SAFETY BULLETINS

Question 1

There are three injury classifications determined by the Medical Officer in consultation with the company Officer and injured member. Which one is described incorrectly?

A) Service connected medical leave is granted by the on duty Medical Officer for an injury, including the tour the member was working when the injury occurred, and subsequent tours.

B) Remainder of the tour is designated as medical leave.

C) A first degree burn may be classified as a minor injury.

D) Chest pains shall not be classified as minor injuries.

Answer 1

ANSWER: B) Remainder of the tour is designated as medical leave. (INCORRECT)

• Remainder of the tour is an EXCUSED ABSCENCE.
• This has since changed, there is NO REMAINDER OF THE TOUR ANYMORE.

(SB 7 section 2.1.1)

Question 2

The Medical Officer must be notified via FDOC in all but which of the following choices?

A) After operating at a brush fire, a member suffers from mild conjunctivitis upon return to quarters.

B) The FE FF, while extricating the driver from the vehicle at a MVA, was exposed to the driver’s blood on unprotected skin. The FE FF does not have any symptoms of exposure.

C) While operating at an incident for a unknown odor, the FE FF was exposed to fumes from a “bug bomb”. The FF does not have any symptoms of the exposure.

D) The Backup FF informs you that he thinks he has food poisoning from dinner and is unable to continue on duty.

Answer 2

ANSWER: C) While operating at an incident for a unknown odor, the FE FF was exposed to fumes from a “bug bomb”. The FF does not have any symptoms of the exposure. (INCORRECT)

• For a non-biological exposure only notify the Medical Officer if the member HAS SYMPTOMS.
• Biological exposure notify MO WITH OR WITHOUT SYMPTOMS.

(SB 7 section 3.6)

Question 3

According to Safety Bulletin 7, the Officer performed their duties improperly in which choice?

A) Upon return to quarters where the OV FF broke his arm when struck by the fire escape drop ladder, Lieutenant Smith initiated an Injury Report in CIRS. Lieutenant Smith entered the 16 digit FDID number found on the lower left side of the response ticket.

B) Lt. James entered all 9’s in the 16 digit space when initiating an Injury Report in CIRS for a member that sprained their knee at MUD.

C) Capt. Charles did not record anything in CIRS when a member was unable to continue on duty due to suffering the flu.

D) Lt. Green prepared an Injury Report and Exposure Report for FF Jones, who suffered from a severe rash after operating at a CFRD run.

E) Capt. Red prepared only an Exposure Report for FF Harris, who had minor swelling due to an allergic reaction after coming into contact with Hi-expansion foam.

Answer 3

ANSWER: E) Capt. Red prepared only an Exposure Report for FF Harris, who had minor swelling due to an allergic reaction after coming into contact with Hi-expansion foam. (INCORRECT)

• For non-biological exposure with symptoms completely an INJURY AND EXPOSURE REPORT.

(SB 7 section 3.7)

Question 4

All available injury/exposure information must be initiated and submitted no later than ________ from the date on the injury/exposure with or without the member’s signature and/or narrative. Biological exposures must be entered into CIRS _______.

A) 7 days / Immediately

B) Immediately / 7 days

C) 7 days / 7 days

D) Immediately / Immediately

Answer 4

ANSWER: A) 7 days / Immediately

SB 7 section 4.1

Question 5

Upon returning from vacation leave, Capt. Andrews is notified that an Injury Report was not initiated and submitted for one of his firefighter’s, who was injured two weeks ago. After completing a CIRS-1 Report, found in the Intranet, who should Capt. Andrews forward the CIRS-1 report to through the chain of command?

A) Chief off Operations

B) Chief of Safety

C) Chief Medical Officer

D) Chief of Department

Answer 5

ANSWER: B) Chief of Safety

SB 7 section 4.1

Question 6

Properly recording member’s injuries and exposures is a very important duty that all Officer’s should be familiar with. Choose the correct choice concerning this duty.

A) If the injured/exposed member is available for interview, the Supervisor shall enter the member’s narrative and select “Yes, read as ACCURATE”.

B) If the injured/exposed member is not available, the Supervisor shall wait until the member is available to initiate an injury/exposure report.

C) The Supervisor shall print two copies of the injury/exposure report, unless the member is a detail, in which case only one copy is printed.

D) All injuries in quarters require the Officer on duty to notify the Bureau of Safety.

E) Supervisors May submit group reporting for biological or non-biological exposures of member’s when they exhibit symptoms of the exposure.

Answer 6

ANSWER: A) If the injured/exposed member is available for interview, the Supervisor shall enter the member’s narrative and select “Yes, read as ACCURATE”.

B - Supervisor shall INITIATE THE REPORT if member is not available.

C - Print 2 copies / 1 goes in Uniformed Filing System / 1 in member’s personnel folder / Print 2 EVEN IF MEMBER IS DETAILED for the tour.

D - Injuries in quarters require ADMIN BC notification.

E - May submit group reporting for IDENTICAL NON-BIOLOGICAL EXPOSURES WHO DO NOT EXHIBIT SYMPTOMS.

(SB 7 section 3.8)

Question 7

A Multiple Member Injury Report is required under certain circumstances. Which choice only contains correct points concerning this report?

1. It is required when 2 or more members working in the same unit suffer injuries at the same incident resulting in medical leave or remainder of the tour.
2. The Officer working the tour when the injuries occurred is responsible for the report.
3. If the officer responsible for the report is on leave, he shall prepare the report as soon as possible upon return to work.
4. If the Officer responsible for the report is on leave that extends for more than 30 days, an Officer assigned to the same Division shall complete the report.
5. When the report is completed, the Company Commander shall review the report and add meaningful comments and suggestions.
6. Company Commanders shall forward the report via the chain of command to the Chief of Safety.
7. If the unit is without a regularly assigned Company Commander, the Battalion Commander shall designate an Officer to perform endorsing duties.

A) 1,3,4,6,7 B) 2,3,5,7 C) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7 D) 2,4,5,6

Answer 7

ANSWER: B) 2,3,5,7 (1,4,6 are incorrect)

1 - Multiple member report required when THREE (3) or more members working in the same unit, suffer injuries at the same incident resulting in MEDICAL LEAVE THAT TOUR.

4 - A REGULARLY ASSIGNED OFFICER shall complete report.

6 - Forward report via chain of command to CHIEF OF OPERATIONS.

(SB 7 Add 2 section 1.2)

Question 8

Safety Bulletin 56 sets forth the guidelines for reporting motor vehicle collisions and/or incidents involving FDNY apparatus. Choose an incorrect statement regarding this policy.

A) An Apparatus Collision Report (CD-19) and an Apparatus Collision Investigation Report (CD-19A) shall be forwarded to the Safety Command for all Fire Department Collisions and Incidents.

B) Whenever the driver or operator of an FDNY apparatus is involved in a major collision, he shall be tested for the presence of illegal drugs and/or alcohol.

C) If two (or more) FDNY apparatus collide, the ranking officer (BC or higher) on scene will determine which unit or units will be required to complete an apparatus collision report.

D) When an individual alleges that the Department is responsible for a collision or incident, the individual should be informed that they may file a notice of claim by calling the Comptroller’s Office or visiting their website.

Answer 8

ANSWER: C) If two (or more) FDNY apparatus collide, the ranking officer (BC or higher) on scene will determine which unit or units will be required to complete an apparatus collision report. (INCORRECT)

• EACH UNIT is required to complete a report (2 reports)

(SB 56 3.3)

Question 9

Two new Lieutenants are discussing the difference between an Apparatus Collision and an Incident. Which choice below would not be considered an Incident?

A) A properly parked apparatus that was struck in the rear by a bicyclist.

B) Damage to an apparatus that was properly parked when struck by a falling tree branch.

C) Damage to a civilian vehicle caused by a TL outrigger operating at an all hands fire.

D) Damage to an apparatus that had a fire in the engine block.

B)

Answer 9

ANSWER: A) A properly parked apparatus that was struck in the rear by a bicyclist. (INCORRECT)

• This is a COLLISION (Anytime an apparatus strikes or is struck by a vehicle, pedestrian or bicyclist, or strikes a fixed object)

Incidents:

• Apparatus Fire
• Damage to Apparatus by unusual occurrence (tree limb etc.)
• Damage discovered during a routine inspection.
• Damage to a civilian vehicle caused by a properly parked apparatus operating at alarms (TL outrigger damages parked car) MUD and inspection activities.
• Damage caused by vandalism
• A properly parked apparatus struck by another apparatus.
• Allegation that FDNY vehicle caused damage to a civilian vehicle or property.

(SB 56 4.2)

Question 10

Upon being involved in an Apparatus Collision/incident, the FDNY Officers and member’s must realize that their primary initial obligation is to?

A) Provide ore hospital care to any injured members and/or civilians.

B) Request additional units to the scene.

C) Provide a preliminary report to the dispatcher.

D) Prevent the collision from increasing in magnitude.

Answer 10

ANSWER: D) Prevent the collision from increasing in magnitude.

(SB 56 5.2.1)

Question 11

Who will make the determination if a collision is a Major Collision?

A) The Officer of the unit involved

B) The on scene ranking member of the NYPD.

C) The Battalion Chief on scene.

D) The administrative Deputy Chief when reviewing the Apparatus Collision Report.

Answer 11

ANSWER: C) The Battalion Chief on scene.

SB 56 6.5.2

Question 12

Lt. Smash and his Engine Company were involved in a collision while responding to a phone alarm. Which choice is correct regarding the completing and forwarding of the Apparatus Collision Report and MV-104?

A) Lt. Smash shall forward the Apparatus Collision Report within 10 days of the Apparatus collision.

B) A Collision Packet shall be completed and forwarded through the chain of command. This packet should include the CD-19, a copy of the MV-104 (if required), a copy of the police report (when required) and a copy of the ECC’s driver’s license.

C) If required, the MV-104 must be sent to the Safety Command-Collision recording unit within 96 hours, and to the NYS DMV within 10 days.

D) The Officer of the vehicle involved is responsible for completing both the Apparatus Collision Report and the MV-104.

Answer 12

ANSWER: C) If required, the MV-104 must be sent to the Safety Command-Collision recording unit within 96 hours, and to the NYS DMV within 10 days.

A - CD-19 (Apparatus Collision Report) sent within 96 HOURS.

B - Collision Packet is 2 COPIES OF EACH (2 CD-19s, 2 copies of MV-104’s when required, 2 copies of police report when required) ECC/LCC DRIVERS LICENSE NO LONGER REQUIRED (recent change)

D - CD-19 and MV-104 is the responsibility of VEHICLE OPERATOR.

Question 13

How many of the following collisions/incidents would require a completion of an MV-104?

1. A collision that resulted in the death of a civilian.
2. A collision that resulted in a minor injury to one on duty member.
3. A collision that resulted in approximately $600 worth of damage to a civilian.
4. A collision in which a dollar amount of damage cannot be estimated.

A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 1

Answer 13

ANSWER: B) 3 (number 3 is incorrect)

MV-104 required for:

• A collision resulting in DEATH
• A collision resulting in PERSONAL INJURY
• A collision where damage OVER $1000 to property of any ONE person
• A collision where dollar amount CANNOT BE ESTIMATED.

(SB 56 12.1)

Question 14

Ladder 700, while responding to a phone alarm, is involved in a major collision with a tractor trailer on a busy street with moderately fast moving traffic. The officer decides the vehicles must be moved to prevent any further potential for another collision. The Officer would be correct to mark the vehicles in which manner prior to moving them?

A) Mark the four corners of the Ladder apparatus, the six corners of the tractor trailer and the location of all tires of both vehicles. If double wheeled tires are present mark only the outside tires.

B) Mark the four corners of the Ladder Apparatus, the six corners of the tractor trailer and the location of all tires of both vehicles. If double wheeled tires are present mark all of the tires.

