SAFETY BULLETINS Flashcards
There are three injury classifications determined by the Medical Officer in consultation with the company Officer and injured member. Which one is described incorrectly?
A) Service connected medical leave is granted by the on duty Medical Officer for an injury, including the tour the member was working when the injury occurred, and subsequent tours.
B) Remainder of the tour is designated as medical leave.
C) A first degree burn may be classified as a minor injury.
D) Chest pains shall not be classified as minor injuries.
ANSWER: B) Remainder of the tour is designated as medical leave. (INCORRECT)
- Remainder of the tour is an EXCUSED ABSCENCE.
- This has since changed, there is NO REMAINDER OF THE TOUR ANYMORE.
(SB 7 section 2.1.1)
The Medical Officer must be notified via FDOC in all but which of the following choices?
A) After operating at a brush fire, a member suffers from mild conjunctivitis upon return to quarters.
B) The FE FF, while extricating the driver from the vehicle at a MVA, was exposed to the driver’s blood on unprotected skin. The FE FF does not have any symptoms of exposure.
C) While operating at an incident for a unknown odor, the FE FF was exposed to fumes from a “bug bomb”. The FF does not have any symptoms of the exposure.
D) The Backup FF informs you that he thinks he has food poisoning from dinner and is unable to continue on duty.
ANSWER: C) While operating at an incident for a unknown odor, the FE FF was exposed to fumes from a “bug bomb”. The FF does not have any symptoms of the exposure. (INCORRECT)
- For a non-biological exposure only notify the Medical Officer if the member HAS SYMPTOMS.
- Biological exposure notify MO WITH OR WITHOUT SYMPTOMS.
(SB 7 section 3.6)
According to Safety Bulletin 7, the Officer performed their duties improperly in which choice?
A) Upon return to quarters where the OV FF broke his arm when struck by the fire escape drop ladder, Lieutenant Smith initiated an Injury Report in CIRS. Lieutenant Smith entered the 16 digit FDID number found on the lower left side of the response ticket.
B) Lt. James entered all 9’s in the 16 digit space when initiating an Injury Report in CIRS for a member that sprained their knee at MUD.
C) Capt. Charles did not record anything in CIRS when a member was unable to continue on duty due to suffering the flu.
D) Lt. Green prepared an Injury Report and Exposure Report for FF Jones, who suffered from a severe rash after operating at a CFRD run.
E) Capt. Red prepared only an Exposure Report for FF Harris, who had minor swelling due to an allergic reaction after coming into contact with Hi-expansion foam.
ANSWER: E) Capt. Red prepared only an Exposure Report for FF Harris, who had minor swelling due to an allergic reaction after coming into contact with Hi-expansion foam. (INCORRECT)
- For non-biological exposure with symptoms completely an INJURY AND EXPOSURE REPORT.
(SB 7 section 3.7)
All available injury/exposure information must be initiated and submitted no later than ________ from the date on the injury/exposure with or without the member’s signature and/or narrative. Biological exposures must be entered into CIRS _______.
A) 7 days / Immediately
B) Immediately / 7 days
C) 7 days / 7 days
D) Immediately / Immediately
ANSWER: A) 7 days / Immediately
SB 7 section 4.1
Upon returning from vacation leave, Capt. Andrews is notified that an Injury Report was not initiated and submitted for one of his firefighter’s, who was injured two weeks ago. After completing a CIRS-1 Report, found in the Intranet, who should Capt. Andrews forward the CIRS-1 report to through the chain of command?
A) Chief off Operations
B) Chief of Safety
C) Chief Medical Officer
D) Chief of Department
ANSWER: B) Chief of Safety
SB 7 section 4.1
Properly recording member’s injuries and exposures is a very important duty that all Officer’s should be familiar with. Choose the correct choice concerning this duty.
A) If the injured/exposed member is available for interview, the Supervisor shall enter the member’s narrative and select “Yes, read as ACCURATE”.
B) If the injured/exposed member is not available, the Supervisor shall wait until the member is available to initiate an injury/exposure report.
C) The Supervisor shall print two copies of the injury/exposure report, unless the member is a detail, in which case only one copy is printed.
D) All injuries in quarters require the Officer on duty to notify the Bureau of Safety.
E) Supervisors May submit group reporting for biological or non-biological exposures of member’s when they exhibit symptoms of the exposure.
