ALL UNIT CIRCULARS Flashcards
Engine 298 and Ladder 127 arrive 1st at a fire reported in a closet on the platform in the subway system. While setting up the HT relay they note that the token booth is about 250 feet away from the bottom of the subway entrance stairs. As they set up the relay, they should be guided by how many of the following points?
1) The LCC should go down to the subway entrance stairs and proceed to the token booth.
2) The OV should go to the bottom of the stairs leading to the platform.
3) The Roof should place himself approximately 50 yards from the platform stairs.
4) The Engine Officer should be approximately 100 yards from the platform stairs and remain in line of sight of the Ladder Officer.
5) The Ladder Officer should go with the inside team to the fire location.
A) 2 points B) 3 points C) 4 points D) 5 points
ANSWER: A) 2 points are correct (Numbers 3 and 5)
(AUC 207 4.1)
HANDIE TALKIE SUBWAY RELAY “CORE-100”
(Stairs/man/stairs/man)
- Chauffeur - Bottom of subway entrance stairs (stairs)
- OV - Foot of stairs leading to platform, if within 50 yds of LCC (man)
- Roof - Approximately 50 yds from the stairs on the platform (stairs)
- Engine Officer - Approx. 100 yds LOS from Roof FF on platform (man)
- Truck Officer - To location of fire
- Additional HT equipped members every 100 yards if necessary
A first alarm assignment is dispatched to a reported rubbish fire on the platform in a subway station. Engine 255 arrives alone, and as the initial IC, the Engine Officer decides to utilize the Subway Repeater channel, to enhance communications at this minor operation. In this situation, it would be correct for him to think that?
A) The FDNY Dispatcher must be notified to ensure that the MTA repeater is activated.
B) When the first Ladder arrives, they should set up the HT relay, if deemed necessary.
C) The Engine captain and the ECC’s radio should both be placed on Channel 15, while the other Engine members remain on Channel 1.
D) The Engine Officer should ensure he is teamed with a member on Channel 1 at all times.
ANSWER: D) The Engine Officer should ensure he is teamed with a member on Channel 1 at all times.
(AUC 207 Addendum 16 Pg 2-3)
A - The NYC Transit Duplex repeater system is ALWAYS ON.
B - Relay MUST BE ESTABLISHED whether the station is equipped with a repeater or not.
C - The primary repeater channel is 14 (Secondary is 15)
E92 responds to a CFRD call in a subway station where they attempt to utilize the subway repeater and determine it is not operational. In this situation they would be most correct to notify the _________________ about this issue?
A) Public Transportation Safety Unit by email or phone
B) Borough Communications Office via Department Radio
C) Battalion and Division by phone
D) Chief of Communications at 9 Metrotech by email
ANSWER: B) Borough Communications Office via Department Radio.
(AUC 207 Addendum 16 Pg 4)
- Advise Dispatch of problem including exact location of station
- Borough Communications Office relays this info to FDOC
- FDOC will transmit info to effected Borough Command during normal business hours, and to the effected Division at all other times, advising of the particulars and requesting that the Borough Command / Division notify the appropriate units.
- FDOC faxes copy to Public Transportation Safety Unit.
- PTSU confers with effected Borough Command / Division and establishes a NYC Transit repeater system outage folder, and monitors the status and frequency of these outages.
- PTSU will liaison with NYCT to ensure prompt repair of system and provide periodic updates to FDOC until the system is repaired and is fully operational.
- FDOC will transmit this info to effected Borough Communications Office, and the effected Borough Command during normal business hours and to the effected Division at all other times with all of the particulars, and the Borough Command / Division will notify the appropriate units.
- The Borough Command / Division shall have the unit that originally reported the problem conduct a re-inspection so as to verify that the repeater system is fully operational.
- The Borough Command / Division shall advise the Public Transportation Safety Unit of the results of this re-inspection.
Ladder 4 arrives at the scene of a subway incident where they find civilians on the tracks and power must be immediately removed due to the imminent danger to the civilians. They proceed to the closest Blue Light and find the Power Removal Box covered by a white bag with red lettering that states “Out Of Service”. Which actions below are correct in this situation?
- Proceed to the next PRB which should be approx. 600 feet away
- Use the associated telephone next to the OOS PRB to request power off and remain on the phone until receiving confirmation that power is off.
- The IC must request power off and have power confirmed via the Department Radio.
A) 1,3 B) 2,3 C) Only #2 D) Only #3
ANSWER: B) 2 and 3 are correct statements
(AUC 207 8.1)
1 - Do not head to next PRB (Use telephone to request power off)
- If a member encounters an OOS PRB, the member should use the associated telephone to contact the Rail Control Center to request the removal of power.
- Using a PRB to remove power should only be used as a last resort when there is an imminent life hazard.
- The activation of a PRB or use of an associated telephone, does not alleviate the IC of the responsibility of requesting and confirming the removal of power via the Department Radio, with the a borough Communications Office.
A first alarm assignment arrives at a subway incident for a reported minor smoke condition. The incident is remote from the platform area and the Transit Authority has a Light Train awaiting members in the station upon their arrival. Regarding the use of the Light Train, it would be incorrect to state?
A) The primary means of communication shall be via the Train Operator’s Radio.
B) If power is removed from the track area, the TA will notify the FD unit on the Light Train directly and the IC via the FDNY Dispatcher of power removal.
C) The Train Conductor’s Radio is a hand held radio with capabilities similar to the Train Operator’s Radio. It is a reliable means of communication for the FD unit on the train, if needed.
D) Progress reports from the Light Train shall be transmitted as soon as possible, but at least once every 15 minutes.
ANSWER: C) The Train Conductor’s Radio is a hand held radio with capabilities similar to the Train Operator’s Radio. It is a reliable means of communication for the FD unit on the train, if needed. (INCORRECT STATEMENT)
(AUC 207 Addendum 7 2.2)
- Train Conductor has a similar radio but it is NOT RELIABLE.
LIGHT TRAIN GUIDELINES
- Only Chief in charge can decide to use the Light Train
- Must establish comm. link or LT can’t be used
- FD Unit using radio / TA Command Center / FD Dispatch / CIC
- FD Unit maintains Train Operator’s Radio
- Train Operator’s Radio is the ONLY reliable means of communication
- TOR is removable and will operate on any TO compartment in any car
- Progress reports ASAP and every 15 minutes
Units arrive at an alarm in a newly renovated subway station that has hard wired sound powered telephones. Regarding the use of the sound powered telephone, it would be incorrect to state that?
A) Units need to bring a telephone handset and 1620 key to both the platform and street level location of the sound powered telephone outlets. The 1620 key gives access to the metal boxes with telephone outlet jacks.
B) A subway emergency key must be brought to the station platform to access the standpipe outlet. In most cases, the metal box with the telephone outlet jack will be inside the standpipe cabinet.
C) The standard HT Relay is not required if the sound powered telephones are tested and operated.
D) The standard HT Relay can be augmented by sound powered telephones if circumstances allow.
ANSWER: C) The standard HT Relay is not required if the sound powered telephones are tested and operated. (INCORRECT STATEMENT)
(AUC 207 Addendum 10 2.2)
- The HT Relay is STILL REQUIRED even in the presence of an operational sound powered telephone system.
After a major storm, numerous members are assembled to work in multiple Task Forces throughout Queens and Brooklyn to operate at trees and wires down incidents using FDNY rapid response vehicles. In this situation, while operating in these task forces, they should know that their primary method of communication would be?
A) 400 MHz DARS Radio
B) 800 MHz Radios
C) Cell phones
D) Department Radios
ANSWER: A) 400 MHz DARS Radio
(AUC 159 - Addendum 8 - pg 3)
Primary Communication = 400 MHz DARS handheld radios
Alternate Communication = 800 MHz when DARS is OOS
Contingency Communication = Cell phones when DARS and 800 OOS
Emergency Communications = Department Radio can be used if an emergency exists and direct communication with the Borough Dispatcher is necessary or other systems are inoperable.
At 0300 hrs, Ladder 24 returns from a 10-75 and learns that the OV FF will be granted ML by the Medical Officer. After notifying the Battalion, L24 is informed that they will be getting a detail in about 2 hours from a 5 man engine company. The Officer decides that Ladder 24 will ride without a Roof FF, temporarily moving FF Waldo, the Roof FF, to the OV position. At 0410 hrs, L24 receives a response for a fire in a 5 story OLT and on arrival finds fire blowing out two front windows on the top floor. On arrival the Ladder Officer immediately instructs FF Waldo, the OV FF, to perform Roof duties as this incident. While responding to this box and encountering very light radio traffic, it would have been correct for the Officer to give which transmission?
A) “L24 to Manhattan, Urgent” and when acknowledged “we are responding understaffed”
B) “L24 to Manhattan, Urgent” and when acknowledged “we are responding with 4 firefighters”
C) “L24 to Manhattan” and when acknowledged “We are responding without our Roof FF”
D) “L24 to Manhattan” and when acknowledged “We are responding with 4 firefighters”
ANSWER: D) “L24 to Manhattan” and when acknowledged “We are responding with 4 FFs”
(AUC 287 8.2.2)
A- Understaffed Unit (staffed with less than 4 FFs)
B- Only give Urgent if there is heavy radio traffic and can’t get through
At 0300 hrs, Ladder 24 returns from a 10-75 and learns that the OV FF will be granted ML by the Medical Officer. After notifying the Battalion, L24 is informed that they will be getting a detail in about 2 hours from a 5 man engine company. The Officer decides that Ladder 24 will ride without a Roof FF, temporarily moving FF Waldo, the Roof FF, to the OV position. At 0410 hrs, L24 receives a response for a fire in a 5 story OLT and on arrival finds fire blowing out two front windows on the top floor. On arrival the Ladder Officer immediately instructs FF Waldo, the OV FF, to perform Roof duties as this incident. While performing his initial roof duties, FF Waldo sees heavy fire in a shaft extending seriously into exposure 2. In this situation, in order to report this condition, he would be correct to state?
A) “Urgent, Urgent, Urgent, L24 OV to Command with an Urgent”
B) “Urgent, Urgent, Urgent, L24 Roof to Command w/ an Urgent”
C) “L24 OV to Command”
D) “L24 Roof to Command”
ANSWER: A) “Urgent, Urgent, Urgent, L24 OV to Command with an Urgent”
(AUC 287 8.5)
- The EBF-4 must be updated to reflect which riding positions have been staffed.
- The HT and SCBA worn by the member will coincide with their riding position.
- Members will identify themselves as their riding position assigned on the EBF-4 regardless of their duties and tasks performed.
- Urgent should be given for extension into exposures.
You are the Officer working a 6x9 tour when you decide to discuss the “Danger Do Not Enter” tape. You state the following, “it shall be used to isolate designated areas (danger zones) that members should not enter”. One of your members studying for the upcoming Lieutenant’s exam was incorrect when he stated the “Danger Zone” should not be entered ________________________?
A) Except to save life
B) Unless authorized by the IC
C) Unless authorized by the Sector Chief
D) Unless authorized by the Safety Chief
ANSWER: D) Unless authorized by the Safety Chief (INCORRECT STATEMENT)
(AUC 360 2.3)
- Units are reminded that danger zones shall not be entered except:
- To save life
- Authorized by IC
- Authorized by Sector Chief
If it is not possible to remove a member or civilian from a contaminated atmosphere, then one of the following options listed below can be used to provide an air supply while freeing the trapped individual. Which statement is correct?
A) For trapped members, always utilize the nearest available FAST Unit FAST Pak, if more than one FAST Unit is on scene.
B) For civilians, utilize any available FAST Pak
C) Utilize a spare SCBA to provide air to a trapped member or civilian.
D) All are correct
ANSWER: C) Utilize a spare SCBA to provide air to a trapped member or civilian.
(AUC 220 2.8)
A - For trapped members utilize the nearest available FAST Pak
B - For civilians use FAST Pak OTHER THAN FAST Unit’s Pak
A problem that can arise at a high rise fire is occupants seeking refuge on the roof of a building. These occupants cannot be ignored and the possibility exists that a helicopter operation may be necessary. A High Rise Roof Team (HRRT) may be needed to aid these victims. Choose an incorrect point of information regarding the FDNY Air Rescue Plan for high rise structures.
A) During the “alert” phase, the FDNY dispatcher will notify the NYPD operations unit upon the transmission of a doubtful 3rd alarm fire associated with a 10-76 or 10-77.
B) During the “assemble” phase, FDNY units, NYPD helicopters and NYPD ESU personnel are assembled at a selected mobilization point.
C) During the “airlift” phase, Air Rescue Teams are airlifted to the vicinity of the roof of the building, pending the decision of the IC to actually land members on the roof.
D) The decision to airlift may only be made by the IC who is a Deputy Chief or higher.
ANSWER: D) The decision to airlift may only be made by the IC who is a Deputy Chief or higher. (INCORRECT STATEMENT)
(AUC 269 Addendum 1, 2.2 - 2.3.2)
- The decision to airlift has to be made by a STAFF CHIEF.
A High Rise Roof Team (HRRT) consists of a trained and properly equipped Ladder company staffed with an officer and 5 firefighters. If ordered to airlift, the officer of the HRRT should know that this unit would operate on which channel?
A) Tac U Channel
B) Primary Tactical Channel
C) Secondary Tactical Channel
D) Primary Command Channel
ANSWER: A) TAC U Channel
AUC 269 4.3.3
Due to space and weight considerations aboard the helicopter, the only tools and equipment included in the High Rise Roof Kit are listed below. Which choices contain the correct tools?
- 6 SCBA’s with 45 minute cylinders
- 2 Halligans
- 2 Halligans Hooks
- 2 Axes
- 2 Search Ropes
- 1 Rabbit Tool
A) 1,2,3,4,5,6 B) 1,2,4,5,6 C) 2,4,5, 6 D) 2,3,5,6
ANSWER: C) 2,4,5,6 are CORRECT (1 and 3 are INCORRECT)
(AUC 269 3.3.1)
High Rise Roof Kit: “BRASH-11222”
1 Bolt Cutter 1 Rabbit Tool 2 Axes 2 Search Ropes 2 Halligans 2 Search Ropes
Also: 6 SCBA with ONE HOUR CYLINDERS and Bags for tools
*NYPD crew chief directs where tools are stowed
Who determines where the tools are stowed at a High Rise Roof Helicopter operation?
A) The Pilot
B) The Co-Pilot
C) The Crew Chief
D) The High Rise Roof Team Officer
ANSWER: C) The Crew Chief
AUC 269 (3.3.3)
Once a decision to “Airlift” has been made, the NYPD aviation unit will fly members from ESU to the roof of the fire building to determine the feasibility of landing the aircraft on the roof. If it is determined to be safe, the helicopter will return to pickup the FDNY members. Two airlifts will be required. Which member(s) below will not be included in the first airlift?
A) The High Rise Roof Chief
B) The High Rise Roof Officer
C) The forcible entry team
D) The LCC
ANSWER: D) The LCC
AUC 269 (4.3.4 C)
- 1st Airlift = HRRC / HRRO / FE team
- 2nd Airlift = LCC / OVM / Roof FF
The safety of our members at an operation involving an NYPD helicopter must be taken seriously. All members must wear a personal safety harness or Life Saving Belt during flight operations. Which safety tactic below is listed incorrectly?
A) Approach and leave the aircraft in a semi-crouched position in single file. Do not run.
B) HRRTs shall approach and board the helicopter only when directed by the pilot, co-pilot, or crew chief. Approach from the front or tail section within the vision of the pilot.
C) The crew chief or pilot will designate riding positions on the helicopter.
D) All are correct
ANSWER: B) HRRTs shall approach and board the helicopter only when directed by the pilot, co-pilot, or crew chief. Approach from the front or tail section within the vision of the pilot. (INCORRECT)
(AUC 269 (5.1)
- DO NOT APPROACH THE TAIL UNDER ANY CIRCUMSTANCES.
Personal Flotation Devices (PFD) are being issued to all units involved in the FDNY Air Support Plan. Of the following statements, choose the incorrect statement regarding these devices.
A) The PFDs must be donned by members prior to boarding any NYPD aircraft.
B) The PFD is fully capable of supporting a member while wearing full PPE including an SCBA.
C) PFDs must be inflated manually by the member prior to exiting the aircraft into a body of water.
D) After pulling the activation tag, the PFD should fully inflate within 5 seconds and the Rapidfire automatic strobe light should activate.
ANSWER: C) PFDs must be inflated manually by the member prior to exiting the aircraft into a body of water. (INCORRECT)
(AUC 269 Addendum 2 - 1.1 - 3.1.2 - 3.2.1 - 3.2.2)
- Inflate PFD ONLY AFTER EXITING THE AIRCRAFT
The correct signal to transmit when fire has blown one or more manhole cover is a 10-25 ____________?
A) No Code
B) Code 1
C) Code 2
D) Code 3
E) Code 4
ANSWER: C) Code 2
(AUC 180 section 1.1)
10-25 Manhole Emergency
No Code - Situation other than codes 1 to 4 (person fell into hole)
Code 1 - Fire extended from manhole to building (Fire in 2 places)
Code 2 - Fire has blown one or more covers / smoke under pressure
Code 3 - Smoke seeping
Code 4 - Fire started in transformer (pole, vault room)
On a 9x6 tour in February, two days after a blizzard struck NYC, an Engine and a Ladder company arrive on scene for several manholes smoking. What would be a correct action to take?
A) The area shall be taped off to mark the danger area for civilians, but not FD personnel.
B) Members shall not attempt to move vehicles in the danger area, unless they are located above a smoking manhole.
C) Upon arrival, the Lieutenant working in the Engine shall order members to operate the hose stream directly into the manhole for quick control if flame is issuing from the manhole.
D) The Captain working in the Ladder shall direct members to inspect electrical services in surrounding buildings while using CO meters.
ANSWER: D) The Captain working in the Ladder shall direct members to inspect electrical services in surrounding buildings while using CO meters.
(AUC 180 section 2.4)
A - Tape area to mark danger zone for CIVILIANS and FDNY personnel
B - Members SHALL NOT attempt to move vehicles in danger area.
C - Do not introduce water UNLESS DIRECTED BY CON ED (use fog nozzle and let water roll into manhole / do not operate line directly)
When the ETA of an emergency crew is more than 30 minutes at a manhole incident, the Officer in charge may take several actions. Which one is not correct?
A) One unit, preferably an Engine Company, may respond to assigned alarms received via radio, while leaving one member on scene.
B) One member shall be left at the scene and the unit shall return to quarters.
C) The manhole shall be protected by traffic cones and tape, and all units placed in service.
D) When a member is left at the scene, the Battalion Chief shall provide relief for members and contact the dispatcher at frequent intervals for re-notification of the utility company.
ANSWER: D) When a member is left at the scene, the Battalion Chief shall provide relief for members and contact the dispatcher at frequent intervals for re-notification of the utility company. (INCORRECT)
(AUC 180 section 2.6)
- The COMPANY OFFICER shall do this.
Safety of members is the most important consideration at a manhole fire or emergency. Which choice is not in accordance with accepted procedures?
A) Downed overhead primary and secondary wires can damage underground gas piping. If an odor of gas is encountered, request the immediate response of the utility’s gas crew in addition to their electric crew.
B) Members should not pull covers off electrical manholes at manhole fires or if a manhole fire is in the area.
C) When a manhole cover blows, do not run. Keep your eyes on the cover so you can approximate where it will land.
D) The location of street signs must be taken into consideration when deciding the size and location of the area of danger.
ANSWER: D) The location of street signs must be taken into consideration when deciding the size and location of the area of danger. (INCORRECT)
(AUC 180 section 1.4 notes)
- Location of TRAFFIC CONTROL BOXES must be taken into consideration when deciding area of danger.
An incorrect point concerning sub-surface transformer vaults can be found in which choice?
A) They come in various sizes but they are typically 12’ x 4’ and are installed in either the street or the sidewalk below grade level.
B) Vaults in the street sometimes have solid gratings that are usually rectangular.
C) The transformers convert primary voltage (27,000 volts) To secondary voltage (120 volts). Either of these voltages can cause fatal injury.
D) Some transformer vaults are considered PCB Contaminated transformers that contain 50-499 PPM of PCBs.
E) Asbestos is the greatest hazard in these vaults.
ANSWER: E) Asbestos is the greatest hazard in these vaults. (INCORRECT)
(AUC 180 section 3.2)
- You may find asbestos in these vaults however the greatest hazard is the AMOUNT OF ELECTRICITY present in the vault.
Units operating at a fire in a transformer vault in the Bronx operated incorrectly in which choice?
A) Extinguishment efforts were limited to heavy water streams from a distance. Foam or hand lines were not used due to the high voltage found in these vaults.
B) Teams of 2 members, equipped with CO meters, took readings from the meter room, surrounding rooms and the 1st floor of exposures.
C) Members did not enter the vault for search until Con Ed determined it was safe for entry.
D) After receiving authorization, members conducted a cursory search of the vault for victims.
ANSWER: A) Extinguishment efforts were limited to heavy water streams from a distance. Foam or hand lines were not used due to the high voltage found in these vaults. (INCORRECT)
(AUC 180 section 3.3)
- PREPARE FOR A FOAM OPERATION in transformer fires.
Engine 228 receives a response and is designated on the ticket as E228I. While responding, which thought of the Lt. is correct?
A) FireIce is effective at manhole fires (Class C fires) involving electrical cables. It is designed to reduce the amount of CO generated by burning cables.
B) Any member on scene can utilize the special equipment that FireIce units carry.
C) Normally FireIce is applied after consulting with a Con Ed supervisor. However, when necessary, the Officer if the FireIce unit can order the application of FireIce prior to the arrival of a Con Ed supervisor.
D) FireIce is effective on Class B fires, including all types of transformer fires.
ANSWER: A) FireIce is effective at manhole fires (Class C fires) involving electrical cables. It is designed to reduce the amount of CO generated by burning cables.
(AUC 180 Add. 2 section 1.1, 4.1, 5.2, 7.2, 7.3)
B - ONLY TRAINED MEMBERS can utilize FireIce equipment.
C - ONLY CHIEF OFFICER can order FireIce w/o Con Ed approval.
D - FireIce is NOT EFFECTIVE FOR TRANSFORMER FIRES.
Classes of Fire
Class A - common combustibles (wood, paper, cloth) GREEN
Class B - Flammable Liquids/Gases (gasoline, propane) RED
Class C - Live electrical equipment (computers, cables) BLUE
Class D - Combustible metals (magnesium, lithium) YELLOW
Upon being directed to apply FireIce, Engine 33 took several actions. Which one was incorrect?
A) The member that inserted the pickup tube into the product container employed a circular vacuuming motion, and did not remove the tube until the operation was concluded.
B) The product container was placed at the point of nozzle operation, ensuring that the 25’ length of 1 3/4” supply hose was fully extended.
C) The operating pressure at the eductor was maintained at 200 psi, using the in-line pressure gauge to ensure adequate pressure.
D) The member operating the nozzle started operating the 1 3/4” line 50 feet from the manhole. After an adequate gel solution was established, the Nozzle FF moved 25 feet forward.
E) The stream was directed to fall approximately one foot in front of manhole opening.
ANSWER: C) The operating pressure at the eductor was maintained at 200 psi, using the in-line pressure gauge to ensure adequate pressure. (INCORRECT)
(AUC 180 Add. 2 section 8)
Operating pressure at educator maintained at 60-100 PSI.
60-80 PSI is optimal (there is no in-line gauge for FireIce)
200 PSI is the pressure listed in the foam bulletin.
On October 1st of each year, certain equipment shall be assembled in readiness. This equipment shall be placed on the apparatus when snow or ice emergency is imminent or Phase A or B has been established. Which choice correctly lists the types and quantities of the required equipment?
- At least 6 extra lengths of 1 3/4” hose rolled or folded on each Engine and Ladder apparatus.
- 2 shovels
- Containers of ash
- Vehicle recovery strap with shackle
- Tire chains, spare links and link tool
- Specialized hydrant connection set up as determined by Borough Commander.
A) 1,2,3,4,5,6 B) 2,4,5 C) 1,2,4,5,6 D) 3,4,6
ANSWER: B) 2,4,5
(AUC 200 section 3.3.3)
1 - At least 6 extra lengths of TWO AND A HALF INCH (2 1/2”) hose
3 - Containers of SALT AND/OR SAND
6 - Specialized hydrant connections determined by INDIVIDUAL COMMANDING OFFICERS.
Company Commanders have many responsibilities concerning planning for winter operations. Which is not one of them?
A) Winter supplies and equipment shall be requisitioned June 1st. Items not received by October 1st shall be called to the attention of Technical Services.
B) A supply of sand and/or salt shall be obtained for use at quarters, and also in containers to be placed on the apparatus.
C) Company Commanders shall avoid the indiscriminate use of de-icees, such as crystallized salt, on concrete surfaces.
D) Maintain a minimum of 6 shovels in quarters for snow clearance in front of quarters and for hydrant clearance throughout the administrative district.
ANSWER: A) Winter supplies and equipment shall be requisitioned June 1st. Items not received by October 1st shall be called to the attention of Technical Services. (INCORRECT)
(AUC 200 section 3.3.7)
- Supplies and equipment requisitioned JULY FIRST.
- Items not received notify DIVISION WINTER OPS COORDINATOR.
In the middle of January, while checking a hydrant at a reported structural fire, E-232 determines that the hydrant is frozen. Which is the correct action for E-232 to take?
A) A yellow hydrant disc will always be placed on the hydrant.
