleaning by the Department's private contractor is mandatory. Bunker Gear is scheduled to be picked up approximately once every 6 months for this type of cleaning. B) Sending Bunker Gear out for decontamination to the Decontamination Support Group (DSU) is considered advanced cleaning and this gear does not have to be sent out again for advanced cleaning until 6 months have passed. C) Routine cleaning can be accomplished by washing your gear and is recommended whenever your gear becomes contaminated at an operation in between advanced cleanings. D) When personal protective equipment or work duty uniforms are contaminated with large amounts of body fluids, Form EDR-1 shall be completed by the Officer. Disposable gloves and eye shield/face mask shall be worn by the member bagging the contaminated items.

Answer 396

ANSWER: B) Sending Bunker Gear out for decontamination to the Decontamination Support Group (DSU) is considered advanced cleaning and this gear does not have to be sent out again for advanced cleaning until 6 months have passed. (INCORRECT) (AUC 310 11.2) * This DOES NOT SATISFY ADVANCED CLEANING REQUIREMENTS. In this instance you would still have to send out your gear for advanced cleaning.

Question 397

All members should be familiar with procedures for routine cleaning by hand of Personal Protective Equipment (PPE). Which action below is not in accordance with Department Policy? A) Utilize the sink that is specificaly designated for cleaning protective clothing. Do not use a kitchen sink or other sink that is employed for personal products. B) Air dry bunker boots in a well ventilated area but not in direct sunlight. You may insert dry absorbent towels inside the footwear to help soak up and moisture. C) After cleaning, attempt to wring out the Bunker Coat and pants to prohibit retained moisture and reduce the chance of mold. D) A common technique for washing gloves is to put them on your hands and rub them together using a mild detergent. When using this technique, it is important to wear latex or nitrile EMS gloves under the FF gloves to protect your hands from exposure.

Answer 397

ANSWER: C) After cleaning, attempt to wring out the Bunker Coat and pants to prohibit retained moisture and reduce the chance of mold. (INCORRECT) (AUC 310 - Addendum 1 - 4) * DO NOT WRING OUT COAT AND PANTS * ALLOW THEM TO DRY NATURALLY

Question 398

The process of laundering bunker gear every 6 months (advanced cleaning) is essential to the safety of members. Which choice below is incorrect? A) It is imperative that gear be ready for pickup by 0700 hours. Once cleaned and inspected, the gear is returned to units, usually within 2 weeks. B) If a company is operating at a fire or emergency at the time of pickup or delivery, a relocated unit can supervise the pickup or delivery. If no unit has been relocated, the contractor will contact the Division. C) Boots will not be laundered; they shall be removed from the bunker pants. Member shall ensure that suspenders and hoods are included as part of the items sent for advanced cleaning. D) Pants shall be folded and placed inside the bunker coat, the clasps of the coat shall be fastened and the sleeves tied across the front of the coat. (Do not use cord or rope - tie the sleeves to one another)

Answer 398

ANSWER: A) It is imperative that gear be ready for pickup by 0700 hours. Once cleaned and inspected, the gear is returned to units, usually within 2 weeks. (INCORRECT) (AUC 310 - Addendum 2 - 2.1) * Usually within ONE WEEK.

Question 399

The safety of members is paramount. Of the following contamination-reduction policies, which is stated incorrectly? A) A supply of "No Bunker Gear" signs have been distributed to all units and shall be displayed at the entrances to all living areas that adjoin any area where the wearing of bunker gear is permitted (e.g apparatus floor) B) When transporting firefighting PPE in a private vehicle, such items shall be placed into the plastic bag supplied by the Department, and then into a gear bag, prior to being placed in the the passenger compartment or the trunk of the vehicle. C) If both bunker pants and the Personal Safety System (PSS) system have been contaminated, members shall bag both items in the same bag and send out as a complete unit for decontamination. D) When filling out the Equipment Decontamination Report (EDR-1), all members with the same contaminant shall be listed on a single form. Separate forms are required for different contaminants.

Answer 399

ANSWER: C) If both bunker pants and the Personal Safety System (PSS) system have been contaminated, members shall bag both items in the same bag and send out as a complete unit for decontamination. (INCORRECT) (AUC 310 - Addendum 3 - 4.1.4) * Bag items in SEPARATE BAGS.

Question 400

When a crime is reported to, or observed by members, each of the following policy guidelines should be adhered to except which? A) When responding to calls for assistance from crime victims, we must balance the need to assist the public with the equally compelling need to protect our members. The best way to accomplish both these ends is to adopt a "common sense" approach. B) If a civilian is being threatened with bodily harm or is being assaulted, members should never intervene, but notify the PD immediately. C) If a past crime has been reported or observed (e.g a thief has stolen a pocketbook and is running down the street) members shall provide first aid/assistance to the victim and notify the PD. D) If a crime is in progress involving an armed perpetrator is reported or observed, members must exercise utmost restraint and should not intervene. The PD must be notified immediately.

Answer 400

ANSWER: B) If a civilian is being threatened with bodily harm or is being assaulted, members should never intervene, but notify the PD immediately. (INCORRECT) (AUC 317 - Addendum 2) * MAY INTERVENE IF CONSISTENT WITH MEMBER'S PERSONAL SAFETY.

Question 401

Proper training of Probationary FFs is essential to maintaining a professional, effective FD. Of the choices below which one is incorrect? A) Probies are provided with monthly training modules, and at the end of each module is a 20 question quiz that must be completed. B) Probies get 3 attempts to pass each monthly quiz. If a passing mark is not attained after the 3rd attempt, the program will be temporarily locked and will require the company officer to contact the Probationary Firefighters Development Program Group via email to re-activate. C) Cross unit details of probationary FFs shall be initiated by the Company Commander, in consultation with the Battalion Training Coordinator, after the probie has completed 6 months of service in the firehouse. D) Cross unit details shall be for a period of 90 days. During this period, probationary FFs shall not be detailed out of the cross training unit unless absolutely necessary.

Answer 401

ANSWER: C) Cross unit details of probationary FFs shall be initiated by the Company Commander, in consultation with the Battalion Training Coordinator, after the probie has completed 6 months of service in the firehouse. (INCORRECT) (AUC 323 2.2) * NINETY (90) DAYS of service in the firehouse

Question 402

All of the following are appropriate entries to be made in the probationary FFs notebook except? A) The probie should enter and date, in blue or black ink, when subject matter has been read and/or video has been viewed. Each tour, an entry shall be made relating to lessons learned, experience gained, or information gathered from senior members during the tour. B) When the probie has successfully completed the quiz at the end of a module, he will print the completion receipt and staple it in their notebook. C) The Officer on Duty should initial and date, in red ink, when the subject matter has been reviewed or drilled on. D) The Company Commander should initial and date, in red ink, once a week.

Answer 402

ANSWER: D) The Company Commander should initial and date, in red ink, once a week. (INCORRECT) (AUC 323 2.4) * Company Commander initial and dates MONTHLY

Question 403

In order to ensure the proper development of probationary firefighters, officers should have members follow all guidelines below except? A) Members shall ensure a tool list from their current unit is attached to the first page of the notebook. B) Members should bring the training notebook to all drills held in quarters and make entries either during the drill or as soon as possible after the knowledge has been obtained. C) Members should review their training notebooks weekly to ensure that their questions are answered and that the new information is fresh in their minds. An entry should be made at the time of this review. D) Members should keep their training notebooks in their personal lockers when not in use.

Answer 403

ANSWER: D) Members should keep their training notebooks in their personal lockers when not in use. (INCORRECT) (AUC 323 - Addendum 2 1.3) * Kept in COMPANY OFFICE when not in use.

Question 404

Security and accountability are crucial while maintaining the probationary FF notebook. A knowledgeable company officer would recognize which point below to be incorrect? A) If a member's training notebook is lost or destroyed, the Company Commander must forward a report through the chain of command to the Chief of Operations within 90 days, outlining the details of the loss or destruction of the training notebook. B) If a member's training notebook is lost or destroyed, the notebook must be replaced at the member's expense. C) Probationary FFs shall document all leaves, other than regular leaves in their training notebook. An entry shall be made in the notebook listing the date the leave started and ended. D) Members, who have had their probationary period extended, shall continue to maintain their training notebooks for a period of time equal to their extended probation.

Answer 404

ANSWER: A) If a member's training notebook is lost or destroyed, the Company Commander must forward a report through the chain of command to the Chief of Operations within 90 days, outlining the details of the loss or destruction of the training notebook. (INCORRECT) (AUC 323 - Addendum 2 - 1.6) * Report through the chain of command to the ADMINISTRATIVE DIVISION within THIRTY (30) days.

Question 405

The minimum safe distance when operating at a Con-Edison substation with the voltage known to be between 15,000V-38,000V, can be found in which correct choice? A) 50 feet B) 25 feet C) 18 feet D) 10 feet

Answer 405

ANSWER: D) 10 feet (AUC 338 add 2 page-2) * 18 feet for 345,000V * 10 feet for 15,000V-38,000V

Question 406

Upon arrival to an aircraft emergency at Kennedy Airport, the IC orders you to find and hook up to the high pressure hydrant. This high pressure hydrant can be identified in which correct choice? A) Painted all yellow B) Painted all red C) Body is painted black with yellow top D) Body is painted black with silver top

Answer 406

ANSWER: A) Painted all yellow (AUC 325 add 2 sec 4.2.1) A - High pressure (160 psi) B - Doesn't exist at airports C - Intermediate pressure (90 psi) D - Low pressure (60 psi)

Question 407

Walking is an acceptable method of travel when detailed to another quarters , if that quarters is within how many blocks from the member's assigned quarters? A) 20 blocks B) 15 blocks C) 10 blocks D) 5 blocks

Answer 407

ANSWER: A) 20 blocks (AUC 287 sec 6.2) * If members are detailed to a quarters within ONE MILE, or approximately 20 blocks, of their assigned quarters, walking is considered an acceptable method of traveling to the detailed quarters. * Members who are detailed to another quarters more than one mile from their assigned quarters DO NOT HAVE THE OPTION OF WALKING. Such members have the option of using their private vehicles if they so choose.

Question 408

When operating at a school in which non-ambulatory students are attending without grade access, the most correct procedure for the first arriving officer can be found in which choice? A) Look for the removal windows designated for removal, which are painted yellow on the sills, inside and outside, with a sign attached outside, top window pane. This sign shall read "F.D. ACCESS" (Red lettering on a white background) B) Immediately contact the designated "person in charge" for each floor where non-ambulatory students are being held for action and/or relay to the officer in command upon their arrival C) Ensure that the exterior evacuation path of ambulatory students avoids the area in the vicinity adjacent to holding areas in which a TL is expected to be positioned. D) If conducting an interior removal, look for the sign on a door of the Holding Area(s) for the non-ambulatory students which reads "Holding Area(s)" (yellow lettering on a white background)

Answer 408

ANSWER: C) Ensure that the exterior evacuation path of ambulatory students avoids the area in the vicinity adjacent to holding areas in which a TL is expected to be positioned. (AUC 277 new as of 6/27/2019) A - Sills are painted Red. B - NOT EACH FLOOR....Contact the principle or person in charge regarding the status and/or location of ALL non-ambulatory students for action and/or relay to the officer in command upon their arrival. D - Red lettering on a white background.

Question 409

FDNY core competencies include all of the following except? A) Pre-hospital emergency medical care B) Area evacuation C) CBRN/Haz-Mat Life Safety Operations and mass decontamination D) Arson investigation (cause and origin)

Answer 409

ANSWER: B) Area evacuation (AUC 276 sec 2) FDNY CORE COMPETENCIES "FEMSLAM" F - Fire Suppression E - Evacuation of STRUCTURES (PD has areas) M - Medical Care in Pre-Hospital setting S - Search and Rescue L - Life Safety Operations at CBRN/HazMat A - Arson / Cause and Origin only (PD has major case) M - Mass Decontamination

Question 410

When it comes to staffing, choose the most correct statement. A) While awaiting details, units staffed with an officer and minimum two firefighters (at least one is a chauffeur), shall respond to all alarms. B) While responding with 4 FFs, the Ladder Company officer transmitted to the dispatcher that "we are responding understaffed" C) While responding with 4 FFs, which normally is staffed with 5 FFs, the Engine Company officer transmitted to the dispatcher that "we are responding with 4 FFs" D) When an understaffed unit is the only unit on scene, the unit can conduct a standard search as long a safety team is implemented

Answer 410

ANSWER: A) While awaiting details, units staffed with an officer and minimum two firefighters (at least one is a chauffeur), shall respond to all alarms. (AUC 287) B - "we responding with 4 FFs" C - "we are responding with 4 FFs" is only for units considered group 1 (Ladders, Rescues, Squads). D - Shall take a DEFENSIVE POSITION. However, if a KNOWN life hazard is discovered and immediate action could prevent the loss of life, appropriate action (rescue activity) may be taken by an individual member. This applies only for a known life hazard, NOT FOR STANDARD SEARCH AND RESCUE ACTIVITY.

Question 411

After the main body of fire was knocked down at a fire in a High-Rise Fire-Proof Multiple Dwelling, sequential ventilation for the upper residential floors of the fire building was needed. Which of the following actions taken during the process was INCORRECT? A) A fan was placed at the base of the evacuation stair on the exterior of the building with the exhaust hoses in place. B) The bulkhead was ordered opened over the attack and evacuation stairwells. C) The stairwell doors on both the attack and evacuation stairwells were opened on the fire floor. D) All other stairwell doors in the attack stairway are maintained closed.

Answer 411

ANSWER: B) The bulkhead was ordered opened over the attack and evacuation stairwells. (INCORRECT) (AUC 349 8.2) * Bulkhead should be opened ONLY IN THE ATTACK STAIRWELL.

Question 412

In which of the situations below is a written notification necessary to the Bureau of Investigation and Trials (BITS) correct? A) Capt. A receives notification that a member of his company has been arrested. B) Lt. B receives notification that a member on light duty has been signing out early and not attending Physical Therapy. C) Capt. C is alerted to a fight between two members of her company in the kitchen. D) Lt. D discovers members drinking in the backyard of the firehouse.

Answer 412

ANSWER: B) Lt. B receives notification that a member on light duty has been signing out early and not attending Physical Therapy. (AUC 268A – NOTIFICATION TO THE IG AND BITS 4.1.5) * Misuse or misappropriation of department time is a written notification to BITS. A – Arrest of employees is immediate notification to BITS C – Physical altercations among members are immediate notification to BITS D – On-duty incidents involving possession or use of drugs or alcohol.

Question 413

The members of Engine 256 and Ladder 171 were discussing the upcoming Buckeye Pipeline drill on the apparatus floor and the truck officer made the following statements. Which is the only one that was CORRECT? A) Engine and Truck companies responding from other than quarters on a second alarm for a pipeline leak must not return to quarters for the additional cans of foam. B) Department apparatus should not be brought closer than 200’ to a leak. This not only removes a source of ignition, but removes personnel from any vapor cloud present. C) Valves should always be closed as per duties required by instruction cards. Once assigned, under no circumstances shall units be diverted from these duties. D) Units that do not have the equipment which are assigned to a 9000 box for pipeline duties shall contact the dispatcher for the location of the nearest unit so equipped.

Answer 413

ANSWER: D) Units that do not have the equipment which are assigned to a 9000 box for pipeline duties shall contact the dispatcher for the location of the nearest unit so equipped. (AUC 149 – BUCKEYE PIPELINE 4.8.1) A – Engine companies ONLY out of quarters (Specifically states Engine Companies) B – Not closer than SIX HUNDRED FEET (600’) C - Valves should always be closed as per duties required by Instruction Cards, EXCEPT when a unit is required to protect life in a serious life threatening situation, and is thereby prevented from carrying out isolation duties.

Question 414

Confrontation arrived at several boxes during his S/A tour in Ladder Company 139 that tested the limits of interagency cooperation. According to the CIMS document, during which incident did the good captain INCORRECTLY believe the FD was the lead agency? A) Evacuation of exposures during a fire involving a row of frame buildings. B) Removal of patients who fell through the ice on a partially frozen pond. C) Preliminary and void searches at a building collapse. D) Decontamination operations at a pepper spray incident in a school.

Answer 414

ANSWER: B) Removal of patients who fell through the ice on a partially frozen pond. (INCORRECT) (AUC 276 – CIMS QUICK GUIDE) * Ice rescue is directed by NYPD (2.2) A – FD direct the evacuation of any structure. Directs operations connected with fire suppression. D – Directs life safety, patient care and decontamination operations at CBRN/Haz-Mat incidents.

Question 415

Which choice below is CORRECT as the contingency communications option when operating as part of a Rapid Response Vehicle Task Force? A) DARS Radio B) Dept. Radio C) 800 MHZ Radio D) Cell Phone

Answer 415

ANSWER: D) Cell Phone (AUC 159 ADDENDUM 8 – SECTION 4.1) "PACE" Primary Communication = 400 MHz DARS handheld radios Alternate Communication = 800 MHz when DARS is OOS Contingency Communication = Cell phones when DARS and 800 OOS Emergency Communications = Department Radio can be used if an emergency exists and direct communication with the Borough Dispatcher is necessary or other systems are inoperable.

Question 416

Ladder 141 is 1084 at a confirmed leak in the Iroquois Pipeline. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding department operations at this emergency? A) The primary consideration is the evacuation of the area involved. B) No valves should be opened or closed under any circumstances. C) Patrolling the pipeline to locate the leak will be performed by a Squad Company or SOC Support ladder. If not available, the IC shall special call one for their metering capabilities. D) Once the location of the leak is confirmed, fog lines shall be used to aid in the dissipation of the escaping gas.

Answer 416

ANSWER: A) The primary consideration is the evacuation of the area involved. (AUC 150 – IROQUOIS PIPELINE 7.2.1) B – FD Incident Commander in consultation with Con Ed/Iroquois personnel. (4.5) C – If Rescue, Squad, Soc Support not available, IC shall order AVAILABLE UNITS (7.2.3) D – Fog lines may HINDER the dissipation of the gas. (7.1.2)

Question 417

in a taxpayer which is now under control. As a vent support unit, you are tasked of coordinating the ventilation of the 100x100 building where CO readings have been holding in the 100 PPM area. Which statement regarding using fans for ventilation is CORRECT? A) Gasoline powered positive pressure fans will not significantly reduce the CO levels due to the emissions produced by the fans. B) In the area where the fire was controlled by sprinklers, the exhaust area should be as low as possible to minimize the smoke damage to the structure. C) A rule of thumb is the air inlet where the fan is located should be double the size of the exhaust opening. D) Fans blowing fresh exterior air into the structure have shown to be 75% more efficient than negative pressure ventilation.

Answer 417

ANSWER: D) Fans blowing fresh exterior air into the structure have shown to be 75% more efficient than negative pressure ventilation. (AUC 349 – POSITIVE PRESSURE FANS) A – If CO levels are 0-60 range, PPF will not significantly reduce those levels. The levels in the question are at 100. B – Exhaust area should be as high as possible C – OPPOSITE -- Exhaust opening should be double the size of the opening where the PPF is located

Question 418

Which of the following choices regarding the Electronic BF-4 is INCORRECT? A) Once all the members for the tour have reported for duty and are assigned riding positions, a final EBF-4 shall be submitted. This Final EBF-4 cannot be changed. B) Only members actually riding the apparatus of that unit shall be included on the unit EBF-4. Do not include members detailed to another unit for the tour. C) In the event a probationary firefighter is not identified by an PR notation, only the company commander can add the designation following the instructions provided. D) The officer shall ensure that each member has the correct radio and the spare radio designation on the EBF-4 is accurate.

Answer 418

ANSWER: A) Once all the members for the tour have reported for duty and are assigned riding positions, a final EBF-4 shall be submitted. This Final EBF-4 cannot be changed. (INCORRECT) (AUC 346 – ELECTRONIC RIDING LIST - EBF-4) * Final EBF-4 shall be updated ANYTIME DURING THE TOUR as necessary (e.g. ML, early relief, staff change, reduced staffing)

Question 419

Engine 85 is just going online as the latest addition to the department’s Fire Ice response matrix and the members are discussing operations. The following statements suggest that they have a lot of learning to do before their first operation. Which is the only CORRECT statement made by the members? A) When assigned on the initial alarm for a manhole fire, FireIce units will be designated by the prefix letter I. B) FireIce is effective on Class A, B, and C fires, however, it should not be used on any type of transformer fire. C) FireIce shall only be applied by trained units and only a chief officer can order the application of FireIce. D) Unless assigned as a FireIce unit, engine companies are not required to transport their associated apparatus while responding on an initial alarm for a manhole fire.

Answer 419

ANSWER: C) FireIce shall only be applied by trained units and only a chief officer can order the application of FireIce. (AUC 180 – ADDENDUM 2 – FIREICE DRY CHEM 7.2) A - FireIce units will be designated by the letter SUFFIX “I” on the response ticket when assigned to respond as a FireIce unit (e.g., E228I). 4.1 B – FireIce is NOT effective on Class B fires. 7.3 D - When assigned on the initial alarm for manhole fires, FireIce units SHALL respond with their associated apparatus which carries the product and associated equipment. 4.1

Question 420

During the 6x9 tour in the great Borough of the Bronx, the ladder company you are working in has just been activated as a Rapid Response Vehicle Task Force (RRV) due to a major blackout. As you turn out, you are trying to remember all the protocols of the RRV. Choose the incorrect protocol. A) The initial Task Force may consist of an officer serving as a TASK Force Leader, 3-6 FFs ,and 2 apparatus B) The second piece of the SOC Support Ladder that is equipped with an MDT, will be identified in the CADS system as RRV. For example, RRV027 C) When more than one task force is assembled, a Sector/ Group Supervisor shall be assigned D) The primary method of communications shall be the DARS radio

Answer 420

ANSWER: B) The second piece of the SOC Support Ladder that is equipped with an MDT, will be identified in the CADS system as RRV. For example, RRV027 (INCORRECT) (AUC 159 - Add 8...New as of 11/20/2019) B - "R" R027.....this is only for the 2nd pieces with an MDT. 2nd pieces without MDT will be called on dept. radio as SOC Support Ladder, for example SSL-50. D - Primary- DARS, Alternate- 800 MHZ, Emergency- Dept Radio......when DARS, 800 MHz, and Dept radio are OOS, then the contingency communication is the cell phone.

Question 421

Properly donned Personal Protective Equipment is an integral aspect of firefighter safety. It would be correct to state that? A) Bunker gear is compromised of 4 distinct layers: Inner Shell, Outer Shell, Moisture Barrier, and Thermal Layer. B) When decontaminating firefighting gloves it is important to wear latex or nitrile EMS gloves under the firefighting gloves. C) If a member had their gear laundered by the Decontamination Support Unit (DSU) during the time period between advanced cleanings, it is not mandatory for their gear to be sent out the next month for scheduled cleaning by the independent service provider (Minerva). D) If both a member's bunker pants and PSS need to be sent out for decontamination, they shall be placed together inside of two clear plastic bags. In order to avoid cross contamination the two items shall not be separated from each other.

Answer 421

ANSWER: B) When decontaminating firefighting gloves it is important to wear latex or nitrile EMS gloves under the firefighting gloves. (AUC 310) A - There are THREE (3) layers, no Inner Shell C - That does NOT satisfy NFPA 1851 D - Shall be SEPARATED and placed in separate bags. NOTE: a separate form (EDR-1) is required for each item and also for each type of contaminant.

Question 422

The FDNY is known for having a very close relationship with the people of the communities that it protects. Which of the following remarks made by a studious captain is correct? A) If there is reasonable cause to suspect that a child will suffer abuse at the hands of their guardian, members should request the response of an FDNY EMS supervisor and the police department. The ambulance crew will be responsible for filing the required report. B) If an officer receives a request for a firehouse visit to quarters on the unit's assigned BISP day, the officer will schedule the event to take place after the unit's return from inspection duties. Such visits shall not occur during scheduled inspections. C) Annual firehouse open house events will last for 3 hours and the units will remain in service during the event. D) Operation sidewalk is exempt from the 10-51 signal. During these events, the unit will remain in service by radio and respond at the discretion of the dispatcher. The unit will respond to 10-75 signals and greater alarms.