C) Mark the four corners of the Ladder Apparatus, the four corners of the trailer section of the tractor trailer and the location of all tires of both vehicles. If double wheeled tires are present mark only the outside tires.

D) Mark the four corners of the Ladder Apparatus, the four corners of the trailer section of the tractor trailer and the location of all tires of both vehicles. If double wheeled tires are present mark all of the tires.

Answer 14

ANSWER: A) Mark the four corners of the Ladder apparatus, the six corners of the tractor trailer and the location of all tires of both vehicles. If double wheeled tires are present mark only the outside tires.

• Major collisions = DO NOT MOVE RIGS unless absolutely necessary

(SB 56 9.2)

Question 15

Which one of the following would not automatically be considered a preventable collision?

A) An Engine on BISP strikes a car directly opposite a double parked car.

B) An Engine responding 3rd due to a gas leak in the 10-20 mode strikes a double parked car.

C) A Ladder Apparatus returning from a response strikes quarters when backing in.

D) A Ladder Apparatus responding 1st due to a gas leak in the emergency mode strikes a double parked car.

Answer 15

ANSWER: D) A Ladder Apparatus responding 1st due to a gas leak in the emergency mode strikes a double parked car.

Preventable Collisions:

• Striking vehicle trying to go around a double parked cars in NON EMERGENCY MODE
• Striking quarters while backing in (should have guide people)
• Fall from moving apparatus
• Operating tractor trailer with no one operating the tiller.
• Collisions caused by failure to check wheels.

(SB 56 Addendum 4)

Question 16

An Apparatus Collision Report (CD-19) shall be forwarded within __________ of the apparatus collision.

A) 96 hours

B) 24 hours

C) 10 days

D) 7 days

Answer 16

ANSWER: A) 96 hours

SB 56 10.1

Question 17

If required, the MV-104 must be sent to the Safety Command Collision Recording Unit within _________ and to the NYS DMV within ___________.

A) 10 days / 96 hours

B) 96 hours / 10 days

C) 7 days / 24 hours

D) 24 hours / 7 days

Answer 17

ANSWER: B) 96 hours / 10 days

MV-104 “10-4”

10 days - DMV

4 days (96 hours) - Safety Command Collision Unit

(SB 56 10.2)

Question 18

To establish a method of systematic, safe and orderly evacuation when required, all firehouses should have an “emergency action plan”. Of the following choices, which is incorrect when the plan is put into effect?

A) Members are to be alerted by any available means, such as verbal alarm, “still” alarm, bell, or intercom. Lights are to be turned on and normal turnout/evacuation procedures followed.

B) All members are to report to the apparatus/ground floor via the normal egress route(s).

C) The Officer/Supervisor on duty shall ascertain that all personnel are accounted for and moved to a safe location outside. Apparatus should always be left inside company quarters; do not take time to move apparatus outside.

D) The Officer/Supervisor on duty shall direct the housewatch or designated employee to notify the dispatcher of a fire or emergency via telephone, voice alarm or street box.

Answer 18

ANSWER: C) The Officer/Supervisor on duty shall ascertain that all personnel are accounted for and moved to a safe location outside. Apparatus should always be left inside company quarters; do not take time to move apparatus outside. (INCORRECT)

• IF SAFETY PERMITS move the apparatus outdoors.

(SB 61 - 4,1)

Question 19

The Officer/Supervisor on duty within each firehouse shall review the individual plan with personnel at each of the following times except when?

A) Initially, when the plan is developed

B) Whenever the plan is changed

C) When new personnel are assigned

D) Semi-annually, on February 1st and August 1st each year

Answer 19

ANSWER: D) Semi-annually, on February 1st and August 1st each year (INCORRECT)

• QUARTERLY (1st week of “JAJO”)
• January / April / July / October

“Its Called Not Quitting”

I - Initially

C - Changes

N - New personnel

Q - Quarterly

(SB 61 - 7)

Question 20

Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding the design and dangers of buildings under construction which use wood forms to support poured conrete?

A) The method of forming the poured concrete floors consists of 5/8” or 3/4” plywood helf in place by 4” x 4” wood studs. One shoring stud is placed every 4 feet on center extending from the floor to the underside of the plywood form above.

B) It is required that every floor that has been stripped of its supporting plywood forms and is in its curing stage be reshored. This consists of one 4” x 4” stud placed every 8 feet apart and will usually be found on at least 4 floors below the most recently poured floor.

C) A heavy fire load is created by the storage of sheets of plywood and wood studs previously stripped from a cured floor. This lumber usually found stored on the floor two levels below the most recently poured floor.

D) If a fire involved the plywood forms and supporting studs of a recently poured floor, structural damage could occur (i.e. spalling, cracks, sag, partial or complete failure). The key to a safe operation is in the knowledge of the curing time.

Answer 20

ANSWER: B) It is required that every floor that has been stripped of its supporting plywood forms and is in its curing stage be reshored. This consists of one 4” x 4” stud placed every 8 feet apart and will usually be found on at least 4 floors below the most recently poured floor. (INCORRECT)

• Reshoring = One 4” x 4” stud placed every 8 feet apart and will usually be found on at least EIGHT (8) FLOORS below the most recently poured floor.

(SB 66)

Question 21

In order to evaluate how structurally sound the most recently poured floor is if its supporting forms and shoring are weakened or consumed by fire, one must know when the concrete was poured. Which individual below would not have this information?

A) Construction site security guard

B) Construction engineer

C) Building superintendent

D) Concrete foreman

Answer 21

ANSWER: A) Construction site security guard

SB 66

Question 22

Which of the following choices is not in accordance with the Department’s seatbelt policy?

A) There exists a mandatory seatbelt policy for all Department members.

B) Members shall use extreme caution while donning their PPC during a response while the apparatus is in motion.

C) The seatbelt shall not be removed until the apparatus comes to a complete stop.

D) The ultimate responsibility for seatbelt use lies with each person riding in the vehicle. The enforcement of the seatbelt policy is the responsibility of Chief and Company Officers.

Answer 22

ANSWER: B) Members shall use extreme caution while donning their PPC during a response while the apparatus is in motion.

• This is an UNSAFE ACT
• Don PPC PRIOR TO getting on the apparatus

(SB 67 1.3)

Question 23

To ensure seatbelts are in proper working order, every seatbelt on Department vehicles should be inspected how often?

A) Each tour

B) Daily

C) Weekly

D) Monthly

Answer 23

ANSWER: A) Each tour

SB 67 3.1.2

Question 24

Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding safety during response on NYC Streets?

A) A “speed hump” is a raised portion of the street surface (3-4”) that is slightly longer than an average automobile and spans the width of the street.

B) A “speed bump” is generally 3-6” high, 12” wide, and no longer legal on city streets.

C) Advisory speeds must be adhered to at all times when traversing over speed humps, even during emergency response.

D) When signs denoting speed humps are found to be missing, a report shall be forwarded to the Public Transportation Unit (PSU)

Answer 24

ANSWER: D) When signs denoting speed humps are found to be missing, a report shall be forwarded to the Public Transportation Unit (PSU) (INCORRECT)

• Forward to CITY PLANNING BUREAU OF OPERATIONS

(SB 76 1)

Question 25

DOT signs and marking will be present on and around designated speed humps. Which sign/marking is described incorrectly? A) Each concrete reducer (speed hump) will be stripped according to the "receding lines" design. B) Each asphalt reducer (speed hump) will be stripped according to the "chevron" design. C) In addition to "lift plow" signs, there will be at least one yellow diamond "bump ahead" sign and at least one yelloe diamond "bump" sign and a speed advisory plate. D) Typically the advised speed will be 15 mph for a 3" reducer (speed hump) and 20 mph for a 4" reducer.

Answer 25

ANSWER: D) Typically the advised speed will be 15 mph for a 3" reducer (speed hump) and 20 mph for a 4" reducer. (INCORRECT) * Both numbers multiply to equal 60 * 15 mph for 4" (15 x 4 = 60) * 20 for a 3" ( 20 x 3 = 60) (SB 76 2)

Question 26

Ladder 165 is designated as the FAST unit responding on the 2nd floor of a 2 1/2 story peaked roof PD. While responding the dispatcher informs you that there are window bars on the 1st & 2nd floors. What is the most correct procedure below? A) The FAST Officer is responsible to bring the PAK Tracker and leave it at the command post. B) The Officer of the FAST Unit had members remove window bars from the 1st & 2nd floors. C) The Officer of the FAST unit had members remove window bars from the 2nd floor only. D) Once 10-84, the FAST Unit officer picks the member to monitor EFAS in the first arriving Battalion vehicle.

Answer 26

ANSWER: C) The Officer of the FAST unit had members remove window bars from the 2nd floor only. A - Member of FAST team brings PAK Tracker B - The unit assigned to remove the window bars should ensure at least one window on the FIRE FLOOR AND FLOOR ABOVE is cleared of bars, with a portable ladder, aerial ladder or tower ladder placed to the window. D - Member who brings tool should be assigned at roll call (SB 84 4.8)

Question 27

As a company officer you would know that the location of window bars will vary. It is not uncommon to find these installations on all floors and all sides of the building. From the choices below, pick the incorrect statement made by the Officer. A) Upon arrival the officer gives a 10-75 for a fire on the 1st floor of a peaked roof PD with window bars. She should include a brief description of the type of building involved and must state the exact location of the window bars. B) An additional Engine & Ladder shall be special called. The special called ladder shall be a TL, if one is not assigned on the 1st alarm assignment. C) Since a civilian on scene gave the exact location of a person trapped on the 2nd floor, the Officer ensured the response of a rescue company. D) The special called ladder company can be directed to operate as a unit and remove window bars.

Answer 27

ANSWER: A) Upon arrival the officer gives a 10-75 for a fire on the 1st floor of a peaked roof PD with window bars. She should include a brief description of the type of building involved and must state the exact location of the window bars. (INCORRECT) * The unit transmitting the 10-75 for a fire in a building with window bars should include a brief description of the type of building involved and STATE THE PRESENCE OF WINDOW BARS (not location of window bars) (SB 84 4.1)

Question 28

Engine Company 283 arrives at the scene of a fire on the 3rd floor of a 5 story OLT. You hear transmissions from the OV telling his Officer there are window bars on exposure 3 & 4 side, on the fire floor and the two floors above. At this time, the Roof FF gives an "Urgent" for a fire that is severely extending into exposure 2 via an enclosed shaft. What is the incorrect procedure below? A) The 1st line must employ an aggressive interior attack to control the fire and protect the interior stairs. B) The 2nd line stretched should back up the 1st line. If not needed it shall then go to exposure 2. C) An Engine on scene or a special called Engine could provide an exterior hoseline to protect civilians or members trapped inside a building behind window bars or membersw removing window bars. D) A TL basket is placed to the side windows presents the best platform to work from.

Answer 28

ANSWER: B) The 2nd line stretched should back up the 1st line. If not needed it shall then go to exposure 2. (INCORRECT) * Should go to FLOOR ABOVE. (SB 84 4.5)

Question 29

Gypsum plank and concrete decking is of lightweight construction whihc spans large wide spaces. From the following choices, choose the correct point regarding FDNY operations at buildings with gypsum roof systems. A) The main drawback, from a firefighting operational standpoint is that this type of construction is extremely vulnerable to fire causing a deterioration of the system. B) Gypsum decking along with truss construction, is conducive to an early collapse under fire conditions. Members shall be limited to roof operations such as opening skylights, scuttles and bulkheads. C) Interior firefighting operations are not affected by the roofing material. Hoselines should be advanced as close as possible to extinguish the fire. D) The Roof FF while cutting the roof encounters a white powdery residue during saw operations. Upon this observation, the member notifies the IC with a URGENT-COLLAPSE FEARED message and proceeds to evacuate the roof.