B) A yellow hydrant disc will only be placed on the hydrant if it is in the administrative district of E-232.
C) E-232 will enter the frozen hydrant into the Hansen Hydrant Application whether or not it is in the administrative district of E-232.
D) If after the hydrant has been thawed and pumped out, if it is determined that the frozen condition will recur due to a leaking valve, call DEP to notify them of the issue.
ANSWER: A) A yellow hydrant disc will always be placed on the hydrant.
(AUC 200 4.6.3)
B - Place a yellow disc (IT DOESN’T MATTER WHO’S DISTRICT THE HYDRANT IS IN)
C - Enter into Hansen App. ONLY IF IT IS IN YOUR ADMIN. DISTRICT
D - DO NOT CALL DEP (UTILIZE HANSEN HYDRANT APP.)
E-2, E-17, E-99, L-92, TL-100 and B-5 respond to a medium fire condition on the 1st floor of a 2 1/2 story PD in the midst of a heavy snowstorm where Phase B has been declared. The fire building is located on a side street that has not been plowed, and street conditions are very poor. E-2 and L-92 arrive 1st. Which choice below represents the proper apparatus positioning?
A) All units on the first alarm entered the block.
B) Ladder 92 entered the block first.
C) Engine 2 entered the block first.
D) Engine 2 did not enter the block until Ladder 92 and TL 100 entered the block.
ANSWER: C) Engine 2 entered the block first.
(AUC 200 section 5.3.10)
A - ONLY FIRST ARRIVING UNITS ENTER THE BLOCK.
B - ENGINE ENTERS BLOCK 1ST (Building 3 stories or less)
D - ENGINE ENTERS BLOCK 1ST (Building 3 stories or less)
- If the building is 3 stories or less the Engine enters first
- If the building is more than 3 (4 stories) Ladder enters first.
- 3 stories or less the entire operation can be done with portables
- 4 story building (Aerial or TL will be needed to Ladder the building)
E-2, E-17, E-99, L-92, TL-100 and B-5 respond to a medium fire condition on the 1st floor of a 2 1/2 story PD in the midst of a heavy snowstorm where Phase B has been declared. The fire building is located on a side street that has not been plowed, and street conditions are very poor. E-2 and L-92 arrive 1st. At a post fire critique, the IC should discuss which incorrect operation?
A) When the apparatus was unable to enter the fire block, E-2 members carried folded lengths of hose on their 24’ extension ladder, which was covered lengthwise with a tarp.
B) Engine 2 hooked up their hose directly to the hydrant by connecting a one way gate to the hydrant.
C) The Officer of Ladder 92 assigned two members to the roof, after instructing them to bring a shovel with them.
D) Ladder 100 filled pots with water from the faucet and poured it between the wall and baseboard on the 2nd floor to prevent extension from the floor below.
ANSWER: B) Engine 2 hooked up their hose directly to the hydrant by connecting a one way gate to the hydrant. (INCORRECT)
(AUC 200 section 10.3.10)
- Hook up directly to hydrant by connecting a TWO WAY GATE.
While working a 9x6 tour a firefighter enters your office and states that he has just begun taking a prescribed pain killer due to a recent medical issue. Thinking that this medication may affect the firefighter’s mental or physical ability to fulfill his work duties, you should ensure all but which of the following actions are taken?
A) Instruct the member to advise you about the specific reasons that are required to take the medication.
B) Order the member to BHS for a fitness for duty determination.
C) Document the referral to BHS in the unit journal.
D) Advise the member that they are required to inform BHS of all relevant medical information.
ANSWER: A) Instruct the member to advise you about the specific reasons that are required to take the medication. (INCORRECT)
(AUC 202 5.2)
- NO MEMBER IS REQUIRED TO REVEAL ANY CONFIDENTIAL MEDICAL INFORMATION TO THEIR COMMANDING OFFICER.
Lt. Schmitz who is working a 6x9 tour in a Ladder Company, enters the firehouse kitchen after a run and finds one on duty and two off duty members of the Engine Company drinking beer. According to AUC 202, the Officer must Immediately take how many of the following actions?
- He must prohibit all on and off duty members present at the time of discovery from leaving the premise without the permission of the Engine Officer.
- He must immediately relieve the on duty member(s) from emergency response duty.
- He must immediately have the Engine and Ladder Company placed out of service.
- He must notify the administrative Battalion Chief.
- He must notify BITS.
- He must document the incident in the Company journal.
A) 6 B) 5 C) 4 D)3
ANSWER: C) 4 (He must complete choices 2,4,5 and 6 / Choices 1 and 3 are INCORRECT)
(AUC 202 5.5)
1 - Can’t leave without the permission of the INVESTIGATING OFFICER.
3 - Only place AFFECTED UNIT OOS (Engine only in this scenario)
“PROBBE”
P - Prohibit ON and OFF DUTY members from leaving without permission if the INVESTIGATING OFFICER.
R - Relieve all ON DUTY members from response.
O - Out of service (place AFFECTED units OOS)
B - Battalion Chief notification (If BC involved then next superior)
B - BITS notification
E - Entry in journal
Captain Schaefer has been assigned by the Command Chief as the Investigating Officer for a situation where some on and off duty members were discovered drinking alcohol in the firehouse kitchen. As the Investigating Officer, Captain Schaefer would be correct to take all but which one of the following actions?
A) He shall conduct a roll call of all on duty and off duty members present in the firehouse.
B) He shall advise all members working of their right to representation before being questioned.
C) Following notification, he shall conduct an investigation to ascertain which member(s) may have engaged in prohibited conduct.
D) He ordered the members who are believed to have been drinking alcohol to be tested. A report shall be forwarded to the Chief of Department via the chain of command, documenting the reasons for the determination to have members tested.
ANSWER: B) He shall advise all members working of their right to representation before being questioned. (INCORRECT)
(AUC 202 5.7)
- Advise all Officers and Firefighters whom the Investigating Officer REASONABLY BELIEVES MAY BE SUBJECT TO CHARGES of their right to representation before being questioned. (Witnesses who are not involved, may be questioned)
“RAIT”
R - Roll call
A - Advise right to representation before questioning (of those subject to charges)
I - Investigate to ascertain which members engaged in prohibited conduct.
T - Testing ordered for illegal drugs and alcohol.
On a Tuesday 6x9 tour, groups 1-6 are scheduled to work when the Random Drug Testing Unit enters the quarters of Ladder 400. Of the following members, which one should not be tested?
A) FF Jones (group 1) who is detailed into Ladder 400 from Ladder 500.
B) FF Peters (group 2) who was detailed from Ladder 400 to Ladder 500 as an LCC.
C) FF Thomas (group 18) who is working MSOT in Ladder 400.
D) FF Stevens (group 6) assigned to Ladder 400, who is working Light Duty in the Division.
ANSWER: B) FF Peters (group 2) who was detailed from Ladder 400 to Ladder 500 as an LCC. (INCORRECT)
(AUC 202 Addendum 1 4.1.6)
- FF Peters will not be tested since he was detailed out of the unit (Ladder 400) that was being tested.
- All members working in L-400 that tour will be tested (even details)
- Off line positions (LD, administrative assignment) whose groups are in on the same date and tour as the unit being tested will also be tested.
Every member selected for drug testing shall be tested on the date and time designated by the FDNY. No member’s request to be excused or re-scheduled (including emergency leaves), shall be granted without the approval of whom?
A) Chief of Department
B) Chief of Operations
C) Borough Commander
D) On duty Division Chief
ANSWER: A) Chief of Department (SUDNIK)
- No one can be excused or rescheduled without SUDNIK’s approval.
(AUC 202 Addendum 1 4.6.1)
A Captain and a Lieutenant are discussing semi annual hydrant inspections and the proper reporting of defective hydrants. Which statements made during the conversation was incorrect?
A) Hydrant cards (BF-47A) shall be filed in Company quarters until further notice.
B) Individual members may be utilized for hydrant inspection in lieu of the entire company.
C) Companies with yellow hydrants located on parkways and expressways in their districts shall include them in their annual Hydrant Inspection Program.
D) Frozen hydrants shall be reported by faxing the required form to the Borough Thawing Apparatus.
ANSWER: D) Frozen hydrants shall be reported by faxing the required form to the Borough Thawing Apparatus. (INCORRECT)
- Frozen hydrants shall be reported THROUGH THE HANSEN HYDRANT APPLICATION. (Recent change)
(AUC 205 2.8)
All of the following shall be considered “Priority Hydrants” which would require a priority repair if placed OOS with the exception of which choice below?
A) A hydrant at the base of the George Washington Bridge that is considered vital to its protection.
B) One of two hydrants on a dead end street.
C) The only hydrant on a small two way street.
D) Two adjacent hydrants found on the same block that also has two in service hydrants.
ANSWER: B) One if two hydrants on a dead end street (INCORRECT)
Priority Hydrants
- Only hydrant on the block.
- Hydrant vital to the protection of critical infrastructure.
Hydrants requiring priority referral “HOT”
H - Hazard (target hazard or critical infrastructure) (GW Bridge)
O - Only Hydrant on the block
T - Two adjacent hydrants on a block that are OOS.
Captain Dressler has received a completed DEP repair ticket for a hydrant that his unit recently placed OOS. The Captain and his company inspected the hydrant and found the repairs were not satisfactory. How should the Captain now Report this defeat?
A) Re-enter the defect utilizing the Hansen hydrant application.
B) Telephone the Administrative Battalion.
C) Telephone the water resource officer at the Brooklyn Borough Command.
D) Telephone the DEP 24 hour service desk.
ANSWER: A) Re-enter the defect utilizing the Hansen hydrant application.
(AUC 205 4.1)
A small group of local residents enters your quarters and requests a spray cap for a hydrant on their block. You should issue a spray cap to the group as long as all but which one of the following conditions is met?
A) The requesting party is at least 16 years old.
B) The “request for spray caps form” is completed.
C) The cap is not placed on a hydrant on a two way street, near an intersection, on a bus route, or on an access route to main traffic arteries.
D) The cap is not placed on a hydrant that is located on a main larger than 20 inches in diameter.
ANSWER: A) The requesting party is at least 16 years old. (INCORRECT)
(AUC 205 5.3)
- EIGHTEEN (18) years old.
During the first full week of May, hydrant pressure readings should be taken on hydrants nearest to quarters. Which statement is correct regarding these readings?
A) All companies shall take readings every 3 hours from 1000 hrs to 2200 hrs, record the pressures on the Hydrant Pressure Chart and post the Chart at the housewatch desk until May 31st.
B) All companies shall take readings every 3 hours from 1000 hrs to 2200 hrs, record the pressures on the Hydrant Pressure Chart and post the Chart at the housewatch desk throughout the summer season.
C) All Engines and Squads shall take readings every 3 hours from 1000 hrs to 2200 hrs, record the pressures on the Hydrant Pressure Chart and post the Chart at the housewatch desk until May 31st.
D) All Engines and Squads shall take readings every 3 hours from 1000 hrs to 2200 hrs, record the pressures on the Hydrant Pressure Chart and post the Chart at the housewatch desk throughout the summer season.
ANSWER: D) All Engines and Squads shall take readings every 3 hours from 1000 hrs to 2200 hrs, record the pressures on the Hydrant Pressure Chart and post the Chart at the housewatch desk throughout the summer season.
(AUC 205 6.3)
Hydrant pressure readings - Engines and Squads every 3 hours
Phase 1 “Water Pressure Alert” - ALL companies EVERY HOUR
A Phase 2 “Water Pressure Emergency” has been declared in NYC and your Deputy Chief has instructed you to patrol your district for the presence of open hydrants and either shut them or place spray caps. Upon completion of your patrol duties you should fax all but which one of the following to the Battalion?
A) The number of all open hydrants found
B) The number of hydrants shut down
C) The number of spray caps placed
D) Any areas experiencing dangerously low water pressure that could adversely affect firefighting conditions.
ANSWER: A) The number of all open hydrants found. (INCORRECT)
(AUC 205 8.2)
- The number of ILLEGALLY OPENED HYDRANTS found.
“SOSA”
S - Shut down (number of hydrants shut down)
O - Opened (number of hydrants ILLEGALLY opened)
S - Spray caps (number of spray caps placed)
A - Any areas experiencing dangerously low water pressure that may adversely affect firefighting operations.
A Company Officer drilling on subway and railrod operations was incorrect to state that?
A) FDNY Personnel are never permitted to operate on track areas unless assured power is off. This rule may be ignored only if life is in imminent peril and direct and immediate action is required to save life.
B) Positive assurance of power shut off will be verified through the FD Dispatcher before power is assumed to be off. Power removal shall be accomplished at all times via apparatus radio through our dispatcher.
C) The 1st consideration on arrival at an operation involving an electrified track is whether a HT relay is needed.
D) If there is immediate danger, and power must be shutoff to save lives in imminent danger, the nearest power removal box should be used and the desk superintendent immediately notified via the emergency telephone that power is to remain off.
ANSWER: C) The 1st consideration on arrival at an operation involving an electrified track is whether a HT relay is needed. (INCORRECT)
(AUC 207 - 2.1)
- 1st consideration is to make a decision if POWER IS TO BE REMOVED OR STAY ON.
- ALWAYS set up HT CORE-100 relay for subway operations.
Whenever power is removed, which of the following subway facilities will be affected?
A) Lights in the right of way
B) Station lights
C) Headlights
D) Signals
E) Third Rail
F) Drainage pumping equipment
G) Ventilation equipment
ANSWER: E) Third Rail
(AUC 207 - 3.2.5)
Not affected when power is removed: “Some Red Heads Spread VD”
S - Station lights
R – Right of way lights
H – Headlights on train
S - Signals
V – Ventilation equipment
D – Drainage pumping equipment
- Interior subway car lights may be on or off
Regarding Engine company operations at a subway fire system, which point below would be incorrect?
A) Engine Chauffeurs should not connect to a hydrant until the fire is located.
B) All Engine company personnel should be committed to getting the 1st line into operation.
C) An FT-2 fog nozzle should be used because it has a hollow stream, a rubber tipped nozzle and the effect of a fog stream for ventilation.
D) If an emergency exit is the most direct means of access to the fire area, line placement should become the priority use of this emergency exit.
ANSWER: If an emergency exit is the most direct means of access to the fire area, line placement should become the priority use of this emergency exit. (INCORRECT)
(AUC 207 - 3.7)
- Emergency exits might prove the most direct means of access to a fire area. However, EVACUATING PASSENGERS WILL ALWAYS GET PRIORITY USE OF THIS MEANS.
Ladder 4 is setting up a HT relay for a response to a fire reported on the tracks of the subway system. Which guideline below would a member in the relay be incorrect to follow?
A) The LCC should go to the bottom of the subway entrance stairs. Then, if the token clerk booth is within 50 yards of the stairs to the street, he should proceed to the token booth and contact the train dispatcher through the clerk.
B) The OV should attempt to get to the foot of the stairs leading to the platform if it is within 50 yards of the LCC.
C) The Roof must insure that he goes no further than 50 yards from the OV, depending on where the OV is positioned.
D) The Engine Officer should insure that he goes no further than approximately 100 yards from the Roof FF, and MUST remain in the line of sight of the Roof FF.
E) If necessary, additional HT equipped members should be positioned every 100 yards.
ANSWER: C) The Roof must insure that he goes no further than 50 yards from the OV, depending on where the OV is positioned. (INCORRECT)
(AUC 207 - 4.1)
- Roof FF 50 yards from STAIRS on the platform
“CORE-100 Stairs/man/stairs/man”
LCC 50 yards from stairs to street
OV 50 yards from LCC (man)
Roof 50 yards from stairs on platform
Engine Officer within LOS 100 yards from Roof FF (man)
When setting up a HT relay, members would be incorrect to think that?
A) Only members needed to establish an effective relay shall be used.
B) All HT relays should begin with the LCC.
C) All members not needed in the HT relay shall proceed to the incident location with the Truck Officer.
D) All members in the relay, including the Ladder Officer, shall use the term “RELAY” when identifying themselves.
ANSWER: D) All members in the relay, including the Ladder Officer, shall use the term “RELAY” when identifying themselves. (INCORRECT)
(AUC 207 - 4.1)
- All members in relay, EXCLUDING THE LADDER OFFICER AND COMMAND, will use the term “RELAY” when identifying themselves.
“Ladder 4 to Ladder 4 Roof Relay. Notify Command there is a rubbish fire 100’ south of the southbound platform.”
Ladder 105 arrives at the scene of a track fire in the subway system a few hundred feet from the station. Because the track fire is small, they decide to leave the power on. They would then be correct to consider which one of the following guidelines?
A) Wait until a train comes into the station, then notify the train operator that they will be walking on the benchwall to extinguish the fire.
B) Only go onto the tracks if civilians are on the tracks and they must be kept away from the 3rd rail, or they need to go to a blue light power removal box because of a life hazard, or if fire is on the express track and it cannot be reached with their extinguisher.
C) When walking on the benchwall, the Officer, Can FF and Irons FF should be sufficient.
D) Work in pairs and have the Can FF bring a hallgian hook.
ANSWER: A) Wait until a train comes into the station, then notify the train operator that they will be walking on the benchwall to extinguish the fire.
(AUC 207 - 5.4.2)
B - TWO REASONS TO GO ON TRACKS = If civilians are on the tracks and they must be kept away from the 3rd rail, or they need to go to a blue light power removal box because of a life hazard.
C - When walking on benchwall, the OFFICER and CAN FF should be sufficient
D - Can FF should bring WOODEN HOOK.
The preferred method, whenever possible, for extinguishing a small fire in ties of an elevated railroad is to use?
A) Handline from an Aerial Ladder
B) Handline from a TL basket.
C) Handline from the street below
D) Extinguisher from an Aerial or TL.
ANSWER: C) Handline from the street below
(AUC 207 - 5.7.1)
- If Aerial or TL is needed, do not extend them beyond the railing where they can be exposed to moving trains.
Members operating at a fuel spill in the street that is close to a subway grating or main entrance must try and stop the flow into these entrances by diking it. The preferred order to do this is represented in which choice below?
A) Sand or earth, planking, charged hoselines
B) Charged hose lines, planking, sand or earth
C) Planking, sand or earth, charged hose lines
D) Sand or earth, charged hose lines, planking
ANSWER: A) Sand or earth, planking, charged hoselines
(AUC 207 - 5.8 L)
- When a fuel spill is close to a grating or main entrance of a subway station, we must try to stop the flow into these entrances by diking. Preferably by sand or earth; if not, use planking. If none of these things are available, charge several lengths of hose and encircle the fuel spill. This should be followed by a layer of foam.
There is a possibility of diesel engines (work trains) operating on all tracks throughout the NYC Transit system, even after power has been confirmed off and train traffic has been halted.
A) True
B) False
ANSWER: A) True
(AUC 207 - 6.4)
- There is also the possibility of diesel engines operating on all tracks. Members must remain vigilant for train movement even after power has been confirmed off and train traffic has been halted.
You are the member sent to a Blue Light Power Removal Box to shut power due to an imminent life hazard on the tracks. In this situation you would be incorrect to think that you should?
A) Use the pull down lever inside the box to shut power.
B) Immediately call the desk superintendent via the telephone near the blue light and indicate that power is to be removed and the reason why.
C) Dial the primary 4 digit number listed on the inside cover of the door. If the primary number is busy, release the handset button, then re-depress the button and call an alternate number.
D) Depress the handset button when speaking, and release the handset button to listen.
ANSWER: D) Depress the handset button when speaking, and release the handset button to listen. (INCORRECT)
(AUC 207 - 8.1)
- Depress button at all times when LISTENING AND SPEAKING.
- Letting go of the button will TERMINATE THE CALL
You are the member sent to a Blue Light Power Removal Box to shut power due to an imminent life hazard on the tracks. On arrival at the nearest box, you find a white bag with red lettering that states “out of service” over the box. In this situation it would be best to?
A) Advise your Officer power removal is not possible via power removal boxes.
B) Continue to the next nearest power removal box
C) Use the associated telephone to contact Rail Control Center to request the removal of power, remaining on the phone until receiving confirmation that power has been removed.
D) Notify the IC via HT relay that power removal must be accomplished via Department Radio.
ANSWER: C) Use the associated telephone to contact Rail Control Center to request the removal of power, remaining on the phone until receiving confirmation that power has been removed.
(AUC 207 - 8.1)
- All members are reminded that the use of a Power Removal Box to remove power should only be used as a LAST RESORT, when there is an imminent life hazard.
In the NYC Subway System, members should know firefighting equipment exists, particularly in under-river tubes. Which point below regarding this equipment is not accurate?
A) All under-river tubes have a wet standpipe system that are city main connected at each end and protected from freezing.
B) All under-river tubes have siamese connections located on each end of the tube.
C) Gate valves with FDNY threads are located approximately 200 feet apart,
D) Dry chemical extinguishers are found at power removal boxes, approximately 800 feet apart.
ANSWER: D) Dry chemical extinguishers are found at power removal boxes, approximately 800 feet apart. (INCORRECT)
(AUC 207 - 8.5)
- 600 feet apart
- SUBWAY (6 letters = 600 feet apart)
- AIRTRAIN (8 letters = 800 feet apart)
When responding to the NYC Transit System, members may need to make notifications in certain situations when certain issues occur. How many points below are accurate regarding these notifications?
- Anytime power is removed by use of a power removal box, the IC shall forward a letterhead report with full particulars through the chain of command to the Chief of Operations.
- When inspecting an emergency exit, or responding to an incident at an emergency exit, units shall request the Borough Communications Office notify the MTA Transit Control Center of the emergency exit number and location they are entering.
- Whenever there is a problem with the removal of power, lack of compliance, cooperation, or assitance during operations, drills, and inspections at transit facilities, PTSU shall be notified and followed by a report through the chain of command.
- Any FDNY unit experiencing a problem with the NYC Transit Repeater system should notify the Borough Communications Office via Department Radio advising of the problem, and the exact location or station.
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
ANSWER: D) 4 ALL ARE CORRECT
AUC 207 - 3.2.4, 8.8, 10.1, Add 16 section 6
Under New York State Law, if there is reasonable cause to suspect that a child has suffered or will suffer abuse or maltreatment as a result of the acts or omissions of the child’s parent or guardian members are required to file a report. An Officer in E99 working a day tour has just arrived at an EMS run for a sick child. The Officer suspects that the child has been abused so he requests EMS and the police. In this situation, who is responsible for filing this mandated report?
A) The Officer on duty in E99
B) The Police Department
C) The Department of Child Administrative Services
D) The ambulance crew who responds to provide medical care.
ANSWER: D) The ambulance crew who responds to provide medical care.
(AUC 3 - 1.6)
- NEW HIGHLY TESTABLE
During FLSTP’s Captain Smith was reviewing the actions that Officers are required to take when assisting civilians who request assistance because they are being harassed, followed, abused etc. In which choice did Captain Smith give incorrect information?
A) If there is reasonable cause to suspect that returning a child to his/her parents would represent imminent danger to the child, the Officer on duty shall remain on the scene and notify the police department. However, a Fire Officer cannot take the child into protective custody.
B) While in quarters if a member receives a request for assistance the Officer on duty will be notified and he will notify the dispatcher that the unit is operating at a verbal alarm to assist a civilian. The Officer shall request the police through the dispatcher.
C) While out of quarters if a member receives a request for assistance, the officer on duty shall notify the dispatcher that the unit is operating at a verbal to assist a civilian. The officer shall request the police through the dispatcher.
D) When a request is received for assistance, whether in or out of quarters, a letterhead report, with endorsements, shall be forwarded to the Chief of Operations. Must include the civilian’s name and the identity of the Police Officer left in charge of the civilian’s care. A Company Journal entry, including the same information, must also be made.
ANSWER: A) If there is reasonable cause to suspect that returning a child to his/her parents would represent imminent danger to the child, the Officer on duty shall remain on the scene and notify the police department. However, a Fire Officer cannot take the child into protective custody. (INCORRECT)
(AUC 3 - 1.3)
- Officer on duty CAN TAKE CHILD INTO PROTECTIVE CUSTODY.
- NEW HIGHLY TESTABLE
You are a Lt. working a day tour in L100 and see in the day book that the company has operation sidewalk scheduled for 1400 hours. It is located at a school that is in the neighborhood. Around 1100 hours while you are out getting the meal, you hear over the department radio that a 10-51 has been transmitted for the rest of the day. In this situation you would be correct to?
A) Tell the members that operation sidewalk is cancelled since a 10-51 was transmitted.
B) Tell the members that even though a 10-51 was transmitted, the unit must still conduct operation sidewalk.
ANSWER: A) Tell the members that operation sidewalk is cancelled since a 10-51 was transmitted.
(AUC 4 - 2.5)
- All fire safety education programs are exempt from the 10-51 signal, EXCEPT OperationSidewalk or when ordered by the Chief of Operations.
- Boy Scout Troops and school visits are OK during 10-51
You are a Lt. working a day tour in L100 and see in the day book that the company has a local Boy Scout Troop visiting the firehouse at 1100 hours. At 0945 hours a 10-51 is given for the rest of the day tour. In this situation you would be correct to tell the members?
A) Tell the members that the Boy Scout Troop visit is cancelled since a 10-51 was transmitted.
B) Tell the members that even though a 10-51 was given, the Boy Scout Troop can still visit the firehouse.
ANSWER: B) Tell the members that even though a 10-51 was given, the Boy Scout Troop can still visit the firehouse.
(AUC 4 - 3.2)
The fire department conducts annual open house events with the goal of educating the public in the difficult and dangerous work that we perform. Which is the only correct point about open houses?