ANSWER: A) If the injured/exposed member is available for interview, the Supervisor shall enter the member’s narrative and select “Yes, read as ACCURATE”.
B - Supervisor shall INITIATE THE REPORT if member is not available.
C - Print 2 copies / 1 goes in Uniformed Filing System / 1 in member’s personnel folder / Print 2 EVEN IF MEMBER IS DETAILED for the tour.
D - Injuries in quarters require ADMIN BC notification.
E - May submit group reporting for IDENTICAL NON-BIOLOGICAL EXPOSURES WHO DO NOT EXHIBIT SYMPTOMS.
(SB 7 section 3.8)
A Multiple Member Injury Report is required under certain circumstances. Which choice only contains correct points concerning this report?
- It is required when 2 or more members working in the same unit suffer injuries at the same incident resulting in medical leave or remainder of the tour.
- The Officer working the tour when the injuries occurred is responsible for the report.
- If the officer responsible for the report is on leave, he shall prepare the report as soon as possible upon return to work.
- If the Officer responsible for the report is on leave that extends for more than 30 days, an Officer assigned to the same Division shall complete the report.
- When the report is completed, the Company Commander shall review the report and add meaningful comments and suggestions.
- Company Commanders shall forward the report via the chain of command to the Chief of Safety.
- If the unit is without a regularly assigned Company Commander, the Battalion Commander shall designate an Officer to perform endorsing duties.
A) 1,3,4,6,7 B) 2,3,5,7 C) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7 D) 2,4,5,6
ANSWER: B) 2,3,5,7 (1,4,6 are incorrect)
1 - Multiple member report required when THREE (3) or more members working in the same unit, suffer injuries at the same incident resulting in MEDICAL LEAVE THAT TOUR.
4 - A REGULARLY ASSIGNED OFFICER shall complete report.
6 - Forward report via chain of command to CHIEF OF OPERATIONS.
(SB 7 Add 2 section 1.2)
Safety Bulletin 56 sets forth the guidelines for reporting motor vehicle collisions and/or incidents involving FDNY apparatus. Choose an incorrect statement regarding this policy.
A) An Apparatus Collision Report (CD-19) and an Apparatus Collision Investigation Report (CD-19A) shall be forwarded to the Safety Command for all Fire Department Collisions and Incidents.
B) Whenever the driver or operator of an FDNY apparatus is involved in a major collision, he shall be tested for the presence of illegal drugs and/or alcohol.
C) If two (or more) FDNY apparatus collide, the ranking officer (BC or higher) on scene will determine which unit or units will be required to complete an apparatus collision report.
D) When an individual alleges that the Department is responsible for a collision or incident, the individual should be informed that they may file a notice of claim by calling the Comptroller’s Office or visiting their website.
ANSWER: C) If two (or more) FDNY apparatus collide, the ranking officer (BC or higher) on scene will determine which unit or units will be required to complete an apparatus collision report. (INCORRECT)
- EACH UNIT is required to complete a report (2 reports)
(SB 56 3.3)
Two new Lieutenants are discussing the difference between an Apparatus Collision and an Incident. Which choice below would not be considered an Incident?
A) A properly parked apparatus that was struck in the rear by a bicyclist.
B) Damage to an apparatus that was properly parked when struck by a falling tree branch.
C) Damage to a civilian vehicle caused by a TL outrigger operating at an all hands fire.
D) Damage to an apparatus that had a fire in the engine block.
B)
ANSWER: A) A properly parked apparatus that was struck in the rear by a bicyclist. (INCORRECT)
- This is a COLLISION (Anytime an apparatus strikes or is struck by a vehicle, pedestrian or bicyclist, or strikes a fixed object)
Incidents:
- Apparatus Fire
- Damage to Apparatus by unusual occurrence (tree limb etc.)
- Damage discovered during a routine inspection.
- Damage to a civilian vehicle caused by a properly parked apparatus operating at alarms (TL outrigger damages parked car) MUD and inspection activities.
- Damage caused by vandalism
- A properly parked apparatus struck by another apparatus.
- Allegation that FDNY vehicle caused damage to a civilian vehicle or property.
(SB 56 4.2)
Upon being involved in an Apparatus Collision/incident, the FDNY Officers and member’s must realize that their primary initial obligation is to?