Answer 29

ANSWER: D) The Roof FF while cutting the roof encounters a white powdery residue during saw operations. Upon this observation, the member notifies the IC with a URGENT-COLLAPSE FEARED message and proceeds to evacuate the roof. A - The main drawback, from a firefighting operational stand point, is that this type of construction is extremely vulnerable to MOISTURE causing a deterioration of the system. B - Members SHALL NOT BE COMMITTED to roof operations when this type of roof construction is found. C - Interior firefighting operations shall be conducted from AREAS OF SAFETY due to the weight of such decking materials (gypsum plank - 135 lbs. each, gypsum concrete - 17.5 lbs. per sq. foot). Hose streams should be operated WELL IN ADVANCE ON MEMBERS. (SB 85 3.3)

Question 30

The summer season presents days of high temperatures and high humidity that can create a physically stressful environment for firefighters conducting firefighting operations. From the choices below, which is the incorrect statement? A) Members should remove their helmets and coats, and open the front flap of their pants as soon as operations safely permit to remove pent up heat and humidity within the Bunker Gear. B) Members should drink cold water or diluted "replacement" beverages 20 oz. initially and 6-8 oz. every 15 minutes thereafter. Avoid concentrated "sports" drinks and hot drinks. C) Members should seek cool, shady areas. Casually moving about will enhance rehydration due to increased blood circulation. No member should be alone during any phase of the recuperation process; maintain the buddy system for the duration of R & R. D) Heat stroke can result in heat cramps, heat exhaustion and heat stress, the last of which is deemed a "true" medical emergency.

Answer 30

ANSWER: D) Heat stroke can result in heat cramps, heat exhaustion and heat stress, the last of which is deemed a "true" medical emergency. (INCORRECT) * HEAT STRESS illnesses can result in heat cramps, heat exhaustion and HEAT STROKE, the last of which is termed a "true" medical emergency. (SB 87 1.1)

Question 31

Department policy requires all members to wear high visibility safety vests when operating on all highways at all times, day or night. This includes, but is not limited to, incidents such as vehicle collisions, extrications, fluid spills, dangerous conditions, vehicle fires and at any operation that the IC deems necessary. Which choice below is correct regarding the safety vest policy at a highway incident? A) All members operating on a highway with donned bunker gear are exempted from wearing safety vests. B) Members of a rescue company are operating on an elevated highway with donned technical rescue PPE for a technical rescue incidents. All operating members in the immediate vicinity of the incident must still wear their safety vests. C) Members operating with donned hazardous material personal protective equipment to mitigate the incident are exempted from wearing safety vests at highway incidents. D) All memers must wear their safety vests at all highway incidents, with no exemptions.

Answer 31

ANSWER: C) Members operating with donned hazardous material personal protective equipment to mitigate the incident are exempted from wearing safety vests at highway incidents. * Exemptions from wearing high visibility safety vests are for members directly involved and in the immediate vicinity of FIREFIGHTING, HAZARDOUS MATERIALS MITIGATION, or TECHNICAL RESCUE. Some examples include: Members operating with donned bunker gear and SCBA working in close proximity to a source of heat during fire suppression. Members operating with donned hazardous material personal protectiveequipment. Members operating with donned technical rescue PPE and/or equipment for a technical rescue incident. (SB 88 2.1.1)

Question 32

Which of the following statements about high visibility safety vests is incorrect? A) Vests shall only be donned prior to leaving the apparatus. B) Vests shall be stored on the apparatus in an area that is clean, dr, well ventilated and free of potential contaminants; preferably the crew cab for ease of donning and safety considerations. C) To repair or replace a damaged vest, forward the vest with an RT-2 to the Quartermaster. D) Vests shall be inspected after each use and during semi-annual inspection.

Answer 32

ANSWER: A) Vests shall only be donned prior to leaving the apparatus. (INCORRECT) * Vests shall be donned prior to leaving the apparatus OR in an AREA THAT IS BLOCKED by an apparatus and protected from vehicular traffic. (SB 88 4.1)

Question 33

You are a Lt. who has just arrived at a possible active shooter situation with a serious fire in a stadium during a country western concert. Upon arrival at this scene, you were correct when you had which thought? A) Do not rush into these incidents. Conduct a 360 degree survey and question law enforcement personnel is weapons are known or suspected. B) If it is determined that firearms could be used against members, remind them to seek concealment over hard cover. C) Alert on scene or incoming units via a mixer off message of an active shooter. D) If people are seriously injured and/or in need of immediate assistance in the hot zone, rescue may be attempted within the boundaries of safety.

Answer 33

ANSWER: A) Do not rush into these incidents. Conduct a 360 degree survey and question law enforcement personnel is weapons are known or suspected. B - Cover is not the same as concealment. Cover is any material that can reasonably be expected to stop the travel of a bullet fired from small arms. Concealment simply conceals an individual from view. Remain behind hard cover AND out of the line-of-sight C - Since the alert over the Department Radio is critical to all incoming units; the member transmitting SHALL NOT request a "Mixer off". D - Collaborate with NYPD on possible Warm/Cold Zone exposure protection and emergency medical needs. (SB 89 2.3)

Question 34

The Pass-It-On program is an important component of safety, utilized by the IC where he deems it appropriate where lessons learned or reinforced may be beneficial to all. In regard to this program, it would be incorrect to state? A) The IC may be the rank of Lt. or above B) The information should be faxed to the Bureau of Operations by the IC or their designee within 24 hours of the operation. A copy shall be forwarded through the chain of command to the administrative Division. C) When a field unit received a new Pass-It-On poster, they shall place one poster in a location where the field unit holds its company drills, and another shall be filed in a binder in the company office. D) Posters shall remain in place for 30 days and then disposed of.

Answer 34

ANSWER: D) Posters shall remain in place for 30 days and then disposed of. (INCORRECT) * Not removed until REPLACED BY A SUBSEQUENT ISSUE (SB 90 1)

Question 35

Members from a Queens ladder company have just returned from a particularly difficult auto extrication. One mmeber believes that the operation could have had injurious results and decides this event should be recorded in the FDNY Near Miss Reporting System. He has asked you, a sharp Fire Tech student how to go aboout this. You were incorrect in which answer? A) The submission of a Near Miss is anonymous and will not be tracked back to the member. B) Members of all ranks may participate in this program. C) Proper endorsements through the chain of command are required. D) Near Miss submissions may be filed online through the FDNY Webpage or through the bag.

Answer 35

ANSWER: C) Proper endorsements through the chain of command are required. (INCORRECT) * Submitted electronically through the FDNY Intranet page * Rather than submitting this form through the webpage, another option is for members to download the form from the FDNY Intranet and send it through the bag, NO ENDORSEMENTS REQUIRED, to the Chief of Safety. (SB 91)

Question 36

Clutter has become more commonplace in apartments and homes throughout NYC, and can have severe or even fatal consequences if not addressed. An incorrect statament about clutter conditions can be found in which choice? A) Clutter can affect access/egress, member safety, search and supression efforts B) For standardized terminology, the term "Collyer's Mansion like conditions" shall be transmitted when clutter conditions are found. C) The severity of clutter conditons should be referred to as either "Light Clutter" "Medium Clutter or "Heavy Clutter" D) An entry should be made in the Officer's NYFIRS report when clutter conditions have impacted operations.

Answer 36

ANSWER: B) For standardized terminology, the term "Collyer's Mansion like conditions" shall be transmitted when clutter conditions are found. (INCORRECT) * The term “Collyer’s Mansion” shall no longer be used. (SB 91 2)

Question 37

E99 has a collision with a tractor trailer vehicle. When the Investigating Battalion arrives, he declares the incident a major collision because one civilian has life threatening injuries. He then orders all vehicles moved for safety purposes. In this situation, before moving the vehicles, Engine 99 would be correct to mark all tires of all involved vehicles, but only the outside tire of double wheeled tires and mark? A) The front 2 corners of Engine apparatus; and the 4 corners of the tractor-trailer B) The 4 corners of Engine apparatus and the 4 corners of the tractor trailer. C) The 4 corners of the Engine apparatus; and the 6 corners of the tractor trailer. D) The 4 corners of the Engine apparatus; and the 8 corners of the tractor trailer.

Answer 37

ANSWER: C) The 4 corners of the Engine apparatus; and the 6 corners of the tractor trailer. * RECENT CHANGE * Engine 4 / Tractor Trailer 6 (SB 56 - 9.2 A)

Question 38

You are an Officer working in Ladder 28 and are operating as the 1st due Officer for a fire on the 6th floor in a MD. You find a clutter condition impacting operations upon forcing entry to the fire apartment. In this situation, you should know that which report below if given to the IC would indicate that there is a medium clutter condition? A) "The entrance door is completely blocked, we may need to make entry by breaching an adjoining wall" B) "We can see a 10-45, but victim removal will be extremely challenging due to debris." C) "The primary and secondary searches are possible, but will be delayed" D) "Maneuvering handlines may be impossible, we need to hit it from the outside"

Answer 38

ANSWER: C) "The primary and secondary searches are possible, but will be delayed" A - Entrance door PARTIALLY blocked (Medium clutter) B - Victim removal AFFECTED (Medium clutter) D - Maneuvering lines MORE DIFFICULT (Medium clutter) "DAIS" D - Degree of clutter A - Additional Resources I - Impact on conditions S - Steps taken (SB 92 page 3)

Question 39

At a minimum, how often are seatbelts to be inspected on Department vehicles? A) Each tour B) Each week C) Each day D) Each month

Answer 39

ANSWER: A) Each tour * Every seat belt on Department vehicles should be inspected each TOUR. (SB 67 3.1.2)

Question 40

Which of the following is not considered a “minor injury”? A) Small abrasion B) First degree burn C) Laceration requiring sutures D) Minor sprain with no swelling or discoloration

Answer 40

ANSWER: C) Laceration requiring sutures (INCORRECT) (Safety Bulletin 7 2.1.3) * Laceration NOT requiring sutures * A minor injury does not require the member to be granted the remainder of the tour or be granted a medical leave.

Question 41

Of the following choices, which should not be deemed an apparatus collision? A) Apparatus strikes a bollard while responding to a motor vehicle accident on a bridge. B) Apparatus strikes another apparatus while responding to a report of a structural fire. C) Apparatus overheats and catches fire while responding to a stuck elevator emergency. D) A jogger accidentally runs into a moving apparatus returning to quarters in non-response mode following BISP.

Answer 41

ANSWER: C) Apparatus overheats and catches fire while responding to a stuck elevator emergency. (SB 56 4.2, 4.4) * This is an apparatus INCIDENT. * An apparatus COLLISION is when an apparatus strikes or is struck by a vehicle, pedestrian, or bicyclist, or strikes a fixed object. * A properly parked apparatus that was struck by another apparatus is also an incident (Incident for the apparatus that was struck).

Question 42

Members should be familiar with the process of using wood forms to support concrete buildings under construction. It is required that every floor that has been stripped of its supporting plywood forms and is in its curing stage be “reshored.” This reshoring may be indicated by one 4" x 4" stud placed every _____ feet and will usually be found on at least _____ floors below the most recently poured floor. A) 4; 8 B) 4; 4 C) 8; 4 D) 8; 8

Answer 42

ANSWER: D) 8; 8 (SB 66 p2) * The method of FORMING the poured concrete floors consists of plywood held in place by 4"x 4" wood studs. * One shoring stud is placed every 4 feet on center. * Every floor that has been stripped of its supporting plywood forms and is in its CURING STAGE will be reshored, consisting of one 4" x 4" stud placed every 8 feet, and will usually be found on at least 8 floors below the most recently poured floor.