A) The selected firehouse will be open to the public for a 1 1/2 hour period as designated by the Bureau of Operations.
B) Units will be out of service during the open house event.
C) The fire safety and education unit will provide fire safety literature for distribution to the public.
D) At the conclusion of the event, the on duty administrative Battalion Chief shall close out the event on the FSE tracking system.
ANSWER: C) The fire safety and education unit will provide fire safety literature for distribution to the public.
(AUC 4 - 3.2)
A - Open house will be available to the public for TWO (2) HOUR PERIOD.
B - Units will be IN SERVICE during open house
D - OFFICER ON DUTY will close out the event on FSE tracking system
Captain Shakebox was talking to one of his Lts. about an upcoming firehouse visit of a local 3rd grade class and was incorrect in which statement below?
A) When a request is received for a firehouse visit to quarters, the Officer on duty will note the event in the daybook and enter the information into the FSE tracking system.
B) The Officer on duty will e-mail the Scheduling Unit advising them of the date and times of the event.
C) The unit will remain in service during the firehouse visit. Since its a 3rd grade class there must be 1 adult for every 15 kids.
D) The visit can be scheduled even though the unit has hydrant inspections since that can be easily rescheduled. However, firehouse visits should never be scheduled when a unit has BISP on the same day.
ANSWER: D) The visit can be scheduled even though the unit has hydrant inspections since that can be easily rescheduled. However, firehouse visits should never be scheduled when a unit has BISP on the same day. (INCORRECT)
(AUC 4 - 3.1) (Regulations 19 - 19.2.14)
- The Officer on Duty will schedule the event on a day that the Unit IS NOT SCHEDULED for BISP, hydrant inspection or other scheduled activities, such as PMP, etc.
- Visits shall be of no more than one hour duration, between 0900 hours and 1700 hours
Below 3rd grade - 1 adult for every 4 kids
3rd / 4th grade - 1 adult for every 15 kids
Scout Troops - 1 adult for every 20 kids.
5th and over - 1 adult for every 30 kids
When arriving at a subway entrance, members finding a HEET (High Entry Exit Turnstile) should know the correct way to access the subway entrance via the HEET is by use of?
A) A 2642 key
B) A special key issued to each unit by the transit authority.
C) A 1620 key
D) The token booth clerk must buzz the members in
ANSWER: C) A 1620 key
AUC 207 - Addendum 3
During a recent tour, your proby comes into the office and tells you that he cannot find the Metrocard on the rig. After a diligent search you realize that the card is missing. You would be correct to take all of the following actions except?
A) Immediately notify the administrative BC on duty of the particulars and include ID number of Metrocard in the notification.
B) Call the police in order to file a police report
C) Complete a Lost Property Report ensuring that the MTA NYC Transit ID number is included on the report.
D) The Lost Property Report along with the police report number shall be endorsed as required and forwarded to the FDNY Resource Center requesting that a replacement Metrocard be issued.
ANSWER: A) Immediately notify the administrative BC on duty of the particulars and include ID number of Metrocard in the notification. (INCORRECT)
- Immediately notify the FDNY RESOURCE CENTER
(AUC 207 - Add 3)
The MTA NYC Transit Authority has color coded globes on all light posts at subway street entrances. These globes indicate what type of access is available when using the stairway entrance. Which point below about these globes is incorrect?
A) A red globe indicates that there may or may not be a token booth clerk at this location and that the stairway may be closed at some point during a 24 hour day.
B) A green globe indicates that the entrance is open 24 hours a day and that there always will be a token booth clerk at this location.
C) Members are advised that where these light posts are installed, the first point of access, if possible, should be an entrance with a green globe.
D) In areas that are not served by a token booth clerk, access will be via a High Entrance/Exit Turnstile (HEET) or a gate.
ANSWER: B) A green globe indicates that the entrance is open 24 hours a day and that there always will be a token booth clerk at this location. (INCORRECT)
- MAY OR MAY NOT BE A TOKEN BOOTH CLERK
(AUC 207 - Addendum 3)
Frequently FDNY units responding to reported subway fires are informed that the Transit Authority has a light train available at the station for FD use. Listed below are points about this Light Train. Which points are incorrect? (More than one incorrect)
A) Light trains can be used to transport FD personnel to any type of fire, smoke condition or other similar type incidents.
B) The decision to use a light train may be made by a Company Officer or a Chief, based on the size-up of the incident.
C) If a communications link cannot be established with the FD unit on the train, then the train is not to be used.
D) An agreement has been reached with the TA to allow the FD unit on the train direct use of the train operator’s radio.
E) Progress reports from the light train shall be transmitted as soon as possible but at least once every 20 minutes.
F) A light train shall not travel past the next station without the permission of the Chief in charge.
G) FD units should not enter the track area from the light train unless power has been removed.
H) If necessary to disembark the light train, a HT equipped member shall be assigned to remain with the train operator and maintain communications.
ANSWER: A / B / E are INCORRECT
(AUC 207 - Add 7)
A) Light trains can be used to transport FD personnel to any type of fire, smoke condition or other similar type incidents. (INCORRECT)
B) The decision to use a light train may be made by a Company Officer or a Chief, based on the size-up of the incident. (INCORRECT)
E) Progress reports from the light train shall be transmitted as soon as possible but at least once every 20 minutes. (INCORRECT)
A - Light trains used to transport FD to MINOR SMOKE CONDITIONS
B - Decision to use Light train made by CHIEF OFFICER
E - Progress reports every FIFTEEN (15) minutes
During a recent subway drill at the rock, members were discussing subway ventilation fans. Which point made during this drill is not entirely correct?
A) In a smoke condition, the track bed may be more comfortable for the passengers than the benchwall since the track bed may be below the smoke level. Both the track bed and benchwall are acceptable avenues of evacuation.
B) The ventilation fans of under river tubes are reversible, that is, capable of being operated in either the supply or exhaust mode and are located on both ends of the tube.
C) Whenever evacuation or removal of passengers from a train to the track or benchwall is contemplated, the power shall be ordered off. Keep in mind that fans will not work when power removal is ordered by the Fire Department.
D) The evacuation of passengers from under river tubes should take place away from any fan operated in the exhaust mode. In this way, the forced airflow will draw fresh air into the faces of the evacuatating passengers and remove smoke from the area which they are evacuating.
ANSWER: C) Whenever evacuation or removal of passengers from a train to the track or benchwall is contemplated, the power shall be ordered off. Keep in mind that fans will not work when power removal is ordered by the Fire Department. (INCORRECT)
(AUC 207 - Add 8)
- Fans ARE NOT AFFECTED by power removal.
“Some Red Heads Spread VD” (Not affected)
S - Station lights
R – Right of way lights
H – Headlights on train
S - Signals
V – Ventilation equipment
D – Drainage pumping equipment
- Interior subway car lights may be on or off
E99 has just arrived at Penn Station for a report of an Amtrak train on fire on track 17. As members make their way down the stairs they see that the undercarriage of the train is on fire and exposing the diesel fuel tank on this dual powered train. The train is powered by the overhead catenary wires, which the dispatcher has confirmed are de-energized. A supervisor from Amtrak approaches the Officer from E99 and tells him that the catenary wires have not been grounded and that it will take about another 15 minutes to have the wires grounded. In this situation, the Officer of E99 would be most correct to give which order below?
A) Order a line stretched with a fog stream operated from the adjacent platform from 15 feet away, directing water at the train’s undercarriage in short bursts, thus controlling fire and/or cooling the diesel fuel tank.
B) Order a line stretched and with a fog stream, but do flow water until it is confirmed that the catenary wires have been grounded.
ANSWER: A) Order a line stretched with a fog stream operated from the adjacent platform from 15 feet away, directing water at the train’s undercarriage in short bursts, thus controlling fire and/or cooling the diesel fuel tank.
(AUC 207 - Addendum 9)
- Run-off water presents an electrical hazard and officers shall make certain that firefighters are not standing in the path of run-off water
All FDNY members applying water with hand-held fog nozzles should take advantage of the reach of the fog stream and observe a minimum approach distance of _____ feet to catenary wires.
A) 4’
B) 25’
C) 30’
D) 10’
ANSWER: D) 10’
(AUC 207 - Addendum 9)
CaTENary
Minimum distance of four feet (4’) should be maintained for voltages from 10,000 volts (10KV) to 30,000 volts (30KV).
However, a common sense approach to catenary lines containing approximately 12,000 volts (12KV) is required.
All fire teams applying water with hand-held fog nozzles should take advantage of the reach of the fog stream and observe to a minimum approach distance of ten feet (10’) to catenary wires.
When operating near catenary lines it is important for members to have a thorough understanding of the different terms and equipment that may be found in and around these systems. Which definition listed below is incorrect?
A) An electrical pantograph is a carriage assembly mounted above a locomotive that can be raised or lowered to make electrical contact with a catenary line.
B) Dual powered locomotives may have traction motors that can switch from one power supply to another. These trains use diesel when traveling in rural areas and switch to electric when entering the city.
C) Catenary wires are overhead electrical wires that deliver approximately 10,000 to 30,000 volts of direct current. These lines do not retain residual static electricity after the power source has been disconnected.
D) Standby electrical power is supplied to a standing train via a cable supplying power to operate the refrigeration, lighting, air conditioning, and any other electrical equipment between runs.
ANSWER: C) Catenary wires are overhead electrical wires that deliver approximately 10,000 to 30,000 volts of direct current. These lines do not retain residual static electricity after the power source has been disconnected. (INCORRECT)
- Catenary wires DO RETAIN RESIDUAL ELECTRICITY after the power has been shut down.
(AUC 207 - Addendum 9)
Sound powered phone and dry standpipe systems located in the subway system are a great asset to firefighting operations in the subway system. Which point below is incorrect regarding these systems?
A) The sound powered telephone jacks are compatible with the handset equipment used by the Field Communication Unit and various other FD units.
B) Standpipe outlets at the platform level will be located inside a locked stainless steel cabinet. The cabinet can be opened by using a 1620 key and will not contain hose.
C) Sound powered telephone outlet jacks will be located in a secure metal box that can be opened with a FDNY 1620 key. In most cases, the outlet jack box will be inside the stainless steel standpipe cabinet.
D) The siamese connection will be located at the street level with appropriate signage stating that it is a supply for NYC Transit Subway.
E) Sound powered phone outlet jack boxes are not equipped with telephone handsets.
ANSWER: B) Standpipe outlets at the platform level will be located inside a locked stainless steel cabinet. The cabinet can be opened by using a 1620 key and will not contain hose. (INCORRECT)
- Standpipe Stainless Steel cabinets opened with a SUBWAY KEY
- Sound powered phone outlet jack boxes opened with 1620 key.
(AUC 2017 - Addendum 10)
During semi-annual subway emergency inspection period, E99 is inspecting the subway dry standpipe system and testing the sound powered telephones in a station near the firehouse. Members noted two defects during the inspection. The Officer from E99 would be correct to take which action below to have these defects repaired?
A) Forward an A-8 Referral Report to the Public Transportation Safety Unit, Bureau of Operations.
B) Make a phone call to the Public Transportation Safety Unit, Bureau of Operations.
C) Forward an A-8 Referral Report to the Transit Authority
D) Make a phone call to the Transit Authority.
ANSWER: A) Forward an A-8 Referral Report to the Public Transportation Safety Unit, Bureau of Operations.
(AUC 207 - Addendum 10 5.4)
The Emergency Evacuation Device (EED) was designed by the NYCTAs Office of Safety System. EEDs are provided for FDNY use and are located throughout the TA’s subway system. Which feature below is an incorrect description of the EED?
A) The EED is a yellow, 7 foot long device with steps on the front and a flat surface on the backside. A non-skid surface is applied to both sides.
B) When positioned against the side or end doors of a subway car the EED will reach the roadbed at approximately a 75 degree angle (safe for ascent/descent) and the steps will provide a horizontal stepping surface.
C) Each unit weighs approximately 42 pounds.
D) These devices are constructed of fiberglass reinforced plastic and are electrically non-conductive for use within the confines of the subway environment.
ANSWER: B) When positioned against the side or end doors of a suubway car the EED will reach the roadbed at approximately a 75 degree angle (safe for ascent/descent) and the steps will provide a horizontal stepping surface. (INCORRECT)
- SEVENTY DEGREE (70) ANGLE
(AUC 207 - Add 11 2.1)
You are a company Officer having a discussion with your members about the location of the EED throughout the transit system. However, you were only correct in which point below?
A) At underground stations, the EED is located at the 1st blue light location south of the southbound platform (typically within 50 yards of the platform end)
B) At grade level and elevated stations, the EED will be located in an area at the fulltime token booth.
C) An EED is located at the base of the emergency exit, at one end of each under river tunnel only.
D) Keys to remove EEDs from their mounting brackets are available at every token booth.
ANSWER: D) Keys to remove EEDs from their mounting brackets are available at every token booth.
A - Underground stations the EED is located 50 FEET south of the southbound platform.
B - AT ELEVATED STATIONS the EED will be located in the area of the fulltime token booth.
C - An EED is located at the base of the emergency exit AT BOTH ENDS of each under river tunnel.
(AUC 207 - Addendum 11 3.1)
In Queens, a unique type of rail transportation system has been constructed to facilitate transportation to and from Kennedy Airport. The system is known as the “Airtrain”. Which of the following features describing the Airtrain Stations is incorrect?
A) A blue light station power removal box is located at one end of each platform.
B) Inside the blue light station power removal box there is a red power removal button, which when depressed, de-energizes both the inbound and outbound tracks on the guideway for at least the entire length of the station platform.
C) All stations have an emergency fire alarm panel that has an emergency telephone line to the Airtrain Operations Center at JFK.
D) There is also an emergency telephone located on each platform, which provides a direct line to the Airtrain Operations Center.
ANSWER: A) A blue light station power removal box is located at one end of each platform. (INCORRECT)
- Located at EACH END OF EACH PLATFORM.
(AUC 207 - Addendum 12 2.2)
Additional features of the Airtrain system are described below. Which of the following are correct? (more than 1 correct)
A) Airtrains are comprised of one to four cars. Each car can carry 200 passengers.
B) The Airtrain can reach speeds of up to 70 mph.
C) Every Airtrain car has four sets of doors (one on each side and one on the front and rear)
D) Center walkways will be located between the tracks and are 5 1/2 feet wide. Side walkways are located outside of the tracks and are 2 1/2 feet wide and will also be provided with approximatey 3 foot high hand rails.
E) The presence of a guardrail above the parapet wall of the elevated guideway always indicates that the 3rd rail is located between the tracks, and that there is a side walkway present.
F) The Airtrain is powered by a 3rd rail power system (750 volts DC)
G) Blue light power removal boxes are located every 600 feet along rhe guideway.
ANSWER: A / B / D / F ARE CORRECT (C / E / G ARE INCORRECT)
(AUC 207 - Addendum 12 3)
C - Every Airtrain has 4 doors TWO (2) ON EACH SIDE
E - The presence of a guardrail above the parapet wall of the elevated guideway USUALLY INDICATES that the 3rd rail is located between the tracks, and that there is a side walkway present.
G - Blue light power removal boxes are located every EIGHT HUNDRED (800) FEET along rhe guideway.
Subway “6 letters” blue light 600 feet apart
Airtrain “8 letters” blue light 800 feet apart
When responding to an Airtrain emergency, the 1st consideration upon arrival is to determine whether or not power needs to be removed. Which of the following statements regarding power removal is correct?
A) All requets for power removal must be made directly to the Airtrain Operations Center via the emergency telephone.
B) The IC shall insure that grounding straps are in place on each side of the operation after members are committed to the guideway.
C) The only exception to having grounding straps placed should be when the IC has determined that an imminent life hazard exists and time does not allow for the placement of these straps.
D) In life-threatening situations and the blue light power removal box has been activated, two handie talkie equipped members must remain at the blue light station power removal box to insure that the power remains off.
ANSWER: C) The only exception to having grounding straps placed should be when the IC has determined that an imminent life hazard exists and time does not allow for the placement of these straps.
(AUC 207 - Addendum 12 6)
A - All requets for power removal must be made directly THROUGH THE FDNY DISPATHER.
B - Ensure grounding straps are in place BEFORE members commit to the guideway.
D - ONE HT EQUIPPED MEMBER remains at blue light to ensure power remains off.
You are the officer working in L173 when an alarm is received for an Airtrain emergency at the Howard Beach Station. Upon arrival at the station, your unit takes the following actions. All are correct except which one?
A) Members proceed to the Emergency Fire Alarm Panel, which is located at ground level on the outside of the station.
B) On arrival you sought out the Airtrain “Area Coordinator”. This person is responsible for authorizing all activities at the station, and they can also operate the Airtrain if needed.
C) Since no Airtrain personnel were present, you contacted the Airtrain Operations Center by using the emergency telephone found at the Emergency Fire Alarm Panel.
D) Depending on the circumstances the IC considered the possibility of a “Light train” operation.
ANSWER: B) On arrival you sought out the Airtrain “Area Coordinator”. This person is responsible for authorizing all activities at the station, and they can also operate the Airtrain if needed. (INCORRECT)
- This person CANNOT OPERATE THE AIRTRAIN.
(AUC 207 - Addendum 12 9)
What is the primary method for evacuating passengers from an Airtrain between stations?
A) A Tower Ladder
B) An Aerial Ladder
C) Via the walkway
D) A rescue train from the front, rear or adjacent track
ANSWER: D) A rescue train from the front, rear or adjacent track.
- For an IMMEDIATE REMOVAL the TL is the best option
- Via the walkway is an option based on the distance to the station, weather conditions and the physical capabilities and condition of the passengers.
(AUC 207 - Addendum 12 10)
You are working the day tour in L126. At roll call members are going over their SOP’s for operating at an Airtrain incident between stations on the elevated guideway above the Van Wyck Expressway. They make the following comments below. Which point made is incorrect?
A) A minimum of 1 Engine, 1 Ladder and a BC shall operate at all times at Airtrain incident/emergencies on high speed roadways. One of these units must be a TL.
B) The primary means for accessing the guideway shall be via the nearest overpass.
C) If the incident is not located near an overpass and the TL is placed alongside the high speed roadway for access to the guideway the complete closing of the roadway is required.
D) Units shall request the immediate response of the NYPD to assist with traffic control when the incident is not on JFK property.
ANSWER: A) A minimum of 1 Engine, 1 Ladder and a BC shall operate at all times at Airtrain incident/emergencies on high speed roadways. One of these units must be a TL. (INCORRECT)
- Minimum of TWO (2) ENGINES and TWO (2) LADDERS
- One of these units MUST be a Tower Ladder.
(AUC 207 - Addendum 12 11)
The NYCTA has installed repeater radio systems for all underground subway stations and subway tunnels throughout NYC except Staten Island. Which of the following statements concerning the subway repeater is incorrect?
A) FDNY HTs have been programmed to provide 2 subway repeater channels, Channel 14 (Subway 1) and Channel 15 (Subway 2)
B) Channel 14 and 15 are 5 watt channels
C) The repeater systems will carry the HTs internal ID numbers
D) The repeater channels will not support the emergency alert feature.
ANSWER: D) The repeater channels will not support the emergency alert feature. (INCORRECT)
- They WILL SUPPORT emergency alert feature.
(AUC 207 - Addendum 16 1)
You are the 1st arriving ladder to a reported fire in the subway station in Union Square in Manhattan. On arrival, you direct your members to establish a HT relay and proceed down to the subway platform to investigate conditions. There is a moderate smoke condition and a NYCTA worker reports there is a construction shanty burning. The IC decides to use the repeater system at this operation but is only correct in which of the following points?
A) The IC notifies the dispatcher to have the repeater system activated by NYCTA.
B) Once the repeater system is tested and confirmed operational, the IC notifies the ladder officer that the HT relay is no longer necessary.
C) The IC decides to use both the primary repeater channel 14 and secondary repeater channel 15 at this incident.
D) Experience has shown that the POST radio is an additional reliable option for communicating to below grade locations.
ANSWER: C) The IC decides to use botht he primary repeater channel 14 and secondary repeater channel 15 at this incident.
A - Repeater system IS ALWAYS ON (doesn’t need to be turned on)
B - The HT relay is ALWAYS NECESSARY
D - Post Radio is UNRELIABLE below grade
(AUC 207 - Addendum 16 4.3)
You are the 1st arriving ladder to a reported fire in the subway station in Union Square in Manhattan. On arrival, you direct your members to establish a HT relay and proceed down to the subway platform to investigate conditions. There is a moderate smoke condition and a NYCTA worker reports there is a construction shanty burning. The IC decides to use the repeater system at this operation. Which point about the repeater system is incorrect?
A) Any FD unit that experiences a problem with the NYC transit repeater system shall notify the Public Transportation Safety Unit upon return to quarters.
B) The subway repeaters are similar to building repeaters and cannot support multiple messages transmitted at the same time.
C) At minor operations such as rubbish on the platform, the company Officer shall determine the channel assignments of his members.
D) Any member operating on the repeater channel must be teamed with an HT equipped member operating on HT channel 1.
ANSWER: A) Any FD unit that experiences a problem with the NYC transit repeater system shall notify the Public Transportation Safety Unit upon return to quarters. (INCORRECT)
(AUC 201 - Addendum 16 4.4)
- Notify the BOROUGH COMMNICATIONS OFFICE VIA DEPARTMENT RADIO and advise the Dispatcher of the problem.
If the subway repeater system fails, certain procedures are necessary to ensure a communications link is maintained between the IC and operating members. Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning failure of the repeater system?
A) Members should be alert to the signs of repeater failure such as unusual periods of radio silence or continued inability to make radio contact on the repeater channel.
B) If members encounter a dead spot in repeater coverage they shall immediately use the HT relay to report the failure to the IC.
C) If the repeater system fails, HT communications on FDNY Channel 14 and 15 are not possible.
D) On the Post Radio channel “Rev Subway 1” has been added for use if channel 14 fails and channel “Rev Subway 2” has been added if channel 15 fails.
ANSWER: B) If members encounter a dead spot in repeater coverage they shall immediately use the HT relay to report the failure to the IC. (INCORRECT)
(AUC 207 - Addendum 16 5.2)
- PRIOR TO ABANDONING the use of the repeater channel, the team shall return to a safe location where PREVIOUS COMMUNICATIONS WERE SUCCESSFUL. If communications are now successful on the repeater channel, report the “dead spot” to the IC. If communications are unsuccessful, use H/T relay (Ch. 1) to report the repeater failure to the IC.
MTA NYC Transit Single Exit Station Sticker is an 8” x 8” black pictorial with a yellow background. When encountering these stickers at a subway incident, members should be aware of all of the following except which?
A) These stickers are located inside the station at the platform level.
B) There may be multiple stairway entrances leading to the street from the end of the platform that provides egress.
C) These stickers are provided for any station where egress from the platform is restricted to only one end of the station platform.
D) Depending on the location of the fire or emergency on the station platform, many passenger may be trapped at the end of the platform which does not provide an available means of egress.
ANSWER: A) These stickers are located inside the station at the platform level. (INCORRECT)
- It is located on the station entrance signs at STREET LEVEL.
(AUC 207 - Addendum 17 1.3)
The Nolan Emergency Rail Cart is a lightweight aluminum cart that can be used to transport tools, equipment and patients on tracks used by the NYC Transit, Amtrak, Long Island Railroad, Staten Island Rapid Transit, Metro North and PATH Transit systems. Which of the following statements about the Rail Cart is incorrect?
A) Rail carts shall only be secured to the apparatus when special called for an operation or training.
B) Any engine or ladder company may be special called to transport the rail cart from the quarters where it is stored to the scene of an incident.
C) A red square is painted on the surface corner of the rail cart to indicate the location of the wheel lock.
D) Tools, equipment or non-ambulatory victims may be secured to the rail cart using supplied elastic cargo net, red cam buckle straps, or utility rope utilizing clips positioned around the rail carts edge.
ANSWER: B) Any engine or ladder company may be special called to transport the rail cart from the quarters where it is stored to the scene of an incident. (INCORRECT)
- ONLY AN ENGINE will be special called to transport the rail cart from the quarters where it is stored.
(AUC 207 - Addendum 19 2.5)
Regarding the deployment of the Nolan Rail cart at a subway incident, which of the following statements is incorrect?
A) Upon arrival at the incident, the Officer shall report to the command post and inform the IC of the availability of the rail cart.
B) When ordered to deploy the rail cart, the IC shall determine the best access point and order the members to transport the rail cart to the scene using the hand truck.
C) Avoid allowing equipment to extend beyond the sides of the cart to prevent contact with tunnel walls or the 3rd rail.
D) The wheel lock must be engaged when the cart is left unattended.
ANSWER: B) When ordered to deploy the rail cart, the IC shall determine the best access point and order the members to transport the rail cart to the scene using the hand truck. (INCORRECT)
- THE OFFICER shall determine the best access point.
(AUC 207 - Addendum 19 4.2)
Two senior firefighters of L100 were discussing proper relief procedures at change of tours. One firefighter made an incorrect statement which can be found in which choice?
A) Relieving platoons should be ready to leave quarters immediately after commencement of the tour of duty. Such units shall leave promptly upon arrival of transportation.
B) Units within one half mile of the location of operations should proceed on foot, or utilize public transportation, if available.
C) Unless specifically ordered, no company shall remain in quarters later than 0930 or 1830 before proceeding to the location of operations or a relocated quarters.