A) Provide ore hospital care to any injured members and/or civilians.
B) Request additional units to the scene.
C) Provide a preliminary report to the dispatcher.
D) Prevent the collision from increasing in magnitude.
ANSWER: D) Prevent the collision from increasing in magnitude.
(SB 56 5.2.1)
Who will make the determination if a collision is a Major Collision?
A) The Officer of the unit involved
B) The on scene ranking member of the NYPD.
C) The Battalion Chief on scene.
D) The administrative Deputy Chief when reviewing the Apparatus Collision Report.
ANSWER: C) The Battalion Chief on scene.
SB 56 6.5.2
Lt. Smash and his Engine Company were involved in a collision while responding to a phone alarm. Which choice is correct regarding the completing and forwarding of the Apparatus Collision Report and MV-104?
A) Lt. Smash shall forward the Apparatus Collision Report within 10 days of the Apparatus collision.
B) A Collision Packet shall be completed and forwarded through the chain of command. This packet should include the CD-19, a copy of the MV-104 (if required), a copy of the police report (when required) and a copy of the ECC’s driver’s license.
C) If required, the MV-104 must be sent to the Safety Command-Collision recording unit within 96 hours, and to the NYS DMV within 10 days.
D) The Officer of the vehicle involved is responsible for completing both the Apparatus Collision Report and the MV-104.
ANSWER: C) If required, the MV-104 must be sent to the Safety Command-Collision recording unit within 96 hours, and to the NYS DMV within 10 days.
A - CD-19 (Apparatus Collision Report) sent within 96 HOURS.
B - Collision Packet is 2 COPIES OF EACH (2 CD-19s, 2 copies of MV-104’s when required, 2 copies of police report when required) ECC/LCC DRIVERS LICENSE NO LONGER REQUIRED (recent change)
D - CD-19 and MV-104 is the responsibility of VEHICLE OPERATOR.
How many of the following collisions/incidents would require a completion of an MV-104?
- A collision that resulted in the death of a civilian.
- A collision that resulted in a minor injury to one on duty member.
- A collision that resulted in approximately $600 worth of damage to a civilian.
- A collision in which a dollar amount of damage cannot be estimated.
A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 1
ANSWER: B) 3 (number 3 is incorrect)
MV-104 required for:
- A collision resulting in DEATH
- A collision resulting in PERSONAL INJURY
- A collision where damage OVER $1000 to property of any ONE person
- A collision where dollar amount CANNOT BE ESTIMATED.
(SB 56 12.1)
Ladder 700, while responding to a phone alarm, is involved in a major collision with a tractor trailer on a busy street with moderately fast moving traffic. The officer decides the vehicles must be moved to prevent any further potential for another collision. The Officer would be correct to mark the vehicles in which manner prior to moving them?
A) Mark the four corners of the Ladder apparatus, the six corners of the tractor trailer and the location of all tires of both vehicles. If double wheeled tires are present mark only the outside tires.
B) Mark the four corners of the Ladder Apparatus, the six corners of the tractor trailer and the location of all tires of both vehicles. If double wheeled tires are present mark all of the tires.
C) Mark the four corners of the Ladder Apparatus, the four corners of the trailer section of the tractor trailer and the location of all tires of both vehicles. If double wheeled tires are present mark only the outside tires.
D) Mark the four corners of the Ladder Apparatus, the four corners of the trailer section of the tractor trailer and the location of all tires of both vehicles. If double wheeled tires are present mark all of the tires.
ANSWER: A) Mark the four corners of the Ladder apparatus, the six corners of the tractor trailer and the location of all tires of both vehicles. If double wheeled tires are present mark only the outside tires.
- Major collisions = DO NOT MOVE RIGS unless absolutely necessary
(SB 56 9.2)
Which one of the following would not automatically be considered a preventable collision?
A) An Engine on BISP strikes a car directly opposite a double parked car.
B) An Engine responding 3rd due to a gas leak in the 10-20 mode strikes a double parked car.
C) A Ladder Apparatus returning from a response strikes quarters when backing in.
D) A Ladder Apparatus responding 1st due to a gas leak in the emergency mode strikes a double parked car.
ANSWER: D) A Ladder Apparatus responding 1st due to a gas leak in the emergency mode strikes a double parked car.