Answer 422

ANSWER: A) If there is reasonable cause to suspect that a child will suffer abuse at the hands of their guardian, members should request the response of an FDNY EMS supervisor and the police department. The ambulance crew will be responsible for filing the required report. (AUC 3 1.6 and AUC 4 3.1.5 / 3.2.2 / 3.3.6) A - AUC 3 / Not new information but recently moved. B - AUC 4 / No visits on BI days C - AUC 4 / TWO (2) hours D - AUC 4 / “Operation Sidewalk” will be canceled if a Signal 10-51 is transmitted.

Question 423

Fire officers operated properly at all except which one of the incidents below? A) When encountering suspicious activity and the member was unsure of conditions, they remained on scene and requested a BC to respond. B) The Engine Captain notified both the NYPD and BFI when he witnessed an act of terrorism. C) On the scene of a suspicious incident, and after being assured that there was no threat to members' safety, a new lieutenant transmitted his suspicions to the dispatcher over the department radio. D) Upon realizing the she and her unit were in a possible drug lab, she immediately stopped, did not touch anything, and retraced her steps and backed out of the area.

Answer 423

ANSWER: C) On the scene of a suspicious incident, and after being assured that there was no threat to members' safety, a new lieutenant transmitted his suspicions to the dispatcher over the department radio. (INCORRECT) (AUC 363 sec. 8.4) * Info should NOT be transmitted over dept. radio UNLESS threat to members safety

Question 424

All Unit Circular deals with Rehabilitation an Care procedures. Which of the following points is not in accord with that document? A) If a unit is assigned to rehabilitation, only members that entered an IDLH must take part in medical monitoring. Although operations in extreme weather may necessitate otherwise. B) The 5 gallon water jugs carried by Fire apparatus shall be checked and refilled with fresh water at each roll call. C) Members identified as patients and treated for CO exposure, weather or not transported to a hospital, shall include the medical data on an injury report. D) The Rehabilitation Manager Position will be staffed by a Battalion Chief or a Captain.

Answer 424

ANSWER: A) If a unit is assigned to rehabilitation, only members that entered an IDLH must take part in medical monitoring. Although operations in extreme weather may necessitate otherwise. (INCORRECT) (AUC 230) * If assigned to rehab, ALL FFs FROM THAT UNIT must take part in medical monitoring.

Question 425

As Certified First Responders, Firefighters may record and transmit a patients personal health information. Which choice below is in violation of the FDNY policy regarding the proper handling of this data? A) FDNY members shall comply with requests for a patient's personal health information, from FD legal affairs, BITS, Bureau of ops. Office of medical Affairs, and from the FD IG. B) The number of injured patients but not the types of injuries may be included in fire-incident reports or other routine memoranda. C) Patients wishing to file a complaint concerning a breach of confidentiality of their protected health info with the fire department should be advised to put their complaint into writing or to call the confidential reporting hotline. D) Requests received for ePCRs from the public or a government agency should be referred to the HIPPA privacy officer.

Answer 425

ANSWER: B) The number of injured patients but not the types of injuries may be included in fire-incident reports or other routine memoranda. (INCORRECT) (AUC 355 - 7.5) * Can include # of patients AND TYPES OF INJURIES, but not their names, or other info that would identify them.

Question 426

When supplying water to the PA/ARFF crash trucks at Kennedy airport. FDNY ECCs should not exceed _____psi discharge pressure. Choose the proper pressure below. A) 80 B) 90 C) 160 D) 60

Answer 426

ANSWER: A) 80 (AUC 325, ADD 2, Kennedy Airport) * PA/ARFF crash trucks only carry 200 feet of 1-3/4" hose.

Question 427

When encountering suspicious activity, members need to act proactively. Which of the following choices below is proper FDNY protocol, when dealing with these types of incidents? A) In an effort to maintain situational integrity, Suspicious Activity Reporting (SAR) forms shall not be carried on FDNY apparatus. B) Companies shall not make any journal entries about these incidents. C) In the event a member discovers any of the suspicious activity indicators, it should be reported immediately upon return to quarters by going to the reporting system on Diamond Plate. D) After encountering suspicious activity, the company officer shall fill out the SAR form and ensure the proper storage of the original copy is maintained at quarters.

Answer 427

ANSWER: C) In the event a member discovers any of the suspicious activity indicators, it should be reported immediately upon return to quarters by going to the reporting system on Diamond Plate. (AUC 363, sec. 4.6) A - SAR MUST BE CARRIED ON APPARATUS B - MUST make entry but NO PARTICULARS D - Companies will NOT keep ORIGINAL COPIES at quarters.

Question 428

You have just arrive 1st due to a Con-Edison substation. You exit the apparatus and notice smoke emanating from the substation. You employ the following tactics and take the following precautions. Choose the incorrect tactic/precaution. A) Forced entry to retrieve information from the "Lockbox" located inside the substation B) Avoid bringing metal tools into substation and do not allow any tools to project above your shoulder C) Set up handlines to protect exposed buildings D) Stretched a 3 1/2 supply line to the sprinkler Siamese for the electrical transformers, however, you did not charge the line, unless requested to do so by Con-Ed white hat

Answer 428

ANSWER: A) Forced entry to retrieve information from the "Lockbox" located inside the substation. (INCORRECT) (AUC 338 add 2 - 4.1) * Lockbox is inside the substation, BUT WE DO NOT FORCE ENTRY. * Respond to muster site to meet con-ed white hat. * Con-ed white hat will retrieve information from the Lockbox located inside the substation.

Question 429

The correct color of the First Responder's Bridge Manual/Field Guide can be found in which choice? A) Red B) White C) Blue D) Green

Answer 429

ANSWER: D) Green (AUC 344) * Company Commanders shall ensure the Field Guides are accounted for and stored in a secure location on the apparatus with the Emergency Response Guidebook for Hazardous Material Incidents (Orange Book). Report lost or stolen manuals forthwith to the PTSU by phone and email PTSU. Forward a FS-112.

Question 430

Any building which has a Pre-Incident Guideline must be included in the CIDS program. The correct FD designation for the Pre-Incident Guideline that must be included at the beginning of the transmitted data section (CIDS) can be found in which choice? A) PIG B) PG C) PI D) IG

Answer 430

ANSWER: B) PG (AUC 345 sec 3.1) * Pre-Incident Guidelines shall be prepared by the administrative company and emailed to the administrative Battalion for verification and approval as a candidate for a Pre-Incident Guideline. * Once approved, company shall establish two Pre-Incident Guideline binders for their respective administrative as well as necessary response districts. * One binder shall be carried in an accessible location on the apparatus and the other shall be kept in the company office for necessary reference.

Question 431

While working in a Ventilation Support Unit, you gave safety tips when using the Positive Pressure Fans (PPF). From the following tips you gave, you were incorrect in which choice? A) PPF can be transported only when dialed down to idle B) PPF should be lifted by two members whenever the fans need to come off the ground C) PPF shall never be fueled inside a structure D) PPF should be inspected and started daily at the beginning of the 9x6 tour, and weekly at MUD. Fans shall be started and allowed to run at full RPM for 5 minutes

Answer 431

ANSWER: A) PPF can be transported only when dialed down to idle. (INCORRECT) (AUC 349) * The PPF shall NEVER be transported while in operation

Question 432

Company Commanders are responsible to oversee the development of probationary firefighters. A key component of this development are the training modules that probationary firefighters are required to complete. Which description of this program mentioned is incorrect? A) Probationary firefighters are provided with weekly training modules consisting of reading assignments and training videos that emphasize the fundamentals of firefighting. B) At the end of each training module is a 20 question quiz that must be completed. C) Probationary firefighters get 3 attempts to pass each quiz. D) If a passing mark is not attained within the required number of attempts, the program will be temporarily locked and will require the company officer to contact the Probationary Firefighters Development Program Group via email.

Answer 432

ANSWER: A) Probationary firefighters are provided with weekly training modules consisting of reading assignments and training videos that emphasize the fundamentals of firefighting. (INCORRECT) (AUC 323 2.1) * Probationary firefighters are provided with MONTHLY training modules consisting of reading assignments and training videos that emphasize the fundamentals of firefighting. NOTE: THERE IS NO MORE READING SCHEDULE BUT SECTION 2.2 STATES COMPANY COMMANDERS SHOULD CONTINUE TO ASSIGN ADDITIONAL READING ASSIGNMENTS THAT EMPHASIZE FAMILIARIZATION OF THEIR UNIT TYPE, APPARATUS, AND PREDOMINANT BUILDING CONSTRUCTION FOR THAT COMPANY’S RESPONSE AREA.

Question 433

As the Captain of Engine 99, you are ensuring all tasks have been correctly completed regarding Probationary Firefighter Collins. Which of the following was completed incorrectly? A) Probationary Firefighter Collins assisted on Housewatch for 60 days, before performing regular Housewatch duties. B) Probationary Firefighter Collins was not detailed for her first 6 months. C) Probationary Firefighter Collins was evaluated at the end of her 9th, 13th and 17th months. D) Probationary Firefighter Collins completed a cross-training detail for 90 days, after 90 days in the firehouse.

Answer 433

ANSWER: A) Probationary Firefighter Collins assisted on Housewatch for 60 days, before performing regular Housewatch duties. (AUC 323 Add 1) * Probationary Firefighter Collins assisted on Housewatch for 90 DAYS, before performing regular Housewatch duties.

Question 434

Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding members encountering suspicious activity while on duty? A) If a member suspects an individual is engaging in terrorist activity; they should not confront that individual. B) If a member witnesses an act which is by itself criminal (such as theft indicative of terrorist activity, tampering or vandalism) they should immediately notify NYPD. C) If a member witnesses an act of terrorism, implement FDNY standard operating procedures to ensure member safety and life-saving measures to the public; they must then notify NYPD and the Bureau of Fire Investigation (BFI) as soon as possible. D) If a member is unsure of conditions, they should immediately return to quarters and file a Suspicious Activity Report.

Answer 434

ANSWER: D) If a member is unsure of conditions, they should immediately return to quarters and file a Suspicious Activity Report. (INCORRECT) (AUC 363 8.1-8.4) * If a member is unsure of conditions, they should remain on scene and REQUEST A BATTALION CHIEF to respond.

Question 435

Of the following choices, which is incorrect regarding construction in Fire Department facilities? A) The scope of the project is developed by the Assistant Commissioner of Facilities and their designees. The Commanding Officers of the affected units will be consulted, but Facility staff has final determination with regard to construction projects in FD facilities. B) All requests from the unit for additional work must be submitted in writing through the chain of command to the Fire Commissioner. C) An FDNY Project Manager will be assigned to each project and will be the point of contact for the Officers of the affected unit(s). Members should not contact the project Engineers, Contractors or Architects directly. D) Members should not direct a contractor to stop working. The only exception is in the event of an imminent health or safety issue.

Answer 435

ANSWER: B) All requests from the unit for additional work must be submitted in writing through the chain of command to the Fire Commissioner. (INCORRECT) (AUC 358 2.1-2.5) * All requests from the unit for additional work must be submitted in writing through the chain of command to the ASSISTANT COMMISSIONER OF FACILITIES. C Note: All communication from the field regarding the project should be through the Officer/Supervisor to the FDNY Project Manager. D Note: Any such occurrence must be followed by an immediate notification to the Assistant Commissioner of Facilities or their designee.

Question 436

A newly promoted Captain should know which choice below to contain incorrect information regarding the EBF-4? A) Chief and Company Officers shall submit a Preliminary EBF-4 prior to the start of the tour and a Final EBF-4 at the start of the tour. B) A “Preliminary” EBF-4 is submitted when a unit is awaiting further staffing for the tour. Members awaiting relief shall be included on the Preliminary EBF-4 pending arrival of details. C) A “Final” EBF-4 is submitted when all members for the tour have reported for duty and were assigned riding positions. D) The Final EBF-4 shall be updated anytime during the tour as necessary (e.g., ML during tour, early relief, staffing change, reduced staffing).

Answer 436

ANSWER: A) Chief and Company Officers shall submit a Preliminary EBF-4 prior to the start of the tour and a Final EBF-4 at the start of the tour. (INCORRECT) (AUC 346 2.2-2.3) * Chief and Company Officers shall submit a Preliminary OR Final EBF-4 AT THE START of each tour. B Note: The EBF-4 shall be updated after EACH detail arrives.

Question 437

Two Captains discussing the proper use and submission of Pre-Incident Guideline forms agreed on which incorrect statement below? A) Each Company shall establish two Pre-Incident Guideline binders for their respective administrative, as well as necessary response, districts. One binder shall be carried in an accessible location on the apparatus and the other shall be kept in the company office for necessary reference. B) Pre-Incident Guidelines shall be prepared by the administrative company and emailed to the administrative Battalion for verification and approval as a candidate for a Pre-Incident Guideline. C) After completing the form online, save a copy of the file renaming it using the letters “PG” followed by the administrative unit. The file shall be attached to an email and sent to the administrative Battalion. D) Any building which has a Pre-Incident Guideline must be included in the CIDS program. The FD designation “PG” must be included at the beginning of the transmitted data section.

Answer 437

ANSWER: C) After completing the form online, save a copy of the file renaming it using the letters “PG” followed by the administrative unit. The file shall be attached to an email and sent to the administrative Battalion. (INCORRECT) (AUC 345 2.1, 3.1, 4.1) * After completing the form online, save a copy of the file renaming it using the letters “PG” followed by either the BUILDING ADDRESS or the BUILDING ADDRESS AND NAME if applicable. The file shall be attached to an email and sent to the administrative Battalion. C Note: Subject line of the email shall be formatted to contain the letters “PG” followed by either the building address or the building address and name if applicable. D Note: The company officer, in consultation with the administrative Battalion Chief, must decide what portion of the vital information from the PG will be included in the transmitted data section of the CIDS message.

Question 438

All Captains should be familiar with proper use and maintenance of the First Responder’s Bridge/Tunnel Manual - Field Guide. Which of the following choices is most incorrect? A) Refer to the Field Guide to identify affected structural members. B) Transmit an incident assessment to the Dispatcher using the “Size-Up” section of the Field Guide. C) Company Commanders shall ensure the Field Guides are accounted for and stored in a secure location on the apparatus with the Risk Management/Executive Guide (Red Book). D) Report lost or stolen manuals forthwith to the PTSU by telephone notification, email to PTSU@fdny.nyc.gov, and forward FS-112 lost property report.

Answer 438

ANSWER: C) Company Commanders shall ensure the Field Guides are accounted for and stored in a secure location on the apparatus with the Risk Management/Executive Guide (Red Book). (AUC 344 1.4) * Company Commanders shall ensure the Field Guides are accounted for and stored in a secure location on the apparatus with the EMERGENCY RESPONSE GUIDEBOOK for Hazardous Material Incidents (ORANGE Book).

Question 439

Members are to be familiar with the Office of Public Information (OPI) and how this office can assist in newsworthy incidents. Of the following choices, which is incorrect? A) Any member who is involved in a newsworthy incident is encouraged to report such incident to the Office of Public Information via the chain of command, by completing the Newsworthy Item Report and faxing it to the Office of Public Information. B) Any member the rank of Lieutenant or above may special call the Public Information Officer to the scene of an operation that is deemed newsworthy. C) An event may be deemed to be newsworthy if it reflects on the overall mission of the Fire Department. D) Members of the Department are encouraged to contact the Press Office whenever they have knowledge of a newsworthy event involving the Department or any of our members. This includes (but is not limited to) activities on or off duty.

Answer 439

ANSWER: B) Any member the rank of Lieutenant or above may special call the Public Information Officer to the scene of an operation that is deemed newsworthy. (INCORRECT) (AUC 332 5.1, 8.3, 8.4) * ANY MEMBER who is involved in a newsworthy incident is encouraged to report such incident to the Office of Public Information, via the chain of command * A Public Information Officer is available for special call by BATTALION or DEPUTY CHIEFS should they require the assistance of a PIO. B Note: Examples include: Any out of the ordinary event, which reflects positively on a member of the Department; Any response involving the preservation of life involving application of medical, rescue or other firefighting skills; Human interest stories. C Note: “Immediate” notification to the Press Office is imperative in order for newsworthy events to be publicized in a timely fashion.

Question 440

Cell sites can cause considerable delay in Department operations. Which of the following choices should a newly promoted Captain recognize to be correct? A) When a cell site is discovered the administrative company must do an on site inspection and evaluate the cell site. The administrative company should complete and submit a CIDS card. B) When a cell site is discovered, the administrative company must notify the dispatcher. C) The CIDS card should specify the location of the cell site room, backup power supply location, antenna locations and emergency telephone number of the electric utility company. D) Cell site antennas may not extend higher than six feet above the height of the roof or parapet on the roof, or three feet above any penthouse or bulkhead, if placed on such penthouse or bulkhead.

Answer 440

ANSWER: A) When a cell site is discovered the administrative company must do an on site inspection and evaluate the cell site. The administrative company should complete and submit a CIDS card. (AUC 331 3.2-4.3) B - When a cell site is discovered, the administrative company must notify their BATTALION, DIVISION AND ALL FIRST ALARM UNITS via telephone followed by written memo. C - The CIDS card should specify the location of the cell site room, backup power supply location, shut-offs, and emergency telephone number of the CELL PHONE COMPANY. D - Cell site antennas may not extend higher than SIX FEET above the height of the roof or parapet on the roof, or SIX FEET above any penthouse or bulkhead, if placed on such penthouse or bulkhead. Note: Regard “eCIDS” and “CIDS” as one and the same.

Question 441

In a Single Command structure, the IC is solely responsible within the confines of his or her authority for establishing incident management objectives and strategies. From the list below, choose the incident type where the FDNY does not have authority to implement objectives and strategies? A) Boat in distress (if first to arrive) B) Confined Space Rescue C) Elevator Incident or Emergency D) Ice Rescue

Answer 441

ANSWER: D) Ice Rescue (INCORRECT) (AUC 276 sec 5.1) * Water/Ice Rescue is solely NYPD. ``` FDNY: "ABCCDEEF" A - Auto extrication (first to arrive) B - Boat in Distress (first to arrive) C - Confined Space Rescue C - Collapse of structure D - Downed Tree E - Elevator Incident or Emergency E - Entrapment/Impalement F - Fire ``` Also: NYPD is the IC for CBRN Haz-Mat incidents where crime or terrorism is suspected or has occurred. * As soon as crime or terrorism is ruled out, then it becomes a Unified Command between NYPD and FDNY.

Question 442

Your first run out of FLSTP is to a person exhibiting bizarre behavior at the intersection of Allerton ave and Eastchester rd in the Pelham Gardens section of the Bronx. Upon arrival, you take several actions. Choose the incorrect action you took. A) Encountering possibly emotionally disturbed persons who are exhibiting bizarre behavior, you immediately notified the dispatcher to request 10-48 for "Possible EDP." B) Where persons are threatening to jump from a window ledge, bridge, etc, your primary concern shall be for the safety of persons using sidewalks, streets, and roadways below C) No overt action shall be taken by any member that might cause the person to carry out the suicide threat D) No attempts to forcibly restrain the person shall be made unless there is a direct threat harm to members of the Department E) Absent clear indications of fire or other imminent danger of a type which mandates immediate FD actions, forcible entry will be delayed until arrival of police personnel, and then done only at police request

Answer 442

ANSWER: A) Encountering possibly emotionally disturbed persons who are exhibiting bizarre behavior, you immediately notified the dispatcher to request 10-48 for "Possible EDP." (INCORRECT) (AUC 271 / Comm 8 pg 13) * 10-47 NOT 10-48 * 10-47 Police assistance is needed for crowd or traffic control, security, apprehension, etc. * 10-48 FFs are being harmed and Police assistance is needed immediately .

Question 443

Often at times, ladder companies respond to a variety of emergencies, including fallen trees. From the following choices, select the most correct procedure when a tree has fallen into electrical power lines. A) Members of TL-100 set up a portable ladder against the tree and used the chain saw to start the cutting process B) After the power company rendered the tree safe to be cut, members of TL-100 used the TL bucket in-conjunction with the chain saw and made sure the chain saw was started inside the basket before starting the cutting process. C) Since the tree has fallen into electrical power lines, before cutting TL-100 verified with the utility company that power has been removed then proceeded to cut using the chain saw in-conjunction with the basket D) When operating the chain saw from TL-100's basket, the member operating the chain saw was permitted to put one foot outside the bucket for stability

Answer 443

ANSWER: B) After the power company rendered the tree safe to be cut, members of TL-100 used the TL bucket in-conjunction with the chain saw and made sure the chain saw was started inside the basket before starting the cutting process. (AUC 301 - 5.8.1) A - Chain saw is not permitted to be operated from a ladder. It may be operated from a TL. C - Trees can conduct electricity. No cutting or moving is to be attempted until the utility company certifies that power has been removed AND wires have been disengaged from the trees. D - Member is to keep BOTH feet within the basket when using the chainsaw.

Question 444

There are two types of bunker gear cleaning; routine and advanced. The advanced cleaning is done by an independent contractor approximately every six months for each company. When it comes to the advanced cleaning, the most correct procedure can be found in which choice? A) If a member is currently on a long term detail to a different unit, that member is responsible for returning his/her gear to their assigned unit for the scheduled cleaning B) If a member does not have an alternate set of clean bunker gear due to required laundering, member can obtain loaner gear by contacting Special Operation Command (SOC) C) Officer on duty on the night tour proceeding pickup shall review the form provided via email by the Quartermaster. One copy is to be given to the cleaning contractor and the other copy is to be displayed in the company office for the benefit of covering officers, relocated units, etc. D) If a company is operating at a fire or emergency at the time of pickup or delivery, a relocated company cannot supervise pickup or delivery. In this case, the cleaning contractor will pickup or drop off the next business day

Answer 444

ANSWER: C) Officer on duty on the night tour proceeding pickup shall review the form provided via email by the Quartermaster. One copy is to be given to the cleaning contractor and the other copy is to be displayed in the company office for the benefit of covering officers, relocated units, etc. (AUC 310 add 2 / 3.6) A - If a member is currently on a long term detail to a different unit his/her gear will be cleaned with the gear of the UNIT TO WHICH THE MEMBER IS DETAILED. The member shall be added to that units cleaning roster. B - Contact Haz-Mat Decontamination Support Unit (DSU) D - Relocated unit CAN supervise pickup or delivery.

Question 445

New York City Transit has made a number of things available to us for use during underground operations. Which choice below regarding provided firefighting equipment is INCORRECT? A) All under river tubes of the NYC Transit System are equipped with wet standpipe systems. B) Gate valves with Fire Department threads are located at approximately 200’ intervals. C) The standpipes are equipped with 2½ hose and adjustable fog and straight stream nozzles. D) Dry Chemical extinguishers at the power removal boxes are approximately 600’ apart.

Answer 445

ANSWER: C) The standpipes are equipped with 2½ hose and adjustable fog and straight stream nozzles. (AUC 207) * The standpipes are equipped with 1½ hose and adjustable fog and straight stream nozzles. A,B,D are correct as written. Just note the difference in terminology between the AUC and Under River Rail Operations. B - AUC 207 says APPROXIMATELY 200’ intervals / Under River says EVERY 200’ feet. – Gate Valves are standpipe connections, not to be confused with section valves which are 600’ apart.

Question 446

The FDNY has the capability to place fire personnel on the roof of high-rise buildings, otherwise inaccessible due to fire conditions for the purpose of ventilation and search. A High Rise Roof Chief (HRRC) and designated High Rise Roof Team (HRRT) will be used to staff these positions. When dispatched, the HRRT will place all of the following tools into the High Rise Roof Kit except? A) 6 SCBA with 1-hour cylinder B) 1 Bolt Cutter C) 2 Halligans/2 Axes D) 2 6' Halligan Hooks E) 2 Search Ropes

Answer 446

ANSWER: D) 2 6' Halligan Hooks (INCORRECT) (AUC 269 add 1 sec 3.3) "BRASH 11222" B - 1 Bolt Cutter R - 1 Rabbit Tool A - 2 Axes S - 2 Search Ropes H - 2 Halligans * Also bring 6 SCBAs w/ 1 hour cylinders * NO HOOKS * These bagged tools shall be the only tools brought into the helicopter. Tools shall be stowed in the helicopter as directed by the NYPD Helicopter Crew Chief

Question 447

1620 Keys are widely used for all sorts of fire department operations. NYC Transit has adopted the use to support our operations. Which choice below is INCORRECT regarding 1620 key usage in NYC Transit? A) Emergency Evacuation Device locks are accessible via 1620 key. B) Escalator and Elevator Machinery rooms are accessible via 1620 key C) High Exit Entry Turnstiles (HEET) are accessible via 1620 key. D) Sound Powered Phone Outlets are accessible via 1620 key.