D) To expedite the departure of units scheduled for training, units scheduled for such activities must leave from their quarters, with the day tour members no later than 0915 hours or night tour members no later than 1815 hours.
ANSWER: B) Units within one half mile of the location of operations should proceed on foot, or utilize public transportation, if available. (INCORRECT)
(AUC 217 2.1)
- ONE THIRD (1/3RD) OF A MILE
- To relieve relocated members = 30 min
- To leave for training = 15 min (AUC 287)
It is important to ensure the prompt relief of relocated units at the change of tours. In accordance with the current policy, which choice can be considered correct?
A) The Officer of a relocated unit shall (at 0800 or 1700) notify the dispatcher in the borough in which relocated that relief will, or may, be required.
B) The Officer of a relocated unit shall (at 0800 or 1700) notify the Battalion in which relocated that relief will, or may, be required.
C) Officers reporting for duty and finding the company not in quarters, shall ascertain if their company is relocated. If relocated, the Officer shall notify the dispatcher that relief will, or may be required.
D) The Officer of a relocated unit shall (at 0800 or 1700) notify their administrative Battalion that relief will, or may, be required.
ANSWER: A) The Officer of a relocated unit shall (at 0800 or 1700) notify the dispatcher in the borough in which relocated that relief will, or may, be required.
(AUC 217 4.2)
- Notify dispatch 1 hour before the start of the tour
- Officers reporting for duty and finding the company not in quarters, shall ascertain if their company is relocated. If relocated, the Officer shall notify the BATTALION that relief will, or may be required. Battalion will then notify the Division.
Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding the FDs SCBA Policy?
A) “Wearing” an SCBA shall mean having the harness on, with the facepiece in standby position. “Using” an SCBA shall mean having the facepiece on with the regulator donned.
B) The wearing/using of SCBAs may be dispensed with only when authorized by the IC.
C) Members operating in smoke or toxic atmopsheres should not remove the SCBA regulator except if the member’s cylinder becomes depleted or if the member’s SCBA malfunctions in any way.
D) If a member’s cylinder becomes depleted, leaving the facepiece donned and removing the regulator will provide some protection to the member’s face.
ANSWER: C) Members operating in smoke or toxic atmopsheres should not remove the SCBA regulator except if the member’s cylinder becomes depleted or if the member’s SCBA malfunctions in any way. (INCORRECT)
- If the member’s cylinder becomes depleted or the SCBA malfunctions AS TO CUT OFF THE AIR SUPPLY.
(AUC 220 2.2)
When it is necessary for an Officer to leave the IDLH area to service his/her SCBA, he/she would be correct to take all of the following actions except which?
A) The Officer shall notify the IC of the operation (or next level of command within the Sector, Group, or Branch if one has been established).
B) The Officer shall be accompanied to a safe area by another member using an SCBA.
C) Such Officer must ensure that temporary supervision is provided for the remaining member(s) under their direct supervision during their abscense.
D) Circumstances that prevent the Officer from providing temporary supervision shall require immediate notification to the IC, who will ensure supervision is assigned.
ANSWER: D) Circumstances that prevent the Officer from providing temporary supervision shall require immediate notification to the IC, who will ensure supervision is assigned. (INCORRECT)
- Shall require IMMEDIATE WITHDRAWAL OF MEMBERS UNDER THAT OFFICERS IMMEDIATE SUPERVISION.
(AUC 220 2.6)
If it is not possible to remove a member or civilian from a contaminated atmosphere, each of the following options can be used to provide air supply while freeing the trapped individual except?
A) For trapped members, utilize the nearest available FAST Pak.
B) For trapped civilians, utilize the nearest available FAST Pak.
C) Utilize a spare SCBA to provide air to a trapped member.
D) Utilize a spare SCBA to provide air to a trapped civilian.
ANSWER: B) For trapped civilians, utilize the nearest available FAST Pak. (INCORRECT)
- Can use a FAST Pak OTHER THAN THE FAST UNIT’S.
(AUC 220 - 2.8)
Rehabilitation at fires and emergencies is important to the safety and health of members of the Department. Which of the following choices is incorrect?
A) The position “rehabilitation manager” will be staffed by a BC or a Captain.
B) Upon transmission of a signal 10-75 and greater alarms, 10-60, 10-76, 10-77, a RAC unit will be assigned.
C) Members entering the rehabilitation should normally rest for approximately 30 minutes before being reassigned.
D) Units shall be sent to rehab in manageable groups, usually four units at a time.
ANSWER: C) Members entering the rehabilitation should normally rest for approximately 30 minutes before being reassigned. (INCORRECT)
- TWENTY (20) MINUTES
(AUC 230 6.1.1)
Large padlocks with hardened shackles have been issued to Battalions to secure certain premises when no owner or authorized representative is present. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding this procedure?
A) These locks should only be used in commercial occupanices where a very minor fire or emergency incident has occurred. There should be no other damage to the entire perimeter of the premises and nothing abnormal or unusual apparent about the premises or its contents.
B) The Company Officer shall have the premises secured with a padlock as directed by the BC. On return to quarters the key shall be placed in a secure place in the company office selected by the Officer.
C) On return to quarters the dispatcher should be notified of the securing of the premises and appropriate journal entries made.
D) Upon receipt of instructions from the dispatcher that the owner or other appropriate person is at the premises, the company shall respond as soon as practicable. The officer shall secure positive identification of the person desiring entry, have the appropriate receipt signed and have the padlock removed.
ANSWER: B) The Company Officer shall have the premises secured with a padlock as directed by the BC. On return to quarters the key shall be placed in a secure place in the company office selected by the Officer. (INCORRECT)
- Secure place on the APPARATUS.
(AUC 231 2.2)
A recently promoted Captain was discussing chauffeur training with one of his LTs. In which choice below was an incorrect comment made?
A) Barring unusual circumstances, members must have three years experience in the FDNY to be considered for Chauffeur Training School.
B) The ultimate decision to award the position of “regular unit chauffeur” shall be made by the company commander in consultation with the company officers.
C) Prior to attending Chauffeur Training School, each member must be given at least 5 hours of driver training, not including emergency responses.
D) In no case shall a company trained chauffeur be used to fill a short term or temporary vacancy in a unit. All vacancies shall be filled by school-trained chauffeurs.
ANSWER: D) In no case shall a company trained chauffeur be used to fill a short term or temporary vacancy in a unit. All vacancies shall be filled by school-trained chauffeurs. (INCORRECT)
- When, IN THE OPINION OF THE COMPANY COMMANDER, a firefighter is proficient in driving and operating the apparatus, an entry shall be made in the office record journal. Such “company trained” members MAY BE USED as a chauffeur to fill a short term and temporary vacancy.
(AUC 254 1.3)
During a company drill, Captain Jones had to correct her senior chauffeur after which incorrect comment?
A) When, in the opinion of the Company Commander a member’s performance as a chauffeur is less than satisfactory, the Company Commander may recommend, by written report with all relevant facts to the Chief of Operations, that the member’s designation as a chauffeur be revoked.
B) Engine company chauffeurs transferred to Ladder companies, and ladder company chauffeurs transferred to Engine companies shall have their prior unit chauffeur designation immediately revoked upon transfer.
C) Company Commanders shall forward Form CT-1 to their administrative Division semi-annually by February 1st and August 1st.
D) A Satellite Unit shall start each tour with at least one (1) school trained chauffeur and one (1) company trained chauffeur.
ANSWER: D) A Satellite Unit shall start each tour with at least one (1) school trained chauffeur and one (1) company trained chauffeur. (INCORRECT)
- At least TWO (2) SCHOOL TRAINED CHAUFFEURS
(AUC 254 2.8)
Which choice below is correct and in accordance with the Department’s current Chauffeur policy?
A) When a designated back-up unit is staffed with one (1) school trained chauffeur and one (1) company trained chauffeur and is assigned to pick up a special unit’s second piece, the company trained chauffeur shall drive the assigned apparatus accompanied by the Officer and the school trained chauffeur shall drive the second piece accompanied by another FF.
B) If a chauffeur is granted medical leave after the start of the tour, the officer on duty shall notify the administrative BC and place the unit out of service until a detailed school trained chauffeur arrives at quarters.
C) A chauffeur that is awaiting relief and relieved at 1845 hours after a 9x6 tour is entitled to 9 hours and 45 minutes chauffeur pay differential.
D) A chauffeur working a 6x9 tour who goes on medical leave at 2100 hours is entitled to 15 hours chauffeur pay differential.
ANSWER: A) When a designated back-up unit is staffed with one (1) school trained chauffeur And one (1) company trained chauffeur and is assigned to pick up a special unit’s second piece, the company trained chauffeur shall drive the assigned apparatus accompanied by the Officer and the school trained chauffeur shall drive the second piece accompanied by another FF.
B - REMAIN I/S W/COMPANY TRAINED MEMBER.
C - NO CHAUFFEUR DF for awaiting relief. (Dont get paid past 9 or 15)
D - Only get differentials for HOURS YOU WORKED. (In this scenario he would only get 3 hours of ECC DF)
(AUC 254 4.5)
Each of the following choices contains correct information regarding utilization of the FDs reserve apparatus except?
A) When a reserve apparatus is fully staffed and ready for fire duty, the Officer on duty shall notify the dispatcher, BC, DC and Tour Command Chief.
B) If Engine 505, a reserve apparatus normally stationed at Engine 54, is activated and established in the quarters of Engine 23 for a 9x6 tour due to an impending storm, when transmitting to the dispatcher, the officer should state “Engine 505 acting Engine 54 to Manhattan”.
C) During the time a reserve apparatus is in service, entries shall be made in company journals to reflect all activities, movements and occurences concerning that apparatus and the personnel detailed therto. Such entries shall include the identity of the assigned units of all members named therein.
D) A 3rd copy of the riding list shall be posted at the housewatch desk of the unit whose identity the reserve apparatus assumed or filed at the Emergency Command Post Headquarters.
ANSWER: B) If Engine 505, a reserve apparatus normally stationed at Engine 54, is activated and established in the quarters of Engine 23 for a 9x6 tour due to an impending storm, when transmitting to the dispatcher, the officer should state “Engine 505 acting Engine 54 to Manhattan”. (INCORRECT)
- Reserve apparatus shall be assigned as if it were relocator in the quarters where needed. It will, therefore, take a standard relocator’s identity for the period in service at the particular quarters.
- Example: Eng. 506 (a reserve apparatus) is established in the quarters of Eng. 219. It
would be identified as “E 506 acting E 219”
(AUC 259 5.2)
Newly assigned Lieutenant Harris had a question regarding the administration and maintenance of reserve apparatus equipment in the firehouse. In which choice did the captain provide incorrect information?
A) Company Commanders shall maintain a CD-14 record for reserve apparatus assigned to their quarters.
B) Whenever a reserve apparatus is activated or otherwise entrusted to the care of another unit, the officer on duty of the unit wherein the reserve apparatus is stored must prepare form RT-2 (two copies) listing alll tools and equipment assigned to the reserve apparatus.
C) Upon return of a reserve apparatus to storage, the officer on duty in the unit at which the apparatus is stored must compare the outstanding RT-2 with the tools and equipment being returned with the apparatus.
D) If any item is found missing upon the reserve apparatus’ return, the officer on duty in the unit at which the apparatus is stored shall immeidately prepare and forward a Lost Property report and make required notifications regarding the loss.
ANSWER: D) If any item is found missing upon the reserve apparatus’ return, the officer on duty in the unit at which the apparatus is stored shall immeidately prepare and forward a Lost Property report and make required notifications regarding the loss. (INCORRECT)
- Immediately notify, by telephone, the administrative battalion chief. Battalion chief is to notify the administrative division.
- Record the particulars in the company journal.
- Prepare and forward a report, to the Chief of Department, documenting themissing items and explaining the circumstances of the loss. The report will
be forwarded through the chain of command, with full endorsements at each level of command.
(AUC 259 7.5.3)
Which choice below is incorrect concerning a reserve apparatus in service as a CFR Unit?
A) Reserve CFR-D Units shall have a minimum compliment of two (2) CFR-D trained FFs
B) CFR-D Battalion Depots shall be used for supplying initial CFR-D equipment for Reserve CFR-D units.
C) Reserve CFR-D Units shall exchange out of service medical equipment with CFR-D Battalion Depots as necessary to keep the unit in service.
D) Reserve CFR-D Units are to utilize CFR-D Battalion Depots as necessary for medical supplies needed (ex. gauze pads, adhesive tape, etc.)
ANSWER: B) CFR-D Battalion Depots shall be used for supplying initial CFR-D equipment for Reserve CFR-D units. (INCORRECT)
- Doing this will deplete the Battalions supply of CFR-D equipment.
- TECH SERVICES will drop off the initial CFR-D equipment.
(AUC 259 9.2)
Lt. Smith was discussing operations at PCBs incidents with his members. From the statements below, in which one was he incorrect?
A) The primary consideration at PCB incidents is the safety of the civilians and fire personnel.
B) Combustible materials must not be stored within a “PCB Transformer” enclosure, within 5 meters of a “PCB Transformer” enclosure, or within 5 meters of an unenclosed “PCB Transformer”
C) The FDNY considers transformers with 0-49 PPM to be a non-PCB transformer.
D) Members and equipment that were exposed to 100 PPM of PCBs from a transformer fire must be decontaminated.
ANSWER: C) The FDNY considers transformers with 0-49 PPM to be a non-PCB transformer. (INCORRECT)
- FDNY considers a transformer WITH ANY AMOUNT OF PCBs as a PCB transformer.
(AUC 266 6.1)
You are the Captain of Engine 1 and you are discussing recent transformer fires you operated at. Regarding the operations of units at these fires, in which one was the only correct action taken?
A) The 1st arriving officer gave a 10-25 Code 1 because there was fire in the transformer in the street and smoke was entering the subcellar of a high rise office building through the electrical conduit.
B) At transformer fires on the 37th floor of a HROB, the 1st Ladder Company chauffeur reports he has an engineer from the neighboring building that knows how to shut down the transformer. Since the neighboring engineer is familiar with the system, you let him shut it down.
C) Evacuation of the fire floor and all areas exposed is a prime consideration only for a heavy smoke condition.
D) Use of SCBA is mandatory even in areas of light smoke condition. Member’s exposure time shall be kept to a minimum.
ANSWER: D) Use of SCBA is mandatory even in areas of light smoke condition. Member’s exposure time shall be kept to a minimum.
A - To give a 10-25 Code 1 there must be FIRE IN 2 PLACES. (Fire in street / Fire in building)
This scenario would be a 10-25-4 (Fire in transformer at any location)
B - Deactivation of transformers shall be performed only by Con Edison Personnel or Engineering Personnel OF THE PREMISES familiar with procedure.
C - Evacuation of the fire floor and all areas exposed (EVEN IF A LIGHT HAZE OF SMOKE EXISTS) shall be given prime consideration.
(AUC 266 - 6.4.2)
When dealing with PCBs the proper extinguishing methods must be used. From the options below, which one is the incorrect procedure for extinguishing a PCB transformer fire?
A) Use of foam for a flammable liquid fire.
B) Use of water for structural members on fire.
C) Use of the FireIce extinguishing agent for a transformer fire.
D) Use of a fog stream for a flammable liquid fire.
ANSWER: C) Use of the FireIce extinguishing agent for a transformer fire. (INCORRECT)
Proper extinguishing methods must be used according to the properties of the involved materials.
A. Fog or foam for flammable liquids.
B. Water for structural members.
- FireIce is NOT EFFECTIVE on class B fires. Therefore, it is not intended for use at any type of transformer fire; that includes transformers located in below-grade vaults or rooms,and transformers that are mounted on poles.
(AUC 266 6.4.3 - AUC 180 Addendum 2 7.3)
A Manhattan Ladder Company has smoke coming from a transformer vault door in a sub-cellar of a 60 story hotel. A 10” x 14” CAUTION sign on the door reads “ASKAREL FILLED EQUIPMENT” in black letters on a yellow background. What does this sign indicate?
A) No PCBs
B) PCB Contaminated
C) An air-cooled transformer
D) High concentration of PCBs
ANSWER: D) High concentration of PCBs
AUC 266 Reference #1
M2 railroad cars on the New Haven Line of Metro North will be identified by an orange stripe on the side of each car. These rail cars receive power from catenary (overhead wires) and will be occupied with transformers which may contain PCB. Choose the incorrect statement below about the M2 Railroad car.
A) M2 cars always operate in pairs, one “A” car (an even numbered car), having a pantograph is coupled to a “B” car (odd numbered car) having no pantograph.
B) The best way to identify M2 cars is the orange stripe on each side of the car and pantograph on the roof of the “B” car.
C) Though there is only 1 pantgraph for every 2 cars, there will be a PCB containing transformer in every car which will have attached to it the EPA approved label.
D) The pantograph will be unfolded when receiving power from catenary (overhead) wires.
ANSWER: B) The best way to identify M2 cars is the orange stripe on each side of the car and pantograph on the roof of the “B” car. (INCORRECT)
- Pantograph on the ROOF OF THE “A” CAR.
(AUC 266 Addendum 2 3.2)
NYC owned transformers classified as “Non-PCB” (0-49 PPM PCB) can be identified as having white letters and striping on a ______________?
A) Orange background
B) Yellow background
C) White background
D) Blue background
ANSWER: D) Blue background
AUC 266 Addendum 3 - 1.5.5
Any allegation concerning the offer or acceptance of a bribe or gratuity by an employee or person dealing with the City requires direct notification to ________.
A) IG
B) BITS
C) EEO
D) Fire Commissioner
ANSWER: A) IG
AUC 268 2.1.5
In questionable cases where an employee cannot determine which office should be notified for allegations, they should ____________.
A) Call the IG by phone
B) Write an email to the IG
C) Call BITS by phone
D) Write an email to BITS
ANSWER: A) Call the IG by phone
In the event that an employee cannot determine which office must be notified, he or she
should contact the Inspector General.
During normal business hours, notifications should be made directly to the Inspector General’s Office.
In cases of emergency, the Inspector General’s on-call supervisor should be contacted through the Fire
Department Fire Operations Center.
(AUC 268 1.5)
Which choice below would not require a direct notification to the IG?
A) Any allegation concerning the offer or acceptance of a bribe or gratuity by an employee or a person dealing with the City.
B) Any allegation concerning improper activity in connection with the procurement or attempted procurement of pension benefits by employees.
C) Any allegation concerning false claims by employees that off duty injuries occurred while on-duty.
D) Any allegation concerning the misuse or misappropriation of of the Department’s time.
ANSWER: D) Any allegation concerning the misuse or misappropriation of of the Department’s time. (INCORRECT)
- This requires written notification to BITS
(AUC 268)
BITS is primarily responsible for investigating disciplinary allegations concerning violations of Department rules and regulations of Department employees. Which situation below is not an immediate notification to BITS?
A) On-duty incidents involving possession or use of drugs or alcohol; or an arrest of Department employees.
B) Preference of charges against a member.
C) Physical altercations among members; serious confrontations with civilians; and dangerous misuse of Department vehicles.
D) On-duty confrontations between Department members and members of the PD, or other government agency which may lead to possible disciplinary action.
ANSWER: B) Preference of charges against a member. (INCORRECT)
- This requires a WRITTEN notification to BITS.
Immediate Notification to BITS “AABBCCDD”
Alcohol / Arrest
Boxing w/ Brothers
Confrontation w/ civilian / confrontation with other agency
Drugs / dangerous misuse of dept. vehicle
Written Notification to BITS “IMMAC”
I - Incompetence so serious that the Officer belives disciplinary charges are warranted.
M – Misconduct not falling under the IG.
M – Misuse or misappropriation of department time.
A – Follow up information regarding arrest of member.
C – Charges
(AUC 268)
The High Rise Roof Team (HRRT) consists of a trained and properly equipped ladder company staffed with an officer and five firefighters. Upon the order to “assemble” the Manhattan dispatcher will notify the two nearest available trained HRRTs to respond to the designated mobilization point. Due to space and weight considerations aboard the helicopter, the only tools and equipment included in the High Rise Roof Kit are?
- 1 Bolt Cutter
- 1 Rabbit Tool
- 2 Axes
- 2 Search Ropes
- 2 Halligan Tools
- 6 SCBAs with 1 hour cylinders
- Bags for Tools (to prevent damage to the aircraft)
A) 2,4,6 B) 1,3,5,7 C) 2,3,5,6,7 D) All Correct
ANSWER: D) All Correct
High Rise Roof Kit (HRRK): “BRASH – 11222”
1) 1 Bolt Cutter
2) 1 Rabbit Tool
3) 2 Axes
4) 2 Search Ropes
5) 2 Halligans
* 6 SCBA cylinders with 1 hour cylinders
(AUC 269 3.3.1)
As a High Rise Roof Team Officer you should know that once a decision to “airlift” is made by a Staff Chief, your unit will operate on which HT Channel?
A) Channel 1 - Primary Tactical
B) Channel 3 - Secondary Tactical
C) Channel 13 - TAC U
D) Channel 9 - Encrypted
ANSWER: C) Channel 13 - TAC U
AUC 269
You are working the day tour in L-2, when they get special called to East 34th street heliport pad as the HRRT. Once 10-84, you see L-7 and start discussing HRRT operations. From the statements below, which one needs to be corrected?
A) All members shall have their personal harness, their firefighting equipment properly bagged, and their HTs on the correct channel.
B) When it’s time to approach the helicopter, you must receive the signal from the pilot, co-pilot or crew chief.
C) After the helicopter has landed on the roof, the officer should have members proceed to an assembly point away from the bulkhead or other roof projection and near the helispot.
ANSWER: C) After the helicopter has landed on the roof, the officer should have members proceed to an assembly point away from the bulkhead or other roof projection and near the helispot. (INCORRECT)
- Select an assembly point NEAR a bulkhead or other roof projection AWAY from the helispot and have members proceed to it.
(AUC 269 Addendum 1 4.3.5)
The safety of our members is paramount at HRRT operations. Safety is no accident and must be taken very seriously. Choose the statement below that is incorrect concerning safe operations at one of these incidents.
A) The HRRT shall approach and board the air-rescue Bell 412 Helicopter only when directed by the pilot, co-pilot or crew chief.
B) FDNY personnel shall approach and board the helicopter from amid-ship when directed by the pilot.
C) Do not approach the tail section under any circumstances.
D) Raise nothing above the head in the vicinity of the helicopter. Approach and leave the aircraft in a semi-crouched position in single file. Do not run.
ANSWER: B) FDNY personnel shall approach and board the helicopter from amid-ship when directed by the pilot. (INCORRECT)
- Air rescue teams shall board and depart the Bell 412 air rescue ship from the FRONT within the field of vision of the pilot.
(AUC 269 - Addendum 1 5.1)
When the decision to “Airlift” has been made, the NYPD ESU will proceed to the roof of the fire building. The aviation pilot in consult with ESU personnel will advise the FDNY Air Recon Chief (ARC) and IC as to the feasability of landing the aircraft on the roof. If it is determined to be safe, the helicpter will return to pick up FDNY members. Due to weight limitations, two airlifts will be required. Which members below will be included on the 2nd airlift?
A) High Rise Roof Chief, the Ladder Officer and forcible entry team of the HRRT.
B) Ladder Chauffeur, OV and Roof FFs of the HRRT.
C) Engine Officer, Nozzle FF and BU FF of the HRRT.
D) Engine Chauffeur, High Rise Roof Chief, Control FF of the HRRT.
ANSWER: B) Ladder Chauffeur, OV and Roof FFs of the HRRT.
- The first airlift will include the HRRC, the officer and forcible entry team.
- The second lift will include the Chauffeur, OV and Roof firefighters
(AUC 269 Add 1 - 4.3.4 C)
Due to the unlikely event of a water landing, all units involved in the FDNY Air Support Plan are being issued Mustang Survival Personal Floatation Devices (PFDs). From the statements below choose the incorrect point about PFDs.
A) The PFDs must be donned prior to boarding any NYPD aircraft. Each designated HRRT will be issued 7 PFDs with a carrying case.
B) HRRT will not don PFDs over their bunker gear prior to boarding the aircraft.
C) PFDs must be inflated manually by the member only after exiting the aircraft. Do not inflate PFDs inside the aircraft.
D) PFDs should be inspected weekly as well as prior to and after each use.
ANSWER: B) HRRT will not don PFDs over their bunker gear prior to boarding the aircraft. (INCORRECT)
- The PFDs must be donned by members PRIOR to boarding any NYPD aircraft.
- Inflate AFTER exiting aircraft
(AUC 269 Add 2 - 1.1)
A Lt. covering a night tour in a satellite unit would expect to find all of the following on the Satellite Apparatus with which exception?
A) An apparatus mounted deluge gun
B) Large diameter hose
C) A manifold
D) Pumps capable of delivering 2000 gpm
ANSWER: D) Pumps capable of delivering 2000 gpm
- A Satellite Apparatus does not have pumping capabilities
(AUC 274 1.2.3)
An officer giving a drill concerning the Satellite Apparatus and its associated pumper made the following statements. A student from the group would know which one to be in erorr?
A) All pumpers in the Satellite Water System are capable of delivering 2000 GPM.
B) The Satellite Apparatus is equipped with two 3 1/2” gated female inlets and one 4 1/2” unchecked female inlet on each side of the apparatus.
C) When supplying the deluge gun, supply the 3 1/2” inlets before supplying the 4 1/2” inlet
D) The deluge gun can be used to deliver foam
ANSWER: C) When supplying the deluge gun, supply the 3 1/2” inlets before supplying the 4 1/2” inlet. (INCORRECT)
- It is necessary to use the UNCHECKED INLETS FIRST (4 1/2”), which will permit the use of the gated inlets to augment the supply without the necessity of shutting down.
