HAZARDOUS MATERIALS & ERP Flashcards
The term LP refers to Liquid Petroleum Gases which are stored as a liquid under pressure but vaporize into a gas when the pressure is released. Which of the following properties describing LP gas is incorrect?
A) LP gases are heavier than air (1.5 to 2 times heavier)
B) LP gases are toxic and poisonous. Asphyxiation can occur due to oxygen displacement.
C) LP gas is flammable
D) LP gas is odorless; an odorizing agent is added for domestic consumption.
ANSWER: B) LP gases are toxic and poisonous. Asphyxiation can occur due to oxygen displacement. (INCORRECT)
- NON TOXIC and NON POISONOUS
(HM 1 - 2.1)
Some basic precautions to take at LP gas fires and emergencies include all of the following except which choice?
A) Whenever possible, approach the incident from upwind. Keep the nozzle low and aim it upward to disperse gases or flaming vapors.
B) Clear all persons out of the vapor cloud area, evacuate areas in the path of the vapor cloud immediately. Shut off all ignition sources at the same time.
C) If not present, call for police assistance to establish and maintain a safety zone.
D) Keep all members engaged in operations at least 1000 feet from the front and rear of the tank and 500 feet from the sides.
ANSWER: D) Keep all members engaged in operations at least 1000 feet from the front and rear of the tank and 500 feet from the sides. (INCORRECT)
- Keep all members NOT ENGAGED IN OPERATIONS at these distances.
(HM 1 - 3.4)
When operating at an LP tank leak with a fire, which of the following procedures is described correctly?
A) Approach the tank from either end, applying water to all exposed surfaces.
B) Never extinguish the fire until the leak has been stopped.
C) Portable dry chemical extinguishers are effective on small LP gas fires. Carbon dioxide extinguishers can also be used.
D) Tank failure usually occurs in the liquid area of the tank when sufficient water cannot be applied to prevent the metal from softening or weakening to a point where metal failure occurs.
ANSWER: C) Portable dry chemical extinguishers are effective on small LP gas fires. Carbon dioxide extinguishers can also be used.
A - Approach the tank from the SIDES, applying water to all exposed surfaces as well as piping and valves.
B - Do not extinguish the fire until the leak has been stopped, EXCEPT UNDER EXTREMELY UNUSUAL CONDITIONS.
D - Tank failure under fire conditions usually occurs in the VAPOR AREA of the tank when sufficient water cannot be applied to prevent the metal from softening or weakening to a point where metal failure occurs.
(HM 1 - 1.4.6)
You are a Lt. discussing some of the inherent hazards with propane fueled vehicles with one of your probies. You make the following four remarks. Which is the only correct statement?
A) Propane is a liquefied gas stored in cylinders at a temperature below its boiling point and remains under pressure in liquid form only as long as the container remains closed to the atmosphere.
B) One cubic foot of liquid will expand 170 times as a gas.
C) There is a great possibility that a cylinder involved in a fire will BLEVE (boiling liquid expanding vapor explosion). A satisfactory performance of a relief valve will prevent a BLEVE.
D) If the tank area is involved in fire, immediately locate where the tank relief valve discharges and keep clear of this area. On passenger cars this discharge point will be within 45 degrees of the vertical.
ANSWER: D) If the tank area is involved in fire, immediately locate where the tank relief valve discharges and keep clear of this area. On passenger cars this discharge point will be within 45 degrees of the vertical.
A - Propane is a liquefied gas stored in cylinders at a temperature ABOVE its boiling point and remains under pressure in liquid form only as long as the container remains closed to the atmosphere.
B - One cubic foot of liquid will expand TWO HUNDRED AND SEVENTY (270) times as a gas.
C - A satisfactory performance of a relief valve WILL NOT prevent a BLEVE.
(HM 1 - 2.4.1)
Members are at the kitchen table discussing compressed natural gas (CNG) fueled vehicles. The probie is questioning you about the features that he might encounter with these types of vehicles. You respond with the following information. Which piece of information is incorrect?