Answer 447

ANSWER: A) Emergency Evacuation Device locks are accessible via 1620 key. (INCORRECT) (AUC 207 ADDENDUMS) * Metal mounting brackets are provided at each location and are secured with a corrosion resistant padlock. Keys for EED’s can be obtained at every token booth.

Question 448

As the first arriving officer to a Brush Fire, the only correct tactic you considered can be found in which choice? A) Initial attack operations should concentrate on hooking up to a hydrant to establish a positive water source B) Consider wetting down unburned areas ahead of the fire. C) Always attack the brush fire from the front D) Attack the brush fire from the rear and attempt to narrow its spread eventually heading it off

Answer 448

ANSWER: B) Consider wetting down unburned areas ahead of the fire. (AUC 151 Brush Fire Operations - 5.4.4) A - Avoid hooking up to hydrants, except to protect exposures....5.4.2 C - In general, avoid attacking from or operating in front of the fire. If necessary to operate in front of the fire (only to protect life), sufficient charged lines must be in place and capable of protecting operating forces. D - Attack the brush fire from the FLANKS and attempt to narrow its spread eventually heading it off

Question 449

The most correct description/duties of the FireIce Unit can be found in which choice? A) The FireIce units will be designated by the letter prefix "I" on the response ticket when assigned as a FireIce unit B) The FireIce system is supplied by a 2 1/2" handline C) FireIce is not effective on class B fires. D) The member operating the nozzle should commence operations a safe standoff distance of 25'. After establishing an adequate gel solution, and as conditions allow, the nozzle team may advance toward the manhole while maintaining a minimum safe distance of 15' from the manhole opening

Answer 449

ANSWER: C) FireIce is not effective on class B fires. (AUC 180 add 2) * NOT intended for use at any type of transformer fire A - SUFFIX (ex: E326I) B - Supplied by 1 3/4" D - The member operating the nozzle should commence operations a safe standoff distance of FIFTY FEET (50'). After establishing an adequate gel solution, and as conditions allow, the nozzle team may advance toward the manhole while maintaining a minimum safe distance of TWENTY FIVE (25') from the manhole opening. Also: direct the stream of FireIce solution to fall approximately one foot in front of the manhole opening, and allow the product to flow into the manhole opening. Remember: FireIce is a dry-chemical extinguishing agent that is intended for use at manhole fires (class C fires) involving electrical cables. NOT TRANSFORMERS.

Question 450

While out conducting their semi-annual subway inspections, Ladder 199 members discovered a dry standpipe riser and alerted the officer. Which action taken by the officer was CORRECT following this discovery? A) The officer made an immediate notification to PTSU via Email. B) The officer made an immediate notification to PTSU via telephone. C) The officer forwarded an A-8 Referral to the Public Transportation Safety Unit, Bureau of Operations. D) The officer made no notification because Subway Standpipes are dry systems.

Answer 450

ANSWER: D) The officer made no notification because Subway Standpipes are dry systems. (AUC 207 ADDENDUM 10 - 5.1) * Know the difference between subway standpipes and Under River Standpipes. * Subway standpipes are dry systems. * Under River Systems are wet. A – Email is not available as an option. Fax is for an immediate notification B and C are correct as written for an out of service system

Question 451

After a very busy day tour in a great Engine Company, you reflected on the runs you had, which included a response to a Buckeye pipeline leak, a Brush fire, and an Iroquois pipeline leak. Of the runs listed below, choose the one you operated correctly at. A) While shutting down the Buckeye pipeline manual valve found on the shipper's line located at the Long Island City terminal, you ensured your FFs to turn the valve 84 half turns (clockwise) B) You received a ticket to respond on the 2nd alarm to the Buckeye pipeline leak while shopping for the meal and returned to quarters to pick up the required additional cans of foam C) On your way to the Iroquois pipeline leak, you remember that the pipeline carries natural gas that under pressure in a gaseous state, its non-toxic, its lighter than air, it can be an asphyxiant as it displaces oxygen, and its combustible in concentrations from approximately 5-15 percent. D) You were the first arriving engine company to a fast moving brush fire and hooked up to a hydrant, and concentrated on mobility for the initial attack

Answer 451

ANSWER: C) On your way to the Iroquois pipeline leak, you remember that the pipeline carries natural gas that under pressure in a gaseous state, its non-toxic, its lighter than air, it can be an asphyxiant as it displaces oxygen, and its combustible in concentrations from approximately 5-15 percent. (AUC 149/150/151) A - 24 full turns (48 half turns) for shippers lines.....42 full turns (84 half turns) for manual valves (AUC 149 2.3.2) B - Additional cans of foam are required if responding from quarters. Engine companies out of quarters receiving a notification to respond to a 2nd alarm for a pipeline leak must NOT RETURN TO QUARTERS for the additional cans of foam (AUC 149 sec 4.12) C - And it will naturally disperse into the atmosphere. Its odorless and colorless in its natural state, however mercaptan is added to give the gas an odor for detection purposes (AUC 150 sec 1.1) D - If exposures are involved, then you would hook up to a hydrant and protect exposures (AUC 151 sec 5.4.2)

Question 452

There are many companies in the FDNY designated as a "Water Rescue Company" that may be called upon to rescue numerous stranded civilians who become trapped due to rising, but non-flowing, flood waters, referred to as still water. From the choices listed below, choose the only correct statement made about these companies. A) The 14' boat issued to these companies will not be issued oars or a motor. B) When the Water Rescue Company is a Ladder Company, an additional Ladder Company will be dispatched for assistance. C) When the Water Rescue Company is a Engine Company, a Ladder Company will be dispatched for assistance D) The maximum number of persons that a Flat Bottom Boat can hold is 4

Answer 452

ANSWER: A) The 14' boat issued to these companies will not be issued oars or a motor. (AUC 159 add 7) * NO OARS NO MOTOR....The intent is for members to walk the boat into the flooded areas where the depth of water permits. B - When the Water Rescue Company is a Ladder Company, an ENGINE COMPANY will be dispatched to transport the Flat Bottom Boat. C - When the Water Rescue Company is an Engine Company they will transport the Flat Bottom Boat, and a neighboring ENGINE COMPANY will be dispatched to assist in operations. D - Maximum is THREE (3)

Question 453

The Rapid Response Vehicle (RRV) that is equipped with a MDT, will be identified in the CADS system in which correct choice? A) RRV027 B) R027 C) R27 D) RRV27

Answer 453

ANSWER: B) R027 (AUC 159 add 8 sec 3) * 4 door/4 wheel drive apparatus equipped with a MDT will be identified in the CADS system as follows: "R" (example "R027") * 2 door/2 wheel drive apparatus without a MDT will be designated by the associated SOC Support Ladder Company...example Ladder 126 2nd piece will be designated "SSL-126" when called over the Department radio

Question 454

Members operating at subway emergencies should be aware of the location of the Emergency Evacuation Devices. Which of the following locations is described CORRECTLY? A)An EED is located at the base of the emergency exit, at only one end of each under river tunnel. B) An EED is located at the base of the stairs leading to the platform at elevated stations. C) An EED is located at the first blue light location north of the Southbound platform. D) An EED is located near the Crew Quarters at the Tottenville Train Yard.

Answer 454

ANSWER: D) An EED is located near the Crew Quarters at the Tottenville Train Yard. (AUC 207 ADDENDUM 11 – EED 3.5) A – at the base of the emergency exit at BOTH ends of each under river tunnel. (3.3) B – In the area of the full-time TOKEN BOOTH at elevated stations. (3.2) C – First blue light SOUTH of the southbound platform at underground and grade level stations.

Question 455

With a major Hurricane 12 hours away from striking the NYC area, you made sure the "Go-Bag" is ready to be moved. Of the choices listed below, select the item incorrectly placed into the "Go-Bag." A) Company telephone numbers and notification cards B) Company Journal C) Charger tools, radios, batteries D) Full gas cans and spare chainsaw equipment

Answer 455

ANSWER: B) Company Journal (INCORRECT) (AUC 159 - Add 3 - 24 hour Company Checklist) * Company Journal is NOT listed

Question 456

# Choose the incorrect procedure when operating at a Manhole fire. A) Members shall attempt to remove vehicles located in the danger area before they become involved B) Inspect electrical services in surrounding buildings. Units should use carbon monoxide meters when performing these inspections C) Precautionary lines shall be stretched as necessary. Units should not operate into manholes unless requested by a Con Edison employee at the scene D) If requested to place water into a manhole, do not direct the stream directly into the manhole. Instead, let water flow or pour into manhole. Use a fog nozzle to reduce or prevent any shock hazard

Answer 456

ANSWER: A) Members shall attempt to remove vehicles located in the danger area before they become involved. (INCORRECT) (AUC 180 sec 3) * Members shall NOT attempt to move vehicles located in the danger area

Question 457

Company officers shall use the Hydrant Pressure Chart to monitor and record the psi of the hydrant nearest quarters during the first full week in which correct month? A) May B) June C) July D) August

Answer 457

ANSWER: A) May (AUC 205 add 2) * The Chart shall be posted at the HW area throughout the summer season

Question 458

Ladder Company 199 arrives 1st due at a box in a subway station and observes smoke issuing from street gratings. As they enter the station, the officer notices an 8x8 black pictorial on a yellow background of a person walking on stairs. Which choice is CORRECT about the meaning of the sticker? A) This station has no elevators leading to the mezzanine or down to the platform area. B) This station has only one means of egress through which passengers can exit from the station platform to the street. C) This station has multiple levels down to station platforms and egress will be difficult during emergency operations. D) This station is undergoing a construction project and staircases are subject to closure during work hours.

Answer 458

ANSWER: B) This station has only one means of egress through which passengers can exit from the station platform to the street. (INCORRECT) (AUC 207 ADDENDUM 17) * There may be multiple stairway entrances leading to the street from the end of the platform that provides egress. The stickers are provided for any station where the egress from the platform area is restricted to only one end of the station platform.

Question 459

During the semi-annual subway emergency inspection period, administrative units shall inspect the subway dry standpipe systems and test the sound-powered telephones. If defects are noted during semi-annual inspections, multi-unit drills, or at operations, which correct report shall be completed and forwarded? A) A-17 B) A-8 C) DOB Referral D) High-Priority DOB Referral

Answer 459

ANSWER: B) A-8 (AUC 207 add 10 sec 5) * A-8 in this scenario is sent to Public Transportation Safety Unit (PTSU). For further info on A-8, A-17, DOB Referral see AUC 5 (Company Officer section)

Question 460

The correct location of the Blue Light Station Power Removal Box in the Airtrain System can be found in which choice? A) Every 800 feet along the guideway B) Every 600 feet along the guideway C) Every 400 feet along the guideway D) Every 200 feet along the guideway

Answer 460

ANSWER: A) Every 800 feet along the guideway (AUC 207 add 12 sec 6) * Inside each Blue Light Station Power Removal Box, there is a red power removal button. When this button is depressed, the power on certain sections of the guideway is removed. The Blue Light Station Removal Box has a schematic that should be used to determine the sections of the guideway that have been de-energized

Question 461

Ladder 199 just boarded a light train to proceed to a track fire in between stations. Which choice below is CORRECT regarding light train procedures? A) Delayed communications are expected, therefore, progress reports from the Ladder company officer shall be transmitted as soon as possible, but at least every 10 minutes. B) FD Units shall not enter the track area from the light train unless the fire is minor. C) The Officer on the light train will be notified directly from the TA when the power has been removed. D) The train operator and conductor carry hand-held radios in addition to the train operator’s radio, which shall be used as the only reliable means of communications for the FD unit on the train.

Answer 461

ANSWER: C) The Officer on the light train will be notified directly from the TA when the power has been removed. (AUC 207 – LIGHT TRAIN PROCEDURES) * The Transit Authority will notify the FD Unit on the "Light Train" directly and the CIC through the FD Dispatcher when the above (POWER REMOVAL) has been accomplished. A – At least every 15 minutes. B - FD Units should not enter the track area from the "Light Train" unless power has been removed. D – The train conductor carries a hand-held radio with capabilities similar to the train operator’s radio

Question 462

Just prior to Roll Call, the Officer of Engine 99 asked the junior firefighter where the MetroCard was located on the apparatus. A discussion ensued among the students about the accounting and procedures for lost or damaged cards. Which choice below is INCORRECT? A) After each roll call, the officer shall record an entry in the Company Journal stating that the card is accounted for and on the apparatus. B) If a MetroCard is lost or stolen or damaged, the officer on duty shall immediately notify PTSU via telephone advising of the particulars. C) If a MetroCard is lost, the officer shall file a police report D) If a MetroCard is lost, the officer shall complete a lost property report

Answer 462

ANSWER: B) If a MetroCard is lost or stolen or damaged, the officer on duty shall immediately notify PTSU via telephone advising of the particulars. (INCORRECT) (AUC 207 – ADDENDUM 3 - 3.6.3) * Notification is made to the FDNY RESOURCE CENTER advising of the particulars.

Question 463

The success of the Air Train has allowed for an expansion project at LaGuardia Airport which means more units will have interaction with this part of the system. Which is CORRECT about Air Train Cars? A) Each Air Train is constructed of one to four cars operated by an engineer. B) Every Air Train car has four sets of passenger doors and a set of front and rear doors on each car. C) Every Air Train is equipped with smoke detectors, fire extinguishers, and intercoms onboard. D) Every Air Train has headlights and taillights on the front and rear of the cars. Members will be unable to determine the front of the train just by looking at the lights.

Answer 463

ANSWER: C) Every Air Train is equipped with smoke detectors, fire extinguishers, and intercoms onboard. (AUC 207 ADDENDUM 10 – Section 3) A – There are NO engineers or supervision onboard. B – There are NO front or rear doors on Air Train Cars. D – Members CAN ascertain which is the front and rear. The headlights will be illuminated on the front and red taillights will be illuminated on the rear.

Question 464

The most correct procedure when reporting suspicious activity can be found in which choice? A) If a member witnesses an act which is by itself criminal such as, theft indicative of terrorist activity/diversion or sabotage/tampering/vandalism, they should immediately notify Fire Marshal B) If a member witnesses an act of terrorism, implement FDNY standard operating procedures to ensure member safety and life saving measures to the public: they must then notify NYPD and BFI as soon as possible C) If a member is unsure of conditions, they should remain on scene and request BFI to the scene D) When the officer discovers any indicators of terrorist activity, immediately upon return to quarters, the officer shall fax all required information to FDOC

Answer 464

ANSWER: B) If a member witnesses an act of terrorism, implement FDNY standard operating procedures to ensure member safety and life saving measures to the public: they must then notify NYPD and BFI as soon as possible. (AUC 363 sec 8) A - Notify NYPD C - Request BATTALION CHIEF. D - Indicators are found in sec 5.2 and shall be reported immediately upon return to quarters by going to the reporting system found on DIAMONDPLATE.

Question 465

Exterior Insulation Finish System (EFIS) is an exterior wall covering system that uses layered insulation and a waterproofing finish. EFIS consists of several layers. Which layer is the primary concern during firefighting operations? A) Innermost sheathing layer of Foam Plastic Insulation B) The middle layer; reinforcing fiberglass mesh C) The outermost layer; finish coat (cement-based polyermer) D) All three layers are a primary concern during firefighting operations

Answer 465

ANSWER: A) Innermost sheathing layer of Foam Plastic Insulation (AUC 362 sec 1.2 and 1.3) * The component of primary concern during FF operations is the innermost sheathing layer of Foam Plastic Insulation (FPI). The FPI layer should be considered combustible since it is essentially a thermoplastics, styrofoam material (typically 1/4" to 8" thick). The heat release for thermoplastics can be 3 to 5 times higher than of ordinary combustibles, such as paper or wood. If the system is compromised and FPI ignited, expect high heat conditions, rapid flame spread, and dense black smoke

Question 466

# Choose the incorrect statement in regards to operating at a building with PV arrays (solar panels). A) Firefighters must never cut any wires associated with a PV array B) Hose streams should not be applied directly onto energized PV system components. A fog nozzle, utilized from a distance, and set at a 30 degree spray pattern is recommended to prevent electric current from traveling up stream towards members operating hoselines C) Firefighters discovering PV arrays at fires and emergencies should immediately notify their Company Officer and the IC for subsequent relay to all operating members D) For burning or smoldering materials under or around PV modules, firefighters may remove modules once power to the modules have been disconnected.

Answer 466

ANSWER: D) For burning or smoldering materials under or around PV modules, firefighters may remove modules once power to the modules have been disconnected. (INCORRECT) (AUC 351 - 6.6) * The removal of modules by firefighters is NOT an option. * Incipient fires can be extinguished using Class C (dry chemical) portable fire extinguishers.

Question 467

During a major storm you are the officer assigned as a Rapid Response Vehicle Task Force Leader. Which point below is most correct regarding protocols that you consider? A) The initial Task Force shall consist of only 4 firefighters. B) Each Task Force will be equipped with a complement of tools; if additional items are needed, you should notify the nearest Division, SOC will supply this equipment for SSLs (SOC Support Ladders). C) Task forces shall be identified using the designation of one of the assigned RRVs. members within a task force communicating to each other shall use their task force designation and vehicle/unit type. For example: the task force that includes RRV 132 would communicate as such: "RRV 132 to BFU 132". D) You would be correct to think that DARS radios do not interfere with transmissions of normally assigned Handie Talkies (HTs).

Answer 467

ANSWER: D) You would be correct to think that DARS radios do not interfere with transmissions of normally assigned Handie Talkies (HTs). (AUC 159, ADD#8) A - May consist of 3-6 Firefighters. RECENT CHANGE 11/20/19. B - Contact Tech Services, SOC does not supply SSLs. RECENT CHANGE 11/20/19. C - Task forces designations are flexible, consider identifying them using the designation of one of the assigned RRVs. Members within a task force communicating to each other would use assigned unit designations to ID themselves. (eg. RRV 132 to BFU 2) BFU would not use 132, rather their normal designation.

Question 468

In order to prepare and obtain supplies and equipment for the upcoming Hurricane season, company officers shall start the requisitioning process when? A) March 1st B) April 1st C) May 1st D) June 1st

Answer 468

ANSWER: A) March 1st (AUC 159 sec 4.7.1) * Requisitioning starts March 1st * Items not received by May 1st shall be called to the attention of the Division Storm Operations Coordinator * Hurricane season starts June 1st.

Question 469

When operating at a sub-surface transformer vault, which procedure is incorrectly stated? A) This type of incident can escalate very easily and unexpectedly therefore; the full use of Personal Protective Clothing (PPC) and SCBA shall be adhered to B) Stretch a precautionary handline. Due to the amount of flammable liquid contained in these transformers, Engine Companies shall also be prepared to initiate a foam operation if the need arises C) Ladder Company officers shall send individual FFs to examine an exposure with full PPC, SCBA and HT. In addition, the FF shall take a C.O. meter and shall take readings in the Meter Room, surrounding rooms, and on the first floor, if necessary. D) Cordon off and secure an area a safe distance from the vault for members and apparatus. It is not necessary for members to closely examine these vaults

Answer 469

ANSWER: C) Ladder Company officers shall send individual FFs to examine an exposure with full PPC, SCBA and HT. In addition, the FF shall take a C.O. meter and shall take readings in the Meter Room, surrounding rooms, and on the first floor, if necessary. (INCORRECT) (AUC 180 3.3 and reference 1 sec 2) * Teams of two members shall do this (NOT INDIVIDUAL FFs) * Members are NOT to enter vaults until Con-Ed has made their determination * Con-Ed will make the determination that the vault is safe for entry, if necessary by FD personnel * FD personnel receiving this authorization will conduct a CURSORY search of the vault for victims

Question 470

When operating at a Foreign Embassy, the incorrect procedure can be found in which choice? A) If fire is suspected or verified and entry is denied, stretch a handline to the front of the building and/or bring rollups, if necessary B) If fire is suspected or verified and entry is denied, protect exposures and set up an Aerial Ladder in front of building for exterior operations and any rescue of embassy personnel that request it C) All progress or denial of entry shall be immediately transmitted to the dispatcher D) If entry is gained, expect storage of ammunition and explosives. If explosives and ammunition are involved, evacuation immediately and notify the NYPD and Fire Marshals

Answer 470

ANSWER: B) If fire is suspected or verified and entry is denied, protect exposures and set up an Aerial Ladder in front of building for exterior operations and any rescue of embassy personnel that request it. (INCORRECT) (AUC 196 sec 4 and 5) * TOWER LADDER in front of building

Question 471

Requisitioning supplies for winter operations shall commence on which date? A) July 1st B) August 1st C) September 1st D) October 1st

Answer 471

ANSWER: A) July 1st (AUC 200 sec 3.3.3 and 3.3.7) * Requisitioning shall commence July 1st to permit sufficient time for various Bureaus to obtain and deliver materials. * Items on requisition not received by October 1st shall be called to the attention of Division Coordinators Also: when snow or ice emergency is imminent or Phase A or B is established: 1 - at least 6 extra lengths of 2 1/2 hose, rolled or folded, on each Engine and Ladder apparatus 2 - 2 shovels 3 - Containers of salt and/or sand 4 - Vehicle recovery strap with shackle 5 - Tire chains, spare links and link tool 6 - Specialized hydrant connection set-up as determined by individual commanding officers

Question 472

There are certain situations during hydrant inspection that an OOS hydrant is designated as a priority repair. A priority hydrant repair is incorrectly stated in which choice? A) Two adjacent hydrants in a block that are both OOS (report at least one hydrant as requiring priority repair) B) Two adjacent hydrants in a block that are both OOS (report both hydrants as requiring priority repair) C) A hydrant that is the only hydrant in a block and is OOS D) A hydrant(s) which is (are) vital to the protection of high profile locations or critical infrature locations such as bridges, tunnels, mass transit systems, that is (are) OOS

Answer 472

ANSWER: A) Two adjacent hydrants in a block that are both OOS (report at least one hydrant as requiring priority repair) (INCORRECT) (AUC 205 sec 3.2) * Two adjacent hydrants in a block that are both OOS (report BOTH hydrants as requiring priority repair)

Question 473

Under Phase 2 (Water Pressure Emergency) each unit starting at 1000 hours shall take and record the pressure on the hydrant nearest to quarters, every hour until 2200 hours. Units shall patrol their district as per schedules established by DCs. Upon completing their assigned patrol duties, officers shall fax to the Battalion all of the following information except? A) The number of hydrants OOS B) Any areas experiencing dangerously low water pressure that could adversely affect firefighting operations C) The number of illegally opened hydrants D) The number of spray caps placed

Answer 473

ANSWER: A) The number of hydrants OOS (AUC 205 sec 8.2) * The number of hydrants SHUT DOWN

Question 474

H/T relay remains an important means of communication at subway incidents where the repeater channels aren’t effective. Which choice below CORRECTLY describes the positioning of members in the relay? A) The Roof Firefighter is positioned 100 yards from the bottom of the stairs on the station platform. B) The Truck Chauffeur is positioned at the top of the subway entrance stairs unless the token booth is within 50 yards of the stairs to the street. C) The Engine officer is positioned 50 yards line of sight from the Roof Firefighter on the station platform. D) The OV Firefighter is positioned at the foot of the stairs leading to the platform if it is within 50 yards from the Truck Chauffeur.

Answer 474

ANSWER: D) The OV Firefighter is positioned at the foot of the stairs leading to the platform if it is within 50 yards from the Truck Chauffeur. (AUC 207 4.1 – SUBWAY OPERATIONS) A – Roof FF is FIFTY (50) yards from the bottom of the stairs on the station platform (4.1) B – Truck Chauffeur is positioned at the BOTTOM of the subway entrance stairs (4.1) C – Engine officer is ONE HUNDRED (100) yards line of sight on the platform from the roof FF (4.1)

Question 475

You are the incoming officer and on the way out the door, the covering Lt. asks you to review four CIDS cards he put together for the company during the day tour. He included a minimum response including a TL for the four examples below. Which choice is the CORRECT scenario where a TL is required on the initial alarm? A) Insure a TL response on the initial alarm for responses to Foreign Embassies. B) Insure a TL response on the initial alarm for responses to EIFS buildings. C) Insure a TL response on the initial alarm for responses to Con Edison facilities. D) Insure a TL response on the initial alarm for a reported fire to Cell Site buildings.