Preventable Collisions:
- Striking vehicle trying to go around a double parked cars in NON EMERGENCY MODE
- Striking quarters while backing in (should have guide people)
- Fall from moving apparatus
- Operating tractor trailer with no one operating the tiller.
- Collisions caused by failure to check wheels.
(SB 56 Addendum 4)
An Apparatus Collision Report (CD-19) shall be forwarded within __________ of the apparatus collision.
A) 96 hours
B) 24 hours
C) 10 days
D) 7 days
ANSWER: A) 96 hours
SB 56 10.1
If required, the MV-104 must be sent to the Safety Command Collision Recording Unit within _________ and to the NYS DMV within ___________.
A) 10 days / 96 hours
B) 96 hours / 10 days
C) 7 days / 24 hours
D) 24 hours / 7 days
ANSWER: B) 96 hours / 10 days
MV-104 “10-4”
10 days - DMV
4 days (96 hours) - Safety Command Collision Unit
(SB 56 10.2)
To establish a method of systematic, safe and orderly evacuation when required, all firehouses should have an “emergency action plan”. Of the following choices, which is incorrect when the plan is put into effect?
A) Members are to be alerted by any available means, such as verbal alarm, “still” alarm, bell, or intercom. Lights are to be turned on and normal turnout/evacuation procedures followed.
B) All members are to report to the apparatus/ground floor via the normal egress route(s).
C) The Officer/Supervisor on duty shall ascertain that all personnel are accounted for and moved to a safe location outside. Apparatus should always be left inside company quarters; do not take time to move apparatus outside.
D) The Officer/Supervisor on duty shall direct the housewatch or designated employee to notify the dispatcher of a fire or emergency via telephone, voice alarm or street box.
ANSWER: C) The Officer/Supervisor on duty shall ascertain that all personnel are accounted for and moved to a safe location outside. Apparatus should always be left inside company quarters; do not take time to move apparatus outside. (INCORRECT)
- IF SAFETY PERMITS move the apparatus outdoors.
(SB 61 - 4,1)
The Officer/Supervisor on duty within each firehouse shall review the individual plan with personnel at each of the following times except when?
A) Initially, when the plan is developed
B) Whenever the plan is changed
C) When new personnel are assigned
D) Semi-annually, on February 1st and August 1st each year
ANSWER: D) Semi-annually, on February 1st and August 1st each year (INCORRECT)
- QUARTERLY (1st week of “JAJO”)
- January / April / July / October
“Its Called Not Quitting”
I - Initially
C - Changes
N - New personnel
Q - Quarterly
(SB 61 - 7)
Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding the design and dangers of buildings under construction which use wood forms to support poured conrete?
A) The method of forming the poured concrete floors consists of 5/8” or 3/4” plywood helf in place by 4” x 4” wood studs. One shoring stud is placed every 4 feet on center extending from the floor to the underside of the plywood form above.
B) It is required that every floor that has been stripped of its supporting plywood forms and is in its curing stage be reshored. This consists of one 4” x 4” stud placed every 8 feet apart and will usually be found on at least 4 floors below the most recently poured floor.
C) A heavy fire load is created by the storage of sheets of plywood and wood studs previously stripped from a cured floor. This lumber usually found stored on the floor two levels below the most recently poured floor.
D) If a fire involved the plywood forms and supporting studs of a recently poured floor, structural damage could occur (i.e. spalling, cracks, sag, partial or complete failure). The key to a safe operation is in the knowledge of the curing time.
ANSWER: B) It is required that every floor that has been stripped of its supporting plywood forms and is in its curing stage be reshored. This consists of one 4” x 4” stud placed every 8 feet apart and will usually be found on at least 4 floors below the most recently poured floor. (INCORRECT)
- Reshoring = One 4” x 4” stud placed every 8 feet apart and will usually be found on at least EIGHT (8) FLOORS below the most recently poured floor.
(SB 66)
In order to evaluate how structurally sound the most recently poured floor is if its supporting forms and shoring are weakened or consumed by fire, one must know when the concrete was poured. Which individual below would not have this information?
A) Construction site security guard
B) Construction engineer
C) Building superintendent
D) Concrete foreman
ANSWER: A) Construction site security guard
SB 66
Which of the following choices is not in accordance with the Department’s seatbelt policy?