A) All vehicles powered by CNG, which requires a FD permit to operate using such fuel, are required to have a warning placard on the rear bumper only.
B) The identification number 1971 in the diamond indicates that CNG is being used for propulsion.
C) Natural gas is flammable, non-toxic, and lighter than air (about 2/3 as heavy)
D) CNG cylinders are subject to failure, but not to BLEVE because they do not contain liquid.
ANSWER: A) All vehicles powered by CNG, which requires a FD permit to operate using such fuel, are required to have a warning placard on the rear bumper only. (INCORRECT)
- Warning placard is on the FRONT AND REAR
(HM 1 - 3.2.1)
NYC Transit Operators, both MTA and private no longer have methanol fueled buses in operation. There is however a possibility that these types of vehicles will enter NYC from other jurisdictions. All of the statements below related to methanol are correct except which?
A) Methanol is a highly volatile flammable liquid with a flash point of 54 degrees F.
B) Methanol vapors are slightly heavier than air and will flow along the ground collecting in low areas. It is soluble in water.
C) Application of large amounts of water will dilute methanol rendering it non-flammable. The concentration of methanol must be reduced below 25% to be effective.
D) Methanol is destructive to ordinary foam. Alcohol type foam must be used. Purple K is the most effective of the dry chemical extinguishing agents.
ANSWER: Application of large amounts of water will dilute methanol rendering it non-flammable. The concentration of methanol must be reduced below 25% to be effective. (INCORRECT)
- Must be reduced below TWENTY PERCENT (20%) to be effetcive.
(HM 1 - 4.2)
While working your first tour as a Lieutenant in a Queens Ladder Company, your unit responds to an accident on the BQE. Upon arrival you find an overturned tank truck which has spilled its product onto the road. On the tank truck you see a diamond placard with the number “8” at the bottom. You would be correct to identify this product as a?
A) Corrosive
B) Oxidizer
C) Flammable Liquid
D) Poison
ANSWER: A) Corrosive
“Every Good Lts. S. O. P. Reqs. Coord. Members”
E - 1) Explosives
G - 2) Gases Compressed
L - 3) Flammable Liquid
S - 4) Flammable Solid
O - 5) Oxidizers
P - 6) Poison
R - 7) Radioactive
C - 8) Corrosives
M - 9) Miscellaneous
(HM 2 2.1)
Members should be aware of how chemicals can gain entrance into their body. Which of the following is not considered a method of exposure?
A) Inhalation (breathing)
B) Skin contact (absorption)
C) Ingestion (swallowing)
D) Being within line of sight of the chemical.
ANSWER: D) Being within line of sight of the chemical. (INCORRECT)
Inhalation (breathing) / Skin contact (absorption) / Ingestion (swallowing) & PUNCTURE OR WOUND.
(HM 2 3.1)
Safety of members is of the utmost importance at a haz-mat incident. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information?
A) Proper identification of the material involved is essential to decide on safe tactics to handle any haz-mat incident. Identification should be the initial action taken by the first to arrive units.
B) Often, plant personnel or the vehicle driver can supply the name of the involved material.
C) Upon arrival at a haz-mat incident, if there are no clearly recognizable signs, it is safe to assume there are no hazards.
D) Any members who are exposed prior to the recognition of the hazardous material should be isolated until proper information is available.
ANSWER: C) Upon arrival at a haz-mat incident, if there are no clearly recognizable signs, it is safe to assume there are no hazards. (INCORRECT)
- DO NOT ASSUME THERE ARE NO HAZARDS.
(HM 2 4.8)
Proper identification of a hazardous material is essential to implementing safe tactics and should be the initial action taken by first to arrive units. One option for identification of a hazardous material in transit is to check shipping papers. Of the following choices, which description is correct?
A) Railroad - Bill of lading is kept in the caboose or engine.
B) Truck - The waybill is carried by the driver.