Question 43

Members with bunker gear operating at waterfront operations, piers or bulkheads should be aware of the many hazards present. Which of the following choices is not in accordance with Department policy? A) Members wearing Bunker Gear, with or without an SCBA, quickly become submersed in water. B) Members operating at waterfront operations, piers or bulkheads should exercise extreme caution; personal flotation devices, where available, should be used. Safety lines should be used, particularly if no flotation devices are available. C) Each company’s Water Safety Kit should be brought to the point of operation. Safety lines should be readied for use and attached to members operating in, over and around water. D) At least one 35 ft extension ladder should be dedicated for the purpose of member removal should the need arise.

Answer 43

ANSWER: D) At least one 35 ft extension ladder should be dedicated for the purpose of member removal should the need arise. (INCORRECT) * At least one TWENTY(20) FOOT STRAIGHT ladder should be dedicated for the purpose of member removal should the need arise. (SB 81 2.1, 3.2, 3.3)

Question 44

When encountering window bars at a fire, you would be correct in all actions below except? A) When transmitting the 10-75 for a fire in a building with window bars, include a brief description of the type of building involved and state the presence of window bars. B) An additional Engine and Ladder shall be special called. The special called Ladder Company shall always be a Tower Ladder. C) If there are indications that people are trapped, ensure the response of a Rescue Company. D) An Engine on the scene or a special called Engine could provide an exterior hoseline to protect civilians or members trapped inside a building behind window bars or members removing window bars.

Answer 44

ANSWER: B) An additional Engine and Ladder shall be special called. The special called Ladder Company shall always be a Tower Ladder. (SB 84 4.1, 4.2, 4.10) * An additional Engine and Ladder shall be special called. The special called Ladder Company shall be a Tower Ladder, IF one is not assigned on the first alarm assignment.

Question 45

The Officer on duty within each facility/firehouse shall review the “emergency action plan” with personnel at each of the following times except? A) Initially, when the plan is developed B) Whenever the plan is changed C) When new personnel are assigned D) Annually, on January 1st of each year

Answer 45

ANSWER: D) Annually, on January 1st of each year (INCORRECT) (SB 61 7.1) * Quarterly, during the first week of January, April, July and October of each year. "It’s Called Not Quitting" I - Initially C - Changes N - New personnel Q - Quarterly

Question 46

It has been determined that Fire Retardant Treated Plywood (FRTP) has been in use as roof sheathing in townhouses and multifamily apartment houses since 1979. Some FRTP has been reported to be deteriorating to a point where the roof is unsafe to walk on. Which description below is inaccurate regarding FRTP? A) FRTP is generally used above party wall separations. B) FRTP can be detected by noting excessive waviness in roofs near party walls. C) A significant amount of FRTP has been treated with chemicals that initiates decomposition at temperatures much lower than intended. The process is slower in the presence of heat and high humidity. D) If FRTP is observed at a construction or alteration site, officers shall notify adjoining companies by telephone followed by a written memo and comply with the eCIDS program.

Answer 46

ANSWER: C) A significant amount of FRTP has been treated with chemicals that initiates decomposition at temperatures much lower than intended. The process is slower in the presence of heat and high humidity. (INCORRECT) (SB 77 1.1.1, 1.3, 1.4, 1.8, 1.6.1) * A significant amount of FRTP has been treated with chemicals that initiates decomposition at temperatures much lower than intended. The process is FASTER in the presence of heat and high humidity.

Question 47

When it is determined that a fire and/or smoke condition (smoke grenades) is present, in which active shooting is occurring or possible firearms could be used against firefighters, members shall take all of the following actions except? A) Remain behind hard cover and out of the line-of-sight. B) If members are in an open area without some type of cover, they should immediately assume a supine position on the ground. C) Alert on-scene and incoming units of an active shooter. Consider using the emergency alert tone with an urgent message to notify units that this is an active shooter incident and not a routine fire or emergency. D) Since the alert over the Department Radio is critical to all incoming units; the member transmitting shall not request a "Mixer off".

Answer 47

ANSWER: B) If members are in an open area without some type of cover, they should immediately assume a supine position on the ground. (INCORRECT) (SB 89 3.1) * If members are in an open area without some type of cover, they should immediately assume a PRONE position on the ground. A Note: Cover is not the same as concealment. Cover is any material that can reasonably be expected to stop the travel of a bullet fired from small arms. Concealment simply conceals an individual from view.

Question 48

A new lieutenant should be familiar with the proper parking of apparatus during Building inspection. Which choice below is not in accord with Safety Bulletin 3, regarding rig placement while on inspection duties? A) Always park the apparatus as close to the curb as possible. B) When inspections are being made on a dead end street, position the apparatus in the direction of response. C) Only double park the apparatus as a last resort. D) The wheels shall be chocked when parked on any inclined road.

Answer 48

ANSWER: C) Only double park the apparatus as a last resort. (INCORRECT) (Safety Bulletins 3) * NEVER double park

Question 49

Which of the following company officers is the only one whose actions did not contradict FDNY protocols? A) Captain Ford stated that the apparatus seat belts should be inspected once every day as a minimum. B) Lieutenant Rocco sought out a responsible person such as a construction engineer, building superintendent or concrete foreman to ascertain the exact time concrete was poured into the wood formwork of a building under construction. C) Captain Blue immediately notified the medical officer on duty when a firefighter experienced sensitivity to latex medical gloves, even though no medical attention was needed for the firefighter. D) Capt. Phelps told his members that if they fall into water while wearing bunker gear, that they should attempt to swim to the nearest substantial object or to the shore.

Answer 49

ANSWER: B) Lieutenant Rocco sought out a responsible person such as a construction engineer, building superintendent or concrete foreman to ascertain the exact time concrete was poured into the wood formwork of a building under construction. (Safety Bulletins 67 / 72 / 81) A - SB 67 Sec. 3.1.2 -EVERY TOUR. C - SB 72 Sec. 3.2 and 3.3 - supervisor immediate notification to medical officer ONLY if member required medical attention. if no medical attention required, the member forward letterhead to OSHA unit. D - SB 81, Sec. 4.1 - DO NOT attempt to swim. Slowly tread water, call for help and remain calm.

Question 50

All available information for an injury/exposure report must be initiated and submitted no later than_________ from the date of the injury/exposure? A) 96 hours B) 5 days C) 7 days D) 10 days

Answer 50

ANSWER: C) 7 days (Safety Bulletin 7 sec 4.1) * With or without the members signature * After 7 days, the officer is required to forward a CIRS-1 report available on the Intranet, through the chain of command to the Chief of Safety with an explanation of the circumstances

Question 51

An apparatus collision/incident report (CD-19) shall be forwarded within ______ of the apparatus collision/incident A) 4 days B) 5 days C) 7 days D) 10 days

Answer 51

ANSWER: A) 4 days (Safety Bulletin 56 sec 10) * 96 hours/4 days

Question 52

The SH-900.1 form is a summary of a unit's injuries and illnesses that is required to be posted each year for the previous year by the NYS Department of Labor. The form SH-900.1 shall be posted on a notice board accessible to all employees when? A) January 1st- December 31st B) February 1st- April 30th C) No longer required to be posted D) January 1st - June 30th

Answer 52

ANSWER: B) February 1st- April 30th | Safety Bulletin 7 add 1 sec 1

Question 53

A newly trained chauffeur made which incorrect comment regarding the use of sirens and warning lights? A) Sirens and warning lights may only be used responding to or operating at an alarm, or relocating to the quarters of another unit. Sirens and warning lights shall not be used when returning from alarms. B) In general the siren should be operated in the "Yelp" mode, except when encountering heavy traffic or upon approach to an intersection. Upon approaching an intersection, the siren should be switched from "Yelp" to "Wail". C0 When operating at an incident, particularly when located in or near the path of traffic, all warning lights shall be in the "ON" position to warn oncoming traffic of the presence of lane obstructions. D) Upon return to quarters, warning lights shall be switched on in preparation for and while backing into quarters.

Answer 53

ANSWER: B) In general the siren should be operated in the "Yelp" mode, except when encountering heavy traffic or upon approach to an intersection. Upon approaching an intersection, the siren should be switched from "Yelp" to "Wail". (INCORRECT) (SB 1 1.2 - 1.6, 5.1) * In general the siren should be operated in the "Wail" mode, except when encountering heavy traffic or upon approach to an intersection. * Upon approaching an intersection, the siren should be switched from "Wail" to "Yelp". After all traffic has yielded the right of way and the apparatus proceeds through the intersection, the "Yelp" should be turned off or switched to "Wail", depending on conditions.

Question 54

Company Commanders should be familiar with the procedures regarding the Multiple Member Injury Report. Which procedure is incorrect? A) This report is required when three or more members suffer injuries at the same incident resulting in medical leave that tour. B) Normally, the Company Commander will be responsible for completing this report. C) Company Commanders shall forward the report via the chain of command to the Chief of Operations. D) If the unit is without a regularly assigned Company Commander, the Battalion Commander shall designate an officer to perform the endorsing duties.

Answer 54

ANSWER: B) Normally, the Company Commander will be responsible for completing this report. (INCORRECT) (Safety Bulletin 7 Addendum 2 2.1, 2.2, 2.3) * Normally, the OFFICER WORKING DURING THE TOUR WHEN THE INJURIES OCCURRED will be responsible for completing this report. NOTE: IF THE OFFICER IS ON LEAVE, HE/SHE SHALL PREPARE THE REPORT AS SOON AS POSSIBLE UPON RETURN TO WORK. IF THE LEAVE EXTENDS MORE THAN 30 DAYS, A REGULARLY ASSIGNED OFFICER SHALL COMPLETE THE REPORT. ONCE THIS REPORT IS COMPLETED, THE COMPANY COMMANDER SHALL REVIEW THE REPORT AND ADD MEANINGFUL COMMENTS AND SUGGESTIONS THAT WILL HELP PROVIDE FOR THE FUTURE SAFETY OF HIS/HER MEMBERS.

Question 55

The officer shall ensure that all members of the company are fully utilized when the apparatus is backing up and shall deploy members as guides to assist the chauffeur in backing up the apparatus. Of the following choices, which is incorrect when the apparatus is operating in reverse gear? A) When an officer is present, all operations shall be under his/her command. The officer should take a position along the right side (officer’s side) of the apparatus near the cab. B) The windows on both the chauffeur and officer’s side of the front cab shall be lowered. C) Members of the unit should be assigned to positions flanking the rear of the apparatus on each side, and directed to walk alongside the apparatus as it moves in reverse gear as guides for the officer and the chauffeur and to prevent apparatus from hitting vehicles or pedestrians. D) When the apparatus is approaching an intersection in reverse, the apparatus shall slow down as necessary for a safe operation before backing into the intersection.

Answer 55

ANSWER: D) When the apparatus is approaching an intersection in reverse, the apparatus shall slow down as necessary for a safe operation before backing into the intersection. (INCORRECT) (Safety Bulletin 2 - 3.4) * Choice C is in conflict with the new TL bulletin sec 2.9 last bullet point... NEVER walk alongside an apparatus moving in reverse. * When the apparatus is approaching an intersection in reverse, the apparatus shall be brought to a FULL STOP before backing into the intersection. The apparatus shall not be backed into the intersection until the officer in command of the vehicle gives the order to do so. A Note: In this position, the officer can look to the rear of the apparatus and also be in a position to give immediate and required orders to the chauffeur. C Note: Members shall avoid placing themselves in a position between the apparatus and any rear obstruction.

Question 56

Two members discussing Fire Department operations at structural fires where window bars are present identified which incorrect comment made? A) The unit transmitting the 10-75 for a fire in a building with window bars should include a brief description of the type of building involved and state the presence of window bars. B) An additional Engine and Ladder shall be special called and the special called Ladder Company must be a Tower Ladder. If there are indications that people are trapped, ensure the response of a Rescue Company. C) If possible, room at the front of the fire building should be made available to position the Tower Ladder. The Tower Ladder basket, placed to an upper floor front or side window, presents the best platform to work from. D) The unit assigned to remove the window bars should ensure at least one window on the fire floor and the floor above is cleared of bars, with a portable ladder, aerial ladder or tower ladder placed to the window. The location of windows that have been cleared should be communicated to all units.