A) There exists a mandatory seatbelt policy for all Department members.
B) Members shall use extreme caution while donning their PPC during a response while the apparatus is in motion.
C) The seatbelt shall not be removed until the apparatus comes to a complete stop.
D) The ultimate responsibility for seatbelt use lies with each person riding in the vehicle. The enforcement of the seatbelt policy is the responsibility of Chief and Company Officers.
ANSWER: B) Members shall use extreme caution while donning their PPC during a response while the apparatus is in motion.
- This is an UNSAFE ACT
- Don PPC PRIOR TO getting on the apparatus
(SB 67 1.3)
To ensure seatbelts are in proper working order, every seatbelt on Department vehicles should be inspected how often?
A) Each tour
B) Daily
C) Weekly
D) Monthly
ANSWER: A) Each tour
SB 67 3.1.2
Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding safety during response on NYC Streets?
A) A “speed hump” is a raised portion of the street surface (3-4”) that is slightly longer than an average automobile and spans the width of the street.
B) A “speed bump” is generally 3-6” high, 12” wide, and no longer legal on city streets.
C) Advisory speeds must be adhered to at all times when traversing over speed humps, even during emergency response.
D) When signs denoting speed humps are found to be missing, a report shall be forwarded to the Public Transportation Unit (PSU)
ANSWER: D) When signs denoting speed humps are found to be missing, a report shall be forwarded to the Public Transportation Unit (PSU) (INCORRECT)
- Forward to CITY PLANNING BUREAU OF OPERATIONS
(SB 76 1)
DOT signs and marking will be present on and around designated speed humps. Which sign/marking is described incorrectly?
A) Each concrete reducer (speed hump) will be stripped according to the “receding lines” design.
B) Each asphalt reducer (speed hump) will be stripped according to the “chevron” design.
C) In addition to “lift plow” signs, there will be at least one yellow diamond “bump ahead” sign and at least one yelloe diamond “bump” sign and a speed advisory plate.
D) Typically the advised speed will be 15 mph for a 3” reducer (speed hump) and 20 mph for a 4” reducer.
ANSWER: D) Typically the advised speed will be 15 mph for a 3” reducer (speed hump) and 20 mph for a 4” reducer. (INCORRECT)
- Both numbers multiply to equal 60
- 15 mph for 4” (15 x 4 = 60)
- 20 for a 3” ( 20 x 3 = 60)
(SB 76 2)
Ladder 165 is designated as the FAST unit responding on the 2nd floor of a 2 1/2 story peaked roof PD. While responding the dispatcher informs you that there are window bars on the 1st & 2nd floors. What is the most correct procedure below?
A) The FAST Officer is responsible to bring the PAK Tracker and leave it at the command post.
B) The Officer of the FAST Unit had members remove window bars from the 1st & 2nd floors.
C) The Officer of the FAST unit had members remove window bars from the 2nd floor only.
D) Once 10-84, the FAST Unit officer picks the member to monitor EFAS in the first arriving Battalion vehicle.
ANSWER: C) The Officer of the FAST unit had members remove window bars from the 2nd floor only.
A - Member of FAST team brings PAK Tracker
B - The unit assigned to remove the window bars should ensure at least one window on the FIRE FLOOR AND FLOOR ABOVE is cleared of bars, with a portable ladder, aerial ladder or tower ladder placed to the window.
D - Member who brings tool should be assigned at roll call
(SB 84 4.8)
As a company officer you would know that the location of window bars will vary. It is not uncommon to find these installations on all floors and all sides of the building. From the choices below, pick the incorrect statement made by the Officer.
A) Upon arrival the officer gives a 10-75 for a fire on the 1st floor of a peaked roof PD with window bars. She should include a brief description of the type of building involved and must state the exact location of the window bars.
B) An additional Engine & Ladder shall be special called. The special called ladder shall be a TL, if one is not assigned on the 1st alarm assignment.
C) Since a civilian on scene gave the exact location of a person trapped on the 2nd floor, the Officer ensured the response of a rescue company.
D) The special called ladder company can be directed to operate as a unit and remove window bars.