Answer 475

ANSWER: D) Insure a TL response on the initial alarm for a reported fire to Cell Site buildings. (CROSS REFERENCE – AUC 331, 338, 362, AUC 196) A – AUC 196 - CHIEF OFFICERS (not company officers) shall evaluate if an enhanced minimum response is required for these facilities, and/or if the response of a Tower Ladder is required on the initial alarm (3.1) B – AUC 362 - Special call an additional engine and truck including a TL if not on initial assignment in an EIFS building (2.8) C - AUC 338 - mentions TL’s extensively, but CIDS and initial response are not mentioned.

Question 476

Ladder 199 was doing their annual subway inspection and the members began discussing use of the repeater system. Which is the only CORRECT statement made during the discussion? A) Power backup for the repeater only provides for a maximum of 3 hours of continuous operation. B) A full test of the repeater channel shall be made once the members reach the platform area. C) Channel 15 may be used as the primary repeater H/T channel at a second operation in close proximity to the first operation. D) If dead spots are encountered in repeater coverage, immediately abandon the use of the channel and return to a HT relay.

Answer 476

ANSWER: C) Channel 15 may be used as the primary repeater H/T channel at a second operation in close proximity to the first operation. (AUC 207 ADDENDUM 16 – 4.4) A – Power back-up provides for a minimum of FOUR (4) hours of continuous operation. B – A test of the repeater is made at the STREET LEVEL. D – Prior to abandoning the use of the repeater channel, the team shall RETURN TO A SAFE LOCATION WHERE PREVIOUS COMMUNICATIONS WERE SUCCESSFUL. If communications are successful, report the dead spot to the IC.

Question 477

The incorrect procedure, when a member is transporting his/her Personal Protective Equipment (PPE), can be found in which choice? A) The FDNY strictly prohibits members from transporting firefighter PPE without the use of provided gear bags B) When transporting firefighting PPE in a private vehicle, such items shall be placed in the gear bag prior to being placed in the passenger compartment or the trunk of the vehicle. Prior to placement into the gear bag, the firefighting protective ensemble shall be placed into a plastic bag supplied by the Department C0 Members are responsible to use the gear bag with a plastic liner anytime they transport firefighting equipment D) Grossly contaminated gear bags caused by a bloodborne pathogen shall be decon in quarters by members following the guidelines outlined in the CFR-D manual.

Answer 477

ANSWER: D) Grossly contaminated gear bags caused by a bloodborne pathogen shall be decon in quarters by members following the guidelines outlined in the CFR-D manual. (INCORRECT) (AUC 310 add 4 - 1.3) * Grossly contaminated gear bags caused by a bloodborne pathogen exposure SHALL NOT be cleaned by members. The gear bag should be placed in double (two) clear bags, tied or taped closed. An EDR-1 shall be completed and placed in between the two bags, facing outward, for ID purposes. Bagged items shall be left, if possible, in a light traffic area adjacent to HW for pickup by the DSU.

Question 478

The members of Battalion 99 are operating at an incident in the Subway and the repeater channel needs to be activated. Which choice is CORRECT regarding use of the Repeater? A) The NYC Transit duplex repeater system is always on. B) Once activated, all members operating are to switch to and communicate on the repeater channel. C) Experience has shown that the post radio is proven to be reliable means of communicating to below grade locations. D) A Handie Talkie relay is not needed in stations with repeater communications.

Answer 478

ANSWER: A) The NYC Transit duplex repeater system is always on. (AUC 207 ADDENDUM 16 – 4.3) B – All FD members other than those designated to switch to the repeater channel will REMAIN ON HT CHANNEL 1. (4.3) C – Experience has proven that the post radio may prove UNRELIABLE when communicating below grade. (4.3) D – An effective HT relay must be established WHETHER THE STATION IS EQUIPPED WITH A REPEATER OR NOT. (4.3)

Question 479

The only correct procedure you followed when operating at a suspected crime scene can be found in which choice? A) Covered a corpse in all situations B) You gave a brief statement to the press involving the incident C) Notified NYPD since one of your members found a large amounts of currency D) Did not let members wash hands in sink or use toilet facilities. Did not adjust radio or television, or use telephone in crime scene area.

Answer 479

ANSWER: D) Did not let members wash hands in sink or use toilet facilities. Did not adjust radio or television, or use telephone in crime scene area. (AUC 317 - 5.9) A - Refrain from covering any corpse EXCEPT IN PUBLIC VIEW (5.12) B - Restrict comments or opinions to authorized persons. NO STATEMENTS should be given to the press, civilians, or other agencies (5.13) C - Notified FIRE MARSHAL to respond to voucher currency at any operation where large amounts of currency are discovered (5.14)

Question 480

In preparation for Brush Fire Season, Battalion 99 met with the company officers in the battalion to discuss unit operations at a fire on hillside. Which action taken during the operation was the only one that was CORRECT? A) Engine 1 was positioned at the top of the hill to cut off rapid fire extension and provide an attack on the fire. B) Engine 4 used a Large caliber stream to break up heat waves and provide a water curtain to protect exposures. C) Engines 2 and 3 were positioned to attack the fire from the left and right flanks and then moved into the interior burning areas. D) Engine 5 and 6’s handlines were directed at the flames above the brush to provide penetration and cover a greater area.

Answer 480

ANSWER: C) Engines 2 and 3 were positioned to attack the fire from the left and right flanks and then moved into the interior burning areas. (AUC 151 -- BRUSH FIRE OPERATIONS - 5.4.10) A – Position units on top of the hill to protect exposures but ATTACK THE FIRE FROM THE BOTTOM AND WORK UP. (5.4.16) B – Attempting to break up heat waves by using a water curtain is GENERALLY INEFFECTIVE. Instead, utilize streams to apply water directly to exposures. (5.4.17) D – Streams should be directed AT THE BURNING BRUSH, not at the flames burning above the brush. (5.4.13)

Question 481

You, the Lieutenant, working in E-100 during the 6x9 tour walk into the kitchen at approximately 2300 hours to grab a drink of water. As you enter the kitchen you smell alcohol and reasonably suspect the FFs have engaged in alcohol consumption. At this point, you carry out several actions. Choose the incorrect action. A) Prohibit on and off-duty members present at the time of discovery from leaving premises without permission of the administrative Battalion Chief. B) Immediately relieve the on-duty member(s) from emergency response duty C) Immediately have the affected unit placed OOS D) Notify the administrative Battalion Chief or, if appropriate, the next superior officer E) Notify BITS F) Document the incident in the company journal

Answer 481

ANSWER: A) Prohibit on and off-duty members present at the time of discovery from leaving premises without permission of the administrative Battalion Chief. (INCORRECT) (AUC 202 5.5) * Without permission of the INVESTIGATING OFFICER. * Know this procedure cold

Question 482

Which of the following is CORRECT according to our written procedures regarding the Blue Light in the transit system? A) An Emergency Evacuation Device will be found at the first blue light location south of the southbound platform of underground and grade level subway stations. B) The Power Removal Box will be found along the right of way under the blue light. C) Subway System Blue lights are located every 800’ along the right of way. Near the Blue light there is a power removal box, a telephone and dry chemical extinguisher. D) Air Train Blue Light Station Power Removal Boxes are found every 800’. Inside the box, there is a red power removal button, a schematic, and dry chemical extinguisher.

Answer 482

ANSWER: A) An Emergency Evacuation Device will be found at the first blue light location south of the southbound platform of underground and grade level subway stations. (AUC 207 / ADDENDUM 12 – AIR TRAIN SYSTEM) B – The Power Removal Box may not be necessarily located under the Blue Light, but it will be in PROXIMITY to it or across the tracks from it. C – While not directly written under the Blue Light section, 8.5.1 reads Dry Chemical extinguishers at the power removal boxes found along the right of way approximately 600’ apart. 8.1 – Near the blue light there is a power removal box, a telephone and fire extinguisher. Also in under river rail 2.9.4 D – Dry Chemical extinguishers are found aboard Air Train Cars NOT AT BLUE LIGHTS.

Question 483

It is 0600 hours, and you have just been relocated to another firehouse due to a multiple alarm in the great Borough of the Bronx. In order for you to provide relief for your night crew as the change of tour approaches, you shall notify the dispatcher when? A) 0730 hours B) 0800 hours C) 0830 hours D) 0845 hours

Answer 483

ANSWER: B) 0800 hours (AUC 217 sec 4.1) * Officers on duty with units relocated to another quarters shall (at 0800 or 1700) notify the dispatcher in the borough in which relocated that relief will or may, be required. * Key in on the time and which dispatcher to notify if relocated to another borough

Question 484

Which statement in regards to the SCBA is incorrect? A) "Wearing" an SCBA shall mean having the harness on, with the facepiece in a standby position B) "Using" an SCBA shall mean having the facepiece on with the regulator donned C) The wearing/use of SCBAs may be dispensed with only when authorized by the IC D) When it is necessary for an officer to leave the IDLH area to service their SCBA, they shall notify the IC of the operation (or fire sector supervisor is established) and remaining members under their direct supervision must exit the area with his/her officer.

Answer 484

ANSWER: D) When it is necessary for an officer to leave the IDLH area to service their SCBA, they shall notify the IC of the operation (or fire sector supervisor is established) and remaining members under their direct supervision must exit the area with his/her officer. (AUC 220 p-1-2) * Such officer must ensure that TEMPORARY SUPERVISION is provided for the remaining member(s) under their direct supervision during their absence. Circumstances that prevent the officer from providing temporary supervision shall require the withdrawal of all members under that officer's direct supervision

Question 485

The companies in the 13thdivision are involved in an operation involving a stalled Air Train on the guideway along the Van-Wyck Expressway. Which consideration regarding evacuation and removal was INCORRECT? A) Evacuating passengers via the walkway to a nearby station might be a consideration based on the distance to the next station, weather conditions and the physical capabilities of the passengers. B) The Primary method for evacuating passengers from an Air Train that is located between stations is to have Air Train personnel bring a rescue train to the front or rear and evacuate them through the front or rear doors of the train. C) If immediate removal from an elevated area is required, the use of a Tower Ladder may be necessary. The primary means of accessing the guideway shall be via the nearest overpass. D) When using the walkways to evacuate passengers, the Incident Commander must ensure that power is removed, and grounding straps are in place for the entire evacuation path prior to removing the passengers.

Answer 485

ANSWER: B) The Primary method for evacuating passengers from an Air Train that is located between stations is to have Air Train personnel bring a rescue train to the front or rear and evacuate them through the front or rear doors of the train. (INCORRECT) (AUC 207 ADDENDUM 12 – AIRTRAIN SYSTEM - 3) * Air Train Cars DO NOT have front or rear doors.

Question 486

After exiting the fire building, members entering rehabilitation should normally rest for approximately how long before being reassigned? A) 20 minutes B) 30 minutes C) 40 minutes D) Once members enter the rehabilitation area, members can no longer be reassigned duties at the incident

Answer 486

ANSWER: A) 20 minutes (AUC 230 sec 7.2) * Depending on conditions, the IC, in consultation with the Rehabilitation Group Manager, Medical Branch Director or designee, may modify the time frame for rehabilitation

Question 487

In order to receive a Prehospital Save Commendation, members must follow a certain criteria. Choose the incorrect criteria. A) Patient must be found in cardiac rest or enter cardiac arrest while in the CFR unit's care prior to or after the arrival of EMS. B) Vital signs must be restored on scene or enroute to the hospital C) The patient must be admitted to the hospital D) The Officer in command of the CFR unit shall submit a CFR Prehospital Save Form through the bag within 30 days of the event for the unit to be considered for an award

Answer 487

ANSWER: A) Patient must be found in cardiac rest or enter cardiac arrest while in the CFR unit's care prior to or after the arrival of EMS. (INCORRECT) (AUC 243 sec 2.7) * Patient must be found in cardiac rest or enter cardiac arrest while in the CFR unit's care PRIOR to the arrival of EMS......EMS IS NOT ON SCENE * A copy of the PCR form must accompany the Prehospital Save Form in order for it to be processed

Question 488

Companies being relocated to another quarters will normally receive a response ticket indicating so. If the quarters the company is responding to has an entrance door combination lock, the combination will be printed on the response ticket. If a unit does not receive a teleprinter response ticket (on air at the time of response), the lock combination can be obtained through the dispatcher. From the following choices listed below, choose the first method of reaching the dispatcher. A) Use nearby ERS box B) Use cell phone C) Use the Department radio D) Use outside public telephone

Answer 488

ANSWER: A) Use nearby ERS box (AUC 300 sec 2.1.4) The methods of obtaining the combination are listed in order of preference: 1 - Use nearby ERS box 2 - Outside public telephone * The officer on duty in a unit having an entrance door combination lock is to notify the Supervising Dispatcher of their respective borough, by telephone, of any change in units combination * They went to areas on DC exam that we don't do in the field anymore. So don't count this out

Question 489

When responding to and operating at a "Tree Down," units carry out policies set fourth by the FDNY. Choose the incorrect policy. A) Units are not responsible for the removal of debris from sidewalks or private property B) Unit operations on private property are limited to assisting trapped or injured persons and preventing unauthorized entry into the danger area C) Units can remove obstructions blocking a entrance to a building. This decision is to be based upon the existence of other adequate means of exit and the complexity of the operation D) Units can attempt to remove a tree which has fallen on an unoccupied vehicle at the owners request

Answer 489

ANSWER: D) Units can attempt to remove a tree which has fallen on an unoccupied vehicle at the owners request. (INCORRECT) * Members are NOT to attempt to remove a tree which has fallen on a vehicle unless such action is required to perform a rescue, administer first aid, or establish an emergency lane. (AUC 301 sec 3)

Question 490

A hot button issue that members are experiencing lately is the cleaning of bunker gear. This is known as advanced cleaning and is mandatory for all members. In preparation of this cleaning all of the following are correct except which choice? A) Boots shall be removed from bunker pants. Boots will not be laundered B) If a member is currently on a long term detail to a different unit his/her gear must be brought back to his/her assigned unit for advanced cleaning. C) Members shall ensure that suspenders and hoods are included as part of the items sent for advanced cleaning D) Pants shall be folded and placed inside the bunker coat, the clasps of the coat shall be fastened and the sleeves tied across the front of the coat. (Do not use cord or rope--tie the sleeves to one another)

Answer 490

ANSWER: B) If a member is currently on a long term detail to a different unit his/her gear must be brought back to his/her assigned unit for advanced cleaning. (INCORRECT) (AUC 310 add 2 sec 3.2 and 4) * Gear will be cleaned with the gear of the UNIT TO WHICH THE MEMBER IS DETAILED. The name of the member shall be added to that units cleaning roster.

Question 491

Your unit has just finished operating at a multiple vehicle accident where several members have been contaminated with blood. The decon procedure for blood and other potentially infectious material has changed within the past year. From the following choices listed below, choose the incorrect decon procedure for PPE and equipment. A) Radio, tools, and other hard surface items shall be placed in double clear bags, tied or taped closed. An Equipment Decontamination Report (EDR-1) shall be completed and placed in between the two bags, facing outward, for identification purposes. B) If both bunker pants and PSS have been contaminated, members shall separate the PSS from pants prior to bagging both items C) Company officer shall complete and forward an Equipment Decontamination Report (EDR-1) to the Decon Support Unit. All members with the same contaminate shall be listed on a single form. Separate forms are required for different contaminants D) Under no circumstances shall red or black bags be used to send in contaminated gear

Answer 491

ANSWER: A) Radio, tools, and other hard surface items shall be placed in double clear bags, tied or taped closed. An Equipment Decontamination Report (EDR-1) shall be completed and placed in between the two bags, facing outward, for identification purposes. (INCORRECT) (AUC 310 add 5) * Radio, tools, and other hard surface items shall be decontaminated IN QUARTERS with a chlorine bleach solution. * THE PSS SYSTEM SHALL NOT BE BAGGED WITH BUNKER COAT AND PANTS (bag separately) * For fireground contamination, the PSS shall be decon in quarters using a sponge and water * Remember, there is a difference between blood and other potentially infectious material and FIREGROUND contamination....This is a must read

Question 492

Following a smoky train fire in a subway tunnel, the members of Ladder 199 were discussing the Subway ventilation fans and their operation. Which statement made by the members was CORRECT? A) Subway ventilation fans are affected by power removal. B) Power Removal to Subway ventilation fans is accomplished by a power removal switch at the unit. C) Most fans are operated in the exhaust mode. The evacuation of passengers from under-river tubes should take place away from any fan operated in the exhaust mode. D) Each fan plant has a 4-digit identification code. Company officers are required to create CIDS Cards including the location and ID number of each fan in their district.

Answer 492

ANSWER: C) Most fans are operated in the exhaust mode. The evacuation of passengers from under-river tubes should take place away from any fan operated in the exhaust mode. (AUC 207 ADDENDUM 8 – VENTILATION FANS 5.4) A – Fans will NOT be affected when power removal is ordered by the FDNY B – Power Removal to the Fans is accomplished through the DISPATCHER to the TA. D – ID numbers and locations for the fan plants HAVE BEEN ENTERED into the CIDS system and may appear as additional information on the dispatch ticket.

Question 493

Midtown companies are on the scene of a smoky Amtrak train fire and have commenced operations. Which choice made by the officers was CORRECT during firefighting in the vicinity of catenary lines? A) Once power is removed to the catenary lines, a fog nozzle, in the fog position may be used from the platform into the train avoiding any contact with the overhead electrical wires and the pantograph connection. B) The application of water shall be considered only when power to the third rail, 480-volt standby power, and power to the catenary wires have been shut down. The catenary lines must be grounded prior to any water application. C) Short bursts of a solid stream are acceptable to avoid accumulations of water pooling. Run-off water presents an electrical hazard and officers shall make certain that firefighters are not standing in the path of run-off water. D) All fire teams applying water with hand-held fog nozzles should take advantage of the reach of the stream and observe a minimum approach distance of 4’ to catenary wires.

Answer 493

ANSWER: A) Once power is removed to the catenary lines, a fog nozzle, in the fog position may be used from the platform into the train avoiding any contact with the overhead electrical wires and the pantograph connection. (AUC 207 – ADDENDUM 9 – CATENARY WIRES 3.2.1) B – Catenary lines DO NOT have to be grounded prior to water application (3.2) C – Short bursts of a FOG stream (3.2.3) D – Minimum approach of distance of TEN FEET (10’) (3.2.4)

Question 494

You are in command of a ventilation support group and just went 10-84 at a High-Rise fire. The only correct operation you performed can be found in which choice? A) The evacuation stairwell is the first consideration for pressurization and will be pressurized upon the order of the IC B) The attack stairwell shall be pressurized when necessary, or for sequential ventilation C) Positive Pressure Fans should never be left unattended. D) When placed at the attack stairway door, the Positive Pressure Fan is to be placed 6-8 feet from the door tilted back 80 degrees

Answer 494

ANSWER: C) Positive Pressure Fans should never be left unattended. (AUC 349 6.4) A - Attack Stairwell B - Evacuation Stairwell D - 4 to 6 feet, 80 degrees

Question 495

The Electronic BF-4 (EBF-4) is a web-based software application via the FDNY Intranet requiring FDNY personnel (e.g., Officers, Battalions Chiefs, Deputy Chiefs) to prepare, print, and submit an electronic version of the BF-4 riding list form. From below, select the correct information that describes the EBF-4. A) The EBF-4 should not be completed prior to the start of the tour. B) Chief and Company officers shall submit a Preliminary EBF-4 prior to the start of the tour C) When the probationary firefighter is granted tenure (on his/her anniversary date) the Company Commander shall remove the (PR) designation from the probationary firefighter's name. D) To ensure that the In-Rig EBF-4 application continues to work properly, and to ensure that all Officers are familiar with it, the In-Rig EBF-4 must be used every Saturday on the 9x6 tour to submit the riding list instead of the EBF-4 application on the Intranet

Answer 495

ANSWER: A) The EBF-4 should not be completed prior to the start of the tour. (AUC 346 - 2.1) * New as of 1/30/2020 * B - Shall submit a Preliminary or Final EBF-4 at the START of each tour. C - The (PR) designation shall not be removed in advance of the DEPARTMENT ORDER. D - Every SUNDAY 9x6

Question 496

The incorrect operation when applying water on energized or de-energized electrical components can be found in which choice? A) The primary means of applying water to energized electrical components is through the use of a Tower Ladder B) When applying water to 138 kV electrical components when using straight streams, the minimum safe operating distance is 75 feet C) If the stream is not reaching the intended target area then the water supply must be shut down at the pumper and the position of the basket or the angle and/or pattern of the stream must be adjusted D) When Tower Ladders are out of reach, Aerial Ladders may be used with their Aquastream Master Stream Nozzle attached to the ladder pipe.

Answer 496

ANSWER: D) When Tower Ladders are out of reach, Aerial Ladders may be used with their Aquastream Master Stream Nozzle attached to the ladder pipe. (INCORRECT) (AUC 338 - 5.5) * The Aquastream Master Stream carried by all Aerial Ladder and Engine Companies is factory pre-set to a fog stream pattern of 130 degrees. This nozzle SHALL NOT BE USED because it does not provide enough stream penetration to allow for maintaining safe operating distances.

Question 497

Which situation below does NOT require an immediate notification to BITS A) Any allegation concerning thefts by employees during fire and emergency operations. B) Physical altercations among members C) Dangerous misuse of Department vehicles D) Serious confrontations with civilians

Answer 497

ANSWER: A) Any allegation concerning thefts by employees during fire and emergency operations. (INCORRECT) (AUC 268A sec 2 and 3) * Thefts by employees during fire and emergency operations - Immediate notification to the INSPECTOR GENERAL The following are immediate notification to BITS: "AABBCCDD" A - Arrest of Department employees A - Alcohol BB - Boxing with brothers C - Confrontations with civilians C - Confrontations with police D - Drugs D - Dangerous misuse of department vehicles

Question 498

You are responding to the designated mobilization point to possibly deploy as a High Rise Roof Team, because a 3rd alarm doubtful has just been transmitted for a high-rise building fire in the great Borough of the Bronx. In addition to gathering the equipment for the High-Rise Roof Kit, what channel are you and your FFs expected to switch to prior to lift off? A) Channel 10 B) Channel 13 C) Channel 3 D) Channel 42D

Answer 498

ANSWER: B) Channel 13 (AUC 269 add 1 sec 3.1.5) High Rise Roof Kit: 1- 6 SCBAs with 1 hour cylinders 2- 1 Bolt Cutter 3- 2 Halligan Tools 4- 2 Axes 5- 2 Search Ropes 6- 1 Rabbit Tool 7- Bags for Tools (to prevent damage to the aircraft)

Question 499

# Choose the correct technique when boarding a NYPD helicopter as the High Rise Roof Team. A) Standing up position, in two rows, from the front of the helicopter B) Semi-crouched position, in single file, from the side of the helicopter C) Standing up position, in two rows, from the side of the helicopter D) Semi-crouched position, in single file, from the front of the helicopter.

Answer 499

ANSWER: D) Semi-crouched position, in single file, from the front of the helicopter. (AUC 269 add 1 sec 5) * Air rescue teams shall board and depart the Bell 412 air rescue ship from the FRONT within the field vision of the pilot. Approach and leave the aircraft in a semi-crouched position in single file. DO NOT RUN

Question 500

While relocated, the members of Tower Ladder 99 were discussing Air Train Operations along the Van Wyck Expressway. Which statement made below was INCORRECT? A) When no guardrail is visible above the parapet wall, it usually indicates that the third rail is on the outside of the tracks and that the walkway is located between the tracks. B) If there is an imminent life hazard requiring members to access the track area immediately, the IC must ensure that the blue light station power removal box is activated, and power confirmed off before operations commence. C) Members must not enter the track area until power has been confirmed off and the grounding straps are in place, except when the IC has determined that an imminent life hazard exists and time doesn't allow for the grounding straps. D) The placing of an apparatus alongside the high-speed roadway for access to the guideway will always require the complete closing of the roadway.