(AUC 274 1.2.2)
At a recent 5th alarm in the Bronx, the Citywide Tour Commander has asked for forthwith information from the water resource officer. Two Satellite Units are operating at this large fire in a factory. The Water Resource Officer giving him the answer should be the ______________________________?
A) Captain of the 2nd Satellite to arrive
B) The 1st to arrive Satellite Lieutenant
C) The 3rd Engine Company Officer on the initial alarm
D) A special called Engine Officer from a High Pressure Engine Company
ANSWER: B) The 1st to arrive Satellite Lieutenant
- The Officer of the FIRST ARRIVING Satellite Unit will become the Water Resource Officer and will coordinate the activities of all Satellites at an operation.
(AUC 274 1.2.4)
You are a surplus assignment (SA) Lt. that is assigned to work a night tour in E324 (Satellite 4). This unit has just received an alarm to respond to a 2nd alarm in the borough of Queens. You would be correct to realize all of the following with which exception?
A) You insured that each apparatus was staffed by at least 2 firefighters. You rode in the Satellite Apparatus to the operation.
B) Upon receipt of an alarm you immediately consulted the water maps and selected either a hydrant, draft site, or fireboat mooring site as your hookup site.
C) You realized that when compatible with fire conditions and time limitations, consideration should be given to the use of a fireboat as a source of supply over the hydrant system.
D) Upon arrival at the fire you reported in to the IC and operated as per her instructions.
ANSWER: A) You insured that each apparatus was staffed by at least 2 firefighters. You rode in the Satellite Apparatus to the operation. (INCORRECT)
- The Officer shall ride with the PUMPER.
(AUC 274 3.3)
You are the Officer of E9, a Satellite Unit. At a 4th alarm in Harlem, DC Simms has informed you that delivery of water is not a problem at this fire, nor will there be any need for your deluge gun. He then orders you to stretch a 2 1/2” line to the 4th floor of exposure 4 and “go put out some fire”. In this situation you were correct in which choice?
A) Stretch the 2 1/2” line and put out some fire
B) Respectfully remind him that you are a Satellite Unit and should not be used for other than your intended purpose.
C) Stretch a 2 1/2” from another apparatus as your associated 2000 gpm pumper only carries large diameter hose.
D) Contact the dispatcher and advise them that the Satellite will be unavailable for response.
ANSWER: A) Stretch the 2 1/2” line and put out some fire
A Satellite unit may be special called for OTHER THAN ITS BASIC FUNCTION. Incident Commanders considering the use of additional Satellite units special called shall bear in mind the basic function of Satellite units and make every effort to assure the early release of additional Satellites units special called.
(AUC 274 3.6)
Arriving at a fire in a 200’ x 150’, 3 story Commercial building, the IC has told you to place your Satellite’s deluge gun into operation. You should now order your ECC to place the Satellite apparatus in the best position, which is where?
A) As close to the building as possible, just ouside the collapse zone.
B) The further from the building the better so as to maximize the force of the stream from the deluge gun.
C) Far enough from the building to permit the deepest possible penetration.
D) As close to the 2000 gpm pumper as possibe, to reduce friction loss in the 6” supply hose.
ANSWER: C) Far enough from the building to permit the deepest possible penetration.
(AUC 274 5.3)
A study group from a Manhattan firehouse were reviewing the finer points of AUC 274. In regard to the Satellite unit and apparatus, which one of the following statements would they know to be incorrect?
A) 2000 gpm pumpers, operating at draft or when supplied by fireboats are capable of delivering their full capacity.
B) When utilizing the deluge gun’s 3” tip, it should not be necessary to utilize an additional pumper to augment the deluge gun.
C) Good nozzle pressures are 125 psi for the 2” and 2 1/2” tips and 100 psi for the 3” and 3 1/2”
D) Only the IC can order the deluge guns into operation.
ANSWER: B) When utilizing the deluge gun’s 3” tip, it should not be necessary to utilize an additional pumper to augment the deluge gun. (INCORRECT)
- When the hydrant main size is less than 12”, it is recommended that a second hydrant or another pumper AUGMENT the supply of water. In this case a
SECOND SOURCE OF WATER is needed to insure maximum utilization of the Satellite pumper’s full capacity to supply 2,000 G.P.M
(AUC 274 6.3)
E72 and Satellite 2 have just returned from a multiple alarm where they supplied a manifold at an H-Type building. As the Captain of E72, you took the following actions. In which ones were you correct? (multiple correct answers)
A) You recorded a run and a worker for the Engine company.
B) You recorded a run and a worker for the satellite.
C) The satellite unit’s responses were kept on a separate CD-14.
D) A CD-15 need only be forwarded for the satellite unit when the engine and satellite are both put to work. The engine companies operations shall be included witht he satellites.
ANSWER: All are correct
A) You recorded a run and a worker for the Engine company.
B) You recorded a run and a worker for the satellite.
C) The satellite unit’s responses were kept on a separate CD-14.
D) A CD-15 need only be forwarded for the satellite unit when the engine and satellite are both put to work. The engine companies operations shall be included witht he satellites.
(AUC 274 9.3)
The purpose of the Citywide Incident Management System Quick Guide (CIMS AUC 276) is to assist officers at multi agency incidents. Which statement is incorrect according to CIMS?
A) The 1st arriving officer is responsible for assessing the incident and either assuming or participating in Incident Command, depending on the type of incident.
B) When a higher ranking officer from any uniformed agency arrives at any incident, that officer will take over as the IC.
C) All agencies must share all information at emergency of terrorist incidents.
D) CIMS requires that there be one Command Post at all incidents to facilitate information sharing.
ANSWER: B) When a higher ranking officer from any uniformed agency arrives at any incident, that officer will take over as the IC. (INCORRECT)
- When a higher-ranking FDNY OFFICER arrives, that officer will take over this function from the first arriving officer.
(AUC 276 1.2)
Core Competencies are functional areas of expertise which are implemented at incidents and relate specifically to tactical operations managed by the Operations Section. Which one of the following core competencies is not designated to the FDNY?
A) Structural evacuation
B) Fire suppression
C) Arson Investigation, major cases
D) Search and Rescue
ANSWER: C) Arson Investigation (INCORRECT)
- CAUSE and ORIGIN ONLY
“FEMSLAM”
F - Fire suppression
E - Evacuation of Structures (NYPD has areas)
M - Medical care in pre-hospital setting
S - Search and Rescue (NYPD has ice and water)
L - Life safety (CBRN / HazMat incidents)
A - Arson (Cause and origin only / PD has major cases)
M - Mass Decontamination
(AUC 276 - Addendum 2 Table 1)
Core Competencies are functional areas of expertise which are implemented at incidents and relate specifically to tactical operations managed by the Operations Section. Which one of the following core competencies is not designated to the FDNY?
A) Structural evacuation
B) Medical care in the pre-hospital setting
C) Mass Decontamination
D) Search and Rescue of waterways
ANSWER: D) Search and Rescue of waterways
- NYPD has ice and water rescue
“FEMSLAM”
F - Fire suppression
E - Evacuation of Structures (NYPD has areas)
M - Medical care in pre-hospital setting
S - Search and Rescue (NYPD has ice and water)
L - Life safety (CBRN / HazMat incidents)
A - Arson (Cause and origin only / PD has major cases)
M - Mass Decontamination
(AUC 276 - Addendum 2 Table 1)
You are a newly promoted Lt., peforming searches with your ladder company at a structural collapse of a 4 story office building. There are several confirmed victims trapped in the rubble. An NYPD Deputy Inspector has informed you that this building is an active crime scene and that this is a possible terrorist event. He the orders you to remove all your personnel from the debris. According to CIMS, which choice listed below is most correct for this situation?
A) Follow the orders of the Deputy Inspector. NYPD has command of search and rescue at a structural collapse.
B) Leave the area immediately and report the incident to the highest ranking FDNY officer on scene.
C) Order the members of your unit to continue to operate under the command of the NYPD, as this is a single command incident and NYPD is the primary agency.
D) Keep performing life safety operations. Life safety concerns will always take precedence over investigative considerations until life safety operations are concluded.
ANSWER: D) Keep performing life safety operations. Life safety concerns will always take precedence over investigative considerations until life safety operations are concluded.
- Life Safety is a core competency of the FDNY.
(AUC 276 3.4)
At which type of incident will the FDNY always be the primary agency according to the CIMS Command Matrix?
A) Entrapment / Impalement
B) Water / Ice Rescue
C) Auto Extrication
D) Boat in Distress
ANSWER: A) Entrapment / Impalement
Single Command: (FDNY in Command) “ABCCDEEF”
A – Auto Extrication (1st to arrive)
B – Boat in distress (1st to arrive)
C – Confined Space
C – Collapse of structure
D – Downed trees
E – Elevators
E – Entrapment / Implement
F – Fire
(AUC 276 - Addendum 1 1.2)
According to the staffing guidelines of the FDNY, which of the following units are designated to begin each tour with 5 firefighters regardless of staffing levels? (more than one correct)
A) Haz Mat Company 1
B) Group 2 Ladder Companies
C) All Haz Mat Tech Engines
D) Marine Companies (boats over 100’)
ANSWER: C) All Haz Mat Tech Engines
- GROUP 1: All Ladder Companies, Rescue Companies, Squad Companies, Hazardous Materials Technician Units are designated as five firefighter companies and shall be staffed with FIVE FIREFIGHTERS at the beginning of each tour.
A - HazMat Company = 7 FF company
B - GROUP 2: Those Engine Companies that the Department has designated to start each tour with five
Firefighters as part of the collective bargaining agreement with U.F.A.
D - Marine Companies = 2 FF company
(AUC 287 1.4)
Lt Able is working a 6x9 tour in a busy TL company. The unit is ordered to detail a member to Engine 49 in another borough. There are 6 members reporting for duty. FF Baker (35 years on the job, seated school trained LCC) is working RSOT, along with FFs Charlie (just off probation), FF Dog (junior school trained LCC, FF Echo (MSOT), FF Frank (regular tour), and FF George (proby firefighter). FF Frank has informed Lt. Able that he lives in the borough and is willing to “step up” and take the detail. Who should be taking the detail and traveling to another borough?
A) Baker
B) Charlie
C) Dog
D) Echo
E) Frank
ANSWER: A) Baker
It is the responsibility of Battalion Chiefs and Company Officers to ensure that when a unit is in excess of their required staffing level because of RSOT, and a detail is to be provided from that unit, the firefighter on RSOT shall be detailed.
Exceptions shall be permitted where firefighters with special training are needed to maintain an effective unit. (e.g. A four firefighter unit has four firefighters reporting for duty and an additional firefighter on RSOT. If the firefighter on RSOT is the only chauffeur, one of the four firefighters will be detailed.)
(AUC 287 4.3.3)
L114 is quartered across the floor with E201 and assigned to Battalion 40. They are scheduled to report to tactical training at 1900 hours. They are to receive a detail from E310 in the 58 Battalion. As the officer on duty in L114, you should believe that your only correct choice can be found in which answer?
A) Insure your unit leaves quarters no later than 1830 hours
B) Contact Battalion 40 and have the Battalion arrange for the member from E310 to be reassigned. Have Battalion 40 provide a detail to your unit from within Battalion 40.
C) Contact the Officer from E310 and ensure the member being detailed arrives by 1815 hours.
D) Contact Battalion 58 and request that they reassign their detail to E201. Have E201 provide a detail to L114 and then notify Battalion 40.
ANSWER: B) Contact Battalion 40 and have the Battalion arrange for the member from E310 to be reassigned. Have Battalion 40 provide a detail to your unit from within Battalion 40.
A - For training no later than 0915 or 1815 hrs
C - Any member, from OUTSIDE the Battalion, originally assigned a detail to a unit scheduled for such activity will be REASSIGNED by the Battalion Chief.
D - A unit in a double house scheduled for training and UNABLE TO COMPLY WITH THE GUIDELINES ABOVE, shall have the adjoining unit in quarters supply the detail and leave for training at the appropriate time. The adjoining unit will await the detail.
(AUC 287 5.1.3)
A member of your unit is to be detailed to a firehouse in another borough. The member has been notified prior to the beginning of the tour and the quarters he is to be detailed to is just under one mile away. This member may personally choose any but which option to travel to this firehouse?
A) Division van
B) Public transportation
C) His/her private vehicle
D) Walking
ANSWER: A) Division van
If members are detailed to a quarters within one mile, or approximately 20 blocks, of their assigned quarters, walking is considered an acceptable method of traveling to the detailed quarters.
Members who are detailed to another quarters more than one mile from their assigned quarters DO NOT HAVE THE OPTION OF WALKING.
Such members may use public transportation or, as always, members have the option of using their private vehicles if they so choose.
(AUC 287 6.2)
A sharp Lt. would know that when members do not arrive or return from details within the same borough within __________, a notification must be made.
A) Two hours
B) One hour
C) 45 min
D) 90 min
ANSWER: B) One hour
Same borough - 1 hour
Different borough - 2 hours
(AUC 287 6.4)
You are the officer of a Group 1 unit assigned to respond to an alarm for a fire in a commercial occupancy while 10-8. Your unit has been reduced to four firefighters due to an emergency leave taken by one member earlier in the tour. You should notify the dispatcher of this fact using which terminology?
A) “10-4”
B) “We are responding understaffed”
C) “We are responding with four firefighters”
D) “We are responding 10-14”
ANSWER: C) “We are responding with four firefighters”
(AUC 287 8.2)
B - An understaffed unit is any unit staffed with less than FOUR firefighters (3 FFs)
Due to a 3rd alarm in Queens the ladder company you are in command of has been reduced to two FFs, one of them being a chauffeur. You have just received an alarm via teleprinter to respond first due for a fire in a vacant building. You were correct when you performed which action?
A) Do not respond. Notify the dispatcher that the unit is OOS.
B) Do not respond because a unit with 2 FFs shall only respond to verbal alarms.
C) Respond to the alarm and take a defensive position, unless a known life hazard is discovered and immediate action is required to save a life.
D) Respond to the alarm and notify the dispatcher that you will only be assuming the duties of the safety team pending the arrival of the FAST Truck.
ANSWER: C) Respond to the alarm and take a defensive position, unless a known life hazard is discovered and immediate action is required to save a life.
A - While awaiting details, units staffed with an officer and minimum two firefighters (at least one of which is a chauffeur), shall respond to all alarms.
B - Units with only an Officer and a Chauffeur shall be placed OOS, however this unit, while still staffed with only an Officer and a Chauffeur shall respond to any
VERBAL ALARMS received while in quarters
(AUC 287 8.3.1)
After a severe thunderstorm that resulted in many downed trees in Queens, units were dispatched to numerous emergencies. In which choice did they operate incorrectly?
A) The apparatus, in conjunction with chains, was used to remove a tree that was blocking a busy intersection. The unit bypassed a tree that was blocking a side street while proceeding to the busy intersection.
B) Members removed a tree that had fallen from the front lawn and was lying across the driveway.
C) Upon arriving at the scene where a privately owned tree had fallen on an unoccupied car in a driveway, members advised the owner that the owner would be responsible to have the tree removed.
D) A Ladder company that operated at an incident where a large tree had fallen onto the roof of a MD, causing the cornice to hang dangerously over the sidewalk, requested a BC to respond in order to assess structural stability and notify DOB.
ANSWER: B) Members removed a tree that had fallen from the front lawn and was lying across the driveway. (INCORRECT)
- The department is NOT responsible for the removal of debris from sidewalks or private property.
- Department operations on private property are limited to assisting trapped or injured persons and preventing unauthorized entry into the danger area.
(AUC 301 2.2)
When performing emergency tree cutting, an unsafe act can be found in which choice?
A) Prior to cutting a tree that had fallen into a power line, members waited until the Utility Company certified that power had been removed.
B) When cutting a tree that had a power line wrapped around the trunk of the tree, a FF ensured that the chainsaw did not make contact with the wire.
C) The chainsaw was not operated from the ladder, even if it was secured.
D) When operating a chainsaw from a TL bucket, the saw was started in the basket and the operator wore the installed safety belt, keeping both feet within the basket.
ANSWER: B) When cutting a tree that had a power line wrapped around the trunk of the tree, a FF ensured that the chainsaw did not make contact with the wire. (INCORRECT)
- NO CUTTING OR MOVING until Utility Company shuts power off and the wires are disentangled.
(AUC 301 - 5.6)
Bunker gear and hoods are essential parts of a member’s Personal Protective Equipment (PPE). Which choice is incorrect concerning this PPE?
A) Bunker gear shall never be worn without kneepads in place.
B) Bunker gear will afford a limited period of protection to exit an area which has become or is about to become untenable. It is not a “Proximity Firefighting Ensemble”
C) The wearing of bunker pants suspenders are mandatory.
D) The hood shall be worn whether dry, damp or saturated with moisture.
E) While operating a hoseline, you must leave the area immediately upon feeling any pain or discomfort through the hood.
ANSWER: E) While operating a hoseline, you must leave the area immediately upon feeling any pain or discomfort through the hood. (INCORRECT)
- UNLESS area can be immediately cooled by a hoseline.
(AUC 310 6.3)
Which choice indicates the proper order to don bunker gear?
- HT (remote speaker clipped to outside of coat)
- Pants and boots
- Protective hood completely over head
- Protective hood pushed onto back of neck
- Bunker coat
- Before entering IDLH, the SCBA facepiece
- Pull the hood over the head and around the facepiece.
A) 2,1,3,5,4,6,7
B) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7
C) 2,1,5,3,4,6,7
D) 2,3,1,4,5,6,7
ANSWER: A) 2,1,3,5,4,6,7
- Pants and boots
- HT
- Hood completely over head
- Bunker coat
- Hood pushed onto back of neck
- SCBA facepice before entering IDLH
- Pull hood over head around facepiece.
“Puerto Ricans Hate Cockroaches”
(Pants / Radio / Hood / Coat)
(AUC 310 7.1)
There are two types of bunker cleaning, routine and advanced. Which is the incorrect statement concerning advanced cleaning?
A) Prior to cleaning, company commanders shall ensure that member’s bunker gear is marked with their first initial, last name, and assigned unit number in permanent black marker.
B) If a member is currently on a long term detail to a different unit, their gear will be cleaned with the gear of the unit to which they are detailed.
C) If a member has sent their bunker gear out for decontamination to the Decontamination Support Unit (DSU) in the previous 6 months they do not have to provide a set of bunker gear for advanced cleaning.
D) When bunker gear is sent out for advanced cleaning, the members will use their other (clean) set of bunker gear until the next cleaning cycle. This other set of gear (clean) will be worn unless it is drying or is being repaired.
ANSWER: C) If a member has sent their bunker gear out for decontamination to the Decontamination Support Unit (DSU) in the previous 6 months they do not have to provide a set of bunker gear for advanced cleaning. (INCORRECT)
- Member STILL HAS TO PROVIDE a set of bunker gear for cleaning.
(AUC 310 6.2)
Which choice is incorrect concerning the cleaning, wearing, and storage of PPE?
A) Firefighting PPE should only be worn responding to, operating at and returning from alarms.
B) “No Bunker Gear” signs shall be displayed at the entrance to all rooms in the firehouse.
C) Company Commanders shall ensure that “No Bunker Gear” signs are posted and remain in place.
D) PPE exposed to contaminants not removed by routine cleaning in a utility sink shall be sent to DSU.
E) Members are responsible to use their issued gear bag with the plastic liner anytime they transport firefighting PPE.
ANSWER: B) “No Bunker Gear” signs shall be displayed at the entrance to all rooms in the firehouse (INCORRECT)
- In all LIVING AREAS.
(AUC 310 - Addendum 1,3,4)
While writing the roll call entry in the company journal, FF Blue approaches you and asks you several questions about decontamination of bunker gear and PPE. In which choice were you incorrect?
A) PPE that has been contaminated with large amounts of body fluids shall be placed in double (two) clear bags, tied or taped close.
B) An Equipment Decontamination Report (EDR-1) shall be completed and placed in between the two bags, facing outward.
C) Bagged items shall be left, is possible, in a light traffic area adjacent to the housewatch for pickup by DSU members.
D) If both bunker pants and PSS system have been contaminated, both items shall be bagged together to ensure proper decontamination and avoid cross contamination.
E) The EDR-1 shall be faxed to the DSU.
ANSWER: D) If both bunker pants and PSS system have been contaminated, both items shall be bagged together to ensure proper decontamination and avoid cross contamination. (INCORRECT)
- Bag them SEPARATELY.
(AUC 310 - Addendum 5 2.3)
A crime scene is the area where a crime was committed and any path to and from the scene. Proper procedures to follow at a crime scene can be found in all but which choice?
A) Firefighting operations and patient care should never be compromised in order to protect the crime scene. Life is paramount.
B) Members shall take a single path of travel entering and leaving the crime scene, and all required personnel shall use the same path when possible.
C) No obviously dead victim of a hanging should be cut down, unless in public view.
D) No statements should be given to the press, civilians, or other agencies.
ANSWER: C) No obviously dead victim of a hanging should be cut down, unless in public view. (INCORRECT)
- Refrain from COVERING any corpse except in public view.
- No obviously dead victim of a hanging should be cut down and no bound body should be untied.
(AUC 317 5.2)
While pulling ceilings, the Can FF noticed a bundle wrapped in tinfoil fall from the ceiling. Upon further investigation, the bundle was determined to contain $30,000. Who should be entrusted to voucher this money?
A) NYPD
B) Fire Marshals
C) The highest ranking Officer on scene
D) The highest ranking Officer on scene in the rank of BC or above.
ANSWER: B) Fire Marshals
AUC 317 5.14
All members should be aware of requirements to ensure that evidence collected at a fire can be used in a trial if necessary. Which is the incorrect action to take?
A) If it is necessary to leave the scene prior to the Fire Marshals arrival, a Firefighter or unit fulfilling a watchline is sufficient to maintain FD control of the premises.
B) The need for an administrative search warrant to determine the cause and origin of a fire is eliminated if FD units maintain control of the scene until the Fire Marshals arrive.
C) If evidence was moved during operations, make note of the location where it was first discovered and notify the Fire Marshals.
D) When FD members discover drugs or weapons during legitimate searches, they should seize the evidence and turn it over to the Fire Marshalls or PD.
ANSWER: D) When FD members discover drugs or weapons during legitimate searches, they should seize the evidence and turn it over to the Fire Marshalls or PD. (INCORRECT)
- Notify PD / DO NOT seize evidence
(AUC 317 6.3)
Training new FFs is very important to ensure that units operate at a high level. Which choice is incorrect concerning the Probationary FFs Development Program?
A) Drills are essential components of a Probationary Firefighter’s development. While Company Officers generally lead the drills, the participation of all members, particularly senior members, is necessary to pass on lessons learned.
B) Probationary Firefighter’s are provided with monthly training modules consisting of reading assignments and training videos that can be accessed via the “Probie Corner” section on Diamondplate.
C) At the end of each monthly training module is a 20 question quiz that must be completed.
D) If a Probationary FF does not attain a passing mark on a quiz after 2 attempts, the Company Commander must email the Probationary Firefighter’s Development Program Group to unlock the program.
E) When Probationary FFs have successfully completed a quiz, they will print their completion receipt and staple it in their notebook.
ANSWER: D) If a Probationary FF does not attain a passing mark on a quiz after 2 attempts, the Company Commander must email the Probationary Firefighter’s Development Program Group to unlock the program. (INCORRECT)
- THREE (30 attempts
- Company OFFICER will email to unlock program
(AUC 323 1.1)
Which choice contains only correct statements concerning cross unit details of Probationary FFs?
- The detail shall be initiated by the Company Commander in consultation with the Battalion Training Coordinator.
- The Probationary FF must have completed 90 days of service in the Fire Department.
- Probationary FFs assigned to Engines shall be detailed to Ladders, and those assigned to Ladders shall be detailed to Engines.
- Prior to commencement of the detail, Company Commanders shall ensure Probationary FFs have familiarized themselves with FDNY Firefighting Procedures/Bulletins relevant to the area in which they will be detailed.
- Cross unit details shall be for a period of 60 days.
- Probationary FFs shall not be detailed out of the cross training unit for the duration of their detail.
- OSA-2 (Detail more than 30 days) shall be forwarded to the Bureau of Operations.
A) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7
B) 1,2,3,4,5,7 only
C) 1,3,4,7 only
D) 2,5,6 only
ANSWER: C) 1,3,4,7 only (2,5,6 are INCORRECT)
2 - 90 days of service in FIREHOUSE
5 - Cross unit details are NINETY (90) DAYS
6 - Probies shall not be detailed out UNLESS ABSOLUTELY NECESSARY.
(AUC 323 2.6)
Probationary FFs must maintain a Training Notebook until the end of the probationary period. Which choice concerning these notebooks is incorrect?
A) Members shall ensure a tool list from their current unit is attached to the 1st page of the notebook.
B) The notebook is intended to be used as a positive motivational tool, and shall be brought to all drills held in quarters.
C) Each tour, Probationary FFs shall make an entry in the training notebook relating to lessons learned, experience gained, or information gathered from senior members during their tour.
D) The notebooks shall be kept locked in the member’s locker when not in use.
E) Probationary Firefighters shall document all leaves other than regular leaves in their training notebooks. An entry shall be made in the notebook listing the date the leave started and ended. On the 1st tour after the leave has concluded, the Officer on duty will verify the dates and sign the entry.