ANSWER: A) Upon arrival the officer gives a 10-75 for a fire on the 1st floor of a peaked roof PD with window bars. She should include a brief description of the type of building involved and must state the exact location of the window bars. (INCORRECT)
- The unit transmitting the 10-75 for a fire in a building with window bars should include a brief description of the type of building involved and STATE THE PRESENCE OF WINDOW BARS (not location of window bars)
(SB 84 4.1)
Engine Company 283 arrives at the scene of a fire on the 3rd floor of a 5 story OLT. You hear transmissions from the OV telling his Officer there are window bars on exposure 3 & 4 side, on the fire floor and the two floors above. At this time, the Roof FF gives an “Urgent” for a fire that is severely extending into exposure 2 via an enclosed shaft. What is the incorrect procedure below?
A) The 1st line must employ an aggressive interior attack to control the fire and protect the interior stairs.
B) The 2nd line stretched should back up the 1st line. If not needed it shall then go to exposure 2.
C) An Engine on scene or a special called Engine could provide an exterior hoseline to protect civilians or members trapped inside a building behind window bars or membersw removing window bars.
D) A TL basket is placed to the side windows presents the best platform to work from.
ANSWER: B) The 2nd line stretched should back up the 1st line. If not needed it shall then go to exposure 2. (INCORRECT)
- Should go to FLOOR ABOVE.
(SB 84 4.5)
Gypsum plank and concrete decking is of lightweight construction whihc spans large wide spaces. From the following choices, choose the correct point regarding FDNY operations at buildings with gypsum roof systems.
A) The main drawback, from a firefighting operational standpoint is that this type of construction is extremely vulnerable to fire causing a deterioration of the system.
B) Gypsum decking along with truss construction, is conducive to an early collapse under fire conditions. Members shall be limited to roof operations such as opening skylights, scuttles and bulkheads.
C) Interior firefighting operations are not affected by the roofing material. Hoselines should be advanced as close as possible to extinguish the fire.
D) The Roof FF while cutting the roof encounters a white powdery residue during saw operations. Upon this observation, the member notifies the IC with a URGENT-COLLAPSE FEARED message and proceeds to evacuate the roof.
ANSWER: D) The Roof FF while cutting the roof encounters a white powdery residue during saw operations. Upon this observation, the member notifies the IC with a URGENT-COLLAPSE FEARED message and proceeds to evacuate the roof.
A - The main drawback, from a firefighting operational stand point, is that this type of construction is extremely vulnerable to MOISTURE causing a deterioration of the
system.
B - Members SHALL NOT BE COMMITTED to roof operations when this type of roof construction is found.
C - Interior firefighting operations shall be conducted from AREAS OF SAFETY due to the weight of such decking materials (gypsum plank - 135 lbs. each, gypsum concrete - 17.5 lbs. per sq. foot). Hose streams should be operated WELL IN ADVANCE ON MEMBERS.
(SB 85 3.3)
The summer season presents days of high temperatures and high humidity that can create a physically stressful environment for firefighters conducting firefighting operations. From the choices below, which is the incorrect statement?
A) Members should remove their helmets and coats, and open the front flap of their pants as soon as operations safely permit to remove pent up heat and humidity within the Bunker Gear.
B) Members should drink cold water or diluted “replacement” beverages 20 oz. initially and 6-8 oz. every 15 minutes thereafter. Avoid concentrated “sports” drinks and hot drinks.
C) Members should seek cool, shady areas. Casually moving about will enhance rehydration due to increased blood circulation. No member should be alone during any phase of the recuperation process; maintain the buddy system for the duration of R & R.
D) Heat stroke can result in heat cramps, heat exhaustion and heat stress, the last of which is deemed a “true” medical emergency.
ANSWER: D) Heat stroke can result in heat cramps, heat exhaustion and heat stress, the last of which is deemed a “true” medical emergency. (INCORRECT)
- HEAT STRESS illnesses can result in heat cramps, heat exhaustion and HEAT STROKE, the last of which is termed a “true” medical emergency.
(SB 87 1.1)
Department policy requires all members to wear high visibility safety vests when operating on all highways at all times, day or night. This includes, but is not limited to, incidents such as vehicle collisions, extrications, fluid spills, dangerous conditions, vehicle fires and at any operation that the IC deems necessary. Which choice below is correct regarding the safety vest policy at a highway incident?
A) All members operating on a highway with donned bunker gear are exempted from wearing safety vests.