Answer 500

ANSWER: B) If there is an imminent life hazard requiring members to access the track area immediately, the IC must ensure that the blue light station power removal box is activated, and power confirmed off before operations commence. (INCORRECT) (AUC 207 – AIRTRAIN SYSTEM - pg 5) * Imminent life hazard, confirmation of power off NOT required.

Question 501

You are 10-84 for an EMS run when the patient your FFs are attending to starts to exhibit bizarre behavior (possibly emotional disturbed person). You immediately pick up the department radio and transmit what signal? A) 10-27 B) 10-31 C) 10-47 D) 10-48

Answer 501

ANSWER: C) 10-47 (AUC 271 sec 1) * Units encountering possibly emotionally disturbed persons who are exhibiting bizarre behavior at an incident shall immediately notify the dispatcher to request 10-47 for "POSSIBLE EDP." The dispatcher shall relay all information to the NYPD. * The nearest BC shall be dispatched to all incidents involving a reported EDP

Question 502

It shall be the responsibility of all Officers to exert every effort toward the prompt and effective relief of personnel who, at the change of tours, are operating at fires, emergencies, or are relocated. Relieving platoons shall be ready to leave quarters immediately after commencement of tour of duty. Such units shall leave promptly upon arrival of transportation. Relieving platoons can proceed on foot if the distance of the operation is within what distance listed below? A) Within one-third mile of the location of operations B) No option of proceeding on foot C) Within two-thirds mile of the location of operations D) Within one mile of the location of operations

Answer 502

ANSWER: A) Within one-third mile of the location of operations. (AUC 217 sec 2) * Unless specifically ordered, no company shall remain in quarters later than 09:30 or 1830 before proceeding to the location of operations or a relocated quarters.

Question 503

The First Responder's Bridge Manual and First Responders Tunnel Manual are comprised of two stand-alone guides, a Field Guide and a Risk Management Executive Guide . What color is the Field Guide? A) Red B) White C) Blue D) Green

Answer 503

ANSWER: D) Green (AUC 344) * This question was asked on the last Capt exam and many got it wrong because they didn't finish reading the question. Field Manual is used by first responders (GREEN) Risk Management Executive Guide used by the Command Chief (RED)

Question 504

When performing routine cleaning of personal protective equipment (PPE) the incorrect procedure can be found in which choice? A) When cleaning the helmet, choose a utility sink that is specifically used for cleaning of protective clothing. Use a mild detergent and let helmet air dry in a well ventilated area, but not in direct sunlight B) When cleaning the gloves, choose a utility sink that is specifically used for cleaning of protective clothing. Use a mild detergent and let gloves air dry; such as laying on top of a radiator. C) When cleaning the boots, choose a utility sink that is specifically used for cleaning of protective clothing. Use a mild detergent and let dry in a well ventilated area, but not in direct sunlight D) When cleaning the bunker coat and pants, choose a utility sink that is specifically used for cleaning of protective clothing. Use a mild detergent; do not attempt to wring out clothing, air dry in a well ventilated area, but not in direct sunlight

Answer 504

ANSWER: B) When cleaning the gloves, choose a utility sink that is specifically used for cleaning of protective clothing. Use a mild detergent and let gloves air dry; such as laying on top of a radiator. (INCORRECT) (AUC 310 add 1 p-1-4) * DO NOT lay gloves on radiators or dry them in hot air dryers.

Question 505

During the winter months operations must be altered due to the weather. Of the choices listed below, choose the incorrect operation at the scene of a fire or emergency during the winter. A) Place additional water extinguishers in rear compartments of the apparatus in case of frozen hydrants. B) During intermittent line operations, nozzles shall be cracked slightly to prevent freezing, discharging water so as to avoid unnecessary damage C) Do not raise aerial ladder unless absolutely necessary, and retract ladders at the earliest opportunity D) Ladder companies shall have shovels available as needed for roof operations E) Engine companies shall have shovels available for the clearing of hydrants

Answer 505

ANSWER: A) Place additional water extinguishers in rear compartments of the apparatus in case of frozen hydrants. (INCORRECT) (AUC 200 sec 4.4) * Place water extinguishers in CAB OF APPARATUS OR HEATED AREA. (NOT rear compartments)

Question 506

Units shall use the Hydrant Pressure Chart to monitor and record the psi of the hydrant nearest quarters. The most correct time of year this shall be done can be found in which choice? A) First full week in May B) Last full week in May C) First full week in June D) Last full week in June

Answer 506

ANSWER: A) First full week in May (AUC 205 add 2) * This chart shall be posted at the HouseWatch area throughout the summer season

Question 507

# Choose the incorrect statement in regards to the FDNY policy for NYC Transit Subway Stations. A) A red globe on a light post encountered by units upon arrival at a subway entrance indicates that there may, or may not be a token booth clerk at this location, and that the stairway will be closed at some point during a 24 hour day B) A green globe on a light post encountered by units upon arrival at a subway entrance indicates that the entrance is open 24 hours a day. There may or may not be a token booth clerk at this location. In areas that are not served by a token booth clerk, access will be via a High Entrance/Exit Turnstile (HEET) or a gate C) Information pertaining to the station can be found in a see-through folder, which will be readily available at the full time token booth of every station D) When a unit loses their assigned Metrocard, the officer on duty shall immediately notify the administrative Battalion Chief

Answer 507

ANSWER: D) When a unit loses their assigned Metrocard, the officer on duty shall immediately notify the administrative Battalion Chief. (AUC 207 add 3) * When a unit loses their assigned Metrocard, the officer on duty shall immediately notify the FDNY RESOURCE CENTER. In addition, officer shall file a police report and complete a Lost Property Report. Forward to FDNY Resource Center.

Question 508

The incorrect SCBA policy can be found in which choice? A) Members are not to utilize any FAST Pak for civilians B) Facepiece sharing with other members and/or civilians is prohibited C) When a member's cylinder becomes depleted or is malfunctioning the company officer shall inform the IC or the next level of command within the Sector, Group, or Branch if one has been established. Member shall be accompanied to a safe area by another member who is using a SCBA D) The wearing/use of SCBAs may be dispensed with only when authorized by the IC

Answer 508

ANSWER: A) Members are not to utilize any FAST Pak for civilians (INCORRECT) (AUC 220) * For civilians, utilize a FAST Pak OTHER than the one assigned to the FAST Unit or utilize a spare SCBA

Question 509

Units are responding to a reported gas leak on the third floor of a multiple dwelling. While responding the first due ladder reports “they are responding with four firefighters.” The second due ladder reports they are responding “understaffed.” Which procedure below is correct in this situation? A) The 2nd due ladder officer transmits “we are responding understaffed.” No additional information is required in this transmission. B) A total of one additional truck will be assigned to the box after these two transmissions. C) Both transmissions must be “urgent” transmissions to the dispatcher. D) When arriving on scene after the first ladder company, the “understaffed” ladder shall take a defensive position.

Answer 509

ANSWER: B) A total of one additional truck will be assigned to the box after these two transmissions. (AUC 287: 8.2.4, 8.3.2, 8.3.3, 8.3.6) A - The 2nd due ladder officer transmits “we are responding understaffed” AND STATE THE NUMBER OF FIREFIGHTERS RESPONDING. C - IF THE OFFICER IS HAVING DIFFICULTY GETTING THIS MESSAGE TO THE DISPATCHER DUE TO HEAVY RADIO TRAFFIC, the officer shall transmit an “urgent” transmissions to the dispatcher to ensure the message is heard. D - When THE UNDERSTAFFED UNIT IS THE ONLY UNIT ON THE SCENE, they shall take a defensive position. NOTE “B”: WHEN NOTIFIED THAT A COMPANY IS RESPONDING UNDERSTAFFED THE DISPATCHER SHALL SPECIAL CALL ANOTHER UNIT (ENGINE FOR ENGINE, LADDER FOR LADDER ETC. AN ADDITIONAL LADDER COMPANY (ABOVE THE FAST TRUCK) SHALL BE ASSIGNED ON A 10-75 WHEN BOTH OF THE TWO INITIALLY ASSIGNED LADDER COMPANIES REPORT RESPONDING WITH FOUR FIREFIGHTERS.

Question 510

When operating at the scene of a fire at a ConEd transmission and distribution substation, company officers must be aware of the many hazards involved and ensure their members operate safely. Which tactic below is not in accordance with department procedures? A) A battery room fire may be extinguished with dry chemical extinguishers or water application from a safe distance. B) A 3 ½” supply line shall be stretched, but not charged, to the sprinkler siamese if present. C) Members shall set up handlines and/or large caliber streams to protect exposed buildings around the substation. D) When raising aerial ladders and tower ladder buckets, maintain an 10-foot safe clearance horizontally from the substation’s exterior fence line.

Answer 510

ANSWER: D) When raising aerial ladders and tower ladder buckets, maintain an 10-foot safe clearance horizontally from the substation’s exterior fence line. (INCORRECT) (AUC 338 Addendum 2: 5.1,5.2,5.5, 6) * When raising aerial ladders and tower ladder buckets, maintain an EIGHTEEN (18) FOOT safe clearance horizontally from the substation’s exterior fence line. NOTE “C” Cross ref AUC 338 2.1: Handlines shall NEVER be used on energized electrical components at ConEd facilities. (**BUT YOU CAN USE HANDLINES TO PROTECT EXPOSURES**)

Question 511

The Buckeye Pipeline basic components are two 12” steel pipes. One carries gasoline, and the other kerosene based aviation fuel. Which additional statement below is correct concerning operations at the Buckeye Pipeline? A) Valves other than the shippers line extending from the Long Island City terminal require 42 half turns to shut. B) When response to a street box reveals that the alarm was transmitted for a leak from the pipeline, the IC shall transmit a 10-75. C) During Division drills units shall carry out all the assignments on the instruction cards-this includes actually shutting down the valves. D) Pipeline profile cards have been placed in each valve box for the information and use of responding units.

Answer 511

ANSWER: D) Pipeline profile cards have been placed in each valve box for the information and use of responding units. (AUC 149: 2.3.2, 3.3.3, 5.4, 10.5.10) A. Valves other than the shippers line extending from the Long Island City terminal require 42 FULL turns to shut. B. When response to a street box reveals that the alarm was transmitted for a leak from the pipeline, the IC shall transmit a SECOND ALARM. C. During BOROUGH drills units shall carry out all the assignments on the instruction cards-this includes actually shutting down the valves.

Question 512

Which of the following operations is a FDNY single command event when the NYPD is on-scene first? A) Auto Extrication B) Impalement C) Boat in Distress D) Gas Emergency

Answer 512

ANSWER: B) Impalement (AUC 276: 4.2, 5.1) SINGLE COMMAND “ABC FEEDS” A - Auto Extrication (1st to arrive) B - Boat in Distress (1st to arrive) C - Confined Space F - Fire E - Elevator E - Entrapment / Impalement D - Downed Tree S - Structure Collapse UNIFIED COMMAND "UHEARD" U - Utility Emergencies H - Haz Mat (NYPD has terrorism/crime) E - Explosion A - Aviation R - Railway Incident D - Disasters (Hurricanes / natural etc.) * Telecommunication/Public Health Emergencies also

Question 513

When the FireIce extinguishing agent is utilized at the scene of a manhole fire, which of the following provisions is correct? A) Using a nozzle pressure between 60-100 psi is optimal. B) The member operating the nozzle should commence operations at a safe standoff distance of 25 feet. C) Only a chief officer can order the application of FireIce. D) Direct the stream of FireIce solution to fall approximately two feet in front of the hole manhole opening, and allow the product to flow into the manhole.

Answer 513

ANSWER: C) Only a chief officer can order the application of FireIce. (AUC 180 Addendum 2 7.2, 8.3, 8.4, 8.5) A - Using a nozzle pressure between SIXTY TO EIGHTY (60-80 psi) is optimal. (NOTE: 60-100 psi is allowed but 60-80 psi is OPTIMAL). B -The member operating the nozzle should commence operations at a safe standoff distance of FIFTY (50 FEET). (Note: The nozzle team may advance toward the manhole while maintaining a MINIMUM SAFE DISTANCE OF 25 FEET) D - Direct the stream of FireIce solution to fall approximately ONE FOOT in front of the hole manhole opening, and allow the product to flow into the manhole.

Question 514

Exterior Insulation Finish System (EIFS) can be found in combustible and non-combustible occupancies including offices, taxpayers, factories, hotels, multiple dwellings and private houses. When encountering these systems, which of the following operating procedures is correct? A) Upon transmission of signal 10-75 for a fire in an EIFS building, a Tower Ladder must be special called. B) Initial handlines should only be positioned for an exterior attack on the fire. C) If possible, the number of lengths stretched should be enough to cover all sides of the building. D) A 2 ½” hoseline must be stretched for a fire in any EIFS building.

Answer 514

ANSWER: C) If possible, the number of lengths stretched should be enough to cover all sides of the building. (AUC 362: 2.2, 2.3, 2.8) A - Upon transmission of signal 10-75 for a fire in an EIFS building, AN ADDITIONAL ENGINE AND LADDER SHALL BE SPECIAL CALLED. THE SPECIAL CALLED LADDER SHALL BE A TOWER LADDER IF ONE IS NOT ASSIGNED ON THE FIRST ALARM. B - Initial handlines should be positioned for BOTH AN INTERIOR AND EXTERIOR attack on the fire. D - THE SIZE OF THE HANDLINE STRETCHED IS DEPENDENT ON THE SIZE OF THE BUILDING AND THE EXTENT OF THE FIRE. A BUILDING 3 STORIES OR HIGHER, OR A LARGE AREA BUILDING, MAY REQUIRE THE USE OF A 2 ½” HANDLINE. A 1 ¾” HANDLINE MAY BE SUFFICIENT FOR A SMALLER PRIVATE DWELLING.

Question 515

The Captain of Ladder 100 arrives first due for a fire in a multiple dwelling. CIDS information indicates that the building has photovoltaic electrical system. The IC directs Ladder 100 to shut-off the electrical power to ensure power does not enter the building from the PV array conduit, batteries, or the back-up generator. The Captain would be correct to have his members shut power at which one of the following locations? A) The main electrical panel. B) The PV disconnect (isolation) switch. C) The inverter. D) The combiner box.

Answer 515

ANSWER: C) The inverter (AUC 353 6.1, 7.0) Note: Shutting off power to the a the main electrical power does NOT ensure that all power to the building has been removed. The same holds true for opening PV disconnect (isolation) switches. Combiner boxes should NOT be opened by firefighters in an attempt to shut down the PV array.

Question 516

Ladder 200 is operating at the scene of a person pinned underneath a subway car. The on-scene BC informs the truck officer that power removal is pending confirmation by the FDNY dispatcher. The officer of Ladder 200 orders one of his members to shut power via the power removal box. Which action described below is incorrect? A) After activating the power removal box, the member immediately contacted the Desk Superintendent via the emergency telephone. B) The member located the power removal box and emergency telephone near a blue light. C) Following the operation, the officer of Ladder 200 forwarded a letterhead report through the chain of command to the Chief of Operations with full particulars. D) The activation of the power removal box does not alleviate the Officer in Command of the responsibility of requesting and confirming the removal of power via the FDNY dispatcher.

Answer 516

ANSWER: C) Following the operation, the officer of Ladder 200 forwarded a letterhead report through the chain of command to the Chief of Operations with full particulars. (INCORRECT) (AUC 207: 3.2.4, 8.1) * Following the operation, THE INCIDENT COMMANDER forwarded a letterhead report through the chain of command to the Chief of Operations with full particulars. NOTE: The question stated the BC was on-scene, therefore the report is his/her responsibility.

Question 517

When driving through standing water, the depth of water to be crossed should not exceed ___ inches for first line apparatus. A) 12 B) 18 C) 24 D) 50

Answer 517

ANSWER: B) 18 (AUC 159: 5.4.3) * The depth of water to be crossed should not exceed 18” for first line apparatus, and 50” for FDNY Hi-Axle vehicles.

Question 518

DANGER DO NOT ENTER tape shall be used to isolate designated areas that members should not enter. Members may only enter the area marked off by this tape in certain situations. Which one mentioned below is incorrect? A) To save life. B) When authorized by the Safety Chief. C) When authorized by the Sector Chief. D) When authorized by the Incident Commander.

Answer 518

ANSWER: B) When authorized by the Safety Chief. (INCORRECT) (AUC 360 2.3) Code: “SIL” S - Sector Chief I - Incident Commander L - Life

Question 519

The ladder officer working in the quarters of Engine 100 and Ladder 100 enters the kitchen during his night tour and discovers two on-duty and two off-duty members of the truck drinking what appears to be alcoholic beverages. No other members are involved. He immediately takes the following actions. Which one is correct? A) He prohibits the on-duty members from leaving the premises. He allows the off-duty members to leave quarters. B) He notifies the administrative BC and the IG. C) He immediately has the Engine and Ladder placed out of service. D) He documents the incident in the company journal

Answer 519

ANSWER: D) He documents the incident in the company journal (AUC 202: 5.5) A - He prohibits the on-duty AND OFF-DUTY members from leaving the premises. B - He notifies the administrative BC and BITS. C - He immediately has the Ladder placed out of service. (NOTE: ONLY THE AFFECTED UNIT. THERE WERE NO MEMBERS OF THE ENGINE INVOLVED) “PROBBE” P - Prohibit ON AND OFF-DUTY members present at the time of discovery of any violation of this policy from leaving the premises without the permission of the investigating officer. R - Relieve the on-duty member(s) from emergency response duty. O - OOS: Have the AFFECTED UNIT placed OOS. B - BITS: Notify BITS B - BC: Notify the administrative BC E - Entry in the company journal

Question 520

A company officer should be aware that which of the following situations requires a written notification to BITS? A) A members dangerous misuse of Department vehicles. B) A member has a serious confrontation with a civilian. C) Preference of charges against a member. D) Reporting the arrest of a Department member.

Answer 520

ANSWER: (AUC 268: 3.1, 4.1) Phone Notification: “AABBCCDD” Arrest of member; Alcohol on duty Brawl between members Confrontations with civilians, PD, or other government agencies which may lead to disciplinary action. Dangerous misuse of a Department vehicle, Drugs on duty Written Notification: “IMMAC” Incompetence Misconduct not falling within jurisdiction of IG Misuse or misappropriation of the Department’s time. Arrest of member (follow up information) Charges (Preference of charges against a member)

Question 521

Ladder 300 arrives at the scene of a transformer fire. As the officer approaches the scene, the on-scene utility company representative informs the officer that the transformer is a NYC owned Non-PCB transformer. The officer should expect to see which color label? A) Yellow B) Red C) Blue D) Green

Answer 521

ANSWER: C) Blue (AUC 266 1.5.1, 1.5.3, 1.5.4) PCB Transformers: EPA label PCB Contaminated Transformers (NYC owned only): DEP Yellow Label Non-PCB Transformer (NYC owned only): DEP Blue Label

Question 522

Ladder 80 has just taken up from a challenging brush fire operation. The company officer gathers her members for an informal critique of the fire. She makes the following points. Which one is incorrect? A) In all circumstances, units responding to a brush fire shall never self-commit to operations. B) If necessary to operate in front of the fire (only to protect life), sufficient charged lines must be in place capable of protecting operating forces. C) Fires burning on hillsides will burn rapidly towards the top of the hill. Have units positioned on streets at the top of the hill to protect exposures but attack the fire from the bottom of the hill. D) Use extreme caution when brush fires burn near utility transmission lines. Never operate hoselines beneath high voltage lines.

Answer 522

ANSWER: A) In all circumstances, units responding to a brush fire shall never self-commit to operations. (INCORRECT) (AUC 151: 5.1.2, 5.4.6, 5.4.16, 5.11.11) * Units responding to a brush fire ARE NOT TO self-commit to operations UNLESS STRUCTURES ARE EXPOSED.

Question 523

Upon return from a CFRD assignment, three members of your unit report their bunker coats are grossly contaminated with the patient’s blood. You would be correct in all actions below except in which choice? A) Have each member remove all items from their pockets and place each bunker coat in a double (two) clear bag, tied or taped closed, with an Equipment Decontamination Report (EDR-1) completed and placed in between the two bags, facing outward. B) Fax a completed EDR-1 to the Decontamination Support Unit. All members with the same contaminant shall be listed on a single form. C) Include the combination to the lock for access to the firehouse on the EDR-1. D) If loaner gear is needed, simply note that on the EDR-1; no other form is required.

Answer 523

ANSWER: D) If loaner gear is needed, simply note that on the EDR-1, no other form is required. (INCORRECT) (AUC 310 Add 5 2.3, 2.10, 3.3, p3 #6) * FIRE - If loaner gear is needed, a Loaner Equipment Tracking Report is to be completed and faxed to the DSU. B Note: Separate forms are required for different contaminants. C Note: If there is no combination lock to access the Facility, write “key lock” in the Combo# section of the EDR-1.

Question 524

It is Wednesday, 1/1/2021, and as Captain of a unit that houses a Satellite, you plan to schedule a drill with the back-up Engine Company and the Foam Tender. You would be most correct to plan the first upcoming drill for? A) The first Saturday of January B) The first Sunday of January C) The first Saturday of February D) The first Sunday of March

Answer 524

ANSWER: C) The first Saturday of February (AUC 274 10.1.1) * Each Satellite unit shall take part in a drill with the back-up Engine Company once each month. The drill shall take place on the first Saturday of each month replacing each unit’s regularly scheduled weekend Multi Unit Drill. * In addition, a Foam Carrier and/or a Foam Tender carrying fluoroprotein foam shall participate with these units on the first Saturday of every OTHER month (February, April, June, August, October, and December) of each year. * During inclement weather, 10-51, etc., the foam drill will be rescheduled to the next week. When drilling during winter months, units may simulate operations.

Question 525

During drill, you discuss Architectural Barrier Removal (ABR) Schools and Non-ABR Schools with your members. “Non-ABR" Schools operate under an Individual Safety Plan (ISP) concept. In these schools, a member or members of the school staff will be responsible for each student who cannot remove themselves. Each student's plan, which the person in charge will have in their possession, will contain the following information listed in each choice below except? A) Name of student. B) Location of the student’s designated “Holding Area” within the building. C) Names of staff member(s) designated to evaluate the student. D) Name of back-up staff member(s) in the event that designated staff member is absent or out of the building.

Answer 525

ANSWER: B) Location of the student’s designated “Holding Area” within the building. (INCORRECT) (AUC 277 5.3) * Location of student WITHIN THE BUILDING THROUGHOUT THE SCHOOL DAY. * A “Holding Area” is a designated room in an “ABR school” that is fully enclosed with noncombustible partitions and located adjacent to an exit stairway. These are not present in Non-ABR schools....that is why an Individual Safety Plan (ISP) is required.

Question 526

Engine 199 is operating at the scene of a manhole fire on a hot summer day. The manhole is actively flaming and the Captain of Engine 199 is contemplating using a hose stream to knock down the fire. Which one choice below is incorrect regarding this operation? A) Units should not operate into manholes unless requested by a Con Ed employee at the scene. B) Members should not pull the cover off sewer manholes at a manhole fire or if a manhole fire is in the area. C) If placing water in a manhole, do not direct the stream directly into the manhole. Instead, let the water flow or pour into the manhole. D)If placing water in a manhole, use a fog nozzle to reduce or prevent any shock hazard.

Answer 526

ANSWER: B) Members should not pull the cover off sewer manholes at a manhole fire or if a manhole fire is in the area. (INCORRECT) (AUC 180 Notes #2) * Members should not pull the cover off ELECTRIC MANHOLES at a manhole fire or if a manhole fire is in the area. Cross Ref with Natural Gas Pg 37: SEWER manhole covers may be removed by FDNY personnel with the approval of an on - scene Chief Officer. Round, ELECTRIC manhole covers can be removed by FDNY personnel only when all of the following conditions are met: 1) Requested by an on-scene Utility Company worker. 2) Approved by an on-scene Chief Officer. 3) The cover has been determined to be free of stray voltage by the on-scene Utility Company. Rectangular or square ELECTRIC manhole covers shall not be pulled by FDNY personnel. DO NOT pull any ELECTRIC manhole covers (or any cover if there is doubt as to its type) when: 1) There is a manhole fire in the area; or 2) Smoking or arcing is observed in an electric manhole or transformer vault.