ANSWER: D) The notebooks shall be kept locked in the member’s locker when not in use. (INCORRECT)
- COMPANY OFFICE
(AUC 323 Addendum 2)
Company Commanders have several specific duties concerning the Probationary FF Training Notebook. Which is not one of them?
A) If the training notebook is lost or destroyed, the Company Commander must forward a report through the chain of command to the Administrative Division within 30 days.
B) The Company Commander shall review the notebook weekly, and sign and date the notebook in red ink.
C) The company commander shall ensure the Training Notebooks are forwarded to the Battalion & Division Training Coordinator for evaluation in the FFs 13th and 17th months.
D) Company commanders must ensure that modules and quizzes are completed in a timely manner.
E) Company commanders should assign additional reading assignments that emphasize familiarization of their unit type, apparatus, and predominant building construction for the company’s response area.
ANSWER: B) The Company Commander shall review the notebook weekly, and sign and date the notebook in red ink. (INCORRECT)
- Review MONTHLY
- INITIAL and date
(AUC 323 2.2)
Which entry in a Probationary FFs Training Notebook is incorrect?
A) Probationary FF - enter and date in blue or black ink when subject matter has been read and/or video has been viewed.
B) Probationary FF - Review monthly. Initial and date in blue or black ink.
C) Officer on Duty - Initial and date in red ink when the subject matter has been reviewed or drilled on.
D) Officer on Duty - Review each tour the member works. Initial and date in red ink.
ANSWER: B) Probationary FF - Review monthly. Initial and date in blue or black ink. (INCORRECT)
- Review WEEKLY
(AUC 323 Addendum 2)
Major aircraft emergencies at JFK and LaGuardia airports require extensive inter-agency cooperation for successful control. Choose an incorrect choice regarding FDNY operations at these emergencies.
A) Under no circumstances are FDNY units to enter the aeronautical field without a Port Authority Escort.
B) Ensuring an adequate delivery of water is a primary function of the FDNY at airport emergencies.
C) Responding units should follow the PA Escort closely as runways may be in use. Stay on asphalt roads or edge of runway to avoid getting stuck in the ground.
D) Immediately upon reaching a hydrant or other water source, the PA Escort should return to the Staging Area to escort another unit to the field.
ANSWER: D) Immediately upon reaching a hydrant or other water source, the PA Escort should return to the Staging Area to escort another unit to the field. (INCORRECT)
- PA Escort REMAINS UNTIL WE HAVE A POSITIVE WATER SUPPLE ESTABLISHED.
(AUC 325 6.1.1)
As a general rule, voice and flight data recorders are located in the rear of the fuselage of the aircraft. The recorders are listed as possibly being all but which color?
A) Black
B) Orange
C) Red
D) Yellow
ANSWER: A) Black (INCORRECT)
- The flight data recorder (black box) is NOT BLACK
- Can be ORANGE or RED (Rectangular - brick)
- Can be YELLOW (Spherical - sun)
(AUC 325 6.2.3)
Northern Queens units are responding to a report of a plane crash at LaGuardia Airport. FDNY units should know all of the following points with the exception of which choice?
A) All responding units, other than the 1st arriving BC, shall respond to the Staging Area, located in front of Gate #3.
B) Units shall form up in double convoy fashion with Ladder Companies, Rescue Companies, and Special units on the left and Engine Companies on the right.
C) Hydrants are located along the fingers of the terminal buildings on the ramp side.
D) High Pressure hydrants (125 psi) are painted with a black body and a silver top.
ANSWER: D) High Pressure hydrants (125 psi) are painted with a black body and a silver top. (INCORRECT)
- High Pressure Hydrants are painted YELLOW
(AUC 325 4.2.1)
At LaGuardia Airport some wall hydrants, located on the exterior of the terminal buildings on the ramp side, are designated by large phosphorescent signs composed of?
A) A green “H” on a white background
B) A white “H” on a red background
C) A white “H” on a green background
D) A green “H” on a red background
ANSWER: C) A white “H” on a green background
AUC 325 4.2.2
When supplying water to the Port Authority ARFF crash trucks at JFK, FDNY ECCs should not exceed _____ psi discharge pressure.
A) 30
B) 45
C) 65
D) 80
ANSWER: D) 80
AUC 325 Addendum 2 4.1
Cell phone sites are being installed in commercial, residential and public buildings. Each individual site and cell company will have different configurations and equipment setups. How many of the following show proper knowledge of these sites?
- Antennas may not extend higher than 3 feet above the height of the roof or parapet on the roof, or 3 feet above any penthouse or bulkhead, if placed on such.
- The administrative company must do an onsite inspection of buildings with cell sites and submit a CIDS card.
- The administrative company must notify their Battalion, Division, and all 1st alarm units via telephone followed by written notification.
- Roof mounted gas generator piping may extend via the exterior of the building. It is illegal to run gas generator piping through interior vertical arteries.
- Cell site rooms have limited ventilation; operate from the exterior if at all possible.
A) 5 B) 4 C) 3 D) 2
ANSWER: C) 3 (2/3/5 are CORRECT)
1 - Antennas may not extend higher than SIX (6) FEET above roof or parapet or SIX (6) feet above any penthouse or bulkhead.
4 - Gas generator piping may be run on the EXTERIOR OR INTERIOR of the building
(AUC 331)
At an operation, units must notify the IC once they become aware of a cell site. If the address was not given on the initial response ticket, verify it and request CIDS information from the dispatcher. Units should also be guided by all but which choice?
A) Special call an additional Engine and Ladder if the cell site installation is involved.
B) Insure a TL response on the initial alarm for a reported fire in buildings with a cell site.
C) Consider stretching a handline to the roof at upper floor fires. This line can be used to maintain egress and to cool supporting “I” beams.
D) Ladder Companies should consider using a foam extinguisher at incipient fires.
ANSWER: D) Ladder Companies should consider using a foam extinguisher at incipient fires. (INCORRECT)
- PORTABLE DRY CHEMICAL EXTINGUISHER
(AUC 331 6.9)
Engine 332 is taking up from a scene where two pedestrians were struck and transported to the hospital by EMS, when a member of the press asks the Officer for details of the incident. As the IC at the scene, the officer may respond to the press inquiry by giving all but which of the following information?
A) Type of incident or event
B) Condition of the patients
C) Number of patients
D) The hospital(s) to which the patients were transported to
ANSWER: B) Condition of the patients (INCORRECT)
(AUC 332 3.4.2)
IC may provide to the press: Type of incident or event / Number of patients & The hospital(s) to which the patients were transported to.
All requests to ride in FD vehicles by an individual not authorized to be present in an FDNY vehicle, must be forwarded to and approved by whom?
A) Fire Commissioner
B) Chief of Operations
C) Borough Commander
D) Division Commander
ANWSER: B) Chief of Operations (Richardson)
AUC 331 3.5.1
FDNY units are responding to a fire involving electrical transformers and equipment inside a Con Ed facility. Upon arrival, 1st due units find a major fire involving a transformer within the facility. Units should know that which statement is correct regarding operations at this fire?
A) Handlines shall never be used on electrical components at Con Ed facilites.
B) The decision to apply water streams to electrical components will have to be made by the 1st arriving company officer.
C) The primary means of applying water at this fire will be through the use of a TL or Aerial Ladder using the Aquastream Master Stream.
D) Once the TL is properly positioned and water is flowing to the intended target, all members must be removed from the apparatus.
ANSWER: A) Handlines shall never be used on electrical components at Con Ed facilites.
B - The decision to apply water streams to electrical components will have to be made by a STAFF CHIEF.
C - DO NOT use AQUASTREAM at these fires
D - One TL is properly positioned REMOVE MEMBERS FROM APPARATUS before water is flowing.
(AUC 338 5.5)
FDNY units are responding to a fire involving electrical transformers and equipment inside a Con Ed facility. Upon arrival, 1st due units find a major fire involving a transformer within the facility. The Officer of the 1st arriving TL has been ordered by the IC to begin flowing water on the energized transformer fire. The IC states to use the straight stream and informs you that the transformer is 138kV. You should ensure your TL maintains a safe distance of at least how many feet?
A) 15
B) 25
C) 75
D) 125
ANSWER: C) 75
- Remember 15 and 25 (Multiply both by 5)
138 kV
30 degree or greater fog = 15 Feet
Straight = 75 Feet (15 x 5)
345 kV
30 degree or greater fog = 25 Feet
Straight = 125 Feet (25 x 5)
(AUC 338)
FDNY units are responding to a fire involving electrical transformers and equipment inside a Con Ed facility. Upon arrival, 1st due units find a major fire involving a transformer within the facility. Which safety consideration taken is stated incorrectly?
A) FDNY members shall never enter inside the Con Edison facility property lines unless escorted by a qualified Con Edison station personnel and with the approval of the IC.
B) Con Edison personnel shall confirm that all FDNY equipment inside the Con Ed property line is connected to the facility’s station ground grid.
C) Fresh water or salt water (if drafting) may be used on the electrical equipment.
D) The possibility of water run off from a Con Ed facility being charged with electrical current is extremely remote.
ANSWER: C) Fresh water or salt water (if drafting) may be used on the electrical equipment. (INCORRECT)
- FRESH WATER ONLY / NEVER SALT WATER
(AUC 338 7.6)
Which one action should take place at a fire in a Con Edison Transmission and Distribution substation?
A) a 3 1/2” supply line was stretched to the sprinkler siamese and charged while awaiting the arrival of the Con Ed White hat.
B) Water was applied to a fire in a battery room.
C) A TL bucket was raised at a distance of 15 feet from the substations exterior fence line.
D) Fences were cut to gain access to the area of the burning electrical equipment.
ANSWER: B) Water was applied to a fire in a battery room.
A - You can stretch to the siamese but DO NOT CHARGE siamese before arrival of Con Ed.
B - Battery Room fires - Carbon dioxide should NOT be used as an extinguishing agent at these fires. Dry chemical extinguishers will work here as will WATER APPLICATION from a safe distance.
C - Safe distance is EIGHTEEN (18) FEET from the exterior fence line
D - DO NOT CUT FENCES
(AUC 338 Addendum 2 - pg 8)
Firefighters may be confronted with incidents that range from accidental fires or terrorist’ attack on bridges. Which point below about the First Responder Bridge & Tunnels Manual is incorrect?
A) The manuals are comprised of 2 standalone guides, a field guide and a risk management guide for each agency.
B) The manuals comprise of a total of 8 different manuals, 2 each for NYCDOT bridges, MTA bridges, MTA tunnels, and the NYSDOT Kosciuszko Bridge.
C) The field guide is for use by first responders to increase awareness of potential hazards, identify structural components and accurately report details at the scene. The risk management guide is for use by the Command Chief who is tasked with assessing the compromise of the structure from the information provided.
D) Information sharing between agencies is critical to the safety of all 1st responders. Assessment could be made from land units, marine units and helicopters. This information MUST be directly transmitted to the FDNY IC at the scene.
E) Company Commanders shall ensure that the field guides are stored in a secure location at the housewatch desk. Lost or stolen manuals should be reported to the NYPD within 5 days.
ANSWER: E) Company Commanders shall ensure that the field guides are stored in a secure location at the housewatch desk. Lost or stolen manuals should be reported to the NYPD within 5 days. (INCORRECT)
- Secured ON APPARATUS
- Lost/stolen report forthwith by telephone and email to PTSU UNIT followed by a LOST PROPERTY REPORT.
(AUC 344)
Your unit has just arrived for a report of a car fire on the 59th street bridge. When you arrive, the NYPD Lieutenant on scene tells you it was a car bomb that went off about mid span. You call your ECC on the radio and tell him to bring you the First Responders Field Guide for NYCDOT bridges. He then asks you what color the guide is. You would be correct to tell him the Field Guide is which color?
A) Red
B) Green
C) Yellow
D) Orange
ANSWER: B) Green
- Risk Management Guide is RED
- Emergency Response Guidebook for Hazardous
Materials Incidents is ORANGE.
(AUC 344)
Lt. Reilly is UFO in E99 and is asking Captain Hoyer a few questions about the pre incident guideline procedure. The Captain gave Lt. Reilly correct information in which choice listed below?
A) An on-site visit by the administrative Battalion and company shall be made during a time that does not interfere with regularly scheduled BISP periods. These visits can take place during daily drill periods of MUD.
B) Any building which has a Pre-Incident Guideline should, if possible be included in the CIDS program. The FD designation “PIG” must be included at the beginning of the transmitted data section as per the Communications Manual Chapter 4.
C) Each Division, Battalion & company shall establish on Pre-Incident Guideline binder for their respective administrative and response districts. The binder shall be carried on the apparatus.
D) At a minimum, all sites with a Pre-Incident Guideline shall be the scene of a familiarization drill at least twice a year.
ANSWER: A) An on-site visit by the administrative Battalion and company shall be made during a time that does not interfere with regularly scheduled BISP periods. These visits can take place during daily drill periods of MUD.
B - Any building which has a Pre-Incident Guideline MUST BE INCLUDED in the CIDS program. The FD designation “PG” must be included at the beginning of the transmitted data section as per the Communications Manual Ch 4.
C - Each Division, Battalion and Company shall establish TWO (2) Pre-Incident Guideline binders for their respective administrative as well as necessary response districts. One binder shall be carried in an accessible location on the APPARATUS and the other shall be kept in the COMPANY OFFICE for necessary reference.
D - At a minimum, all sites with a Pre-Incident Guideline shall be the scene of a familiarization drill ONCE A YEAR.
(AUC 345)
During the FLTSP’s class the instructors were discussing the EBF-4 and made the following four points. In which point below did they give their students incorrect information?
A) A preliminary EBF-4 is when a unit is awaiting further manpower for the tour. Members awaiting relief shall be included on the preliminary EBF-4 pending the arrivl of details.
B) A final EBF-4 is when all members for the tour have reported for duty and were assigned riding positions.
C) Only members actually riding on the apparatus of a unit shall be included in the EBF-4. Do notinclude members detailed to another unit for the tour.
D) When a proby is granted tenure on the department orders, the Company Commander shall forward a report to the Bureau of Personnel to have the “PR” designation next to their name be removed.
ANSWER: D) When a proby is granted tenure on the department orders, the Company Commander shall forward a report to the Bureau of Personnel to have the “PR” designation next to their name be removed. (INCORRECT)
- When the probationary firefighter is granted tenure on the Department Order, the COMPANY COMMANDER SHALL REMOVE the (PR) designation from the probationary firefighter’s name. The (PR) designation shall NOT be removed in advance of the Department Order.
(AUC 346)
Any Chief Officer or Company Officer interested in initiating Out of Service Training or event request shall complete a request for training event form (TR1) and email it to the scheduling unit and the Bureau of Operations. To ensure a timely response, the TR1 must be received by the Scheduling and Planning units at least 14 days in advance of the date of the proposed training/event. Do you agree or disagree with the following statement?
A) Agree
B) Disagree
ANSWER: B) Disagree
- CHIEF OFFICERS ONLY fill out the TR1 form
- TR-1 must be received by the Scheduling and Planning
Units at least 14 days in advance of the date of the proposed training/event.
(AUC 347)
L100 has been assigned to respond with the PPF’s to a fire on the 30th floor of a 40 story HRFPMD. L100 is designated as the Ventilation Support Group. Members of this group have specific designations when operating as the Vent Support Group. Which designation below is not correct?
A) The Officer shall be designated the “Vent Group Supervisor”
B) The members operating the fans in the lobby shall be designated as the “Vent Group Lobby Unit”
C) The members operating the fans on the fire floor shall be designated as the “Vent Group Fire Floor Unit”
D) The member assigned the roof shall be designated as the “Vent Group Roof”
ANSWER: C) The members operating the fans on the fire floor shall be designated as the “Vent Group Fire Floor Unit” (INCORRECT)
- PPF are NOT OPERATED ON THE FIRE FLOOR.
- The members assigned to operate the fans shall be designated “Vent Group Lobby Unit” and the “Vent Group Fire Unit.”
(AUC 349 6.1)
During a drill the discussion centered around the general operations of the Vent Support Group at a fire operation. Which point made during the discussion was not entirely correct?
A) When fans are in position, the IC shall be notified. Stairwell pressurization will not be initiated until authorized by the IC.
B) PPFs in operation should never be left unattended.
A radio equipped member must continually monitor each operating fan.
C) The priority order for the use of PPFs is pressurizing the evacuation stairwell first, the pressurizing the attack stairwell and finally ventilating the public hallways for smoke and CO control.
D) If negative results are encountered, discontinue pressurization by throttling down fans to idle and closing the door to the stairwell that the fan is pressurizing. The IC must be notified when the fans have been deactivated and the stairwell doors are secured.
ANSWER: C) The priority order for the use of PPFs is pressurizing the evacuation stairwell first, the pressurizing the attack stairwell and finally ventilating the public hallways for smoke and CO control. (INCORRECT)
Priority order for use of PPFs “AEV”
Attack stairwell / Evacuation stairwell / Ventilating Hall
(AUC 349 6)
Pressurization of the attack stairway is the most effective if done simultaneously with the fire attack. There are many benefits of positive pressure ventilation such as to provide a safer environment for units operating or searching above the fire area and to provide an uncontaminated area of refuge for members. In order for PPV to be successful it must be done correctly. Which point below is incorrect regarding PPV?
A) The optimum placement of the fan is 4’ to 6’ from the attack stairway door on the ground floor and directly facing the door to the stairwell at an angle tilt of 80 degrees.
B) The fan shall be placed to blow into the stairwell. The fan can be placed in the stairwell if necessary, as this will generate even higher pressures in the stairway.
C) The pressure delivered to the attack stair by the PPF will be great enough to allow for up to three stairwell doors to be open and pressurization to remain effective.
D) When units are committed before fan activation and a line is stretched through a stairwell door, the door should be closed as much as possible to maintain positive pressure.
ANSWER: B) The fan shall be placed to blow into the stairwell. The fan can be placed in the stairwell if necessary, as this will generate even higher pressures in the stairway. (INCORRECT)
- The fan shall be positioned to blow into the stairwell; it should NOT be placed in the stairwell.
(AUC 349 7)
L100 has just arrived at a fire on the 11th floor of a 14 story HRFPMD. The IC orders L100 to use their fans to pressurize the attack stairwell. L100 would be most correct to place the fans where?
A) Place one fan in the lobby and another fan on the 8th floor
B) Place one fan in the lobby and another fan on the 10th floor
C) Only one fan is needed and it is placed in the lobby
D) Only one fan is needed and it is placed on the 9th floor.
ANSWER: A) Place one fan in the lobby and another fan on the 8th floor.
- One fan can pressurize up to 10 stories.
- Two fans will pressurize a 40 story building
- If the fire floor is above the 10th floor or additional pressures are required to maintain the stairwell free of smoke, a second fan must be brought to THREE FLOORS BELOW the fire floor and set up, following the proper positioning (4 to 6 feet back, 80 degree angle).
- This will maintain proper pressure throughout the stairwell, up to a 40 story building. This same concept, of placing a fan on the ground floor and a second fan three floors below the fire, can also be applied to buildings greater than 40 stories.
(AUC 349 7.3)
The PPFs are highly mobile units and can be very dangerous if not handled properly/ Members using the fans should follow all but which safety precaution?
A) The PPF should never be transported while in operation. If the need arises to move the fan, it shall be shut down before transportation.
B) Fans should be inspected and started daily at the beginning of the 9x6 tour. Weekly at MUD, fans should be started and allowed to run at full RPM for 5 minutes.
C) When running fans at an incident, exhaust hoses must always be attached to the operating fan in order to limit and control the introduction of CO inside the structure.
D) Fans should normally not be refueled inside of a structure. If the fan needs to be refueled at an extended operation, it can be done inside the structure however extreme caution must be used.
ANSWER: D) Fans should normally not be refueled inside of a structure. If the fan needs to be refueled at an extended operation, it can be done inside the structure however extreme caution must be used. (INCORRECT)
- NEVER refuel PPF inside of the structure.
(AUC 349 11)
Sequential ventilation can be used to vent the products of combustion vertically through the attack stairway after the fire has been extinguished. Which point about sequential ventilation is not correct?
A) Sequential ventilation will create an area of high pressure in the attack stairway and utilize an area of low pressure in the evacuation to facilitate smoke removal.
B) Placement of the fan for sequential ventilation shall be on the exterior of the building with the exhaust hose in place.
C) The bulkhead should be opened in the attack stairwell while all other doors in the attack stairwell are closed. The evacuation stairwell bulkhead door remains closed.
D) Sequential ventilation shall begin on the ground floor or cellar and continue on each floor until the CO or other contaminants are reduced to acceptable levels.
ANSWER: A) Sequential ventilation will create an area of high pressure in the attack stairway and utilize an area of low pressure in the evacuation to facilitate smoke removal. (INCORRECT)
- Creates area of high pressure in EVACUATION stair
- Utilizes area of low pressure in ATTACK stair
(AUC 349 8)
Listed below are the different types of ventilation methods discussed in this the PPF bulletin and the recommended distances the PPV fans should be placed when these methods are used. Please choose the incorrect placement of the fans for the corresponding ventilation method.
A) Positive pressure ventilation - place fan 4’ to 6’ from the door at an 80 degree angle.
B) Sequential ventilation - place fan on exterior of building at the base of the stairwell.
C) Mechanical ventilation of large areas/structures - place the fan farther back than 4’ to 6’ at an 80 degree angle.
D) Negative pressurization - If using the fan because tarps are not available or the box fan can’t be hung, place the fan facing the exhaust opening 4 to 6 feet at an 80 degree angle.
ANSWER: D) Negative pressurization - If using the fan because tarps are not available or the box fan can’t be hung, place the fan facing the exhaust opening 4 to 6 feet at an 80 degree angle. (INCORRECT)
- SIX TO EIGHT FEET (6-8 feet) back at a THIRTY (30) DEGREE ANGLE for negative pressurization.
(AUC 349)
Members on BISP see photos in a commercial occupancy that they believe indicate possible terrorist plans to attack NYC. After gathering information on a Suspicious Activity Report Form, it would be most correct for the company Officer to?
A) Immediately upon return to quarters, notify the FDNY terrorism center by telephone.
B) Send the original SAR form to the Bureau of Fire Investigation through intra-departmental mail, and also call the Bureau of Fire Investigation.
C) Place a copy of the SAR form in a secure location in quarters.
D) Make a journal entry concerning this incident, indicating only the address and the notifications that were made.
ANSWER: B) Send the original SAR form to the Bureau of Fire Investigation through intra-departmental mail, and also call the Bureau of Fire Investigation.
A - Enter information in the reporting system on DIAMONDPLATE
C - DO NOT keep a copy of SAR in quarters
D - Make a journal entry DO NOT INCLUDE PARTICULARS
(AUC 363 4.6)
All FDNY Officers should know that which one of the following responses is a Unified Command type of incident as per the Citywide Incident Management System?
A) Boat in distress
B) Structural collapse
C) Explosion
D) HazMat with confirmed terrorism
ANSWER: C) Explosion
“UHEARD”
U - Utility Emergencies
H - HazMat (NOT TERRORISM)
E - Explosion
A - Aviation
R - Disasters (natural disasters)
Also Telecommunications and Public Health Emergencies
(AUC 276 - pg 3)
Engine 326 is special called as a FireIce unit to a manhole fire by B53. On arrival they are ordered to direct a stream of FireIce solution into a manhole by the IC. In this situation, they would be correct to?
A) Use a nozzle pressure of 80-100 psi, as this is optimal.
B) Use a circular vacuuming motion with the pick up tube in the FireIce container.
C) Commence operations with the nozzle at a safe standoff distance of at least 25 feet.
D) Direct the stream of FireIce solution to fall approximately 2-3 feet in front of the manhole opening.
ANSWER: B) Use a circular vacuuming motion with the pick up tube in the FireIce container.
A - Nozzle Pressure of 60 to 80 psi
C - Safe stand-off distance of at least 25 feet
D - Direct FireIce stream to fall approximately ONE (1) FOOT in front of manhole.
(AUC 180 - Addendum 2 - 8.1)
While performing hydrant inspection duty, members of E281 encounter a 10 year old male child who states that he is being beaten by his father and does not want to go home. In this situation, it would be most correct for the officer to?
A) Notify the dispatcher that the unit is operating at a verbal alarm and will only respond at the dispatcher’s discretion.
B) Request the dispatcher to have NYPD, an FDNY EMS Supervisor, and an ambulance respond to the scene. Remind the EMS Supervisor on arrival that he/she is required to file the mandated report required by NYS Social Services Law.
C) Forward a letterhead report of this incident to the Chief of Department, that must include the child’s name and the identity of the EMS Supervisor left in charge.
D) Take a mark in the Company Journal indicating the child’s name and the identity of the Police Officer left in charge.
ANSWER: D) Take a mark in the Company Journal indicating the child’s name and the identity of the Police Officer left in charge.
A - Call Dispatch to be placed OUT OF SERVICE
B - AMBULANCE CREW does mandated report
C - POLICE OFFICER left in charge
(AUC 3 1.4)
Regarding the storage and wearing of Bunker Gear and PPE in quarters, it would be correct to state that?
A) Members may not store Bunker Gear in their personal locker. Helmets, gloves and hoods, if properly cleaned, may be stored in lockers.
B) “No bunker gear” signs shall be displayed at the entrances to every area of the firehouses.
C) Replacement or additional “no bunker gear” signs can be obtained by contacting the Safety Command.