C) Aircraft - The air bill is kept in the rear of the fuselage
D) Ships - The cargo manifest is kept by the master or first mate.
ANSWER: D) Ships - The cargo manifest is kept by the master or first mate.
Truck ———The “bill of lading” is kept in the cab within reach of the driver.
Railroad ——The “waybill” is carried by the conductor in the caboose or engine.
Aircraft——-The “air bill” is kept by the pilot.
Ships ———-The “cargo manifest” is kept by the master or first mate.
(HM 2 4.4)
Following a recent haz-mat incident, the first arriving Engine Captain was discussing strategy and tactics with the Haz-Mat Battalion. In which choice was an incorrect comment made?
A) If no information is available from placards or chemical names on a vehicle, obtain the transporter’s name on the vehicle and the license plate number and state, which can be checked by the police department computer. A similar procedure can be used for railroad cars, using the railroad’s name and the number ont he car.
B) If 1st arriving units are able to identify a hazardous substance by name, this shall be relayed, letter by letter, phonetically (A-Adam / B-Boy etc.), to the dispatcher for notification to Chemtrec and to the hazardous materials response team (HMRT)
C) In general, Department of Transportation regulations require placards to be posted only on trucks that are transporting over 1000 pounds of the particular material.
D) In cases involving derailment of railroad tank cars, the Hazardous Materials Unit should only be called when it appears there is significant damage. In all cases, the use of water on substances leaking and/or fuming is a proper tactic pending identification and hazard assessment.
ANSWER: D) In cases involving derailment of railroad tank cars, the Hazardous Materials Unit should only be called when it appears there is significant damage. In all cases, the use of water on substances leaking and/or fuming is a proper tactic pending identification and hazard assessment. (INCORRECT)
- DO NOT use water on any substance that is fuming until after proper identification and hazard assessment.
- The Hazardous Materials unit MUST BE CALLED, even when it APPEARS THERE IS NO DAMAGE.
(HM 2 7)
Company Officers should be aware of the hazards of asbestos as well as proper tactics when responding to asbestos-related incidents. Of the following choices, which contains the most correct statements?
- Asbestos in its natural state or “Asbestos Containing Material”, when intact, does not present a health hazard.
- Isolate the suspected area and protect civilians and members from possible exposure.
- Contact the Haz-Mat Battalion via dispatcher, cell phone or 800 MHz radio. In consultation with the Haz-Mat Battalion, transmit the appropriate 10-80 signal, specifying an asbestos related incident.
- Strictly enforce the Department’s SCBA policy to reduce inhalation exposure. The SCBA must be used until decontamination procedures are initiated or the member has been washed down.
- Gently wet down suspected asbestos material using a fog or spray stream. This will minimize the amount of fibers that become airborne.
- Limit overhaul in the suspected area.
- Isolate members suspected of being contaminated to prevent cross-contamination of apparatus or other members.
A) 2,3,4,5,6,7
B) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7
C) 1,2,3,4,7
D) 1,2,3,4,6,7
ANSWER: B) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7 (All are correct)
HM 3 2.1 / 4.1-4.7
As a good officer you would know that Carbon monoxide (CO) is a natural by-product of incomplete combustion that is a flammable gas with an auto ignition temperature of 1128 degreed Farenheit. From the choices below which is the only incorrect point about CO?
A) CO has a vapor density which makes it slightly lighter than air (.968)
B) CO is a colorless, odorless, tasteless, irritating, non-toxic gas.
C) The LEL of CO is 12.5% and the UEL is 74%.
D) CO provides no early warning signs and is about 210 times more attracted to hemoglobin than O2.
ANSWER: B) CO is a colorless, odorless, tasteless, irritating, non-toxic gas. (INCORRECT)
- NON IRRITATING (silent killer)
- TOXIC GAS
(HM 4 - 2.1)
At the change of tours two officers were discussing how CO is considered to represent the most dangerous acute exposure faced by firefighters. Even at low concentrations, CO may impair judgement, visual acuteness and decision making. In which point below should the members correct the officer?