Question 527

Captain Newbie made a few decisions in the unit he was covering in. Which decision was correct? A) FF Dallas, the senior chauffeur, was driving the Engine apparatus on the 9X6 tour and was awaiting relief until 1845 hours. Captain Newbie entered a Citytime Chauffeur mark of 9 hours 45 minutes for FF Dallas. B) FF Kane, a regular chauffeur, was working the 6X9 tour but had to take emergency leave at 2200 hours. Captain Newbie entered a Citytime Chauffeur mark of 15 hours for FF Kane. C) Capt Newbie would not allow FF Brett, a regular chauffeur, to drive the Engine because FF Brett’s drivers license was suspended. Instead, he detailed FF Brett to drive the Battalion. D) FF Parker, a regular chauffeur who had his license previously suspended, submitted a copy of a receipt from the Department of Motor Vehicles showing his drivers license suspension was lifted; however, Captain Newbie did not let him drive any apparatus pending the “approved” report received back from the Bureau of Personnel.

Answer 527

ANSWER: D) FF Parker, a regular chauffeur who had his license previously suspended, submitted a copy of a receipt from the Department of Motor Vehicles showing his drivers license suspension was lifted; however, Captain Newbie did not let him drive any apparatus pending the “approved” report received back from the Bureau of Personnel. (AUC 254 6.3, 6.4, 7.2, 7.4) * Reports received at the Bureau of Personnel will be verified, stamped “approved” and returned to the proper unit. Until such time the approved report is returned to the unit, the affected member shall NOT be allowed to drive ANY Department vehicle. A - This should be a Citytime entry for 9 hours only. Members performing chauffeur duties will be entitled to the differential ONLY for scheduled tour hours and NOT BEYOND. The differential is NOT provided in situations where the chauffeur works beyond the end of the tour. B - This should be a Citytime entry for 4 hours only. If a member is placed on leave, he/she shall be eligible for differential ONLY for the time actually spent performing chauffeur duties during that tour. C - During the period of suspension, revocation, etc., the affected members shall not be allowed to drive ANY Department vehicles.

Question 528

In which “hazard substance list” series could you find information pertaining to Private Sector-owned PCB containing equipment in New York City? A) Series #100 B) Series #200 C) Series #300 D) Series #400

Answer 528

ANSWER: D) Series #400 (AUC 266 Add 1-4) * FDNY "Hazardous Substance Lists" will be issued periodically. When a new list is received the old list shall be forwarded to: Bureau of Fire Prevention, Toxic Substance Unit, Attn: Officer in Charge.

Question 529

Which member below is not entitled to chauffeur pay differential? A) Chauffeur of Squad 2 who received no responses or drill assignments during the 9X6 tour B) Tiller FF of Ladder 100 who received no responses during the 6X9 tour C) Member assigned to drive Satellite 7 on the 9X6 tour, where no responses or drill assignments were received D) Member assigned to drive Decontamination Unit 3 on the 6X9 tour, where no responses were received, but one drill assignment was received

Answer 529

ANSWER: C) Member assigned to drive Satellite 7 on the 9X6 tour, where no responses or drill assignments were received. (AUC 254 6.1, 6.2) Satellite / Foam / Brush Fire etc. only get marks when you receive an actual response. Possible In-Basket

Question 530

Which of the following situations requires written notification to the Bureau of Investigations and Trials? A) Misuse of the Department's time. B) On-duty incidents involving alcohol. C) Physical altercations among members. D) Any allegation concerning the offer or acceptance of a bribe or gratuity by an employee or person dealing with the City.

Answer 530

ANSWER: A) Misuse of the Department's time. (AUC 268A 2.1.5, 3.1.1, 3.1.2, 4.1.5) B - Immediate notification to BITS. C - Immediate notification to BITS. D - Direct notification to the IG. * Although IG/BITS questions are most often non-inbasket, an IG/BITS question that was reference material did appear on a previous Captain’s exam.

Question 531

A newly promoted Captain is working his first tour in a Staten Island engine company. Shortly after roll call, his unit responds on a second alarm to a brush fire. The Captain has the following thoughts, but was incorrect in which one? A) Units responding to brush fires are never to self-commit to operations. B) If necessary to operate in front of the fire (only to protect life), sufficient charged lines must be in place and capable of protecting operating forces. C) The majority of brush fires are controlled with two-firefighter teams working with Indian pumps and brooms along the flanks near the head of the fire. D) Fires burning on hillsides will burn rapidly towards the top of the hill. Have units positioned on streets at the top of the hill to protect exposures but attack the fire from the bottom of the hill and work upward.

Answer 531

ANSWER: A) Units responding to brush fires are never to self-commit to operations. (INCORRECT) (AUC 151 5.1.2) * Units responding to brush fires are NOT to self-commit to operations UNLESS STRUCTURES ARE EXPOSED. SIMILAR QUESTION ON 2014 CAPT EXAM

Question 532

The Captain of Ladder 500 is about to board a light train in the subway for a reported rubbish fire in the tunnel. She should know that all of the following light train procedures are correct except which one? A) It is intended that these “light trains” be used to transport FD personnel to small fires readily extinguishable by one or two extinguishers, or to investigate the source of minor smoke conditions and similar type incidents. B) The primary means of communication shall be the Train Operators radio. C) If necessary to disembark the “light train”, two handie-talkie equipped members shall be assigned to remain with the train operator to maintain communications. D) Only the Chief in Charge can make the decision to use a “light train” based on the size-up of the incident.

Answer 532

ANSWER: C) If necessary to disembark the “light train”, two handie-talkie equipped members shall be assigned to remain with the train operator to maintain communications. (INCORRECT) (AUC 207 Addendum 7 1.0, 2.1, 2.2.1, 2.4) * If necessary to disembark the “light train”, A HANDIE-TALKIE EQUIPPED MEMBER shall be assigned to remain with the train operator to maintain communications.

Question 533

A Captain operating at the scene of a single unit operation discovers a large amount of currency. Who shall she notify in order to voucher this currency? A) Fire marshals only B) NYPD only C) Fire Marshals and NYPD D) A Battalion Chief

Answer 533

ANSWER: A) Fire marshals only (AUC 317 5.14) **THIS QUESTION WAS ASKED ON A PREVIOUS COMPANY OFFICER EXAM**

Question 534

The duties of the newly-established position of “Rehabilitation Manager” are correctly indicated in each choice below except? A) The Rehabilitation Manager will respond on 2nd and greater alarms, 10-60 and when special called by the Incident Commander. This position must be staffed by a Battalion Chief. B) The Rehabilitation Manager will supervise the RAC Unit on scene at fires and emergencies and assist in coordination of additional resources for the Rehabilitation Group. C) The Rehabilitation Manager will maintain communications with the Resource Unit Leader and the assigned EMS Officer. D) Ensure members participate in medical screening based on the direction of the IC and/or EMS members’ assessment.

Answer 534

ANSWER: A) The Rehabilitation Manager will respond on 2nd and greater alarms, 10-60 and when special called by the Incident Commander. This position must be staffed by a Battalion Chief. (INCORRECT) (AUC 230 Add 1 5.2, 5.3) * This position WILL be staffed by a Battalion Chief OR a Captain.

Question 535

Your unit, E200 (assigned to Queens), is relocated to E100, located in Brooklyn. At 1700 hours, you should notify who that relief will, or may, be required? A) The Brooklyn dispatcher B) The Queens dispatcher C) The administrative Battalion Chief of E100 D) The administrative Battalion Chief of E200

Answer 535

ANSWER: A) The Brooklyn dispatcher (AUC 217 4.1) * Officers on duty with units relocated to another quarters shall (at 0800 or 1700) notify the dispatcher in the borough IN WHICH RELOCATED that relief will, or may, be required. * The dispatcher shall notify the Divisions concerned (if a Division is not available, the Battalion shall be notified) who shall cooperate in effecting the relief.

Question 536

In an effort to help reduce damage caused by the forcing of elevator and escalator machine room doors, New York City Transit has installed 1620 locks on elevator and escalator machine room doors throughout the NYCT system for FDNY use in an emergency. Which choice below is incorrect? A) Doors equipped with these locks can be identified by the red colored lockset and firefighter’s helmet symbol affixed to the door. B) Units encountering rooms equipped with these locks shall use a 1620 key to access the room. C) If a door equipped with a 1620 lock is forced, units are to forward a report to the Chief of Safety with the Box Number, Station Name and Room Number along with the particulars of the incident. D) If a door equipped with a 1620 lock is forced, units are to notify PTSU via email at PTSU@fdny.nyc.govwith the Box Number, Station Name and Room Number along with the particulars of the incident.

Answer 536

ANSWER: C) If a door equipped with a 1620 lock is forced, units are to forward a report to the Chief of Safety with the Box Number, Station Name and Room Number along with the particulars of the incident. (INCORRECT) (AUC 207 Add 21) * If a door equipped with a 1620 lock is forced, units are to forward a report to the CHIEF OF OPERATIONS with the Box Number, Station Name and Room Number along with the particulars of the incident.

Question 537

When a person enters quarters requesting a spray cap for a hydrant, each of the following actions should be taken except? A) The member on housewatch should ensure that the requesting party is at least 18 years old. B) The member on housewatch should require that a Request for Spray Caps Form be completed. C) The member on housewatch should provide a copy of the Spray Cap Permit/Instructions sheet. D) The officer on duty shall review documents and notify the applicant approximately when the company will be able to turn on the hydrant. This should be scheduled when convenient during the day tour.

Answer 537

ANSWER: D) The officer on duty shall review documents and notify the applicant approximately when the company will be able to turn on the hydrant. This should be scheduled when convenient during the day tour. (INCORRECT) (AUC 205 5.3) * Officer on duty shall review documents and notify the applicant approximately when the company will be able to turn on the hydrant. This should usually be scheduled within the HOUR.

Question 538

Which one of the following notifications was the most correct action for a company officer to take based on the circumstances indicated below? A) BITS was immediately notified by telephone at 1400 hours on a business day regarding the preferences of charges against a member B) The Inspector General was immediately notified by telephone at 1000 hours on a business day regarding the dangerous misuse of an Engine apparatus C) The Inspector General was immediately notified regarding a theft from quarters by a FDNY employee by calling FDOC at 2200 hours and requesting the IG’s on-call supervisor D) BITS was notified in writing regarding a physical altercation among members

Answer 538

ANSWER: C) The Inspector General was immediately notified regarding a theft from quarters by a FDNY employee by calling FDOC at 2200 hours and requesting the IG’s on-call supervisor (AUC 268—2, 2.1.10, 3.1.1, 3.1.2) A - Charges (WRITTEN notification to BITS) "IMMAC" B - Dangerous Misuse of Dept. Vehicles (TELEPHONE/IMMEDIATE notification to BITS) "AABBCCDD" C - In cases of emergencies, the IG on call supervisor should be contacted through FDOC. D - Physical altercation (Boxing w/ Brothers - TELEPHONE/IMMEDIATE notification to BITS) "AABBCCDD"

Question 539

Captain Warren is working a 9 x 6 tour on a Monday in Engine 65 when she sees in the daybook that E65 is scheduled for Operation Sidewalk at 1400 hours at PS 53. In this situation, the Captain would be most correct to think that? A) Engine 65 will be assigned to this event for 90 minutes B) Engine 65 will be in service by radio and respond to alarms at the Officer’s discretion. C) Operation Sidewalk will not be cancelled if a Signal 10-51 is transmitted D) If Operation Sidewalk is cancelled, the Captain must notify both PS 53 and the Fire Safety Education Unit Feedback

Answer 539

ANSWER: D) If Operation Sidewalk is cancelled, the Captain must notify both PS 53 and the Fire Safety Education Unit (AUC 4 — 3.3) A - 1 HOUR B - The unit will remain in service by radio, and respond at the discretion of the DISPATCHER. C - “Operation Sidewalk” WILL BE CANCELLED if a Signal 10-51 is transmitted

Question 540

Engine 69 and Ladder 28 respond to a reported manhole fire. On arrival, they see smoke pushing from a manhole under pressure. Which action would be most correct for them to consider? A) They should transmit a 10-25 Code 2, which will trigger the immediate dispatch of a utility emergency crew B) They should stretch a precautionary hose line with a fog nozzle, but only operate the line directly into the manhole if requested by a Con Ed employee at the scene C) They should order the response of the utility company and request an expected time of arrival D) They should move vehicles located in the danger area away from the manhole

Answer 540

ANSWER: C) They should order the response of the utility company and request an expected time of arrival (AUC 180—1.1, 2.3, 2.4, 2.5) A - Utility Company only dispatched for Code 1 and 4. B - Precautionary hoselines shall be stretched as necessary. Units should not operate into manholes unless requested by a Con Edison employee at the scene. If requested to place water into a manhole, DO NOT direct the stream directly into the manhole. Instead, let water FLOW OR POUR into the manhole. Use a fog nozzle to reduce or prevent any shock hazard. D - Members SHALL NOT attempt to move vehicles located in the danger area.

Question 541

Which one of the following tactical operations is one of the FDNY core competencies under the Citywide Incident Management System? A) Evacuation of outdoor areas like streets and parks B) Water and ice—search and rescue C) Investigation of a major case of arson D) Life Safety Operations at a suspected terrorist Haz-Mat incident

Answer 541

ANSWER: D) Life Safety Operations at a suspected terrorist Haz-Mat incident (AUC 276—2.1, 2.2) "FEMSLAM" (CORE COMPETENCIES) F - Fire Supression E - Evacuation of STRUCTURES (PD has areas) M - Medical care in pre-hospital setting S - Search and Rescue (PD has water and ice) L - LIFE SAFETY at CBRN/HazMat incidents A - Arson (PD has major cases) M - Mass Decontamination Choice A - NYPD has outdoor areas such as parks Choice B - NYPD has water/ice rescue Choice C - NYPD has major case arson Choice D - Unified Command for Hazmat Incidents (NYPD has terrorism or crime) HOWEVER, we are responsible for LIFE SAFETY at CBRN/Hazmat Incidents.

Question 542

Ladder 142 responds to a 10-77 as the Vent Support Unit for a fire on the 15th floor of a 26-story HRFPMD. The IC directs the Officer to set up two fans to pressurize the attack stairwell as the wind impacted fire has still not been knocked down. In this situation, the officer would be most correct to set up fans blowing into the stairwell? A) Four feet from the attack stair doors on the ground floor and the 14th floor, with an angle tilt of 80 degrees B) Three feet from the attack stair doors on the ground floor and the 12th floor, with an angle tilt of 80 degrees C) Five feet from the attack stair doors on the ground floor and the 12th floor, with an angle tilt of 80 degrees D) Six feet from the attack stair doors on the ground floor and the 12th floor, with an angle tilt of 60 degrees

Answer 542

ANSWER: C) Five feet from the attack stair doors on the ground floor and the 12th floor, with an angle tilt of 80 degrees. (AUC 349—7.2, 7.3) * Optimum placement of the fan is 4-6 feet (80 degree angle) * One fan can provide proper pressure in a stairwell up to 10 stories. * Two fans will pressurize a 40 story building. * Buildings over 10 stories (SECOND FAN REQUIRED TO BE BROUGHT THREE FLOORS BELOW THE FIRE - This is why choice A is wrong in this scenario)

Question 543

Ladder 9 arrives at the scene of a fire in an ABR Public School where the principal informs the Officer on arrival that the non-ambulatory students are located in the Holding Area on the 4th floor of the building. In this situation, the Ladder Officer should know that? A)The windows in the Holding Area must, when opened, provide an area free of obstructions that is at least 32 inches wide by 40 inches high B) Window sills on windows designated for removal in the Holding Area must be painted white, inside and outside C) Windows in the Holding Area that are designated for removal, shall have a sign attached outside on the top window pane that reads “F.D. Holding Area” D) Interior doors leading to Holding Area(s) shall be provided with a sign that reads “Holding Area” in red letters on a white background

Answer 543

ANSWER: D) Interior doors leading to Holding Area(s) shall be provided with a sign that reads “Holding Area” in red letters on a white background (AUC 277 - 4) A - Windows in Holding Area(s) designated for removal of non-ambulatory students shall provide, when opened, an area free of obstructions that is at least 32" wide and (FORTY EIGHT) 48" high accessible to Fire Department equipment. B - Window sills on windows designated for removal shall be painted RED, inside and outside, with a sign attached outside, top window pane. C - This sign shall read "F.D. ACCESS" (Red lettering on a white background).

Question 544

Regarding the use of the Probationary Firefighter Training Notebook, it would incorrect to state that? A) Members who have had their probationary period extended, shall continue to maintain their Training Notebooks for a period of time equal to their extended probation B) Probationary Firefighters shall review their Training Notebook monthly, initialing and dating it at the time of review in blue or black ink C) Officers on duty must review the Training Notebook each tour the member works, initialing and dating the notebook in red ink D) Probationary firefighters shall document all leaves other than regular leaves in their Training Notebook, entering the date the leave started and ended.

Answer 544

ANSWER: B) Probationary Firefighters shall review their Training Notebook monthly, initialing and dating it at the time of review in blue or black ink (INCORRECT) (AUC 323—Add 2—1.4, 1.7, 1.9, 2.1) * Probies review WEEKLY / initial and date in blue/black * Officer on Duty review EACH TOUR / initial in red ink * Company Commander - MONTHLY / red ink * Chief Officer - During company drill visits / red

Question 545

Regarding the preparation of the EBF-4 by a company officer, it would be most correct to state that? A) The Intranet EBF-4 should be completed immediately after the start of the tour by an incoming officer, whether the unit is in quarters or not B) When a company receives a response before the end of a tour and is subsequently operating at an incident after the start of the next tour, the officer should use the In-Rig EBF-4 to complete the EBF-4 as soon as possible. C) The Intranet EBF-4 can only be filled out for the current tour D) The In-Rig EBF-4 must be used every Monday on the 9x6 tour, instead of using the EBF-4 application

Answer 545

ANSWER: B) When a company receives a response before the end of a tour and is subsequently operating at an incident after the start of the next tour, the officer should use the In-Rig EBF-4 to complete the EBF-4 as soon as possible. (AUC 346—2.1, 2.3, 6.1, 6.6) A - The EBF-4 should be completed immediately AFTER the start of the tour, and ONLY if the company is in quarters. C - Unlike the Intranet EBF-4, the IN-RIG EBF-4 CAN ONLY BE FILLED OUT FOR THE CURRENT TOUR. D - In-Rig EBF-4 used every SUNDAY on 9x6 tour

Question 546

Captain Walsh and his engine company are picking up the meal at the local supermarket when a civilian asks them for assistance because another person is harassing them. Captain Walsh requests the response of the NYPD and they await their arrival. Captain Walsh must now forward a letterhead report with the details of the incident to whom? A) The Borough Commander B) The Bureau of Fire Investigation C) The Chief of Operations D) The Chief of Department

Answer 546

ANSWER: C) The Chief of Operations (AUC 3 1.5) * This report must include: The civilian’s name, And the Police Officer’s identity. Also, the officer must take a mark in the Company Journal including the same information

Question 547

Your company responds to a CFR-D response for a child with a major injury. While treating the child you believe the child has suffered from abuse by his parents. As the officer in charge you should take all but which one of the following actions? A) Request the response of the NYPD, an FDNY EMS Supervisor and ambulance. B) Take the child into protective custody until the arrival of the NYPD. D) Complete the mandated report of suspected child abuse as required by the NY State Social Service’s Law. D) Record the incident in the company Journal Feedback

Answer 547

ANSWER: D) Complete the mandated report of suspected child abuse as required by the NY State Social Service’s Law. (INCORRECT) (AUC 3 1.6, 1.7) * EMS crew is responsible for completing this report

Question 548

A Captain who receives a request from a local school teacher to have the company visit their school would be correct to take which one of the following? A) Schedule the visit on a day the unit is not scheduled for BISP or hydrant inspection. B) Have the teacher contact the Fire Safety Education Unit via email or telephone. C) Have the teacher contact the Bureau of Operations by telephone. D) Attend the scheduled visit even if a 10-51 signal is ordered.

Answer 548

ANSWER: B) Have the teacher contact the Fire Safety Education Unit via email or telephone. (AUC 4) * For visits OTHER THAN to the firehouse, the officer will have the REQUESTER contact Fire Safety Education. * If the request was for a firehouse the officer could schedule the visit. The officer would note the event in the daybook then enter the info into the Fire Safety Education Tracking System

Question 549

A Captain assigned as the Investigating Officer in a situation where three members may have been drinking alcohol while on duty is responsible for all but which one of the following actions? A) Conduct a roll call of all on-duty and off-duty members present in the firehouse. B) Advise all officers and firefighters present at the time of the investigation of their right to representation before being questioned. C) Conduct an investigation to ascertain which member(s) may have engaged in the drinking. D) Forward a report to the Chief of Department, via the Chain of Command, documenting the reasons that the Investigating Officer either ordered or did not order testing of members for alcohol.

Answer 549

ANSWER: B) Advise all officers and firefighters present at the time of the investigation of their right to representation before being questioned. (INCORRECT) (AUC 202 5.7) * Advise all Officers and FFs whom YOU REASONABLY BELIEVE MAY BE THE SUBJECT OF CHARGES of their right to representation. NOTE: PA/ID 2-73 states “ The warning and the right to representation does not extend to members who are witnesses. Any refusal to answer questions will result in disciplinary charges for refusal to answer”

Question 550

As you walk into the rear yard of your firehouse you find 2 on duty members drinking alcohol. You immediately prohibit all members from leaving the firehouse, except for one member who needs to take Emergency leave. The member requesting to leave is not suspected of participating in the alcohol drinking. After consulting with the Investigating Officer, the member is given permission to leave. The Investigating Officer must forward a report, through the chain of command, documenting the reason for the release to whom? A) Fire Commissioner B) Chief of Operations C) BITS D) Chief of Department

Answer 550

ANSWER: D) Chief of Department | AUC 202 5.5

Question 551

Every Officer who reasonably suspects or knows that any member violates the FDNY Substance Policy (AUC 202), shall immediately take how many of the following? 1. Prohibit all on-duty and off-duty members present at the time of any violation form leaving without permission of the Investigating Officer. 2. Relieve on-duty members from emergency response duty 3. Have the affected unit(s) placed out of service 4. Notify the administrative Battalion Chief 5. Notify the Inspector General 6. Conduct a Roll Call 7. Document the incident in the Company Journal A) 7 B) 6 C) 5 D) 4

Answer 551

ANSWER: C) 5 (1, 2, 3, 4, 7 are CORRECT)) (AUC 202 5.5) (5 and 6 are INCORRECT) 5 - Notify BITS 6 - The INVESTIGATING Officer will conduct a Roll Call.

Question 552

Every officer who observes a member exhibiting possible signs of alcohol or drug abuse shall consult with? A) Bureau of Operations B) Bureau of Health Services C) Counseling Service Unit (CSU) D) Bureau of Investigations and Trials (BITS)

Answer 552

ANSWER: C) Counseling Service Unit (CSU) | AUC 202 5.4

Question 553

Of the following out of service hydrants found during inspection, which one should not be entered as requiring a “Priority Repair”? A) One of two hydrants on a dead end block B) A hydrant considered vital to the protection of the Lincoln Tunnel C)Two adjacent hydrants found on a block that has one additional working hydrant D) The only hydrant on a small one way street

Answer 553

ANSWER: A) One of two hydrants on a dead end block (AUC 205 3.2) * Priority Repair: "HOT" H - Hydrants vital to the protection of high profile infrastructure. O - Only hydrant on a block T - Two adjacent hydrants on a block that are both OOS,

Question 554

An officer who is approached by a civilian requesting a hydrant spray cap would be correct to? A) Advise that spray caps may only be used between 9:00 am and 6:00 pm B) Ensure the requesting party is at least 16 years old C) Ensure caps are not installed on hydrants on two-way streets D) Ensure caps are not installed on hydrants located on mains larger than 16 inches.

Answer 554

ANSWER: C) Ensure caps are not installed on hydrants on two-way streets. (AUC 205 5.3, Add. 1) A - 10:00 am and 9:00 pm B - 18 years old D - 20 inches NOTE: Do not install on 2-way streets, near intersections, on bus routes or access routes to main traffic arteries.