B) Members of a rescue company are operating on an elevated highway with donned technical rescue PPE for a technical rescue incidents. All operating members in the immediate vicinity of the incident must still wear their safety vests.
C) Members operating with donned hazardous material personal protective equipment to mitigate the incident are exempted from wearing safety vests at highway incidents.
D) All memers must wear their safety vests at all highway incidents, with no exemptions.
ANSWER: C) Members operating with donned hazardous material personal protective equipment to mitigate the incident are exempted from wearing safety vests at highway incidents.
- Exemptions from wearing high visibility safety vests are for members directly involved and in the immediate vicinity of FIREFIGHTING, HAZARDOUS MATERIALS MITIGATION, or TECHNICAL RESCUE. Some examples include:
Members operating with donned bunker gear and SCBA working in close proximity to a source of heat during fire suppression.
Members operating with donned hazardous material personal protectiveequipment.
Members operating with donned technical rescue PPE and/or equipment for a technical rescue incident.
(SB 88 2.1.1)
Which of the following statements about high visibility safety vests is incorrect?
A) Vests shall only be donned prior to leaving the apparatus.
B) Vests shall be stored on the apparatus in an area that is clean, dr, well ventilated and free of potential contaminants; preferably the crew cab for ease of donning and safety considerations.
C) To repair or replace a damaged vest, forward the vest with an RT-2 to the Quartermaster.
D) Vests shall be inspected after each use and during semi-annual inspection.
ANSWER: A) Vests shall only be donned prior to leaving the apparatus. (INCORRECT)
- Vests shall be donned prior to leaving the apparatus OR in an AREA THAT IS BLOCKED by an apparatus and protected from vehicular traffic.
(SB 88 4.1)
You are a Lt. who has just arrived at a possible active shooter situation with a serious fire in a stadium during a country western concert. Upon arrival at this scene, you were correct when you had which thought?
A) Do not rush into these incidents. Conduct a 360 degree survey and question law enforcement personnel is weapons are known or suspected.
B) If it is determined that firearms could be used against members, remind them to seek concealment over hard cover.
C) Alert on scene or incoming units via a mixer off message of an active shooter.
D) If people are seriously injured and/or in need of immediate assistance in the hot zone, rescue may be attempted within the boundaries of safety.
ANSWER: A) Do not rush into these incidents. Conduct a 360 degree survey and question law enforcement personnel is weapons are known or suspected.
B - Cover is not the same as concealment. Cover is any material that can reasonably be expected to stop the travel of a bullet fired from small arms. Concealment simply conceals an individual from view. Remain behind hard cover AND out of the line-of-sight
C - Since the alert over the Department Radio is critical to all incoming units; the member transmitting SHALL NOT request a “Mixer off”.
D - Collaborate with NYPD on possible Warm/Cold Zone exposure protection and emergency medical needs.
(SB 89 2.3)
The Pass-It-On program is an important component of safety, utilized by the IC where he deems it appropriate where lessons learned or reinforced may be beneficial to all. In regard to this program, it would be incorrect to state?
A) The IC may be the rank of Lt. or above
B) The information should be faxed to the Bureau of Operations by the IC or their designee within 24 hours of the operation. A copy shall be forwarded through the chain of command to the administrative Division.
C) When a field unit received a new Pass-It-On poster, they shall place one poster in a location where the field unit holds its company drills, and another shall be filed in a binder in the company office.
D) Posters shall remain in place for 30 days and then disposed of.
ANSWER: D) Posters shall remain in place for 30 days and then disposed of. (INCORRECT)
- Not removed until REPLACED BY A SUBSEQUENT ISSUE
(SB 90 1)
Members from a Queens ladder company have just returned from a particularly difficult auto extrication. One mmeber believes that the operation could have had injurious results and decides this event should be recorded in the FDNY Near Miss Reporting System. He has asked you, a sharp Fire Tech student how to go aboout this. You were incorrect in which answer?
A) The submission of a Near Miss is anonymous and will not be tracked back to the member.
B) Members of all ranks may participate in this program.
C) Proper endorsements through the chain of command are required.
D) Near Miss submissions may be filed online through the FDNY Webpage or through the bag.
ANSWER: C) Proper endorsements through the chain of command are required. (INCORRECT)
- Submitted electronically through the FDNY Intranet page
- Rather than submitting this form through the webpage, another option is for members to download the form from the FDNY Intranet and send it through the bag, NO ENDORSEMENTS REQUIRED, to the Chief of Safety.