A) Low level CO poisoning can mimic flu-like symptoms, headache (mild/severe), fatigue, nasuea, dizziness, confusion, irratibility.
B) Medium level Co poisoning - vomiting, drowsiness, loss of conciousness.
C) High level CO poisoning - seizure, coma, permanent brain damage, death.
D) To reverse the buildup of carboxyhemoglobin (COHb) in the body, over 250 parts of oxygen are required to replace one part of CO.
ANSWER: D) To reverse the buildup of carboxyhemoglobin (COHb) in the body, over 250 parts of oxygen are required to replace one part of CO. (INCORRECT)
- TWO HUNDRED (200) parts of O2
(HM 4 3.11)
1 Engine & 1 Ladder respond to a CO detector activation in an OLT, apartment 3B on the 3rd floor. Which action taken by these units should be corrected?
A) The Ladder Company took initial readings of CO in the kitchen of apartment 3B at a location high and in the middle of the room.
B) The Officer of the ladder company, after determining that readings of over 150 PPM were caused by a defective stove in apartment 3B ordered the occupants of that apartment to leave the building. Once the CO levels dropped to 9 PPM the Ladder officer told the occupants they could return to their apartment and they didnt need to wait for the utility company.
C) After the Ladder company shut down the defective stove the Captain of the Engine as the IC, requested the utility company to respond.
D) The Ladder company officer sent the Roof FF & OV FF to search the utility room in the cellar.
ANSWER: A) The Ladder Company took initial readings of CO in the kitchen of apartment 3B at a location high and in the middle of the room. (INCORRECT)
- Take initial readings AT THE FRONT DOOR or the premises.
(HM 4 - 4.1.3)
In regards to Carbon Monoxide runs, the IC shall request the utility company to respond in all of the following situations except which one?
A) CO levels over 9 PPM are recorded by the meter.
B) An individual is displaying symptoms of CO poisoning.
C) The IC feels a response by the utility company is required.
D) On scene units shut down any appliance.
ANSWER: D) On scene units shut down any appliance. (INCORRECT)
- Units on the scene shut off a GAS appliance.
(HM 4 - 4.1.5)
On a busy day tour in Brooklyn, you respond to a CO alarm in a PD. Upon your investigation you find a CO Detector was present but did not activate. There is 60 PPM reading throughout the PD. What is the most accurate signal to give in this scenario?
A) 10-38 Code 1
B) 10-38 Code 2
C) 10-38 Code 3
D) 10-38 Code 4
ANSWER: D) 10-38 Code 4
- No detector activation or detector present but did not activate.
- Do not be thrown off by the # of PPM
(Comm 8 pg 11)
A CO investigation will determine if a response is just an investigation, an incident or an emergency. Choose the most correct regarding a CO incident or emergency.
A) Transmit a 10-38 Code 1 for CO incidents if no occupants are symptomatic and meter readings are 1-9 PPM.
B) If there are CO meter readings of 6 PPM but the occupant is complaining of flu-like symptoms you should transmit a 10-38 code 3.
C) SCBAs shall be worn at all CO emergencies and used at all CO investigations.
D) When a fatality or serious injury associated with a CO incident is discovered, the IC shall have NYPD notified through the dispatcher.
ANSWER: B) If there are CO meter readings of 6 PPM but the occupant is complaining of flu-like symptoms you should transmit a 10-38 code 3.
A - Code 1 is defective / unwarranted / low battery. In this scenario trasmit a a 10-38 Code 2 for an Incident.
C - SCBA shall be worn at all CO INVESTIGATIONS & used at all CO EMERGENCIES.
D - Fatality or serious injury associated with CO, contact BFI through the dispatcher.
(HM 4 - 5.1.2)
The GasAlert Extreme is a warning device issued for monitoring CO gas in ambient air. Use of the instrument is intended to alert the user to CO presence in the environment. What is the most correct point about the GasAlert Extreme?