Answer 56

ANSWER: B) An additional Engine and Ladder shall be special called and the special called Ladder Company must be a Tower Ladder. If there are indications that people are trapped, ensure the response of a Rescue Company. (INCORRECT) (SB 84 4.1, 4.2, 4.6-4.8, 4.10) * An additional Engine and Ladder shall be special called. The special called Ladder Company shall be a Tower Ladder, IF ONE IS NOT ASSIGNED ON THE FIRST ALARM assignment. If there are indications that people are trapped, ensure the response of a Rescue Company. * Note: The special called Ladder company can be directed to operate “as a unit” and remove window bars.

Question 57

If, during the initial stages of a Fire Department operation, double parking, angle parking, etc., are unavoidable, all of the following safety precautions should be followed except? A) Position a danger flag and when necessary, due to poor visibility, a danger flag and warning light, at the outer perimeter of the exposed side of the apparatus to alert other drivers. B) When the apparatus is staffed by Fire Department personnel, they should remain alert to assist other emergency vehicles to pass in safety and to prevent the passage of unauthorized vehicles. C) When necessary to double park the apparatus on a one-way street, park to the right side of the road when facing in the direction of traffic flow; and park on the left side of the road when facing against the traffic flow. D) When the fire or other emergency is declared under control, all officers under the direction of the Officer in Command should take steps to park properly and reposition apparatus where necessary.

Answer 57

ANSWER: C) When necessary to double park the apparatus on a one-way street, park to the right side of the road when facing in the direction of traffic flow; and park on the left side of the road when facing against the traffic flow. (INCORRECT) (SAFETY BULLETIN 51) * When necessary to double park apparatus on a one-way street, park to the left side of the road when facing in the direction of traffic flow; and park on the right side of the road when facing against the traffic flow. This will permit the other driver to guide on the fire apparatus when attempting to pass same. In essence, on a one-way street the apparatus should be closest to the CIVILIAN DRIVER who is trying to pass.

Question 58

The firefighter assigned the Tiller position can communicate with the LCC using the tiller signal buzzer. Which buzzer signal indicated below is correct? A) One (1) buzzer tone signal - Tiller FF is in position to respond. B) Three (3) buzzer tone signals - Area to the rear of the apparatus is clear for back up operations when properly supervised by the officer and guides. C) Two (2) buzzer tone signals - STOP. D) Three (3) buzzer tone signals - Tiller FF is in position to respond.

Answer 58

ANSWER: B) Three (3) buzzer tone signals - Area to the rear of the apparatus is clear for back up operations when properly supervised by the officer and guides. (SAFETY BULLETIN 10 - PG 1) * One (1) buzzer - STOP * Two (2) buzzers - Tiller FF is in position to RESPOND * Three (3) buzzers -- Area to the rear of the apparatus is clear for BACK UP operations when properly supervised by the officer and guides.

Question 59

Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding the New York State Report of Motor Vehicle Accident form (MV-104)? A) When required, the original MV-104 must be completed and sent to NYS Department of Motor Vehicles within 96 hours, and a copy must be sent to the Safety Command-Collision Recording Unit within 10 days. B) The MV-104 must be sent for a collision resulting in death or personal injury. C) The MV-104 must be sent for a collision resulting in damage of over $1,000 to the property of any one person. D) The MV-104 must be sent for a collision resulting in damages where a dollar amount cannot be estimated.

Answer 59

ANSWER: A) When required, the original MV-104 must be completed and sent to NYS Department of Motor Vehicles within 96 hours, and a copy must be sent to the Safety Command-Collision Recording Unit within 10 days. (INCORRECT) (SB 56 12.1) ORIGINAL = 10 DAYS COPY TO SAFETY = WITHIN 96 HOURS Note: This form is the express responsibility of the vehicle “operator” involved in the collision.

Question 60

All fire vehicles in the City of New York, when responding to or returning from alarms, must follow certain regulations when encountering school buses. Which choice below contains incorrect information? A) You must stop when a school bus is stopped with its red lights flashing or if it is showing a visual signal indicating stop. B) You must stop when children are being loaded on or discharged from a school bus. C) You must stop when approaching a stopped school bus from any direction. D) Fire vehicles shall remain stopped until the school bus resumes motion or a civilian or police officer signals you to proceed.

Answer 60

ANSWER: D) Fire vehicles shall remain stopped until the school bus resumes motion or a civilian or police officer signals you to proceed. (INCORRECT) (Safety Bulletins 6 Ref 1) * Fire vehicles shall remain stopped until the school bus resumes motion or the BUS DRIVER or a POLICE OFFICER signals you to proceed. (NOT CIVILIAN)

Question 61

Injury and Exposure reports must be properly entered into CIRS to ensure proper record keeping and accountability. All choices below are correct except? A) The Fire Department Identification (FDID) number must be included when Supervisors initiate an injury/exposure report. The FDID number consists of 16 digits and can be found on the lower left side of the response ticket. B) If an injury/exposure occurred at a non-response, the Supervisor shall enter all 9’s in the 16 digit space. C) All available injury, exposure and biological exposure information must be initiated and submitted no later than 7 days from the date of the injury, exposure or biological exposure, with or without the member’s signature and/or narrative. D) Any injury/exposure reports that are not initiated and submitted within 7 days from the date of the injury/exposure cannot be entered into CIRS. If this occurs, the Supervisor is required to forward a CIRS-1 report, available on the Intranet, through the chain of command to the Chief of Safety with an explanation of the circumstances.

Answer 61

ANSWER: C) All available injury, exposure and biological exposure information must be initiated and submitted no later than 7 days from the date of the injury, exposure or biological exposure, with or without the member’s signature and/or narrative. (INCORRECT) (SB 7 3.4, 4.1) * All available injury/exposure information must be initiated and submitted no later than 7 days from the date of the injury/exposure with or without the member’s signature and/or narrative. BIOLOGICAL EXPOSURES, however, must be entered into CIRS IMMEDIATELY. A Note: The 16 digit FDID number will auto-populate specific fields of the injury/exposure report. B Note: ...and the Supervisor will be required to provide the address or cross streets.

Question 62

The term Collyer’s Mansion is no longer used and has been replaced with clutter. Which of the statements below CORRECTLY describes operations in medium clutter conditions? A) Patient care in place and removal by normal means may be extremely challenging due to debris. B) Smoke detectors will likely not be present or operating properly. C) Maneuvering handlines will be more difficult. Fuel load may exceed capability of handlines. D) Primary and secondary searches not affected.

Answer 62

ANSWER: C) Maneuvering handlines will be more difficult. Fuel load may exceed capability of handlines. (SAFETY BULLETIN 92 – CLUTTER) A – Heavy Clutter under EMS label B - Heavy Clutter under Member Safety label D – Light Clutter under Search label

Question 63

Following an operation, two members of your unit report that they were exposed to unknown fumes in the cellar of the fire building which made them feel lightheaded. As the company officer, you should take which action? A) Complete a Non-Biological Exposure Report only for each member. B) Complete a Non-Biological Exposure Report and Injury Report for each member, noting in the narrative of the Non-Biological Exposure Report that an Injury Report was prepared and noting in the narrative of the Injury Report that a Non-Biological Exposure Report was prepared. C) Complete an Injury Report only for each member. D) Realize that notification to the Medical Officer on duty via FDOC is not required.

Answer 63

ANSWER: B) Complete a Non-Biological Exposure Report and Injury Report for each member, noting in the narrative of the Non-Biological Exposure Report that an Injury Report was prepared and noting in the narrative of the Injury Report that a Non-Biological Exposure Report was prepared. (SB 7 3.6, 3.8) * Notification to the Medical Officer on duty via FDOC IS required, because an Injury Report was necessary in addition to the Non-Biological Exposure Report. * An Injury Report was required in addition to the Non-Biological Exposure Report because the members experienced SYMPTOMS (lightheaded).

Question 64

At a “Major Collision” vehicles should generally not be moved; however, there are exceptions. Which choice below is not in accordance with Department policy? A) The fact that one lane of traffic is blocked, or that motorists are temporarily inconvenienced due to traffic conditions, does not warrant moving the involved vehicles. B) Collisions occurring on city streets rarely justify moving the involved vehicles at a collision scene. C) If a collision occurs during periods of light or moderately fast moving traffic, the potential for another collision being caused is decreased. The involved vehicles shall not be moved in this case. D) The prevention of additional collisions and/or injuries at a collision scene should be the determining factor as to whether or not to move the vehicles that have been involved in a collision.

Answer 64

ANSWER: C) If a collision occurs during periods of light or moderately fast moving traffic, the potential for another collision being caused is decreased. The involved vehicles shall not be moved in this case. (INCORRECT) (SB 56 9.1) * If a collision occurs during periods of light or moderately fast moving traffic, the potential for another collision being caused is INCREASED. The involved vehicles MAY then HAVE TO be moved to a position of safety.

Question 65

Safety is of the utmost importance when operating the apparatus in reverse gear. Of the following choices, which is not in accordance with Department policy? A) When present, all operations shall be under the officer’s command. The officer should take a position along the right side (officer’s side) of the apparatus near the cab. The windows on both the chauffeur and officer’s side of the front cab shall be lowered. B) Members should be assigned to positions flanking the rear of the apparatus on each side, and directed to walk alongside the apparatus as it moves in reverse as guides for the officer and chauffeur, and to prevent the apparatus from hitting vehicles or pedestrians. C) When the apparatus is approaching an intersection in reverse, the apparatus shall slow down as necessary before backing into the intersection. D) Take advantage of traffic signals when available. All warning lights shall be used when the apparatus is operating in reverse gear.

Answer 65

ANSWER: C) When the apparatus is approaching an intersection in reverse, the apparatus shall slow down as necessary before backing into the intersection. (INCORRECT) (SB 71 3.3.1) * When the apparatus is approaching an intersection in reverse, the apparatus SHALL be brought to a FULL STOP before backing into the intersection. The apparatus shall NOT be backed into the intersection until the officer in command of the vehicle gives the order to do so. A Note: In this position, the officer can look to the rear of the apparatus and also be in a position to give immediate and required orders to the chauffeur. B Note: Members shall avoid placing themselves in a position between the apparatus and any rear obstruction.

Question 66

Two members discussing injury and exposure reporting were able to identify which incorrect comment made? A) All injuries sustained in quarters require the officer on duty to notify the administrative Battalion Chief. B) Within 7 days from the date of the injury/exposure, modifications to the report replace the original submission, and the report will continue to be categorized as original. C) After 7 days from the date of the injury/exposure, all modifications to the report will be saved as amendments. D) Biological exposure information must be initiated and submitted no later than 7 days from the date of the biological exposure, with or without the member’s signature. and/or narrative.

Answer 66

ANSWER: D) Biological exposure information must be initiated and submitted no later than 7 days from the date of the biological exposure, with or without the member’s signature. and/or narrative. (INCORRECT) (SB 7 / 4.1, 4.3-4.5) * BIOLOGICAL exposures must be entered into CIRS IMMEDIATELY to ensure appropriate exposure investigation and follow-up. * INJURY/EXPOSURE (NON-BIOLOGICAL) information must be initiated and submitted no later than 7 DAYS from the date of the injury/exposure with or without the member’s signature and/or narrative. C Note: If multiple amendments are made during a calendar day, only the last submitted amendment will be permanently saved. Amendments made on separate days will be saved separately with the appropriate date.