D) Conducting a search drill with newly laundered bunker gear in the bunk room is permitted.
ANSWER: C) Replacement or additional “no bunker gear” signs can be obtained by contacting the Safety Command.
A - NO PPE IN PERSONAL LOCKERS
B - Displayed in all LIVING AREAS of firehouse
D - NEVER conduct drill with bunker gear in living areas
(AUC 310 - 1.2)
Captain Seltzer is working a night tour in Engine 99 when he walks into the kitchen of E99 and L100 at 1905 hours and finds 3 red cups on the kitchen table with alcohol in all 3 cups. He then walks outside in the rear yard and sees 12 firefighters and one Lieutenant having some barbecue wings for “nosh”. Nine of the firefighters are on-duty for the 6x9 tour, and three firefighters are hanging over from the day tour. In this situation, the Captain would be correct to immediately?
A) Conduct a roll call of all on duty and off duty members and advise them of their right to representation before being questioned by the investigating officer.
B) Prohibit any on duty or off duty member from leaving the premises without his permission.
C) Immediately relieve all on duty members from emergency response duty and have both units placed out of service.
D) Personally notify the Administrative Battalion, Administrative Division and BITS.
ANSWER: C) Immediately relieve all on duty members from emergency response duty and have both units placed out of service.
A - INVESTIGATING OFFICER does this “RAIT” (Roll call / Advise right of counsel / Investigation / Testing)
B - Prohibit members from leaving without permission of INVESTIGATING OFFICER.
D - Notify BATTALION (If BC involved notify next superior officer)
(AUC 202 - 5)
The Captain of Engine 55 was discussing the Probationary Firefighter’s Development Program with a new proby firefighter. He was correct when he told the proby?
A) When you successfully complete a quiz at the end of a module, print the completion receipt so the on-duty Officer can place it inside the Proby Firefighter’s folder.
B) The Proby FF Control Sheet will be affixed to the inside of the Proby FFs notebook.
C) A tool list from the proby FFs current unit should be attached to the inside cover of the Proby notebook.
D) The Proby FF will go on a cross unit detail for 90 days to a Ladder Company, but only after the Proby FF has completed at least 90 days of service in the firehouse.
ANSWER: D) The Proby FF will go on a cross unit detail for 90 days to a Ladder Company, but only after the Proby FF has completed at least 90 days of service in the firehouse.
A - PROBY will print receipt and staple it in their notebook.
B - Control Sheet shall be affixed on the inside cover of the Probationary FFs FOLDER (BP-90)
C - Tool list of current unit attached to FIRST PAGE of notebook.
(AUC 323 - 2.4 - Addendum 2)
FDNY Engine Company Chauffeurs should be aware that when they are supplying water to a Port Authority / ARFF Crash Truck at JFK International Airport, FDNY ECC’s should not exceed _______ psi discharge pressure.
A) 70
B) 80
C) 90
D) 100
ANSWER: B) 80
AUC 325 - Addendum 2 4.1
An Officer discussing Exterior Insulation Finishing Systems (EIFS) at a drill was correct when he made which statement below?
A) The component of primary concern during firefighting operations is the middle layer of fiberglass mesh.
B) Upon transmission of a 10-75 for a fire in an EIFS building, an additional Engine and Ladder shall be special called. The special ladder called must be a TL.
C) A TL monitor with a 2” tip, at 100 psi nozzle pressure, has a vertical reach of 135 feet from the tip of the nozzle.
D) A cockloft nozzle supplied with a 2 1/2” handline, with one tip capped, that is operated upward on the exterior of a building, can provide a vertical reach of up to three floors.
ANSWER: C) A TL monitor with a 2” tip, at 100 psi nozzle pressure, has a vertical reach of 135 feet from the tip of the nozzle.
A - Primary concern is the INNERMOST SHEATHING LAYER
B - Special called Ladder SHOULD be a TL IF ONE EAS NOT ASSIGNED ON THE INITIAL ALARM.
D - Can provide vertical reach of up to TWO (2) FLOORS
(AUC 362 - 1.3)
You are a Lieutenant of a Ladder Company that has just finished operating at a 10-18 for a food on the stove in a PD. The Battalion was monitoring the box, and is not continuing in. Unfortunately, due to the smoke condition, the dog inside the house is found dead by members and there is no one around. Since there is no responsible party to secure the dog with, as the IC, you would be most correct to contact the ____________________ through the respective Borough Dispatcher.
A) ASPCA
B) NYC Emergency Management
C) Animal Care Center
D) FDNY Watch Command
ANSWER: C) Animal Care Center
“PORN”
P - PD / O - Owner / R - Representative from Building / N - Neighbor
- If none of the above are available call Animal Care Center
(AUC 361 2.1)
First alarm units arrive on the scene of a 10-75 for an attic fire in a 2 1/2 story peaked roof PD. In this situation they should be aware that?
A) On sloped roofs, PV arrays are generally installed on the North and East facing sides.
B) Combiner boxes should be opened by firefighters in an attempt to shut the PV array.
C) Straight streams or foam should not be used as an extinguishing agent near PV components since they are excellent conductors of electricity.
D) A hose stream may be applied directly onto an energized PV system component, if a fog nozzle of at least 25 degrees or more is used from a distance.
ANSWER: C) Straight streams or foam should not be used as an extinguishing agent near PV components since they are excellent conductors of electricity.
A - SOUTHWEST
B - SHOULD NOT BE OPENED
D - Fog nozzle of AT LEAST THIRTY (30) DEGREES OR MORE
(AUC 351 6.4)
At 2300 hours, first alarm units respond to a reported explosion on the Brooklyn Bridge and are requested by the dispatcher to give an immediate preliminary report on arrival for the Tour Commander. In this situation, they would be correct to think that they should?
A) Use the first responders Bridge Manual which is an orange book.
B) Refer to the Risk Management/Executive Guide to identitfy affected structural members.
C) Transmit an incident assessment to the Dispatcher using the “size-up” section of the field guide.
D) Report any lost or stolen manuals forthwith to the Bureau of Fire Investigation by phone and email.
ANSWER: C) Transmit an incident assessment to the Dispatcher using the “size-up” section of the field guide.
A - First Responders Bridge Manual FIELD GUIDE is GREEN
B - Refer to FIELD GUIDE to identify affected structural members
D - Report lost or stolen manuals to PTSU (Public Trans Safety Unit)
(AUC 344 1.4)
Probationary FFs are designated on the EBF-4 by the?
A) Prefix “(PF)” before their name
B) Prefix “(PR)” before their name
C) Suffix “(PF)” after their name
D) Suffix “(PR”) after their name
ANSWER: B) Prefix “(PR)” before their name
AUC 346 2.7
All members must be a aware that the Inspector General required direct notification regarding any situation where an FDNY Employee?
A) Is arrested
B) Misappropriates Department time
C) Claims an off duty injury occurred while on duty
D) Has an on duty incident involving possession of illegal drugs.
ANSWER: C) Claims an off duty injury occurred while on duty
A - Immediate notification to BITS
B - Written notification to BITS
D - Immediate notification to BITS
Immediate to BITS “AABBCCDD”
A - Alcohol / Arrest
B - Boxing with Brothers
C - Confrontation with civilian / confrontation with PD or other agency
D - Drugs / Dangerous misuse of Department vehicles
Written to BITS “IMMAC”
I - Incompetence in which officer believes charged are warranted
M - Misconduct not falling under IG
M - Misuse or misappropriation of Department time
A - Arrest follow up information
C - Charges
Inspector General “CCCMM” C - Corruption C - Criminal activity C - Conflict of Interest M - Misconduct M - Mismanagement
(AUC 268 2.1.7)
You are a company officer that has just finished hydrant inspection duty. You should know that which hydrant(s) below should be identified to the DEP as requiring priority repair?
A) Two adjacent hydrants in the same block, one is out of service, and the other has a defective drain. Report the out of service hydrant as a priority repair.
B) A hydrant vital to the protection of the Brooklyn Bridge that has a defective drain.
C) A hydrant that is the only hydrant on the block that is OOS.
D) Two hydrants, not adjacent, but both in the same block, and both are OOS. There is a serviceable hydrant in between the two out of service hydrants. Report both OOS hydrants as requiring a priority repair.
ANSWER: C) A hydrant that is the only hydrant on the block that is OOS.
“HOT”
H - Hazard (target hazard or critical infrastructure)
O - Only Hydrant on the block
T - Two adjacent hydrants in block that are OOS
(AUC 205 3.2)
You are a company officer covering a day tour in E308 when you receive a phone call from a 4th grade school teacher who wishes to bring a class of 24 students to the firehouse for a visit next week. In this situation, you would be correct to advise the teacher?
A) You can schedule the visit for 1400 hours next Friday because the unit has BISP that morning. You also advise her that she needs to have 2 adult supervisors present.
B) You can schedule the visit for 1100 hours next Thursday because the unit has no activities that day. You also advise her that she needs to have 3 adult supervisors present .
C) You can schedule the visit for 1000 hours next Wednesday because the unit has no activities that day. You also advise her that she needs to have 2 adult supervisors present.
D) You are unable to schedule the visit, she must either call or email the FDNY Fire Safety Education Unit and they will gladly accommodate her.
ANSWER: C) You can schedule the visit for 1000 hours next Wednesday because the unit has no activities that day. You also advise her that she needs to have 2 adult supervisors present.
- CANNOT schedule when Company has BISP or Hydrants scheduled
“415-3020”
Up to 2nd grade - 1 for 4
3rd and 4th grade - 1 for 15
5th grade and over - 1 for 30
Boy Scout troops - 1 for 20
(AUC 4 / Regs 19)
Ladder 127 and Engine 298 are setting up a HT relay for a reported fire at a subway station. Which two members in the relay must be positioned within line of sight with each other?
A) The LCC and the OV
B) The OV and the Roof FF
C) The Roof FF and the Engine Officer
D) The Engine Officer and the Ladder Officer
ANSWER: C) The Roof FF and the Engine Officer
“CORE” “Stairs/man/stairs/man”
LCC within 50 yards of STAIRS
OV within 50 yards of LCC
Roof within 50 yards of STAIRS
Engine Officer 100 yards LOS with a Roof FF
(AUC 207 4.1)
Two members of SOC were discussing the features and hazards of photovoltaic (PV) systems. In which choice below was an incorrect comment made?
A) Both residential and commercial PV systems operate on the same principle and both pose simliar dangers, the greatest hazard of which is collapse of the roof onto the top floor. The residential system generally is smaller and may contain fewer safety features that the larger commercial system.
B) The basic PV or solar cell produces only a small amount of power (1-2 watts). When interconnected to form modules (panels), output ranges from 10 to 300 watts. If more power is needed, several modules can be installed to form a PV array.
C) PV systems can still produce electricity on cloudy days, but not as much as they do on sunny days. PV systems do not produce electricity at night.
D) Most PV arrays use an inverter to convert the direct current (DC) power produced into alternating current (AC) that can tie into existing infrastructure to power lights and other electrical loads.
ANSWER: A) Both residential and commercial PV systems operate on the same principle and both pose simliar dangers, the greatest hazard of which is collapse of the roof onto the top floor. The residential system generally is smaller and may contain fewer safety features that the larger commercial system. (INCORRECT)
- DIRECT CURRENT (DC) is the GREATEST HAZARD
(AUC 351 2.1)
There are many variations in the types and arrangements of PV systems. Of the following choices, which is described incorrectly?
A) Stand alone PV systems operate independent of the utility grid. On grid connected systems utilize grid tie in inverters that are integrated with the public utility.
B) Stand mounted systems are also known as a universal mounting because they can be installed both on rooftops as well as on the ground. Stand mount systems atop roofs must be installed to withstand wind loads and are typically used with larger solar panel systems.
C) Flush mounted systems are commonly used with small solar arrays and are on peaked roofs because the structural design cannot support large ones.
D) Integrated design systems serve as a structural element (Roof, wall, canopy, or skylight) which reduces concentrations of added weight and avoids penetrations required for mountings and wiring. Integrated systems are easily detectable to members during both day and nighttime hours.
ANSWER: D) Integrated design systems serve as a structural element (Roof, wall, canopy, or skylight) which reduces concentrations of added weight and avoids penetrations required for mountings and wiring. Integrated systems are easily detectable to members during both day and nighttime hours. (INCORRECT)
- Integrated as well as flush mounted arrays MAY BE DIFFICULT OR IMPOSSIBLE TO DETECT DURING NIGHTTIME HOURS.
(AUC 351 4.1)
Each of the statements below contain correct information about PV system operations except?
A) FFs must avoid walking on modules since this can expose them to electric shock. Additionally, FFs should only cut wires associated with a PV array when power to the inverter has been shut.
B) If feasible, tactical operations should be performed away from all PV components. Shutting off power at the main electrical panel, does not ensure that all power to the building has been removed.
C) When exposed to sunlight, PV arrays will continue to generate electricity and energize conduit and components up to the inverter. The use of rooftop disconnects should not be relied upon; shut off electrical power to the inverter to ensure power does not enter the building from the PV array conduit, batteries or backup generator.
D) At fires, the opening/removal of skylights and scuttles as well as horizontal ventilation should be the prime focus of ladder company operations.
ANSWER: A) FFs must avoid walking on modules since this can expose them to electric shock. Additionally, FFs should only cut wires associated with a PV array when power to the inverter has been shut. (INCORRECT)
- NEVER CUT ANY WIRES ASSOCIATED WITH A PV ARRAY.
(AUC 351 6.1)
FDNY operations may prove difficult when dealing with PV arrays. Of the following choices, all contain correct information except?
A) Inform the IC if the PV system is involved in fire and if it is going to negatively impact vertical ventilation operations.
B) Using water on energized PV system components is a decision that should only be made by the IC after careful sizeup. If decided upon to use water as an extinguishing agent, Engine Officer should position hoselines to cut off fire extension and push the fire back toward the main fire area.
C) Hose streams should not be applied directly onto energized PV system components. A foam nozzle utilized from a distance and set to a 30 degree spray pattern is recommended to prevent electric current from traveling upstream towards members operating hoselines.
D) When the weight of the PV array is placed directly on the roof beams, a concern should be the added load. Under heavy fire conditions where exposed roof beams lose their strength, early roof collapse should be anticipated.
ANSWER: C) Hose streams should not be applied directly onto energized PV system components. A foam nozzle utilized from a distance and set to a 30 degree spray pattern is recommended to prevent electric current from traveling upstream towards members operating hoselines. (INCORRECT)
- A FOG NOZZLE (NOT FOAM)
(AUC 351 6.3)
Fire involving PV systems can be quite difficult and hazardous to operating forces. All choices below are in accordance with FDNY policy except?
A) For fires involving PV systems, de-energize all of the PV components along with any other utility supplied electrical power serving the building.
B) It May prove difficult or dangerous to attempt to remove all burning or smoldering materials from under or around PV modules without subjecting members to electrical shock. One option is to have members carefully remove the PV modules to ensure proper extinguishment and overhaul.
C) The utility company and the licensed solar power installer/electrician (if contact information is available) should be requested to respond through the dispatcher.
D) Incipient fires can be extinguished using Class C (dry chemical) portable fire extinguishers. Advanced fires may dictate the limited use of water in a fog pattern from a safe distance. Avoid standing in areas where pooling water is located.
ANSWER: B) It May prove difficult or dangerous to attempt to remove all burning or smoldering materials from under or around PV modules without subjecting members to electrical shock. One option is to have members carefully remove the PV modules to ensure proper extinguishment and overhaul. (INCORRECT)
- Removal of modules by FFs IS NOT AN OPTION.
(AUC 351 6.6)
The various components of a PV system are dangerous in different ways and require a methodical approach to mitigation. Which choice below does not contain correct information?
A) Lithium batteries may burn rapidly and ignite nearby combustibles. The use of dry chemical or foam extinguishing agents had proven to be effective in battery fires.
B) Company Officers on BISP or other outside activities finding a hazardous condition relative to a PV system installation that is immediately perilous to members or occupants due to size, location, arrangement, defects, or lack of maintenance should be instructed to request the immediate response of the Department of Buildings.
C) Buildings with PV systems necessitate that they be entered into CIDS
D) The ability of PV arrays to trap snow and debris will add more weight to the roof. This, in conjunction with the PV system’s inherent dead load, will increase the possibility of roof collapse.
ANSWER: B) Company Officers on BISP or other outside activities finding a hazardous condition relative to a PV system installation that is immediately perilous to members or occupants due to size, location, arrangement, defects, or lack of maintenance should be instructed to request the immediate response of the Department of Buildings. (INCORRECT)
- Immediate response of ADMINISTRATIVE BC
(AUC 351 6.7)
Which safety consideration is inaccurate regarding fire operations at buildings equipped with a PV system?
A) Combiner boxes should not be opened by FFs in an attempt to shut down the PV array.
B) PV systems do not produce electricity at night. However, lightning flashes occurring at night can energize the PV system.
C) Auxiliary lighting equipment and apparatus headlights are not powerful enough to generate dangerous voltage from a PV array.
D) On buildings with sloped roofs, PV arrays will generally be installed on the North and East facing sides.
ANSWER: D) On buildings with sloped roofs, PV arrays will generally be installed on the North and East facing sides. (INCORRECT)
- SOUTH AND WEST facing sides
(AUC 351 7)
Proper communication and coordination with facilities and construction personnel is necessary when work is being completed in a Fire Department facility to ensure that the project is finished efficiently and as designed. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A) The scope of the project is developed by the Assistant Commissioner of Facilities and their designee. The Commanding Officers of the affected units will be consulted, but Facility staff has final determination with regard to construction projects in FD facilities.
B) All requests from the unit for additional work must be submitted in writing through the chain of command to the Assistant Commissioner of Facilities.
C) An FDNY Project Manager will be assigned to each project and will be the point of contact for the officers of the affected unit. If a member has a problem with the construction method of material being used, The involved Engineer, Contractor or Architectural should be directly consulted with to resolve the issue.
D) Members should not direct a contractor to stop working; the only exemption is in the event of an imminent health or safety issue. Members shall not enter designated construction zones unless requested to do so by project Engineers, Contractors or Architects.
ANSWER: C) An FDNY Project Manager will be assigned to each project and will be the point of contact for the officers of the affected unit. If a member has a problem with the construction method of material being used, The involved Engineer, Contractor or Architectural should be directly consulted with to resolve the issue. (INCORRECT)
- Member SHALL NOT CONTACT DIRECTLY
- Contact through the OFFICER/SUPERVISOR
(AUC 358)
“DANGER DO NOT ENTER” tape adds an additional layer of protection at hazardous Fire Department operations. Of the following choices, which contains correct information?
A) This tape shall be used to isolate designated areas that members should not enter. This applies at all times, to all members of the Department during all stages of operations; no exceptions.
B) The tape is red with black lettering and is carried in all Engine and Ladder vehicles.
C) When a danger area has been identified, the IC shall have the DANGER DO NOT ENTER tape put in place to mark the danger zone. The IC shall make a transmission via HT alerting units that a danger zone has been established.
D) Units are reminded that the danger zone should not be entered except to save a life or authorized by the IC, Safety Chief or SOC Officer.
ANSWER: C) When a danger area has been identified, the IC shall have the DANGER DO NOT ENTER tape put in place to mark the danger zone. The IC shall make a transmission via HT alerting units that a danger zone has been established.
A - EXCEPT TO SAVE A LIFE
B - Carried in all BATTALION AND DIVISION VEHICLES
D - Authorized by IC OR SECTOR CHIEF
(AUC 360)
When encountering displaced pets/pet remains at the scene of a fire or emergency, the FDNY shall take certain actions. Of the following choices, which action is described incorrectly?
A) The FDNY shall protect/secure the pet with a responsible party (owner, neighbor, building representative, NYPD) if possible and/or cover the pet remains and keep them out of view of the public and media.
B) If reunification with the owner is not possible, the FDNY IC shall contact the Animal Care Center (ACC) through the respective borough dispatcher.
C) If a NYC Emergency Management (NYCEM) is on scene, and the owner/responsible party has not been contacted, the FDNY IC is still responsible for notifying the ACC; this shall not be left to NYCEM.
D) Once on scene, ACC is responsible to take possession of the displaced pet/pet remains, remove them to their facility, and attempt further contact with the owner.
ANSWER: C) If a NYC Emergency Management (NYCEM) is on scene, and the owner/responsible party has not been contacted, the FDNY IC is still responsible for notifying the ACC; this shall not be left to NYCEM. (INCORRECT)
- NYCEM will be responsible to facilitate notification to the ACC
(AUC 361)
Exterior Insulation Finish Systems (EIFS) is an exterior wall covering system that uses layered insulation and a waterproofing finish. Which of the following choices contains incorrect information regarding this system?
A) When first introduced, EIFS was used almost exclusively on commercial structures. Today, EIFS can be found in combustible and non combustible occupancies including offices, taxpayers, factories, hotels, multiple dwellings, and private houses.
B) EIFS can be glued or mechanically fastened to the exterior wall of the structure.
C) EIFS consists of 3 layers; the innermost, Insulation layer composed of foam plastic insulation; the middle reinforcing fiberglass mesh; and the outermost finish coat layer (usually a cement based polymer)
D) The component of primary concern during firefighting operations is outermost, finish coat layer (usually a cement based polymer)
ANSWER: D) The component of primary concern during firefighting operations is outermost, finish coat layer (usually a cement based polymer) (INCORRECT)
- Primary concern is the INNERMOST SHEATHING LAYER OF FOAM PLASTIC INSULATION (FPI)
(AUC 362 1.3)
The aesthetic design of an EIFS finish coat layer makes it look like other types of building materials are used. Prior knowledge of the existence of EIFS on a building will be beneficial to operating members. Which choice below contains incorrect information?
A) If EIFS is compromised and the FPI is ignited, expect high heat conditions, rapid flame spread and dense black smoke. The rate of heat release for thermoplastics can be one to two times higher than that of ordinary combustibles, such as wood or paper.
B) EIFS buildings are especially vulnerable to adjacent outside fires (car, rubbish etc.) and ignition sources found during the construction phase (portable heaters, salamanders, torches, welding equipment etc.)
C) The rapidity of Fire spread is dependent on the thickness of the finish coat layer, the thickness of the innermost layer (the FPI) and the integrity of the EIFS installation. EIFS fires often extend via a poorly maintained or damaged finish coat layer.
D) The energy efficient, insulating properties of EIFS are designed to prevent any heat from escaping the building. At structural fires, these same properties can adversely affect firefighting operations by increasing the potential for flashover.
ANSWER: A) If EIFS is compromised and the FPI is ignited, expect high heat conditions, rapid flame spread and dense black smoke. The rate of heat release for thermoplastics can be one to two times higher than that of ordinary combustibles, such as wood or paper. (INCORRECT)
- Rate if heat release is THREE TO FIVE TIMES (3-5) FASTER
(AUC 362 1.4)
Proper control of EIFS fires is essential to an effective operation. Of the following actions, which is described incorrectly?
A) The first arriving Engine should consider using the deck gun for a road attack and knockdown.
B) Initial handlines should be positioned for both an interior and exterior attack on the fire. Depending on conditions, a fire may be quickly knocked down from the exterior before the interior attack commences.
C) After complete sizeup when conditions dictate, a handline should be dedicated to exterior extinguishment. If possible, the number of lengths stretched should be enough to cover all sides of the building.
D) The size of the exterior handline stretched shall be 2 1/2” due to the size of buildings equipped with EIFS and extent of expected fire.
ANSWER: D) The size of the exterior handline stretched shall be 2 1/2” due to the size of buildings equipped with EIFS and extent of expected fire. (INCORRECT)
- Size of handline dependant on SIZE OF BUILDING AND EXTENT OF FIRE.
- A building 3 story or higher or a large area building may require the use of a 2 1/2” line.
- An 1 3/4” line may be sufficient for a smaller PD.
(AUC 362 2.1)
The department has developed many methods to combat the dangers posed by EIFS clad buildings. Which of the following statements below are correct?
- Additional alarms should be transmitted early to request the necessary resources to control a rapidly advancing fire.
- Upon response to a reported fire in an EIFS building, an additional Engine and Tower Ladder shall be special called.
- Exterior streams should be positioned to operate on the fire building and to protect exposures.
- Thermal Imaging Cameras (TIC) should be used by both the interior and exterior to determine the extent of fire spread.
- Members are only permitted to conduct a limited examination during the overhaul phase to ensure that the EIFS fire does not spread via openings in the EIFS.
- Officers encountering EIFS buildings should make a determination whether or not such buildings should be entered into CIDS. When entered into CIDS “EIFS Throughout” should be in the transmitted data portion.
- Structural integrity reports issued by the Department of Buildings may identify buildings utilizing EIFS, providing units with another opportunity to identify such locations.
A) 1,2,3,4,7 B) 1,3,4,5,6 C) 2,4,5,7 D) 1,3,4,7
ANSWER: D) 1,3,4,7 are CORRECT (2/5/6 INCORRECT)
2 - UPON TRANSMISSION OF A 10-75 (additional Engine and TL)
5 - THROUGH examination required during overhaul
6 - ALL EIFS NEEDS TO BE ENTERED INTO CIDS / The SPECIFIC LOCATION of the areas of the building with EIFS should be outlined (“EIFS Exposure 2” or “EIFS present on all sides”)
(AUC 362 2.4)
What would be the effective vertical reach of a solid stream from a 2” tip nozzle of the TL Monitor at 100 psi?