A) If the concentration of CO in the atmopshere exceeds 9 PPM, the meter will signal the following alarm: a slow modulating tone (every 1 second) with slow flashing red lights (every 1 second) and a slow vibration (every 1 second). When the CO concentration falls below 9 PPM, the alarm will automatically turn off.
B) If the concentration of CO in the atmopshere exceeds 100 PPM, the meter will signal the following alarm: a fast modulating tone (every 1/2 second) with fast flashing red lights (every 1/2 second) and a fast vibration (every 1/2 second). When the CO concentration falls below 100 PPM, the alarm will automatically turn off.
C) The meter is equipped with 4 push buttons and should be affixed to the HT strap, near the HT antenna. To turn on and activate the meter press the green circular button on the right only. The right button is the only button to be used by field units. The other 3 buttons are for use by Haz-mat ops meter room only.
D) CO meters will display readings up to 999 PPM. If readings of 1,000 PPM or more are detected, the CO meter will display “OL”, indicating an over limit condition.
ANSWER: D) CO meters will display readings up to 999 PPM. If readings of 1,000 PPM or more are detected, the CO meter will display “OL”, indicating an over limit condition.
A - THIRTY FIVE (35) PPM (slow tone/light/vibration)
B - When concentration falls below 100 PPM, the alarm will GO INTO LOW ALARM.
C - Only push the green circular button on the LEFT. Having CO meter near handie-talkie antenna WILL CAUSE FALSE ACTIVATION. Wear near CHEST area.
(HM 4 - Addendum 4)
Which choice contains incorrect information about maintenance of the GasAlert Extreme CO Meter?
A) At the start of each tour, turn the meter on and allow it to perform a self test. Ensure the sensor port is clear from any blockage.
B) The low battery alarm consists of 1 beep (every 5 seconds), 1 flash (every 5 seconds), 1 quick vibration (every 1 minute), and a low battery icon will appear ont he display.
C) Field units are only to perform regular maintenance on the meter. Defective meters shall be exchanged directly to Haz Mat Ops meter room by the Officer.
D) If marking the meter with company ID, do not etch or use markers (sticker/tape are acceptable)
ANSWER: C) Field units are only to perform regular maintenance on the meter. Defective meters shall be exchanged directly to Haz Mat Ops meter room by the Officer. (INCORRECT)
- Field units DO NOT perform maintenance on CO meters.
- CO Meters are ONE FOR ONE EXCHANGE w/ Battalion.
(HM 4 - Addendum 4)
A Lt. from L160 was supervising a company drill concerning the Chemical Protective Clothing (CPC) carried by their unit. The Lt. should correct which statement made in regard to a CPC unit’s operations?
A) Their purpose is to assist in performing search, rescue and removal of emergency responders and civilians from contaminated areas.
B) CPC units are certified to operate in both Level A and Level B CPC and can perform required documentation.
C) They are trained to perform mitigation at hazardous material operations.
D) They can be utilized at any incident where the incident commander feels their training and equipment might be useful
ANSWER: C) They are trained to perform mitigation at hazardous material operations. (INCORRECT)
- They are NEITHER TRAINED NOR EQUIPPED to perform mitigation.
(HM 5 - 1.1)
CPC unit entries into a contaminated area require a coordinated team effort by trained CPC members. The minimum number of members required to make up this team can be found in which choice?
A) 4 members (2 entry, 2 backup)
B) 4 members (2 entry, 1 backup, 1 decontamination)
C) 6 members (2 entry, 2 backup, 2 decontamination)
D) 5 members (2 entry, 2 backup, 1 decontamination)
ANSWER: D) 5 members (2 entry, 2 backup, 1 decontamination)
HM 5 - 4.1
Two CPC trained Lieutenants were breifing the members of their units prior to entry into a contaminated area. Which statement would be a correct one for these officers to make?
A) Several units may be combined to make up a complete CPC team.
B) Under no circumstances shall a CPC officer don a CPC suit.