Question 67

Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding the Apparatus Collision Report (CD-19)? A) Normally, the Apparatus Collision Report (CD-19) shall be prepared by the Officer in charge or operator of the apparatus at the time of the collision/incident. B) If the Officer or operator is injured, or there is no Officer with the apparatus, another member at the scene shall gather the information required to fill out the CD-19. The CD-19 shall then be prepared by an Officer assigned to the Unit involved in the apparatus collision/incident. C) The CD-19 may be prepared at the collision/incident scene. The preparer shall type or print neatly, using a black ball point pen. Reports Must Be Legible. Illegible and/or Incomplete Reports Will Be Returned. D) Additional forms (CD-19) are required only if the collision/incident involves more than two apparatus, more than two civilian vehicles, more than four civilian pedestrians or bicyclists, or if more room is needed to list all vehicle occupants. A motorcycle is considered a motor vehicle.

Answer 67

ANSWER: D) Additional forms (CD-19) are required only if the collision/incident involves more than two apparatus, more than two civilian vehicles, more than four civilian pedestrians or bicyclists, or if more room is needed to list all vehicle occupants. A motorcycle is considered a motor vehicle. (INCORRECT) (SB 56 Add 6 1.1, 1.2, 2.2) * Additional forms (CD-19) are required if a collision/incident involves more than ONE apparatus, more than ONE civilian vehicle, more than TWO civilian pedestrians or bicyclists, or if more room is needed to list all vehicle occupants. A motorcycle is considered a motor vehicle.

Question 68

Officers should be familiar with actions required when members suffer an illness or injury. Of the following choices, which is incorrect? A) The Medical Officer must be notified via FDOC for all injuries. B) Illnesses not related to an exposure that prevent a member from continuing on duty (e.g., flu, food poisoning) need to be recorded in CIRS, and the Medical Officer must be notified. C) A Non-Biological Exposure Report for a member who does not exhibit symptoms can be initiated without medical officer notification. D) If a member exhibits symptoms from a biological or non-biological exposure, both an Injury and an Exposure Report must be completed.

Answer 68

ANSWER: B) Illnesses not related to an exposure that prevent a member from continuing on duty (e.g., flu, food poisoning) need to be recorded in CIRS, and the Medical Officer must be notified. (INCORRECT) (SB 7 2.1, 2.2.2 Note, 3.5, 3.7) * Illnesses not related to an exposure that prevent a member from continuing on duty (e.g., flu, food poisoning) do NOT need to be recorded in CIRS; HOWEVER, the Medical Officer MUST be notified.

Question 69

Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding the NYS Department of Labor's Log and Summary of Occupational Injuries and Illnesses (SH-900 and SH-900.1 forms)? A) The SH-900 (New York State Department of Labor – Log of Occupational Illnesses) case number of the unit (where member was working when injured) will be automatically entered by CIRS after the form is saved. The Officer is no longer required to record SH-900 information in the Office Record Journal. B) The Summary SH-900.1 of all injuries and illnesses for the previous year must be posted on a notice board accessible to all employees. C) If a Safety and Health inspector from the NYS Department of Labor enters a firehouse for an inspection and requests that the officer produce the Log of Work Related Injuries and Illness (SH 900), the SH 900.1, or SH 900.2 form, refer the inspector to the FDNY OSHA unit. D) The SH-900.1 is required to be posted in the workplace from February 1st to April 1st, and is retrievable from CIRS.

Answer 69

ANSWER: D) The SH-900.1 is required to be posted in the workplace from February 1st to April 1st, and is retrievable from CIRS. (INCORRECT) (SB 7 Add 1) * The SH-900.1 is required to be posted in the workplace from FEBRUARY 1st to APRIL 30th, and is retrievable from CIRS.

Question 70

On the MV-104 form, if more than ____ drivers, vehicles, bicyclists, pedestrians or other pedestrians are involved in an accident, you must use additional report forms. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 6

Answer 70

ANSWER: A) 2 | SB 56 - Add 7 2.10

Question 71

Firefighter Jones suffered a hand injury while helping prepare the meal on a detail to Engine 199. Which action taken by the officer was CORRECT regarding the injury and CD72? A) Because the injury occurred in quarters, once the report was generated, the officer entered the 16-digit FDID number on the report. B) With or without the member’s signature, the report must be initiated and submitted no later than 7 days from the date of the injury/exposure. C) Upon completion of the report, the officer printed two copies of the injury report. One copy was sent to be filed in his assigned company’s Uniformed Filing System, and the other sent to be filed in his personnel folder. D) The officer on duty prepared a letterhead report to the Chief of Operations detailing the particulars of the incident.

Answer 71

ANSWER: B) With or without the member’s signature, the report must be initiated and submitted no later than 7 days from the date of the injury/exposure. (SAFETY BULLETIN 7 – CIRS - 4.1) * All available injury/exposure information must be initiated and submitted no later than 7 days from the date of the injury/exposure with or without the member’s signature and/or narrative. A - If the injury/exposure occurred at a non-response, the Supervisor shall enter all 9’s in the 16 digit space and the Supervisor will be required to provide the address or cross streets where the injury/exposure occurred (e.g. address in front of hydrant, address of training academy, firehouse) (3.4) C - The Supervisor shall print two copies of the Injury/Exposure Report. File one copy in the member’s personnel folder and file the other copy in the Uniformed Filing System IN THE UNIT WHERE THE MEMBER WAS WORKING WHEN THE INJURY/EXPOSURE OCCURRED. Detailed or covering members shall have a copy of their Injury/Exposure Report forwarded to their assigned unit. (4.2) D – The Battalion Chief investigating the injury is responsible for this report. (4.3)

Question 72

Companies in Battalion 24 will arrive at a fire in a Commercial building that is still under construction. The fire is on the 54th floor and units were advised by the night watchperson that the 55th floor was poured sometime within the last 24 hours. Based on our knowledge of buildings under construction, which of the following choices is CORRECT regarding this fire scenario? A) Units arriving on the 54th floor would expect a fast-moving fire caused by the heavy fire load as a result of the temporary storage of the wood forms from the most previously poured floor. B) Units moving up in the building will discover that beginning at the 51st floor, the floors have been stripped of their supporting plywood forms and are in the curing stage. The 4x4” studs will be placed every eight feet indicating reshoring. C) For a fire on the 54th floor involving the wood forms and supporting studs of the recently poured floor, some sort of structural damage could occur ranging from spalling, cracks, sag, to partial or complete failure which could expose members operating in the area below. D) For a fire on the 54th floor, the structural stability of that floor would not be considered sound. This floor will not have cured sufficiently despite its use as the base for the shoring and forms above.

Answer 72

ANSWER: C) For a fire on the 54th floor involving the wood forms and supporting studs of the recently poured floor, some sort of structural damage could occur ranging from spalling, cracks, sag, to partial or complete failure which could expose members operating in the area below. (SAFETY BULLETIN 66 – USE OF WOOD FORMS FOR SUPPORT OF CONCRETE – PG 1 BOTTOM) A - This lumber is usually found stored on the floor which is TWO LEVELS below the most recently poured floor and will serve as the forms for the next floor to be poured. The problem on this floor would be a fast-moving fire caused by the heavy fire load and the large open horizontal and vertical areas. B - It is required that every floor that has been stripped of its supporting plywood forms and is in its curing stage be reshored. This reshoring of one 4" x 4" stud placed every eight feet will usually be found on at least EIGHT floors below the most recently poured floor. D - The structural stability of the actual floor below the recently poured floor COULD BE CONSIDERED SOUND. This floor will have cured and set-up sufficiently to be used as the base for the shoring and forms above.

Question 73

Clutter conditions are described as Light, Medium, & Heavy. Which choice is CORRECT regarding these conditions? A) In a medium clutter condition there is minimum concern for entrapment, structural issues or unusual fire spread. B) In a Heavy Clutter condition, Smoke/CO detectors may or may not be present or working properly. C) In a Medium Clutter condition, primary searches may be possible but delayed. Secondary searches will be delayed. D) In a Light Clutter condition, entrances and interior pathways will be partially blocked hampering movement.

Answer 73

ANSWER: C) In a Medium Clutter condition, primary searches may be possible but delayed. Secondary searches will be delayed. (SAFETY BULLETIN 92 – CLUTTER) C IS CORRECT – PAGE 4 CHART A – Light Clutter under Access/Egress B – Medium Clutter under member safety D – Medium Clutter under Access/Egress

Question 74

Clutter has become a prevalent problem at many fire operations. A Captain should be aware that which statement below concerning clutter is correct? A) The term “Collyer’s Mansion” is synonymous with “clutter,” and either term may be used. B) An entry should be made when completing a NYFIRS report when clutter conditions have impacted operations. C) When discovered, members should communicate the degree of clutter (small, medium, or large) and its impact on operations. D) In a medium clutter condition access/egress will be severely impacted due to complete blockage of entrance and interior pathways.

Answer 74

ANSWER: B) An entry should be made when completing a NYFIRS report when clutter conditions have impacted operations. (Safety Bulletin 92 2.2, 2.3, 3.1, 4) A - The term “Collyer’s Mansion” SHALL NO LONGER BE USED. C - When discovered, members should communicate the degree of clutter (LIGHT, MEDIUM, OR HEAVY) and its impact on operations. D - In a HEAVY clutter condition access/egress will be severely impacted due to complete blockage of entrance and interior pathways.

Question 75

Which one of the following collisions shall be considered preventable? A) Collisions caused by the failure to chock wheels. B) A Fire Department apparatus in a non-response mode strikes a vehicle when passing a double parked car (except a 10-20 response). C) A Fire Department apparatus striking any part of quarters when returning only. D) A fall from a parked apparatus.

Answer 75

ANSWER: A) Collisions caused by the failure to chock wheels. (Safety Bulletin 56 - Addendum 4 2.1) B - A Fire Department apparatus in a non-response mode strikes a vehicle when passing a double parked car (INCLUDING a 10-20 response). C - A Fire Department apparatus striking any part of quarters when LEAVING OR RETURNING. D - A fall from a MOVING apparatus.

Question 76

Ladder 199 is responding to the scene of a multi-vehicle accident on a highway. The Captain ensures that the high visibility safety vests (HVSV) are on the rig for her members. The Captain should know which one statement below is incorrect concerning this piece of equipment? A) Exemptions from wearing the HVSV are for members directly involved and in the immediate vicinity of firefighting, hazardous material mitigation, or technical rescue. B) The HVSV is designed to be worn over bunker gear and is flame resistant. C) Vests shall be donned prior to leaving the apparatus or in an area that is blocked by an apparatus and protected from vehicular traffic. D) Department policy requires all members to wear HVSV when operating on all highways during the nighttime only.

Answer 76

ANSWER: D) Department policy requires all members to wear HVSV when operating on all highways during the nighttime only. (INCORRECT) (Safety Bulletin 88 2.1, 4.1) * Department policy requires all members to wear HVSV when operating on all highways AT ALL TIMES, DAY OR NIGHT.

Question 77

A newly promoted captain is returning from her first job in her new rank. She experienced a near miss at this incident, and she wants to report it in an effort to prevent a similar situation in the future. Which one provision below is not in accordance with the FDNY’s near miss reporting procedure? A) The final approval for posting is made by the Chief of Safety. B) Rather than submitting this form through the webpage, another option is for members to download the form from the intranet and send it through the bag. C) Only officers may participate in this program. D) This program will be used solely to take facts and use them to prevent these events from occurring again.

Answer 77

ANSWER: C) Only officers may participate in this program. (Safety Bulletin 91 1.2, 1.5, 1.6) * MEMBERS OF ALL RANKS may participate in this program.