A) 150’
B) 135’
C) 110’
D) 70’
ANSWER: B) 135’
AUC 362 3.2
A 2 1/2” line equipped with the cockloft nozzle can be used to apply water to an exterior fire that is above the reach of ground based streams. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding this procedure?
A) One tip of the cockloft nozzle should be capped with a 1 1/2” shutoff.
B) The cockloft nozzle operated upward on the exterior of the building can provide a vertical reach of up to two floors.
C) The nozzle should be extended approximately 3 feet from the windowsill and then operated at a slight angle away from the building.
D) Fires in combustible wall assemblies can produce significant fire and may require large water flows to overcome the heat release rate of the fire. Additional cockloft nozzles should be deployed as necessary.
ANSWER: C) The nozzle should be extended approximately 3 feet from the windowsill and then operated at a slight angle away from the building. (INCORRECT)
- Operate cockloft nozzle at a slight angle TOWARD THE BUILDING.
(AUC 362 3.2)
While performing BISP, the member of Engine 317 are approached by a young child who states his parents have abused him and he is afraid to return home. The Officer of this unit would be correct to take all but which of the following actions?
A) Notify the dispatcher that the company is out of service and the unit is operating at a verbal alarm to assist a civilian.
B) Request the response of the Police Department, an FDNY EMS Supervisor, and an ambulance through the dispatcher.
C) Take the child into protective custody. Such custody shall be transferred to the PD at the time of their arrival.
D) Upon return to quarters complete the mandated report of suspected child abuse as required under NYS Social Services Law.
ANSWER: D) Upon return to quarters complete the mandated report of suspected child abuse as required under NYS Social Services Law. (INCORRECT)
- AMBULANCE CREW completes report.
(AUC 3 1.7)
After taking up from a box, the members of Ladder 13 are requested for assistance by a civilian who states they are being harassed by another civilian. The Officer requests the response of the NYPD and places the unit out of service to assist the civilian. Upon return to quarters, the officer must forward a letterhead report, which includes the name of the civilian and the identity of the Police Officer left in charge of the civilian’s care to whom?
A) The Fire Commissioner
B) The Chief of Department
C) The Chief of Operations
D) The Borough Commander
ANSWER: C) The Chief of Operations
- Forward through the chain of command to the CHIEF OF OPERATIONS (Richardson)
- Take a mark in company journal with the civilian and POs name
(AUC 3 1.5)
Lt. Rogers receives a phone call from a 3rd grade teacher at a local elementary school who requests to bring her class to the firehouse for a visit. Lt. Rogers would be correct to take which action listed below?
A) Advise the teacher to contact the Fire Safety Education Unit by email or phone to schedule a firehouse visit.
B) Email the scheduling unit to ensure the firehouse visit is scheduled during a BISP period.
C) During the visit, have the unit placed out of service.
D) Ensure the class has one adult supervisor for every 15 children during the visit.
ANSWER: D) Ensure the class has one adult supervisor for every 15 children during the visit.
A - COMPANY OFFICER schedules visits by school children
B - DO NOT schedule visits by school children on BI, hydrant or other schedules activity days.
C - Unit remains IN SERVICE
“415-3020”
2nd grade - 1 for 4
3rd and 4th - 1 for 15
5th grade - 1 for 30
Boy Scouts - 1 for 20
(AUC 4 3.1.6)
(Regulations 19)
Units performing fire safety education functions and placed out of service by the Bureau of Operations will be out of service for approximately 1 1/2 hours. All fire safety education programs are exempt from the 10-51 signal except _________________________.
A) Operation sidewalk
B) Open firehouses
C) Firehouse visits
D) All are exempt from a 10-51 signal
ANSWER: A) Operation Sidewalk
- Operation Sidewalk WILL BE CANCELLED on a 10-51
- Firehouse visits and open firehouses will NOT be cancelled
(AUC 4 2.5)
An Engine Company Officer operating at a CFRD run discovers what he believes to be indicators of possible terrorist activity within the apartment. The Officer would be correct to take all but which one action?
A) Utilize a Suspicious Activity Reporting (SAR) Form that should be carried on the apparatus.
B) Immediately upon return to quarters, using the reporting system link on DiamondPlate, fill out the required fields and use the narrative section for any other information relevant to the incident. Use notes from the SAR Form to report accurate information.
C) Send the original SAR form through intra-departmental mail to the Bureau of Fire Investigation. Place a copy of the form in the company uniform filing system.
D) Make a Company Journal entry of the incident with no particulars.
ANSWER: C) Send the original SAR form through intra-departmental mail to the Bureau of Fire Investigation. Place a copy of the form in the company uniform filing system. (INCORRECT)
- NO COPIES KEPT IN FIREHOUSE
- Send original through the bag to Fire Marshals
(AUC 363 4.6)
The Officer of Ladder 100, while monitoring the Department radio, hears a response for a possible leak from one of the two 12” steel pipes of the Buckeye Pipeline. The Officer was incorrect in which thought?
A) One pipe carries gasoline while the other carries kerosene base aviation fuel.
B) A short tee wrench is used for opening the hinged cover of a manual valve. A 3 1/2 foot yellow wrench with a female fitting is used to shut the manual valve down.
C) Combination wrenches are 3 1/2 feet long, painted yellow, and combine the short tee wrench and the long wrench into one tool.
D) All assigned and Alternate unit’s have been issued two sets of all three types of wrenches (short tee, 3 1/2 feet long yellow wrench, Combination wrench).
ANSWER: D) All assigned and Alternate unit’s have been issued two sets of all three types of wrenches (short tee, 3 1/2 feet long yellow wrench, Combination wrench). (INCORRECT)
- MOST ASSIGNED AND ALTERNATE UNITS HAVE TWO (2) SEPARATE TYPES OF WRENCHES, however a newer combination wrench has been provided which combined both tools.
- The combination wrench are issued as REPLACEMENTS FOR MISSING OR BROKEN TOOLS.
(AUC 149 4.9)
When shutting down manual shut off valves, other than the valves found on the shipper’s lines extending from the LIC terminal, the 3 1/2 foot long wrench with a female fitting is inserted onto a male square fitting and turned _________________.
A) 42 full turns clockwise
B) 48 full turns clockwise
C) 42 half turns counter clockwise
D) 24 turns counter clockwise
ANSWER: A) 42 full turns clockwise
- 84 half turns clockwise to CLOSE
- Shipper’s Line = 24 turns clockwise (48 half turns)
(AUC 149 2.3.2)
Lt. James is working in L-175 when they are assigned as an alternate unit to buckeye pipeline box 9006. Remembering that L-175 is an alternate unit for several units at box 9006, Lt. James was correct in which action?
A) After determining that the Dispatcher did not specifically assign L-175 as an alternate for a particular company, Lt. James ascertained from the dispatcher which unit L-175 was an alternate for.
B) Lt. James contacted the dispatcher to ascertain the location of the nearest Assigned Unit in order to obtain the wrenches, assignment instruction cards, and map.
C) Lt. James ordered members to search the company office, where the only set of unit alarm assignment and instruction cards are required to be stored.
D) Lt. James ordered members to place additional cans of foam on the Ladder apparatus.
ANSWER: A) After determining that the Dispatcher did not specifically assign L-175 as an alternate for a particular company, Lt. James ascertained from the dispatcher which unit L-175 was an alternate for.
- Alternate Units already have wrenches cards and maps therefore they would not have a reason to go to the quarters of a company with this equipment.
- ENGINE COMPANIES responding on the 2ND ALARM from QUARTERS place extra can of foam on the rig.
- ENGINE COMPANIES responding on the 2ND ALARM that are OUT OF QUARTERS do not return to quarters to place additional cans of foam on the rig.
(AUC 149 4.2.1)
Ladder 800 is dispatched to a response for fumes in the area. Upon arrival at the reported location, the Captain of Ladder 800 discovers that a construction crew has ruptured a pipe of the Buckeye Pipeline, and there are 100 gallons of product in the street. The Captain would be correct to transmit which signal?
A) 10-40-1 and 10-80 Code 1
B) 2nd alarm
C) 10-75
D) 10-75 and 10-80 no code
ANSWER: B) 2nd alarm
AUC 149 5.4
Department Apparatus should not be brought closer than ________ feet to a leak.
A) 150
B) 300
C) 600
D) 1000
AMSWER: 600
AUC 149 6.5.7
There is a potential for product that has leaked from the Buckeye Pipeline to ignite. Which choice is incorrect concerning this ignition?
A) The primary consideration is the evacuation of the area involved.
B) If a strong wind is blowing, all ignition sources in the path of drifting vapors must be extinguished. Then, all ignition sources in the area must be extinguished.
C) The potential for explosion is greatest on hot, humid and calm days.
D) Fog streams half horizontally a few feet above the ground and moved side to side slowly will wash burning gasoline or aviation fuel aside to provide a path for rescue.
ANSWER: D) Fog streams half horizontally a few feet above the ground and moved side to side slowly will wash burning gasoline or aviation fuel aside to provide a path for rescue. (INCORRECT)
- SOLID STREAMS a few INCHES above the ground and moved side to side RAPIDLY.
(AUC 149 6.5.5)
Lt. Garnett is conducting a drill on a Fire Department Operations at a Buckeye Pipeline leak. Which statement made by Lt. Garnett should be corrected?
A) When a unit that is assigned to shut down valves is required to protect life in a serious life threatening situation they must shut down the valve before attending to the life threatening situation.
B) When a Unit has the responsibility of closing a manual valve and patrolling to adjacent valves, both duties should be carried out simultaneously.
C) Patrols will be on foot or by apparatus.
D) Foot patrols are conducted by 2 HT equipped firefighters
ANSWER: A) When a unit that is assigned to shut down valves is required to protect life in a serious life threatening situation they must shut down the valve before attending to the life threatening situation. (INCORRECT)
- LIFE TAKES PRECEDENCE, Notify dispatch of situation and address the life hazard.
(AUC 149 6.1)
Units dispatched to a 9000 box for a leak in the Buckeye Pipeline in Brooklyn discover the leak adjacent to railroad tracks used by Con Rail for freight transportation. Which is the correct action to take?
A) After contacting the Brooklyn Dispatcher to shut power, take no further precautions.
B) Position “flag persons” at least 1000 feet on each side of the incident.
C) After contacting the Brooklyn Dispatcher to stop train traffic, no further precautions are necessary.
D) Send two members to the nearest power removal box, in addition to contacting the Brooklyn Dispatcher to shut power and stop train traffic.
ANSWER: B) Position “flag persons” at least 1000 feet on each side of the incident.
- These trains are diesel powered (non-electric) and therefore have NO POWER REMOVAL BOXES.
(AUC 149 6.6.2)
Company Commanders of units having Buckeye Pipeline control valves in their administrative area shall have them inspected during semi-annual hydrants and inspections and also during familiarization drills. Which choice is incorrect concerning these inspections?
A) Needed repairs or recommendations should be the subject of a letterhead report to the Buckeye Pipeline Coordinator at Division 8.
B) Reports of critical repairs should be the subject of an immediate telephone notification to the Buckeye Pipeline Coordinator at Division 8.
C) Valve pits subject to flooding must be inspected during sub freezing weather.
D) Flooded valve pits are require immediate notification to DEP through the Hansen Hydrant Application.
ANSWER: D) Flooded valve pits are require immediate notification to DEP through the Hansen Hydrant Application. (INCORRECT)
- Immediate notification to BUCKEYE PIPELINE COORDINATOR AT DIVISION 8.
(AUC 149 9.2)
During which drills can Buckeye Pipeline valves be turned, closed or operated?
A) They can never be turned, closed or operated at any drills.
B) During Familiarization Drills.
C) During Division Drills
D) During Borough Drills.
ANSWER: D) During Borough Drills
- UNDER NO CIRCUMSTANCES shall valves be opened during Familiarization and Division drills.
(AUC 149 10.5.10)
Proper aggressive utilization of the capabilities of Brush Fire Units (BFUs) at brush fire operations can often equal the equivalent of an additional alarm assignment. Which point about the BFUs is incorrect?
A) The term “out of service” is not to be used when BFUs revert to unstaffed status.
B) A separate Fire Record Journal shall be kept for each BFU.
C) Regardless of operating location, BFUs shall always be designated by their assigned number on the Department Radio and HT.
D) BFU winches can be used to tow out full size apparatus and heavy trucks.
ANSWER: D) BFU winches can be used to tow out full size apparatus and heavy trucks. (INCORRECT)
- Winches are for SELF EXTRICATION or used to pull SIMILARLY SIZED VEHICLES.
- CANNOT be used to tow full size apparatus.
(AUC 151 4.5.10)
While drilling on brush fire operations, the Office of Engine 151 made several statements. Which one was incorrect?
A) Forestry hope can be used for structural firefighting or wild land operations.
B) Units are not to self commit to operations unless structures are exposed.
C) Initial attack operations should concentrate on mobility. Avoid hooking up to hydrants, except to protect exposures.
D) Members can operate in front of the fire only to protect life. To do this, there must be sufficient charged lines in place capable of protecting operating forces.
ANSWER: A) Forestry hope can be used for structural firefighting or wild land operations. (INCORRECT)
- WILDLAND ONLY (Not structural fires)
(AUC 151 4.7.3)
Stretching handlines is labor intensive at brush fire operations. Often, fire spread is so rapid that stretching handlines is ineffective. Handlines should be considered in all of the following with the exception of which choice?
A) When operating beneath high voltage lines.
B) When protecting exposures
C) When cutting off forward fire travel
D) For deep seated fires
ANSWER: A) When operating beneath high voltage lines.
(INCORRECT)
*NEVER operate handlines beneath high voltage lines
(AUC 151 5.4.7)
All units shall be familiar with brush fire operations, due to their potential in many areas of the city. Which statement is incorrect concerning these operations?
A) The majority of brush fires are controlled by two firefighter teams working with Indian pumps and brooms along the flanks near the head of the fire.
B) Bypass stumps, trees and other smoldering items inside the burned out areas until the fire is controlled and sufficient staffing is available for final extinguishment.
C) Attempting to break up heat waves by using a water curtain is generally ineffective.
D) It is unsafe to operate from burnt out, blackened areasdue to the unpredictable nature of brush fires.
ANSWER: D) It is unsafe to operate from burnt out, blackened areasdue to the unpredictable nature of brush fires. (INCORRECT)
- It IS SAFE to operate from burnt out and blackened areas.
(AUC 151 5.4.18)
In addition to general guidelines, there are specific Engine and Ladder operations at brush fires. Which is not one of them?
A) Fire attack can begin once exposures are covered.
B) Heavy reliance should be placed on the use of Indian pumps, brooms, and booster lines from BFUs during the initial attack.
C) Firefighting teams operating with Indian pumps and brooms may operate in front of the fire if the wi d has diminished.
D) Indian pumps contain 5 gallons of water. BFUs can be used to refill expended Indian pumps.
ANSWER: C) Firefighting teams operating with Indian pumps and brooms may operate in front of the fire if the wind has diminished. (INCORRECT)
- DO NOT OPERATE IFO FIRE with Indian pumps and brooms.
- AVOID operating in front of the fire. If necessary to operate IFO fire (only to protect life) Need SUFFICIENT CHARGED LINES.
(AUC 151 5.7.2)
While discussing safety at brush fire operations, Captain Jackson made several statements. Which one was correct?
A) All operating members shall wear proper PPE including helmet with chinstrap, except in periods of hot weather.
B) If necessary to cross a creek, use department ladders.
C) Make shift bridges can be used to cross creeks if they are tested first before a member places their full weight on it.
D) In cold weather in marshland areas, step into the footsteps of members walking ahead of you to move quicker and easier.
ANSWER: B) If necessary to cross a creek, use department ladders.
A - All operating members shall wear proper PPE including helmet with chinstrap PERIOD.
C - DO NOT USE MAKESHIFT BRIDGES
D - DO NOT step into footholes in cold weather. If the hard surface is broken by the previous members step, the next step in that area may result in sinking deeper into the mud.
(AUC 151 5.11.7)
Upon arrival at a brush fire, the 1st arriving Officer should Immediately request additional resources if necessary. Other tactics that shall be taken can be found in all but which choice?
A) Units operating remotely and completing an assignment are not to go 10-8. They shall Advise the IC and await additional orders.
B) Attack The Fire from the flanks and attempt to narrow its spread. Extinguish the perimeter from the flanks first, and then move to interior burning areas.
C) Streams should be directed at the burning brush, not at the flames burning above the brush.
D) Fire burning on hillsides will burn rapidly down the hill. Have units positioned in streets at the top of the hill to attack the fire and work downward.
ANSWER: D) Fire burning on hillsides will burn rapidly down the hill. Have units positioned in streets at the top of the hill to attack the fire and work downward. (INCORRECT)
- Fires on hills will burn rapidly UPHILL
- Position units ON TOP OF THE HILL TO PROTECT EXPOSURES but attack the fire from the BOTTOM OF THE HILL AND WORK UPWARD.
(AUC 151 5.4.16)
The Buckeye Pipeline is compromised of two steel pipes that carry gasoline in one pipe and kerosene base aviation fuel in the other pipe. When units are assigned to shut manual valves to isolate sections of the pipeline (other than the Shipper’s line from the LIC terminal), they would be most correct to think that the long wrench with the square female fitting is inserted into the valve box onto a male square fitting and turned __________?
A) 24 full turns
B) 42 half turns
C) 48 full turns
D) 84 half turns
ANSWER: D) 84 half turns
(AUC 149)
- 84 half turns/42 full turns (Buckeye Pipeline)
- 24 full turns (Shippers Line)
Regarding FDNY response and tactics at Pipeline incidents, it would be correct to state which choice below?
A) An Engine out of quarters receiving notification to respond to a 2nd alarm for a pipeline leak should return to quarters to pick up the additional cans of foam only if nearby.
B) Manual valves should always be closed as per duties required by Instruction Cards, except in serious situations where a unit is required to protect life or property.
C) Patrols by units may be on foot or by apparatus. Foot patrols are to be conducted by two HT equipped FF’s.
D) If a unit is required to both close a manual valve and patrol to an adjacent valve, they must first close the valve, then perform their patrol duties.
E) A unit performing isolation duties should indicate that they are 10-84 on their apparatus MDT when they reach a valve location, then inform the dispatcher by apparatus radio of valve closure and patrol duty completion.
ANSWER: C) Patrols by units may be on foot or by apparatus. Foot patrols are to be conducted by two HT equipped FF’s.
(AUC 149 4.12)
A - MUST NOT RETURN TO QUARTERS to pick up foam
B - To protect LIFE ONLY not property
D - Perform these duties SIMULTANEOUSLY
E - Everything at pipeline incidents is announced over the department radio. Unit will announce they are 10-84 on the department radio NOT THE MDT.
Department apparatus should be brought no closer than _____ feet to a leak in the Buckeye Pipeline, and the IC must position flag persons at least _______ feet on each side of an incident adjacent to railroad tracks?
A) 600, 800
B) 600, 1000
C) 800, 1000
D) 1000, 600
ANSWER: B) 600, 1000
AUC 149 6.5.7
Units responding to an alarm for a Buckeye Pipeline incident would know which choice below to be incorrect?
A) Unless otherwise instructed, Chiefs should respond to a rendezvous location until the leak is located and a command post established.
B) Upon confirmation of a confirmed leak, transmit a 2nd alarm. If ignition occurs, additional alarms must be transmitted.
C) Once the leak location is identified, the location, an estimate of the amount of product in the street, the topography and exposures should be included in the preliminary report to the dispatcher.
D) Manually closed valves should never be re-opened before the fire or emergency is over.
E) Re-opening a valve may actually decrease the amount of a fuel spill. this may only be done after an evaluation.
ANSWER: D) Manually closed valves should never be re-opened before the fire or emergency is over. (INCORRECT)
(AUC 149 6.2.3)
- Manually closed valves are to be re-opened only by personnel of the Buckeye Pipeline Company when the fire or emergency is over, when directed to do so by the Incident Commander, or to locate the leak upon direction of the Incident Commander.
Units arrive at the scene of a 2nd alarm transmitted for a Buckeye Pipeline leak and find a large spill of unignited gasoline near a manual valve location due to an accident by construction workers. There is a strong wind blowing from North to South. Which action below would be incorrect for them to consider in this situation?
A) The primary consideration is for the evacuation of the area involved.
B) The spilled fuel should be covered with foam.
C) Ignition sources to the south of the spill should be extinguished first.
D) If ignition occurs with trapped workers, a solid hose stream held horizontally a few feet above ground and moved rapidly from side to side will wash burning gasoline aside to provide a oath for rescue.
ANSWER: D) If ignition occurs with trapped workers, a solid hose stream held horizontally a few feet above ground and moved rapidly from side to side will wash burning gasoline aside to provide a path for rescue. (Incorrect)
(AUC 149 6.5.2)
- Hose stream is held a FEW INCHES above ground
Manual valves at the Buckeye Pipeline may be actually operated (turned, closed) only during which type of drills?
A) Familiarization Drills
B) Division or Borough Drills
C) Division Drills
ANSWER: D) Borough Drills
AUC 149 10.4.7
When shall requisitions for needed winter operation supplies at the company level commence?
A) July 1st
B) July 31st
C) August 1st
D) October 1st
ANSWER: A) July 1st
AUC 200, 3.7
When sub-freezing weather occurs (25 degrees of below for a 24 hour period) a lieutenant should cause the inspection of which type of hydrant listed below?
A) Hydrants having defective drainage assemblies previously reported and repaired.
B) Hydrants at construction and demolition sites
C) Hydrants used within the past 72 hours
D) Hydrants with unplugged drains
ANSWER: B) Hydrants at construction and demolition sites
A - Hydrants having defective drainage assemblies previously reported, BUT NOT YET REPAIRED.
C - Hydrant used in the past TWENTY FOUR (24) HRS.
D - Hydrants with PLUGGED DRAINS
- Also Hydrants where experience has shown ground water to be a problem and Long Island pipeline valve pits subject to freezing.
(AUC 200 4.6)
Your ladder company has just arrived to a report of smoke in a subway. As you enter the station, the BC orders you to turn your radio to the primary handie talkie subway repeater channel. You would be correct to turn your radio to which channel?
A) 11
B) 12
C) 14
D) 15
ANSWER: C) 14
AUC 207, Add 16, 4.4
The possibility of a delay in communications from a “light train” must be anticipated. Therefore, progress reports from the “light train” must be transmitted as soon as possible, but at least every _____ minutes.
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
ANSWER: C) 15
AUC 207, Add 7, 2.5
Ladder 500 has been directed by the Chief in charge of a subway operation to board a “light train” and investigate an odor of smoke inside a subway tunnel. After boarding the “light train” the officer must confirm that a communications link is established. The officer of Ladder 500 should know that which one of the following choices is correct?
A) The Train Operator’s radio is the primary means of communication, and it will operate from any Train Operator’s compartment in any subway car.
B) The Train Operator’s radio is the primary means of communication, and it will operate only from the Train Operator’s compartment in the front subway car.
C) The Train Conductor’s radio is the primary means of communication, and it will operate from any Train Operator’s compartment in any subway car.
D) The Train Conductor’s radio is the primary means of communication, and it will operate only from the Train Operator’s compartment in the front subway car.
ANSWER: A) The Train Operator’s radio is the primary means of communication, and it will operate from any Train Operator’s compartment in any subway car.
(AUC 207, Add 7, 2.2.1)
At 0450 hours on Monday morning, a company officer is notified by a member that he was just arrested for DWI. In this situation, the officer should notify?
A) The IG by phone during business hours
B) The IG immediately, by calling FDOC and requesting the IGson call
supervisor.
C) BITS during business hours
D) BITS immediately by calling FDOC
ANSWER: D) BITS immediately by calling FDOC.
(AUC 268, 3)
“AABBCCDD” = DIRECT notification to BITS
AA - Arrest / Alcohol
BB - Boxing with Brothers
CC - Confrontation with civilian / Confrontation with another Govt. Agency
DD - Drugs / Dangerous driving
You are the Engine Company Officer who has arrived first due at a serious brush fire on a windy day. You would be most correct to consider which tactic below?
A) For the initial attack, hooking up to a hydrant is a prime consideration.
B) Wetting unburned areas ahead of the fire is generally ineffective.
C) Any fire on a hillside will burn rapidly up the hill and must be attacked from the bottom of the hill working upward.
D) Streams should be directed at the burning flames above the brush
ANSWER: C) Any fire on a hillside will burn rapidly up the hill and must be attacked from the bottom of the hill working upward.
(AUC 151, 5.4.16)
A - Initial operations based on MOBILITY. Avoid hooking up to a hydrant except to protect exposures.
B - Wetting unburned areas ahead of the fire is EFFECTIVE.
C - Correct, fire burns rapidly uphill, position members on top of hill to protect exposures but extinguish fire from the bottom of the hill working upward.
D - Streams should be directed AT THE BURNING BRUSH, not the flames above.
Lt. Harris is working in Engine 99, when his unit responds to a manhole emergency. Once 10-84 he has no fire or smoke condition, but the manhole is randomly making a loud popping noise. Engine 99 is the only unit on scene and would be correct to give which code?
A) 10-25 No Code
B) 10-25 Code 1
C) 10-25 Code 2
D) 10-25 Code 3
ANSWER: A) 10-25 No Code
10-25 No Code - Situation other than 1-4
10-25 Code 1 - Fire from street to building (2 places)
10-25 Code 2 - Smoke under pressure
10-25 Code 3 - Smoke seeping
!0-25 Code 4 - Transformer
(AUC 180 1.1)