(SB 91)
Clutter has become more commonplace in apartments and homes throughout NYC, and can have severe or even fatal consequences if not addressed. An incorrect statament about clutter conditions can be found in which choice?
A) Clutter can affect access/egress, member safety, search and supression efforts
B) For standardized terminology, the term “Collyer’s Mansion like conditions” shall be transmitted when clutter conditions are found.
C) The severity of clutter conditons should be referred to as either “Light Clutter” “Medium Clutter or “Heavy Clutter”
D) An entry should be made in the Officer’s NYFIRS report when clutter conditions have impacted operations.
ANSWER: B) For standardized terminology, the term “Collyer’s Mansion like conditions” shall be transmitted when clutter conditions are found. (INCORRECT)
- The term “Collyer’s Mansion” shall no longer be used.
(SB 91 2)
E99 has a collision with a tractor trailer vehicle. When the Investigating Battalion arrives, he declares the incident a major collision because one civilian has life threatening injuries. He then orders all vehicles moved for safety purposes. In this situation, before moving the vehicles, Engine 99 would be correct to mark all tires of all involved vehicles, but only the outside tire of double wheeled tires and mark?
A) The front 2 corners of Engine apparatus; and the 4 corners of the tractor-trailer
B) The 4 corners of Engine apparatus and the 4 corners of the tractor trailer.
C) The 4 corners of the Engine apparatus; and the 6 corners of the tractor trailer.
D) The 4 corners of the Engine apparatus; and the 8 corners of the tractor trailer.
ANSWER: C) The 4 corners of the Engine apparatus; and the 6 corners of the tractor trailer.
- RECENT CHANGE
- Engine 4 / Tractor Trailer 6
(SB 56 - 9.2 A)
You are an Officer working in Ladder 28 and are operating as the 1st due Officer for a fire on the 6th floor in a MD. You find a clutter condition impacting operations upon forcing entry to the fire apartment. In this situation, you should know that which report below if given to the IC would indicate that there is a medium clutter condition?
A) “The entrance door is completely blocked, we may need to make entry by breaching an adjoining wall”
B) “We can see a 10-45, but victim removal will be extremely challenging due to debris.”
C) “The primary and secondary searches are possible, but will be delayed”
D) “Maneuvering handlines may be impossible, we need to hit it from the outside”
ANSWER: C) “The primary and secondary searches are possible, but will be delayed”
A - Entrance door PARTIALLY blocked (Medium clutter)
B - Victim removal AFFECTED (Medium clutter)
D - Maneuvering lines MORE DIFFICULT (Medium clutter)
“DAIS”
D - Degree of clutter
A - Additional Resources
I - Impact on conditions
S - Steps taken
(SB 92 page 3)
At a minimum, how often are seatbelts to be inspected on Department vehicles?
A) Each tour
B) Each week
C) Each day
D) Each month
ANSWER: A) Each tour
- Every seat belt on Department vehicles should be inspected each TOUR.
(SB 67 3.1.2)
Which of the following is not considered a “minor injury”?
A) Small abrasion
B) First degree burn
C) Laceration requiring sutures
D) Minor sprain with no swelling or discoloration
ANSWER: C) Laceration requiring sutures (INCORRECT)
(Safety Bulletin 7 2.1.3)
- Laceration NOT requiring sutures
- A minor injury does not require the member to be granted the remainder of the tour or be granted a medical leave.
Of the following choices, which should not be deemed an apparatus collision?
A) Apparatus strikes a bollard while responding to a motor vehicle accident on a bridge.
B) Apparatus strikes another apparatus while responding to a report of a structural fire.
C) Apparatus overheats and catches fire while responding to a stuck elevator emergency.
D) A jogger accidentally runs into a moving apparatus returning to quarters in non-response mode following BISP.
ANSWER: C) Apparatus overheats and catches fire while responding to a stuck elevator emergency.
(SB 56 4.2, 4.4)
- This is an apparatus INCIDENT.
- An apparatus COLLISION is when an apparatus strikes or is struck by a vehicle, pedestrian, or bicyclist, or strikes a fixed object.
- A properly parked apparatus that was struck by another apparatus is also an incident (Incident for the apparatus that was struck).