Question 78

A Captain should know that when a member suffers any of the following injuries/exposures a notification to the medical officer is required except which one? A) Minor injury B) Major injury C) Biological exposure no symptoms D) Non-biological exposure no symptoms

Answer 78

ANSWER: D) Non-biological exposure no symptoms (Safety Bulletin 7 2.1, 2.2.1, 2.2.2) * THE MEDICAL OFFICER MUST BE NOTIFIED OF ALL INJURIES * * BIOLOGICAL EXPOSURES: MEDICAL OFFICER NOTIFICATION IS REQUIRED WITH OR WITHOUT SYMPTOMS * * NON-BIOLOGICAL EXPOSURES: MEDICAL OFFICER NOTIFICATION IS REQUIRED ONLY FOR SYMPTOMS *

Question 79

Which point below is accurate as per the FDNY Apparatus Collision Reporting procedures? A) If a civilian alleges that a FDNY apparatus struck her parked car—this is considered an incident, and requires preparation of an apparatus collision report B) If a properly parked FDNY apparatus is struck by another FDNY apparatus—this is considered a collision for both apparatus, and requires each unit to prepare apparatus collision reports C) If a properly parked FDNY apparatus is struck by a bicyclist—this is considered an incident and requires preparation of an apparatus collision report D) If a civilian vehicle is damaged by a properly parked tower ladder apparatus whose outrigger struck the vehicle while operating at a 3rd alarm—this is considered a collision and requires preparation of an apparatus collision report

Answer 79

ANSWER: A) If a civilian alleges that a FDNY apparatus struck her parked car—this is considered an incident, and requires preparation of an apparatus collision report (SB 56—4.2, 4.3) B - If 2 or more FDNY apparatus collide, it is considered TWO (or more) collisions and a CD-19 is required from each unit. C - COLLISION is when an apparatus strikes or is struck by a vehicle, pedestrian or BICYCLIST or strikes a fixed object. D - Damage to a civilian vehicle caused by a properly parked apparatus operating at an alarm, MUD or inspection duties (TL outrigger damages a parked car) is an example of an INCIDENT.

Question 80

An Officer discussing the issue of clutter at fire operations with members at drill was correct when he stated that? A) The term Collyer’s mansion may only be used when there is a serious clutter condition B) The degree of clutter shall be communicated by the terminology—"Small Clutter”, “Medium Clutter” and “Large Clutter” C) “Medium Clutter” conditions are indicated when there is a complete blockage of entrances and interior pathways D) An entry should be made by officers completing a NYFIRS report when clutter conditions have impacted operations

Answer 80

ANSWER: D) An entry should be made by officers completing a NYFIRS report when clutter conditions have impacted operations. (SB 92—2.2, 2.3, 3.1) A - The term Collyer's Mansion shall no longer be used. B - LIGHT MEDIUM and HEAVY C - Entrances and interior pathways are PARTIALLY blocked hampering movement.

Question 81

Of the following, which one may be classified as a Minor Injury? A) Sprained ankle with minor swelling B) First degree burn C) Shortness of breath D) A member who briefly fainted

Answer 81

ANSWER: B) First degree burn (SB 7 2.1.3) NOT CLASSIFIED AS MINOR INJURIES: * Burns (other than 1st degree) * Chest pains * Sprains or strains with swelling or discoloration * Any injury resulting in fainting, blackout, or loss of memory * Shortness of breath.

Question 82

# Choose the correct statement made about the preparation of Injury/ Exposure Reports. A) The Medical Officer must be notified of all injuries and/ or exposures to members. B) The FDID number must be included when Supervisors initiate an injury/exposure report. If the injury/exposure occurred at a non-response, the Supervisor shall enter all 0’s in the 16-digit space. C) Illnesses not related to an exposure that prevent a member from continuing on duty, such as food poisoning, do not need to be recorded in CIRS, however the Medical Officer must be notified. D) An Injury Report shall not be prepared if symptoms of an injury, or illness are related to an exposure. A notation shall be made in the narrative of the Exposure Report that an injury has occurred.

Answer 82

ANSWER: C) Illnesses not related to an exposure that prevent a member from continuing on duty, such as food poisoning, do not need to be recorded in CIRS, however the Medical Officer must be notified. (SB 7 2.2.1, 2.2.2, 3.4, 3.5) A - Medical Officer notification is NOT required for NON-BIOLOGICAL Exposures that have no symptoms B - Enter all 9’s in the 16-digit space D - Injury Report SHALL be prepared if symptoms of an injury, or illness are related to an exposure. BOTH Injury and Exposure Reports will be completed.

Question 83

Two officers discussing the processing of Injury/Exposure Reports were incorrect in which statement made? A) All available injury/ exposure information must be initiated and submitted no later than 7 days from the date of the injury/exposure with or without the member’s signature and/or narrative. B) Two copies of the Injury/ Exposure Report shall be printed. One copy is filed in the member’s personal folder, and the other in the UFS in the unit where the member was working. C) All injuries sustained in quarters require the officer on duty to notify the administrative Battalion Chief. D) Officers may submit Group Reporting for identical non-biological exposure of members who do not exhibit symptoms as long as all members had the same non-biological exposure and are working in the same unit.

Answer 83

ANSWER: D) Officers may submit Group Reporting for identical non-biological exposure of members who do not exhibit symptoms as long as all members had the same non-biological exposure and are working in the same unit. (INCORRECT) (SB 7 4.1, 4.2, 4.3, 4.6) * As long as all members are ASSIGNED to the same unit. If a detailed member is affected, a separate report must be filed.

Question 84

A “Multiple Member Injury Report” must be completed when? A) 2 or more members of the same unit incur any injuries at the same incident. B) 3 or more members of the same unit incur any injuries at the same incident. C) 2 or more members of the same unit incur injuries resulting in Medical Leave that tour at the same incident. D) 3 or more members of the same unit incur injuries resulting in Medical Leave that tour. Feedback

Answer 84

ANSWER: D) 3 or more members of the same unit incur injuries resulting in Medical Leave that tour. (SB 7 Add.2 1.3) * The officer working that tour is responsible for completing the report, unless on leave for more than 30 days then another regularly assigned member will complete it. The Captain must review and add suggestions then forward thru the Chain of Command.

Question 85

A newly promoted Captain is discussing the difference between Apparatus collisions and incidents with a Lieutenant. The Captain would be correct to say which one of the following is considered a Collision? A) Damage to an apparatus due to a fire in the radiator. B) An apparatus properly parked on BISP, which is struck by a motorcycle. C) Damage to a civilian vehicle caused by the tormentor of an aerial ladder operating at a 10-75. D) Damage to an apparatus caused by vandalism. Feedback

Answer 85

ANSWER: B) An apparatus properly parked on BISP, which is struck by a motorcycle. (SB 56 4.2, 4.4) * Collision - when an apparatus strikes or is struck by a vehicle, pedestrian or bicyclist, or strikes a fixed object. * All of the other choices are listed as Incidents.

Question 86

Your company has just been involved in a collision while responding to an alarm. You must realize that your primary initial obligation is to? A) Prevent the collision from increasing in magnitude. B) Provide pre-hospital care to any injured members or civilians. C) Provide a preliminary report to the dispatcher. D) Request addition units to the scene. Feedback

Answer 86

ANSWER: A) Prevent the collision from increasing in magnitude. (SB 56 5.2.1)

Question 87

Of the following collisions, how many would require the completion of an MV-104? 1. A collision in which a dollar amount of damage cannot be estimated. 2. A collision resulting in one minor injury to a civilian. 3. A collision involving approximately $550 worth of property damage to a civilian. 4. A collision resulting in the death of a civilian A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

Answer 87

ANSWER: C) 3 (1,2,4 would require a MV-104) (SB 56 12.1) MV-104: Death, Personal Injury, Damage over $1000 to the property of any one person, Dollar amount cannot be estimated.

Question 88

A Captain should know that which one of the following would not automatically be considered a preventable collision? A) A ladder company on hydrant inspection strikes a parked car opposite a double-parked car. B) An engine responding 2nd due to a manhole emergency, in 10-20 mode, strikes a double-parked car. C) A ladder company strikes quarters when pulling out for a phone alarm. D) An engine strikes a double-parked vehicle when responding to an EMS response.

Answer 88

ANSWER: D) An engine strikes a double-parked vehicle when responding to an EMS response. (INCORRECT) (SB 56 Add. 4 2.1) * Addendum lists the difference between preventable and non-preventable collisions. Preventable collisions can lead to Supervisory Conferences. * Any collision involving double parked cars while the unit is in a NON RESPONSE MODE or any collision occurring while the apparatus is operating in REVERSE gear when guide personnel are or should be available shall result in a Supervisory Conference between the involved Officer, Chauffeur and the unit’s Battalion Commander.

Question 89

A 10-75 has been transmitted for a fire on the first floor of a 2 story private dwelling with window bars found on both floors. All but which one of the following should occur at this fire? A) An additional engine and ladder should be special called. The additional ladder must be a Tower Ladder. B) The 2nd line stretched should back up the 1st line. If not needed, it shall then go to the floor above. C) At least one window in the 1st floor and one window on the 2nd floor should be cleared of bars, with a portable, aerial or tower ladder placed to the window. D) The location of windows that have been cleared shall be communicated to all units.

Answer 89

ANSWER: A) An additional engine and ladder should be special called. The additional ladder must be a Tower Ladder. (INCORRECT) (SB 84) * Additional Engine and Ladder. Shall be TL IF ONE IS NOT ASSIGNED ON INITIAL ASSIGNMENT. If possible leave room at the front of the fire building for a TL. An engine can provide an exterior hoseline to protect civilians or members trapped behind window bars.

Question 90

While drilling on roof operations at a commercial building, you discuss gypsum roofing with your members. In which statement made were you incorrect? A) The main drawback from a firefighting operational standpoint is the extreme vulnerability to moisture causing a deterioration of the gypsum. B) The presence of this type of roof will be indicated by a white powdery residue during saw operations. C) Upon the discovery of a gypsum roof, members shall make an immediate notification to the IC and evacuate the roof. D) No interior or roof operations shall be permitted in buildings with a gypsum roof system.

Answer 90

ANSWER: D) No interior or roof operations shall be permitted in buildings with a gypsum roof system. (INCORRECT) (SB 85 3.1, 3.2, 3.3,3.4) * Interior operations shall be conducted from areas of safety and hose streams shall be operated well in advance of members. * No roof operations

Question 91

Which one of the following points concerning the use of CIRS—the Computerized Injury Reporting System is correct? A)The FDNY Medical Officer must be notified for all injuries, biological exposures, and non-biological exposures B) Second degree or third degree burn injuries cannot be classified as a minor injury C) When a member exhibits symptoms for any type of exposure, both an exposure report and an unusual occurrence report must be prepared D) Illnesses not related to an exposure that prevent a member from continuing on duty must be recorded in CIRS

Answer 91

ANSWER: B) Second degree or third degree burn injuries cannot be classified as a minor injury. (SB 7—2.1, 2.1.3, 2.2, 3.5) * Only 1st degree burns are considered "minor" A - Medical Officer notification required for ALL INJURIES / ALL BIOLOGICAL EXPOSURES (with or withour symptoms) and Non Biological exposures with SYMPTOMS ONLY C - Exposure report and INJURY report must be completed if member exhibits symptoms from a biological or non-biological exposure. D - DO NOT need to be recorded in CIDS, HOWEVER, Medical Officer must be notified.