Question 555

# Choose the correct choice in regards to FDNY Chauffeur guidelines. A) ECCs transferred to ladder companies, and LCCs transferred to engine companies shall retain their chauffeur status for one year from the transfer date. B) “Company Trained” members may be used as a chauffeur to fill a short term and temporary vacancy. C) Prior to attending Chauffeur Training School, each member must be given at least 3 hours of driver training, not including emergency responses. D) Members must have 5 years experience in the FDNY to be considered for Chauffeur Training School.

Answer 555

ANSWER: B) “Company Trained” members may be used as a chauffeur to fill a short term and temporary vacancy. (AUC 254 1.3, 2.4, 2.7, 2.9) * Shall have their prior unit chauffeur designation immediately revoked upon transfer. Exceptions will be granted with approval of the Chief of Ops, 5 hours, 3 years. Exceptions granted with the approval of the Chief of Operations.

Question 556

How many of the following units shall start each tour with at least 2 school-trained chauffeurs? 1. Foam Units 2. Satellite Units 3. Planning Vehicles 4. Airport Hose Wagons 5. Collapse Rescue Units 6. Decon Units (other than tractor trailer apparatus) A) 6 B) 5 C) 4 D) 3

Answer 556

ANSWER: C) 4 (#2,3,5,6) (AUC 254 4.2) "SCPD" S - Satellite C - Collapse P - Planning Vehicles D - Decon Units * Pay attention to this if you are required to pick a member to detail out for a tour. They can try to lure you into detailing out a member on RSOT or MSOT but they may be needed in your unit as a second chauffeur or 2nd CFR member.

Question 557

Which one of the following situations would require a written notification to the Bureau of Investigations and Trials (BITS)? A) Misuse or misappropriation of the Department’s time B) On-duty incident involving alcohol C) Confrontation between Department members and members of the Police Department D) An allegation concerning false claims by an FDNY employee that an off-duty injury occurred while on-duty

Answer 557

ANSWER: A) Misuse or misappropriation of the Department’s time (AUC 268A 4.1) * On-duty incident and confrontation between Dept members - Immediate telephone notification to BITS * Allegation concerning false claims by an FDNY employee - Direct notification to the IG.

Question 558

Of the following notifications made by FDNY officers, which one was performed correctly? A) An officer immediately called BITS directly at 0330 hours after notification that a member was arrested for assault. B) An officer called FDOC at 1300 hours on Tuesday to contact the IG’s on-call supervisor for an allegation concerning the falsification of CityTime entries. C) At 1000 hours on a Tuesday, an officer notified the IG directly regarding an allegation that a member accepted a bribe from a business owner during BISP. D) An officer notified BITS directly by telephone at 1500 hours on a Friday when the officer decided to prefer charges against the member for insubordination.

Answer 558

ANSWER: C) At 1000 hours on a Tuesday, an officer notified the IG directly regarding an allegation that a member accepted a bribe from a business owner during BISP. (AUC 268A 2.1, 3.1) * During business hours notify BITS directly. * During non-business hours notify FDOC * During business hours notify the IG directly. * During non-business hours notify FDOC to contact the IGs on call supervisor, Preference of Charges- written notification to BITS.

Question 559

Captain Breeze is supervising the placement of positive pressure fans (PPF) for positive pressure ventilation of the attack staircase in a high-rise MD fire. For optimal placement, the Captain would be correct to have the fans placed on the ground floor, directly facing the stairwell door at which position? A) 4 to 6 feet from the stairway at an angle tilt of 60 degrees B) 4 to 6 feet from the stairway at an angle tilt of 80 degrees C) 3 to 5 feet from the stairway at an angle tilt of 60 degrees D) 3 to 5 feet from the stairway at an angle tilt of 80 degrees

Answer 559

ANSWER: B) 4 to 6 feet from the stairway at an angle tilt of 80 degrees (AUC 349 7.2) * Do not place the fan inside the stairwell. Position it to blow air into the stair

Question 560

Engine 100 is performing BISP when a 12-year old child states he is frightened because he is being followed by people he does not know. In this situation, the officer would be most correct to? A) Notify the dispatcher that the unit is operating at a verbal alarm, but is still in service B) Request through the Department dispatcher the response of an EMS unit C) Forward a letterhead report to the Fire Commissioner with the civilian’s name and the identity of the police officer left in charge D) Make a company journal entry regarding the incident, and include the civilian’s name and the identity of the police officer left in charge

Answer 560

ANSWER: D) Make a company journal entry regarding the incident, and include the civilian’s name and the identity of the police officer left in charge (AUC 3—1.3, 1.4, 1.5) A - While out of quarters, if a member receives a request for assistance from a civilian, the officer shall notify the dispatcher that the company is OOS and that the unit is operating at a verbal alarm to assist a civilian. B - Request through the dispatcher the POLICE DEPT. C - Letterhead report to Chief of Operations

Question 561

Lt Terrors from Engine 99 is taking up from a CFR-D response when he notices suspicious training manuals in the apartment that the medical response occurred in. While the threat does not appear imminent, Lt Terrors is concerned. Regarding the reporting procedures for this suspicious activity, the officer would be most correct to? A) Use an SAR form to capture critical information at the scene, then immediately upon return to quarters email BFI regarding this incident B) If unsure of existing conditions, request BFI to respond to the scene C) Use an SAR form to capture critical information, then immediately upon return to quarters use the reporting system on Diamond Plate to report the incident D) Have NYPD and BFI respond forthwith.

Answer 561

ANSWER: C) Use an SAR form to capture critical information, then immediately upon return to quarters use the reporting system on Diamond Plate to report the incident (AUC 363 - 6,8.5, 8.6, 8.7, 8.9)

Question 562

FDNY Engine Company Chauffeurs supplying water to Port Authority ARFF Crash Trucks should not exceed ______ psi at the intakes of these trucks? Select one: A) 60 B) 80 C) 100 D) 120

Answer 562

ANSWER: B) 80 | AUC 325 4.1.2

Question 563

You are a company officer working in Engine 99, a single engine, who finds alcohol in the kitchen of the firehouse. In this situation, you would be most correct to? A) Advise the firefighters that you reasonably believe may be subject to charges of their right to representation before being questioned B) Conduct a Roll Call of all on-duty and off-duty members present in the premises C) Place Engine 99 out of service and relieve the on-duty members from emergency response duty. D) Prohibit on and off-duty members present from leaving the premises without your permission

Answer 563

ANSWER: C) Place Engine 99 out of service and relieve the on-duty members from emergency response duty. (AUC 202—5.5) A - Investigating Officer does this "RAIT" B - Investigating Officer does this "RAIT" D - Without the permission of the INVESTIGATING OFFICER

Question 564

Units arrive at the scene of a serious brush fire that is endangering nearby structures. In this situation, they would be most correct to think they should? A) Never self-commit to any operation without permission from the Incident Commander B) Be aware that fire burns downhill rapidly C) Consider wetting down unburned area ahead of the fire D) Operate in front of the fire only to protect exposures

Answer 564

ANSWER: C) Consider wetting down unburned area ahead of the fire (AUC 151—5.1.2, 5.3.5, 5.4.4, 5.4.6) A - Do not self commit unless STRUCTURES are exposed. B - Burn rapidly UPHILL. Position units on top of hill to protect exposures while attacking the fire from the bottom. D - In general AVOID attacking or operating from in front of the fire. ONLY TO PROTECT LIFE.

Question 565

At the scene of an incident, if more than one agency is capable of performing the same operations, the agency with the core competency will give tactical direction to other agencies performing operations with that competency. Which of the following tasks is a core competency of the FDNY? A) Water search and rescue B) Area evacuation C) Arson investigation (Major Case) D) CBRN/Haz-Mat life safety operations and mass decontamination

Answer 565

ANSWER: D) CBRN/Haz-Mat life safety operations and mass decontamination. (AUC 276 2.1, Addendum 2 Table 1) "FEMSLAM" F - Fire Suppression E - Evacuation of structures (NYPD has areas) M - Medical Care in pre-hospital setting S - Search and Rescue (NYPD has water/ice) L - Life Safety at CBRN/HazMat A - Arson Investigation - cause and origin (NYPD Major) M - Mass Decontamination

Question 566

Life safety operations include tactical initiatives taken to preserve and protect the public. These actions supersede all others. Which one comment below is incorrect concerning life safety operations at an incident? A) Under CIMS, the Fire Department has complete responsibility for life safety operations, which the protocol states are the highest priority objectives at any incident. B) At CBRN terrorist events, the Incident Commander can overrule the Fire Department tactical direction pertaining to life safety operations. C) Life safety operations in progress will not be disrupted or suspended because of transition of command to other agencies. D) The Primary Agency directing life safety operations may exclude non-essential personnel from a site when necessary to protect public or rescuer safety until those tasks are completed.

Answer 566

ANSWER: B) At CBRN terrorist events, the Incident Commander can overrule the Fire Department tactical direction pertaining to life safety operations. (INCORRECT) (AUC 276 3.1, 3.3, 3.4) * At CBRN terrorist events, the Incident Commander CANNOT overrule Fire Department tactical direction pertaining to Life Safety Operations.

Question 567

Whenever a unified command is established, the Fire Department will designate an Incident Commander who will jointly set incident objectives. Which one of the following incident types falls under unified command? A) Explosion B) Suspicious package C) Emotionally disturbed person D) Civil disturbance

Answer 567

ANSWER: A) Explosion (AUC 276 4.2, 5.1) "UHEARD" U - Utility Emergencies (GEWS) H - HazMat (NYPD has terrorism or crime) (At CBRN incidents the final zones/mitigation will be by DEP for chemical incidents and DOHMH for biological and radiological incidents) E - Explosion A - Aviation R - Rail Incident D - Disasters (hurricanes, other natural disasters) * ALSO - Telecommunication and Public Health Em.

Question 568

In a single command structure, the IC is solely responsible within the confines of his or her authority for establishing incident management objectives and strategies. When NYPD is the first to arrive, which incident below is a single command event with the FDNY as the primary agency? A) Auto extrication B) Boat in distress C) Explosive device D) Structural collapse

Answer 568

ANSWER: D) Structural collapse (AUC 276 5.1) "ABC FEEDS" A - Auto Extrication (1st to arrive) B - Boat in distress (1st to arrive) C - Confined Space F - Fire E - Elevators E - Entrapment/Impalement D - Downed Trees S - Structural collapse

Question 569

FDNY units arrive on scene of a chemical release in a laboratory. NYPD is on-scene and notifies the first arriving ladder company officer that the cause of the release is under investigation and has not yet been determined. The officer has the following thoughts. Which one is correct? A) A unified operations section will be implemented at this incident. B) A unified command will immediately be formed between the FDNY and NYPD. C) For chemical incidents, DOHMH will make final adjustments to hot, warm and cold zones and direct mitigation. D) For biological or radiological incidents, DEP will make final adjustments to hot, warm and cold zones and direct mitigation.

Answer 569

ANSWER: A) A unified operations section will be implemented at this incident. (AUC 276 6.1) B - A Unified Operations Section will be implemented in ALL circumstances, based on agency Core Competencies, with FDNY responsible for life safety and mass decontamination, and NYPD responsible for overall site management and crime/terrorism assessment and investigation. As soon as NYPD determines the incident does NOT involve crime or terrorism, a UNIFIED COMMAND IS FORMED between FDNY and NYPD. (NOT IMMEDITELY FORMED) C - Chemical Incidents (DEP) D - Biological/Radiological (DOHMH)

Question 570

An “ABR” school is a school that has one or more non-ambulatory students, contains the required holding area and has a written fire drill and evacuation plan. Which holding area requirement for non-ambulatory students outlined below is incorrect? A) The holding area shall face on a street accessible to fire department apparatus. B) Windows in holding area(s) designated for removal of non-ambulatory students shall be readily openable with the use of a key. C) Window sills on windows designated for removal shall be painted red, inside and outside, with a sign attached to the outside, top window pane reading “F.D. Access” (red lettering on white background). D) Holding area(s) shall line up vertically on the façade of each floor of the building.

Answer 570

ANSWER: B) Windows in holding area(s) designated for removal of non-ambulatory students shall be readily openable with the use of a key. (INCORRECT) (AUC 277 4.1, 4.4, 4.5, 4.6) * Openable WITHOUT the use of a key

Question 571

“Non-ABR” schools will be operating under the Individualized Safety Plan (ISP) concept. Which one of the following choices describes this concept incorrectly? A) ISP’s are child specific and school specific fire evacuation plans for each non-ambulatory student who attends classes on the ground floor in any school where there are no holding rooms. B) The plan might require the staff member(s) to attempt evacuation or proceed to a “safe” area pending Fire Department arrival. C) The evacuation stair must be clear of smoke and heat (alternate stairs to be selected in event primary stair is blocked). D) The safety of all students is the primary consideration in determining when to evacuate the non-ambulatory student from the building. The flow of traffic in the stair selected must not be interrupted by the non-ambulatory student.

Answer 571

ANSWER: A) ISP’s are child specific and school specific fire evacuation plans for each non-ambulatory student who attends classes on the ground floor in any school where there are no holding rooms. (INCORRECT) (AUC 277 5.1, 5.2, 5.4, 6.1) * ABOVE OR BELOW ground in any school where there are no holding rooms.

Question 572

The captain working in Engine 99 arrives for her 6x9 tour. She finds that the Engine was OOS on the day tour for company medicals and only has 3 firefighters including an ECC reporting for duty. In this situation, which of the following choices is correct? A) In a double house, members going off duty from the adjoining unit may be ordered to remain on duty to await the arrival of details or members on MSOT/RSOT. B) Engine 99 must start the tour with four firefighters. C) If no member is available to await relief, the Captain shall notify the dispatcher at the start of the tour that Engine 99 is OOS. D) Administrative Divisions shall coordinate staffing, to the greatest extent possible, to assure that all units start the tour with the minimum staffing levels.

Answer 572

ANSWER: A) In a double house, members going off duty from the adjoining unit may be ordered to remain on duty to await the arrival of details or members on MSOT/RSOT. (AUC 287 5.1.2) B - The unit MAY start the tour with one member less than minimum staffing levels while awaiting a detail. C - Can start the tour with one member less D - BATTALIONS

Question 573

A reduced staffed unit is a Ladder, Rescue, or Squad company staffed with four firefighters. When this occurs company officers must follow certain procedures. Which procedure below is described incorrectly? A) The company officer shall determine which outside position (OV/ROOF) will be staffed. This decision will be based in part on the unit’s response area. B) A reduced staffed unit responding to alarms shall transmit to the dispatcher “We are responding with four firefighters”. C) Upon arrival, if the necessity exists, only the Incident Commander may reassign the position of the outside firefighter (OV to Roof or Roof to OV). D) Members shall identify themselves as their riding positions assigned on the EBF-4 regardless of duties and tasks performed.

Answer 573

ANSWER: C) Upon arrival, if the necessity exists, only the Incident Commander may reassign the position of the outside firefighter (OV to Roof or Roof to OV). (INCORRECT) (AUC 287 8.2.1, 8.2.2, 8.2.3, 8.5) * The OFFICER may reassign the position of the OV. * Officer advises IC and other units of the unstaffed position.

Question 574

First alarm units are responding to a phone alarm for a fire in private dwelling. The first ladder company calls the dispatcher and states, “we are responding with four firefighters.” The second ladder company calls the dispatcher and states, “we are responding understaffed with three firefighters.” In accordance with the FDNY’s response policy, which additional units shall the dispatcher special call to this alarm? A) An additional ladder company (above the FAST truck) will be assigned only if a 10-75 is transmitted. B) The dispatcher will assign two additional ladder companies immediately following these transmissions. C) The dispatcher will assign one additional ladder company immediately following these transmissions. D) No additional units are required.

Answer 574

ANSWER: C) The dispatcher will assign one additional ladder company immediately following these transmissions. (AUC 287 8.2.4, 8.3.3) * An additional Ladder Company (above the Fast Truck) shall be assigned to a 10-75 when BOTH of the two initially assigned Ladder Companies report responding with four firefighters.

Question 575

When a unit has less than full strength for the remainder of the tour, the officer shall notify the administrative Division, Battalion and all first alarm companies. Which one following choices is incorrect regarding a reduction in staffing after the start of the tour? A) While awaiting details, units staffed with an officer and minimum of three firefighters (at least one of which is a chauffeur), shall respond to all alarms. B) Units staffed with only an officer and a chauffeur shall be placed OOS. C) Units staffed with only an officer and a chauffeur shall respond to any verbal alarms received while in quarters. D) When an understaffed unit is the only unit on the scene, they shall take a defensive position. However, if a known life hazard could prevent the loss of life, appropriate action (rescue activity) may be taken by an individual member.

Answer 575

ANSWER: A) While awaiting details, units staffed with an officer and minimum of three firefighters (at least one of which is a chauffeur), shall respond to all alarms. (INCORRECT) (AUC 287 8.3.4, 8.3.5, 8.3.6) * While awaiting details, units staffed with an officer and minimum TWO firefighters (at least one of which is a chauffeur), shall respond to all alarms.

Question 576

Company Commanders plays a critical role in ensuring members wear their PPE correctly. Which one statement below is not in accordance with the FDNY’s policy on personal protective equipment? A) Bunker pants shall never be worn without knee pads in place. It is prohibited to remove or alter any part of the bunker gear. B) The wearing of bunker pants suspenders is an essential part of the bunker pants function in protecting the lower extremities. The wearing of the suspenders is strongly encouraged although not required. C) The hood shall be worn whether dry, damp, or saturated with moisture. D) Upon feeling any pain or discomfort through the hood, members must leave the area immediately unless the area can be cooled by a hoseline.

Answer 576

ANSWER: B) The wearing of bunker pants suspenders is an essential part of the bunker pants function in protecting the lower extremities. The wearing of the suspenders is strongly encouraged although not required. (INCORRECT) (AUC 310 6.3, 6.6, 6.7, 6.8) * Suspenders are MANDATORY

Question 577

Bunker gear must be donned in a particular order: 1. Pants and Boots, 2. Handie-Talkie, 3. Protective Hood and 4. Bunker Coat. Which is the correct order? A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 1, 3, 2, 4 C) 2, 1, 3, 4 D) 1, 2, 4, 3

Answer 577

ANSWER: A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (AUC 310 7.1) "Puerto Ricans Hate Cockroaches" P - Pants and Boots R - Radio H - Hood C - Coat

Question 578

Due to the possibility of members operating without full PPE and also due to the negative perception by the public it is important that members properly wear their gear while responding to alarms. Which one of the following statements is incorrect? A) In hot weather, coats and protective hoods may be dispensed with while responding to non-structural fires, BARS alarms, non-fire responses, ERS NC, and Class E alarms. B) Members may drive department apparatus while wearing bunker pants with leather boots. C) When responding to structural fires in hot weather, if the apparatus is not equipped with a functioning air conditioning unit, members may dispense with wearing coats and protective hoods. D) While responding to structural fires in conditions other than those described in choice “C”, all members, including chauffeurs, shall don their PPE prior to responding.

Answer 578

ANSWER: D) While responding to structural fires in conditions other than those described in choice “C”, all members, including chauffeurs, shall don their PPE prior to responding. (INCORRECT) (AUC 310 7.2.1, 7.2.2, 7.2.4) D - All members EXCEPT CHAUFFEURS

Question 579

Engine 99 returns from a first due fire where one if its members sustained a burn injury to his leg while operating in bunker gear. The member was granted the remainder of the tour by the on-duty medical officer. The Captain of Engine 99 wants the members gear sent out for an integrity examination. Which one action below is correct? A) Contact the Division to have the Division messenger deliver the gear to Quartermaster. B) Tag the bunker gear, place it OOS, and contact the Administrative Battalion for instructions. C) Tag the bunker gear, place it OOS, and contact the Safety Battalion for instructions. D) Send an EDR-1 to the Decontamination Support Unit, who will deliver the gear to Quartermaster.

Answer 579

ANSWER: A) Contact the Division to have the Division messenger deliver the gear to Quartermaster. (AUC 310 12.1, Safety Bulletin 7 2.1.2)

Question 580

A Company Commanders responsibilities include ensuring members comply with the restrictions on the storage and wearing of bunker gear in quarters. Which one rule outlined below is described correctly? A) The FDNY strictly prohibits members from wearing or bringing their firefighting protective ensemble into any living areas of the firehouse except during drills. B) Firefighting protective ensembles shall only be kept at the designated storage area on the clothing rack, at the designated location on or near the apparatus for rapid donning by on-duty members, in a separate storage area designated for such storage, or in personal lockers. C) Replacement or additional “No Bunker Gear” signs can be obtained by contacting Safety Command. D) “No Bunker Gear” signs shall be displayed at the entrances to all living areas in the firehouse.

Answer 580

ANSWER: C) Replacement or additional “No Bunker Gear” signs can be obtained by contacting Safety Command. (AUC 310 Addendum 3 1.2, 3.1, 3.2, 3.4) A - Conducting a drill wearing bunker gear while in a designated living area is PROHIBITED B - Shall NOT be stored in personal lockers D - These signs shall be displayed at the entrances to all living areas that ADJOIN any area where the wearing of bunker gear is permitted (e.g., apparatus floor)

Question 581

The Decontamination Support Unit (DSU) provides the department with an in-house capability to meet the day to day decontamination needs of the department. When sending items to DSU for decontamination, which one procedure mentioned below is incorrect? A) If both the bunker pants and PSS system have been contaminated, members shall separate the PSS from the pants prior to bagging both items. The PSS system shall not be bagged with the bunker coat and pants. B) Place items in double (two) red or clear bags, tied or taped closed. C) An Equipment Decontamination Report (EDR-1) shall be completed and placed in between the two bags, facing outward, for identification purposes. D) All members with the same contaminant shall be listed on a single form. Separate forms are required for different contaminants.

Answer 581

ANSWER: B) Place items in double (two) red or clear bags, tied or taped closed. (INCORRECT) (AUC 310 Addendum 5 2.3, 2.5, 3.3) * CLEAR bags (not red)

Question 582

The Captain working in Ladder 100 is approached by the newly assigned probationary firefighter. The proby has a few questions about the probationary firefighter development program. The Captain makes the following remarks but was incorrect in which one? A) Probationary firefighters are provided with monthly training modules consisting of reading assignments and training videos that emphasize the fundamentals of firefighting. B) At the end of each monthly training module is a twenty question quiz that must be completed. C) Probationary firefighters get two attempts to pass each quiz. If a passing mark is not attained after the second attempt, the program is temporarily locked and will require the company officer to contact the Probationary Firefighters Development Program Group via email. D) When probationary firefighters have successfully completed each quiz at the end of the module they will print their completion receipt and staple it in their notebook.

Answer 582

ANSWER: C) Probationary firefighters get two attempts to pass each quiz. If a passing mark is not attained after the second attempt, the program is temporarily locked and will require the company officer to contact the Probationary Firefighters Development Program Group via email. (INCORRECT) (AUC 323 2.1, 2.4) * THREE attempts * If not passed after THIRD attempt it is temporarily locked and Officer must email PFD Program Group via email.

Question 583

Cross unit details of probationary firefighters shall be initiated by the Company Commander, in consultation with the Battalion Training Coordinator. Which one additional comment below is incorrect regarding these details? A) Cross unit details shall be for a period of 60 days. B) Cross unit details will commence after the probationary firefighter has completed 90 days of service in the firehouse. C) Prior to commencement of the detail, Company Commanders shall ensure probationary firefighters have familiarized themselves with FDNY firefighting procedures/bulletins relevant to the area in which they will be detailed. D) During their detail period, probationary firefighters shall not be detailed out of the cross training unit unless absolutely necessary.

Answer 583

ANSWER: A) Cross unit details shall be for a period of 60 days. (INCORRECT) (AUC 323 2.6) * NINETY (90) DAYS

Question 584

How often should the Company Commander review their probationary firefighter's notebook? A) Daily B) Weekly C) Monthly D) Semi-annually

Answer 584

ANSWER: C) Monthly | AUC 323 Addendum 2 2.1

Question 585

The training notebook is an important aspect of the proper development of probationary firefighters. It is vital that these notebooks are properly maintained. Which one choice below is incorrect regarding the training notebook? A) Members shall ensure a tool list from their current unit is attached to the first page of the notebook. B) Probationary firefighters shall bring the notebook to all drills held in quarters or at a remote site. C) Training notebooks shall be kept in the company office when not in use. D) Probationary firefighters shall document all leaves, other than regular leaves in their training notebook.