Question 92

First alarm units arrive at the scene of a fire on the second floor of a 5-story, multiple dwelling, which does not have E-Cids, but has window bars showing on the front of the building. In this situation, it would be most correct to think that? A) The unit transmitting the 10-75 should provide a brief description of the type of building and specify which floors have window bars B) An additional engine and ladder shall be special called and the special called ladder must be a tower ladder C) The second line stretched should back up the first line, but if not needed on the fire floor, it shall then go to the floor above D) The unit assigned to remove window bars should ensure at least one window on the first, second, and third floor is cleared of bars

Answer 92

ANSWER: C) The second line stretched should back up the first line, but if not needed on the fire floor, it shall then go to the floor above. (SB 84—4.1, 4.2) A - The unit transmitting the 10-75 should provide a brief description of the type of building and STATE THE PRESENCE OF window bars. B - Extra Engine and Ladder / TL IF ONE IS NOT ON ORIGINAL ALARM D - The unit assigned to remove the window bars should ensure at least ONE window on the FIRE FLOOR and the FLOOR ABOVE is cleared of bars, with a portable ladder, aerial ladder or tower ladder placed to the window.

Question 93

A Lieutenant preparing reports using the Computerized Injury / Exposure Reporting System (CIRS) would be correct to think that? A) The Medical Officer must be notified via FDOC for all injuries and biological exposures within 48 hours. B) Smoke inhalation shall never be classified as a minor injury. C) If the member has no symptoms, smoke inhalation should be reported as an injury. D) If a member subsequently suffers symptoms from what was originally reported as a minor injury, and now requires medical leave, then an additional injury report is required.

Answer 93

ANSWER: B) Smoke inhalation shall never be classified as a minor injury. (SB 7—2.1, 3.1.2, 3.2.2) A - TWENTY FOUR HOURS *NEW* C - Medical Officer notification for non-biological (including smoke inhalation) with symptoms only. If FF tells you "I took smoke" and you ask him "do you have symptoms"(cough, wheeze etc.) and he says YES - MEDICAL LEAVE. D - If a member subsequently suffers symptoms from a minor injury requiring medical leave it shall be noted in the narrative section of the original injury report. An additional injury report is NOT required

Question 94

The most correct time apparatus seat belts shall be inspected can be found in which choice? A) Daily B) Each Tour C) Weekly D) Semi-annually

Answer 94

ANSWER: B) Each Tour (Safety Bulletin 67 sec 3.1.2) * The ultimate responsibility for seat belt use lies with each person riding in a vehicle. * The enforcement of the seat belt policy is the responsibility of Chief and Company Officers. * Every seat belt on Department vehicles should be inspected each tour to ensure the seat belt is in proper working order

Question 95

In order to collect data on the events that lead to multiple injuries, the Chief of Operations requires the supervisor of a unit to a submit a report known as the Multiple member Injury report. This report shall be submitted when? A) When more than 2 members suffer injuries at the same incident resulting in medical that tour. B) When 3 or more members suffer injuries at different incidents resulting in medical leave that tour C) During the same incident, 2 members suffer injuries resulting in medical leave that tour, but a 3rd member takes a minor mark (CD-72), and goes on medical leave the next tour D) When 2 or more members suffer injuries at the same incident resulting in medical that tour

Answer 95

ANSWER: A) When more than 2 members suffer injuries at the same incident resulting in medical that tour. (Safety Bulletin 7 sec 1.3) * More than 2 is the same as 3 or more. Watch wording on test day

Question 96

Department policy requires all members to wear high visibility safety vests when operating on all highways at all times, day or night. The exemptions from wearing high visibility safety vests are for members directly involved, and in the immediate vicinity of all of the following except? A) Fluid spills B) Firefighting C) Hazardous material mitigation D) Technical rescue

Answer 96

ANSWER: A) Fluid spills (INCORRECT) (Safety Bulletin 88) * High Visibility Safety Vests must be worn day or night for fluid spills, vehicle collisions, dangerous conditions, and vehicle fires. Exemptions can be found in B, C, D * Vests are to be worn over Bunker Gear * Vests shall be donned prior to leaving the apparatus or in an area that is blocked by an apparatus and protected from vehicular traffic * Vests shall be inspected after each use and during semi-annual inspection

Question 97

You arrive first due for a fire on the 2nd floor of a 4 sty 25x60 OLT. You transmit the 10-75 and included a brief description of the type of building involved and stated the presence of window bars. In addition to the 10-75, you request what additional resources? A) Extra Engine only B) Extra Ladder only C) Ambulance D) Extra Engine and Ladder

Answer 97

ANSWER: D) Extra Engine and Ladder (Safety Bulletin 84 sec 4) * The unit transmitting the 10-75 for a fire in a building with window bars should include a brief description of the type of building involved and state the presence of window bars. * An additional Engine and Ladder shall be special called. The special called ladder company shall be a Tower Ladder if one is not assigned on the first alarm assignment. If there are indications that people are trapped, ensure the response of a Rescue Company

Question 98

Operating at a building under construction when wood forms are being used to support concrete can be challenging for firefighters, due to the heavy fire load, and possible structural failure. From the choices listed below, select the incorrect statement in regards to operations in these types of buildings. A) The heaviest fire load is usually found stored on the floor which is one level below the most recently poured floor B) Upon arrival, Officers are to obtain how many hours the concrete has been curing by seeking out a responsible person such as construction engineer, building superintendent or concrete foreman C) The structural stability of the actual floor below the recently poured could be considered sound D) The method of forming the poured concrete floors consists of 5/8" or 3/4" plywood held in place by 4" x 4" wood studs. One shoring stud is placed every 4 feet on center extending from the floor to the underside of the plywood form above E) It is required that every floor that has been stripped of its supporting plywood forms and is in its curing stage be reshored. This reshoring of one 4"x4" stud placed every 8 feet will usually be found on at least 8 floors below the most recently poured floor

Answer 98

ANSWER: A) The heaviest fire load is usually found stored on the floor which is one level below the most recently poured floor. (INCORRECT) (Safety Bulletin 66) * The fire load is created by the storage of sheets of plywood and wood studs previously stripped from a cure. This lumber is usually found stored on the floor which is TWO levels below the most recently poured floor and will serve as the forms or the next floor to be poured

Question 99

All fire apparatus when responding to or returning from alarms must stop for school buses under certain conditions. Choose the incorrect condition. A) When the bus is stopped with its lights flashing or is showing a visual signal indicating stop B) When children are only being discharged from the bus C) When approaching the stopped bus from any direction D) Fire apparatus shall remained stopped until the bus resumes motion or the bus driver or police officer signals you to proceed

Answer 99

ANSWER: B) When children are only being discharged from the bus. (INCORRECT) (Safety Bulletin 6 reference #1) * When children are being loaded OR discharged from the bus

Question 100

An important duty for all company officers is to properly document when a member is injured or when a member is exposed. Choose the incorrect procedure for reporting an injury/exposure. A) Officers can create non-biological exposure report on their own. Medical officer notification is only required when a member has symptoms from the exposure B) The Officer shall enter all available information into the CIRS report, with or without the injured/exposed member's signature and/or narrative within 7 days C) If an injury/exposure occurred at a non-response or the Officer is having difficulty entering the FDID 16 digit number then all 8s shall be entered as the FDID and Box number. D) When a member sustains an injury during a collision, the injury must be reflected into the Collision Reporting System and the Collision Number, if available, shall be noted in the narrative section of the injury report

Answer 100

ANSWER: C) If an injury/exposure occurred at a non-response or the Officer is having difficulty entering the FDID 16 digit number then all 8s shall be entered as the FDID and Box number. (INCORRECT) (Safety Bulletin 7) * Enter all 9's Note A - Also, biological exposures and ALL injuries must be reported to the Medical Officer via FDOC within 24 hours.........sec 2.1 and 2.2.1

Question 101

# Choose the incorrect procedure regarding the Department Apparatus Collision Report. A) There are two categories for the Collision Reporting System, Collisions and Incidents. A collision is when a bicyclist strikes an apparatus B) A collision resulting in death, personal injury, for property damage over $1,000 to any one person, or if property damage cannot be estimated then a MV-104 form must be sent to Dept of Motor Vehicles within 10 days and a copy forwarded to Safety Command within 96 hours C) An officer in a first preventable collision will be interviewed and counseled by a chief officer from the officer's assigned battalion D) An officer involved in a second preventable collision in a 18 month period will result in a Supervisory Conference with a chief officer from the officer's assigned battalion

Answer 101

ANSWER: D) An officer involved in a second preventable collision in a 18 month period will result in a Supervisory Conference with a chief officer from the officer's assigned battalion. (INCORRECT) (Safety Bulletin 56) * An officer involved in a third preventable collision in a 18 month period will result in a Supervisory Conference between the unit commander and a chief officer from the unit commander's assigned battalion. A - Collision: An apparatus collision is when an apparatus strikes or is struck by a vehicle, pedestrian, or bicyclist, or a fixed object. D - An officer involved in a second preventable collision in a 12 month period will result in a Supervisory Conference with a chief officer from the officer's assigned battalion.

Question 102

The incorrect statement made in regards to the FDNY Seatbelt Policy/ Donning Personal Protective Clothing (PPC) can be found in which choice? A) All members shall don their Personal Protective Clothing (PPC) prior to boarding the apparatus when a response is received requiring PPC. This includes responding from quarters or while on outdoors activities (BISP, Hydrants, etc) B) If a response occurs requiring the use of PPC while the apparatus is in motion; the apparatus shall be stopped immediately at the nearest safe location to allow all members to don their PPC prior to resuming response C) The enforcement of the seat belt policy is the responsibility of the Chief and Company Officers D) The ultimate responsibility for seat belt use lies with the company officer to ensure all members are in compliance during a response

Answer 102

ANSWER: D) The ultimate responsibility for seat belt use lies with the company officer to ensure all members are in compliance during a response. (INCORRECT) (SB 67) * The ultimate responsibility for seat belt use lies with each person riding in a vehicle. A - Conflict (AUC 310 7.2.1) says while responding to structure fires "All Members 'Except Chauffers' shall don their PPE prior to responding."

Question 103

The term "Clutter" shall be used to describe an accumulation of material which may impact operations. The terms used are Light Clutter, Medium Clutter, and Heavy Clutter. From the choices below select the most correct definition in reference to the Clutter term. A) Medium Clutter describes there is little or no effect in access/egress for members B) Heavy Clutter describes entrances and interior pathways will be partially blocked hampering movement C) Light Clutter describes that primary searches possible, but secondary searches will be delayed D) Medium Clutter describes handlines will be more difficult. Fuel load may exceed capability of handlines

Answer 103

ANSWER: D) Medium Clutter describes handlines will be more difficult. Fuel load may exceed capability of handlines. (Safety Bulletin 92 p-3) A - LIGHT Clutter describes there is little or no effect in access/egress for members B - MEDIUM Clutter describes entrances and interior pathways will be partially blocked hampering movement C - MEDIUM Clutter describes that primary searches possible, but secondary searches will be delayed

Question 104

In order to pass on important information to members, the FDNY developed the Pass It On Program and the Near-Miss Reporting System. Choose the incorrect statement made in regards to these two reporting systems. A) If you experience a near-miss, use the Near-Miss webpage on the FDNY Intranet to share it with all members of the Department. The submission of a near-miss is anonymous and will not be traced back to the member B) An option of submitting a near-miss is for members to download the form from the FDNY Intranet and send it through the bag, no endorsements required, to the Chief of Safety C) In order to pass along information via the Pass It On Program, the IC (LT and above) shall fax the information directly to the Bureau of Operations within one week of the operation. Prior to faxing, a telephone call shall be made to administrative Division via the chain of command D) In addition to faxing the information to the Bureau of Operations for the Pass It On Program, a copy shall be forwarded to the administrative Division via the chain of command.

Answer 104

ANSWER: C) In order to pass along information via the Pass It On Program, the IC (LT and above) shall fax the information directly to the Bureau of Operations within one week of the operation. Prior to faxing, a telephone call shall be made to administrative Division via the chain of command. (INCORRECT) (SB 90 - 2 and 91 - 1.4) * Within TWENTY FOUR (24) hours of the operation * Bureau of Ops reviews/formats final within 48 hours