Answer 585

ANSWER: B) Probationary firefighters shall bring the notebook to all drills held in quarters or at a remote site. (INCORRECT) (AUC 323 Addendum 2 1.3, 1.4, 1.7) * ALL DRILLS HELD IN QUARTERS

Question 586

Company Commanders also play a critical role in the proper maintenance of the probationary firefighters training notebook. Which one comment below is correct? A) Company Commanders shall ensure that training notebooks are forwarded with the probationary firefighters 9th, 13th, and 17th month evaluations. Books will be returned to the member upon completion of evaluation. B) If the training notebook is lost or destroyed, the Company Commander must forward a report through the chain of command to the administrative Battalion within 30 days. C) The loss or destruction of the training notebook will not be noted in the subsequent evaluation report and will not result in disciplinary action. D) Members, who have had their probationary period extended, shall continue to maintain their training notebooks for a period of time equal to their extended probation.

Answer 586

ANSWER: D) Members, who have had their probationary period extended, shall continue to maintain their training notebooks for a period of time equal to their extended probation. (AUC 323 Addendum 2 1.6, 1.9, 2.2) A - 13th and 17th month ONLY B - DIVISION C - Notebook replaced at member's expense and MAY result in disciplinary action

Question 587

Fires in EIFS buildings can spread with lightning rapidity. Which of the following choices represents the firefighting option with the furthest vertical reach from the tip of the nozzle for operations on the exterior of these buildings? A) Tower Ladder B) Satellite Monitor C) Multiversal Nozzle D) Engine Deck Pipe

Answer 587

ANSWER: A) Tower Ladder (AUC 362 -- EIFS) * Tower Ladder - 135ft B – Satellite - 130 ft C – Multiversal - 110 ft D – Engine Deck Pipe - 130 ft

Question 588

You are a new Lt. working in a single engine company and the members approach you with questions because of numerous requests for sprinkler caps. Which of the following choices is CORRECT regarding the use of spray caps? A) Members can distribute spray caps to persons they can ensure are at least 21 years old. B) The company should usually be able to schedule turning on a hydrant within 2 hours. C) During a phase II water pressure emergency, every effort should be made to shut down hydrants and/or place spray caps. D) The officer on duty should schedule to turn off hydrants prior to the start of the 6x9 tour and remove the spray cap(s).

Answer 588

ANSWER: C) During a phase II water pressure emergency, every effort should be made to shut down hydrants and/or place spray caps. (AUC 205 – HYDRANT INSPECTION - 8.2) A – At least 18 years old. B – Usually within the HOUR D – During the 6x9 tour.

Question 589

A winter storm is approaching, and the members of Ladder 88 are preparing the apparatus for a snow emergency. Which of the following choices below is INCORRECT for a ladder company preparing their apparatus for a snow event? A) Containers of salt and/or sand. B) Vehicle recovery strap with shackle. C) 2 Shovels D) At least 6 extra lengths of 2½ and 1¾ hose rolled or folded on the apparatus.

Answer 589

ANSWER: D) At least 6 extra lengths of 2½ and 1¾ hose rolled or folded on the apparatus. (INCORRECT) (AUC 200 – WINTER OPERATIONS) * At least 6 extra lengths of 2½ hose, rolled or folded, on each Engine and Ladder apparatus. (Not 1¾)

Question 590

The officers of Engine 256 and Ladder 171 were discussing a new building just completed down the block from the firehouse and the cell phone site just added to the roof. Which of the following administrative actions taken after the discovery of a cell phone site is INCORRECT? A) The administrative company must do an on-site inspection and evaluate the cell site. B) The administrative company must notify their battalion, division and all first alarm units via telephone followed by written memo. C) The administrative company should schedule company drills/MUD at the site to formulate firefighting strategies. D) The administrative company should complete and submit a CIDS card and forward it to their battalion fire prevention coordinator.

Answer 590

ANSWER: C) The administrative company should schedule company drills/MUD at the site to formulate firefighting strategies. (INCORRECT) (AUC 331 – CELL PHONE SITES) * The ADMINISTRATIVE BATTALION should schedule company drills/MUD at the site to formulate strategies.

Question 591

The members of Engine 51 were discussing the Iroquois Pipeline in preparation for a Borough Drill and members made the following statements. Which is the only one which was CORRECT? A) During the drill, partial shut-down of the Natural Gas valve may be permitted. B) Along the train tracks, flag persons must be positioned at least 600 feet on each side of the incident. C) The use of fog lines will assist in the dispersal of the gas. D) The primary consideration of units responding to a pipeline box is the elimination of sources of ignition.

Answer 591

ANSWER: A) During the drill, partial shut-down of the Natural Gas valve may be permitted. (AUC 150 – IROQUOIS PIPELINE - 8.1) * Can partially shut down at Borough Drills B – At least 1000 feet on each side of the incident C – The use of fog lines may actually hinder the dissipation of the gas. D – The primary consideration of responding units is the evacuation of the area involved.

Question 592

Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the Buckeye Pipeline? A) Valve pits subject to flooding shall be inspected frequently. B) Division Drills are held annually. Companies are actually required to operate and shut-down the valves during these drills. C) Pipeline control valves shall be inspected semi-annually during hydrant inspection season. D) Familiarization drills are conducted quarterly. Companies are not permitted to operate or shut down valves during these drills.

Answer 592

ANSWER: C) Pipeline control valves shall be inspected semi-annually during hydrant inspection season. (AUC 149 – BUCKEYE PIPELINE – 9.1) A – Valve pits subject to freezing shall be inspected during subfreezing weather. (9.2) B – Borough drills are held annually where companies are required to operate and shut-down valves. (10.5.11) D – Familiarization drills are held semi-annually. (10.2.1)

Question 593

There are a lot of safety concerns related to operations on and around PV panels. Which choice below represents a CORRECT operation at a fire involving these systems? A) Utilizing disconnects ahead of or after the inverter will eliminate the electric current coming from the PV array. B) Combiner boxes should not be opened by firefighters in an attempt to shut down the PV array. C) PV systems can produce electricity at night and lightning flashes occurring at night can energize the PV system. D) Auxiliary lighting equipment and apparatus headlights are powerful enough to generate dangerous voltage from a PV array.

Answer 593

ANSWER: B) Combiner boxes should not be opened by firefighters in an attempt to shut down the PV array. (AUC 351 – PV ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS– SECTION 7) A - Utilizing disconnects ahead of or after the inverter STILL DOES NOT eliminate the electric current coming from the PV array. C – PV systems DO NOT produce electricity at night. D - Auxiliary lighting equipment and apparatus headlights are NOT powerful enough to generate dangerous voltage from a PV array.

Question 594

A cargo plane is on fire at JFK Airport and FDNY Engine companies are required to supply Port Authority ARFF Crash Trucks. Which Choice represents the CORRECT operating pressure a knowledgeable engine company chauffeur should NOT exceed? A) 60 PSI B) 80 PSI C) 160 PSI D) 200 PSI

Answer 594

ANSWER: B) 80 PSI (AUC 325 ADDENDUM 2 – KENNEDY AIRPORT) * When supplying water to the PA/ARFF Crash Trucks, FDNY ECC’S SHOULD NOT EXCEED 80 psi discharge pressure.

Question 595

Which of the following choices is CORRECT regarding the Probationary Firefighter Training Notebook? A) Members shall ensure a tool list from their current unit is attached to the inside cover of the front of the notebook. B) Members shall print and staple the monthly training module receipt to the current training notebook page at time of completion. C) Members shall document all leaves in their training notebook by making an entry listing the date the leave started and ended. D) Members who have their probationary period extended shall not have to maintain their training notebook beyond the end of their original probationary period.

Answer 595

ANSWER: B) Members shall print and staple the monthly training module receipt to the current training notebook page at time of completion. (AUC 323 – ADDENDUM 2 – PROBATIONARY FIREFIGHTER TRAINING NOTEBOOK 1.5) A – Current tool list is attached to the FIRST PAGE of the notebook. C – Members shall document all leaves OTHER THAN REGULAR (Medical, Emergency, Jury) in their training notebook. D – Members shall CONTINUE to maintain their training notebooks for a period of time equal to their extended probation.

Question 596

Which of the following is INCORRECT according to the SCBA Policy? A) In all circumstances, where a member’s cylinder becomes depleted or his/her SCBA is malfunctioning cutting off the air supply, member shall notify their Officer and immediately leave the contaminated area accompanied by another member using an SCBA. B) When it is necessary for an officer to leave the IDLH area to service their SCBA, they shall notify the Incident Commander of the operation or the next level of command within the sector and have the company relieved. C) SCBAs are required to be worn/used at operations other than structural, including Outside fires involving rubbish, brush, dumps, ADVs, autos/trucks/buses, street transformer vaults, etc. D) Members operating in a smoke or toxic atmosphere should not remove SCBA regulator except if the member’s cylinder becomes depleted, or if the member’s SCBA is malfunctioning so as to cut off air supply.

Answer 596

ANSWER: B) When it is necessary for an officer to leave the IDLH area to service their SCBA, they shall notify the Incident Commander of the operation or the next level of command within the sector and have the company relieved. (AUC 220 – SCBA POLICY) * The officer must leave the area accompanied by another member using an SCBA. Circumstances that prevent the officer from providing temporary supervision shall require the withdrawal of all members under that officer’s direct supervision.

Question 597

The members of Battalions 98 and 99 have just wrapped up operations at a tough all hands fire on a hot summer day and are going through the rehabilitation process. Which of the following is INCORRECT about when members will be considered patients? A) The member has an SpCO of 20% or greater. B) The member has symptoms of CO exposure or hypoxia. C) The member is complaining of illness or injury. D) The member has an SpO2 of less than 90%.

Answer 597

ANSWER: A) The member has an SpCO of 20% or greater. (AUC 230 – REHAB AND CARE PROCEDURES 2.1) * SpCO of FIFTEEN (15%) or greater.

Question 598

In preparation for an incoming storm, the members of Engine 244 and Ladder 145 were discussing the response to Hurricanes and severe storm emergencies. Which statement made by the members was CORRECT? A) While operating in flooded areas, members should wear all PPE including Bunker Gear, Helmets & gloves for the ease of identification in tough conditions. B) Driving through standing water should be done cautiously. Engine and Ladder apparatus should not be driven in water deeper than 24”. C) Newer Handie-talkies are submersible. Efforts shall be made to keep HT’s dry, however they will operate effectively if immersed in water or soaked with salt water. D) Members assigned to patrol flooded areas should walk close to the building line and use a tool to probe for hazards.

Answer 598

ANSWER: D) Members assigned to patrol flooded areas should walk close to the building line and use a tool to probe for hazards. (AUC 159 – 5.4.5) A – Bunker gear should NOT be worn in flooded areas. B – The depth of the water to be crossed should not exceed EIGHTEEN INCHES (18”) for first line apparatus and 50” for FDNY Hi-axle vehicles. C – Handie-talkies immersed in water or soaked with salt-water MAY BECOME INOPERABLE.

Question 599

Specific tactics must be adhered to while operating at manhole fires and emergencies to limit the risk of danger or injury. Which choice below reflects CORRECT operating procedures when at one of these incidents? A) Do not pull any electric manhole covers or any cover if there is doubt as to its type when there is a manhole fire in the area. B) Precautionary hoselines shall be stretched as necessary. Units should not operate into manholes unless ordered by the incident commander. C) If placing water into a manhole via a straight stream nozzle, use intermittent bursts and let the water flow into the manhole. D) Civilians shall not be allowed to move vehicles located in the danger area. If absolutely necessary, members shall perform these tasks.

Answer 599

ANSWER: A) Do not pull any electric manhole covers or any cover if there is doubt as to its type when there is a manhole fire in the area. (AUC 180 – MANHOLE FIRES/EMERGENCIES – Cross Reference Natural Gas Emergencies) A IS CORRECT – Members should not pull covers off electrical manholes at manhole fires or if a manhole fire is in the area. It is the responsibility of utility crews to open manhole covers at these incidents. B – Units shall not operate into manholes unless requested by a CON EDISON employee at the scene. C – Use a FOG nozzle to reduce or prevent any shock hazard. Nowhere does it say to use a straight stream nozzle D – Members shall NOT attempt to move vehicles located in the danger area.

Question 600

Which of the following choices is CORRECT regarding the Probationary firefighter notebook? A) Probationary firefighter notebooks shall be maintained until the end of Probationary Firefighter School. B) Probationary firefighter notebooks shall be maintained until the completion of 1 year. C) Probationary firefighter notebooks shall be maintained until the end of the probationary period. D) Probationary firefighter notebooks shall be maintained until the completion of 2 years.

Answer 600

ANSWER: (AUC 323 ADDENDUM 2 – 1.1) * Every member upon completion of Probationary Firefighter School is issued a composition notebook to document their training. Notebooks shall be maintained until the end of the probationary period.

Question 601

The members of Engine 244 were discussing one of the Con Edison Transmission and Distribution Substations in their response area and several members chimed in with safe stand-off distances for voltages of 15,000V to 38,000V. According to the bulletin, which safe distance is CORRECT? A) 25 Feet B) 18 Feet C) 10 Feet D) 8 Feet

Answer 601

ANSWER: C) 10 Feet (AUC 338 ADDENDUM 2 - Table bottom of page 2) B – 18 Feet is the safe distance for 345,000 Volts * When raising an Aerial/TL bucket, maintain 18 foot clearance horizontal from exterior fenceline regardless of voltage (FDNY safe distance is always 18 feet)

Question 602

Engine 244 and Ladder 177 are cleaning up from a minor fire in a bodega after business hours. Units cut the locks to the roll down gate and a pane of a skylight was taken to relieve the smoke condition. Following the operation, the premises was secured by a lock supplied by the Battalion. Which choice below is CORRECT regarding this procedure? A) The padlock used to secure the premises must be issued to the administrative company for placement. B) The issued key shall be kept in a secure place in the company office. C) Upon removing the lock securing the premises, PD must be summoned to verify the identity of the person desiring entry. D) This policy would not apply to this situation.

Answer 602

ANSWER: D) This policy would not apply to this situation. (AUC 231 – SAFEGUARDING PROPERTY 2.6) * There must be no other damage to the entire perimeter of the premises. (There was a pane of the skylight taken in the body of the question) A – Administrative company not required to secure a premise. BC will issue a padlock and key to a company AT THE SCENE and direct company to secure premises. B – The key shall be kept in a secure place on the APPARATUS C – The officer shall secure positive identification of the person desiring entry, have the appropriate receipt signed and have the padlock removed. If there is any DOUBT, the PD is to be summoned.

Question 603

Battalion 59 visited the quarters of Engine 256 and Ladder 171 and during his visit suspected that members of both companies were consuming alcohol while on duty. The senior truck Captain working was designated the investigating officer by the BC. Which choice is INCORRECT regarding the responsibilities of the investigating officer? A) Conduct a Roll Call. B) Advise all members whom the investigating officer reasonably believes may be subject to charges of their right to representation before being questioned. C) Conduct an investigation to ascertain which members may have engaged in prohibited conduct under the policy. D) If the officer orders testing, the reasons shall be documented in a report to the Chief of Operations via the chain of command.

Answer 603

ANSWER: D) If the officer orders testing, the reasons shall be documented in a report to the Chief of Operations via the chain of command. (INCORRECT) (AUC 202 – SUBSTANCE POLICY: DRUGS/ALCOHOL) * Report is to the CHIEF OF DEPARTMENT

Question 604

You are the Lt. on duty in Engine 99 and at the beginning of the tour, you are advised via voice alarm message that Phase I of a water pressure alert is in effect. Which choice CORRECTLY describes the procedure to be followed after receiving this notification? A) The pressure should be taken at the hydrant nearest quarters every 3 hours beginning at 1000 hours and ending at 2200 hours and recorded in the company journal. B) The pressure should be taken at the hydrant nearest quarters twice daily at 1000 hrs and 2200 hrs and recorded in the company journal. C) The pressure should be taken at the hydrant nearest quarters every two hours beginning at 1000 hrs and ending at 2200 hrs and recorded in the company journal. D) The pressure should be taken at the hydrant nearest quarters every hour beginning at 1000 hrs and ending at 2200 hrs and recorded in the company journal.

Answer 604

ANSWER: D) The pressure should be taken at the hydrant nearest quarters every hour beginning at 1000 hrs and ending at 2200 hrs and recorded in the company journal. (AUC 205 – HYDRANT INSPECTION - 7.1) * This is done during phase 1 and 2 and recorded in the company journal. Choice A – This is the annual pressure reading report taken during the month of May.

Question 605

Engine Companies 200, 300, & 400 and Ladder Companies 500 & 600 are assigned to a phone alarm for a fire on the second floor of a 3½ story peaked roof Queen Anne. The units will arrive in assigned order to the block where there is a heavy snow accumulation, visibility and street conditions are poor, and proper apparatus placement is in doubt. Which choice below represents the CORRECT action based on the conditions encountered? A) The first and second arriving engine companies remained on the main thoroughfare and stretched in after determining the fire was on the second floor. B) The first arriving engine entered the block followed by the first arriving ladder after determining the fire was on the second floor. C) The first arriving ladder entered the block followed by the first arriving engine after determining the fire was on the second floor. D) The first and second arriving ladder companies stayed on the main thoroughfare and transported portable ladders to the fire building after determining the fire was on the second floor.

Answer 605

ANSWER: C) The first arriving ladder entered the block followed by the first arriving engine after determining the fire was on the second floor. (AUC 200 – WINTER OPERATIONS - 5.3.10 D4) * Where the building involved is HIGHER THAN 3 STORIES, preference shall be given to ladder company apparatus entering the block first with the engine company personnel. * When the building involved is 3 STORIES OR LESS, preference shall be given to the engine company apparatus entering the block first with ladder company personnel carrying portable ladders. (FIRE SCENARIO IS 3½ STORIES. THE FIRE LOCATION DOESN’T MATTER)

Question 606

The members of Ladder Company 100 were discussing High Rise Roof Team operations as part of the Air Rescue Plan and a series of statements were made. Which was the only CORRECT statement? A) The High-Rise roof kit contains a list of equipment including 6 SCBA’s with 1hr cylinders, 2 axes, 2 halligans,1 search rope, 1 rabbit tool, 1 bolt cutter and the required tool bags for equipment. B) Members of the HRRT will operate under the direction of the Air Recon Chief. C) The HRRT officer shall ensure all members have their personal harness, the firefighting equipment is properly bagged and members are on the HT TAC U Channel. D) During flight, one member of the HRRT as designated by the officer, shall monitor the Command Channel

Answer 606

ANSWER: C) The HRRT officer shall ensure all members have their personal harness, the firefighting equipment is properly bagged and members are on the HT TAC U Channel. (AUC 269 ADDENDUM 1 - 4.3.5A) A – 2 Search ropes are in the High Rise Roof Kit B – Members shall operate under the High Rise Roof Chief D – Not Stated

Question 607

Engine company 269 and Ladder 171 just finishing up at an incident where they operated on a fire involving a PCB Transformer, a PCB Contaminated Transformer, and a Non-PCB Transformer. Which portion of the transformer operation exposed the members to levels which will require decontamination procedures? A) All of the transformers contain levels that will require the members to undergo decontamination procedures at the end of the operation. B) The PCB transformer only contains levels that will require the members to undergo decontamination procedures at the end of the operation. C) The PCB transformer and PCB Contaminated transformer contain levels that will require the members to undergo decontamination procedures at the end of the operation. D) The Non-PCB transformer only contains levels that will require the members to undergo decontamination procedures at the end of the operation.

Answer 607

ANSWER: C) The PCB transformer and PCB Contaminated transformer contain levels that will require the members to undergo decontamination procedures at the end of the operation. (AUC 266 – PCB INCIDENTS - 8.1) * Decontamination procedures outlined in the ERP Haz-Mat shall be implemented only when members or equipment are exposed to levels of PCB’s of 50 PPM or higher. PCB TRANSFORMERS = 500 or more PPM PCB PCB CONTAMINATED TRANSFORMERS = 50-499 ppm of PCB NON-PCB TRANSFORMERS = 0-49 ppm of PCB

Question 608

Over the years there have been many situations during which members of the FDNY & NYPD have had disagreements over jurisdictional issues. Below is a list of situations that test your knowledge of Core Competencies. Which one CORRECTLY reflects the primary agency according to the single command matrix? A) NYPD ESU arrives prior to FD units to a person who fell and is impaled on a fence. As first to arrive, NYPD assumed single command as the primary agency. B) FD marine units arrive prior to NYPD Harbor to a Boat in Distress out in open water. As first to arrive, FD assumed single command as the primary agency C) FD units arrive prior to NYPD to a person that fell through the ice in the park. As first to arrive, FD units assumed single command as the primary agency. D) NYPD units arrive prior to FD units at a person down in a manhole. As first to arrive, NYPD assumed single command as the primary agency.

Answer 608

ANSWER: B) FD marine units arrive prior to NYPD Harbor to a Boat in Distress out in open water. As first to arrive, FD assumed single command as the primary agency (AUC 276 – ADDENDUM 1 – PRIMARY AGENCY MATRIX) B IS CORRECT – Boat in Distress responses are NYPD/FDNY (First to arrive) A – FDNY is the primary agency for Entrapment/impalement responses C – NYPD is the primary agency for Water/Ice rescue. Table 2 D – FDNY is the primary agency for Confined Space Rescue.

Question 609

The members of Engine 244 were discussing notifications to BITS and the IG and members made the following statements. Which of the following choices requires a notification to the IG? A) A member stands accused of stealing merchandise while operating at a gas leak. B) A member is involved in a serious altercation while at a stuck elevator emergency. C) A member stands accused of drinking while on duty. D) A member stands accused of repeated unsatisfactory performance of duties during fire operations.

Answer 609

ANSWER: A) A member stands accused of stealing merchandise while operating at a gas leak. (AUC 268A – REGULATIONS 11) B – Immediate Notification to BITS (3.1.2) C – Immediate Notification to BITS (3.1.1) D – Written notification to BITS (4.1.3)

Question 610

Engine Company 30 is assigned to operate at a manhole fire as the FireIce company. While enroute, the officer ponders the following actions to take upon arrival. Which was CORRECT? A) The operating nozzle pressure at the nozzle shall be between 60-100 psi. The pressure can be determined at the in-line pressure gauge and regulated at the engine pump panel. B) Once establishing an adequate gel solution, the nozzle team may advance toward the manhole while maintaining a minimum safe distance of 10’ from the manhole opening. C) The stream should be directed to fall approximately 2-3 feet in front of the manhole opening and allow the product to flow into the manhole. D) The product container shall be placed at the point of the nozzle operation, ensuring that the 25’ length of ¾ hose is fully extended without any kinks.

Answer 610

ANSWER: D) The product container shall be placed at the point of the nozzle operation, ensuring that the 25’ length of ¾ hose is fully extended without any kinks. (AUC 180 – 8.2) A – Pressures must be determined at the apparatus pump panel, as the FireIce equipment DOES NOT include an in-line pressure gauge. (8.3) B – While maintaining a minimum safe distance of TWENTY FIVE (25’) from the manhole opening. (8.4) C – Direct the stream of FireIce solution to fall approximately ONE (1) foot in front of the manhole opening. (8.5)

Question 611

Operations at a Consulate, Foreign Embassy, or Mission could provide operational problems for the units responding. Which choice below is CORRECT regarding operations in these buildings? A) If necessary, attempt to negotiate to have the Ladder Company’s entry team investigate conditions. Depending on conditions, members may have to operate independently to conduct a thorough investigation. B) If a fire is suspected or verified, stretch a handline to the front of the building. Consider a 2½” handline when access is denied by Embassy personnel. C) If explosives and ammunition are stored on the premises, evacuate immediately and notify the NYPD and Fire Marshals. D) Embassy personnel may refuse to let relief companies in and may also refuse to allow overhauling. If asked to leave, then do so.

Answer 611

ANSWER: D) Embassy personnel may refuse to let relief companies in and may also refuse to allow overhauling. If asked to leave, then do so. (AUC 196 – OPERATIONS AT FOREIGN EMBASSIES, CONSULATES, AND MISSIONS 4.7) A – Members shall not operate independently. B – Stretch hoselines compatible with the occupancy and fire conditions found. C – If explosives and ammunitions are INVOLVED.