C) The 1st to arrive ladder company officer shall recommend the entry point into the hot zone for the CPC Unit when they arrive
D) At a minimum, there must be an entry and backup team in place prior to any entry into the hot zone.
ANSWER: A) Several units may be combined to make up a complete CPC team.
B - The CPC Unit Officer shall not don a chemical protective suit UNLESS the situation indicates that a suit is required in order to properly supervise the unit’s operation.
C - The first arriving CPC UNIT OFFICER will recommend to the IC the ENTRY POINT into the Hot Zone (based on their training, initial briefing and size-up), and then establish the CPC Unit Assembly Area adjacent to the entry point.
D - The necessary number of trained individuals must be assembled and a DECONTAMINATION STATION must be established and staffed before entry is made.
(HM 5 - 4.1 / 5.1)
The CPC entry team from Ladder Company 172 is operating at an ammonia leak with a confirmed unconcious person below grade. Members operating at this incident should know which operating procedure to be incorrect?
A) Always operate as a team, within line of sight of each other.
B) Both members of the entry team shall be radio equipped.
C) If one mmeber of the entry team goes down for any reason, the other member must immediately leave the operating area.
D) When one member must leave the operating area, he must be accompanied by the other.
ANSWER: C) If one mmeber of the entry team goes down for any reason, the other member must immediately leave the operating area. (INCORRECT)
- If one of the Entry team members goes down for an UNKNOWN REASON, the other team member must leave the operating area to insure notification is made to the Back up team for the need of an immediate rescue.
(HM 5 - 6.1)
The Backup team has very specific and important duties to perform at CPC incidents. A candidate for Lt. would be incorrect if he were to believe which statement concerning the team’s operations at a CPC event?
A) Both members of the backup team shall be handie-talkie equipped.
B) The backup team’s primary task is to assist the entry team in the removal of downed civilians should the need arise.
C) Backup team members shall stand fast in the CPC standby position (both legs in suit, outer boots and surgical gloves on, SCBA donned, cylinder opened and facepiece on, regulator disengaged from facepiece, right arm in suit and ID tag in place)
D) Backup team members will assist entry team members with the donning of their CPC suits.
ANSWER: B) The backup team’s primary task is to assist the entry team in the removal of downed civilians should the need arise. (INCORRECT)
- They shall be ready to enter the Hot Zone, when directed to do so by the CPC Unit Officer, to RESCUE AND REMOVE AN ENTRY TEAM MEMBER(S) should the need arise.
(HM 5 - 7.1)
The IC shall special call a CPC or Haz Mat Technician Unit (HMTU) as a FAST unit when how many entry teams are expected to be put to work?
A) One entry team
B) More than one entry team
C) More than two entry teams
D) Whenever Hazardous Materials Unit 1 is special called for entry.
ANSWER: C) More than two entry teams
HM 5 - 7.2
A multiple victim incident requires substantially different tactics from those with a single victim. Additional entry teams will have to be special called. The minimum number of victims that must be encountered for it to be classified as a multiple victim incident is?
A) 5
B) 4
C) 3
D) 2
ANSWER: C) 3
HM 5 - 9.1
The CPC Ladder company you are in command of has just arrived at an alarm for an odor of gas in a taxpayer occupancy. The occupancy is the political headquarters of a Senatorial candidate. Upon arrival you are met by a staff member who states that two masked men entered the occupancy and threw a container of an unidentified liquid in the office. Two confirmed victims are visible behind the glass entrance doors. One is semi-concious and within the reach of your members, the other apparently unconscious is further back. Your unit is responding with 4 CPC trained members. The best action for you to take in this situation is found in which choice?
A) Order 2 CPC suited members to enter the hot zone due to the immediate life situation. Have one CPC trained member standby as a backup while the 4th CPC trained member establishes a decontamination station.
B) Order a rescue attempt with 2 CPC equipped members while 2 remain in the backup position for immediate rescue of the entry team.
C) Order one CPC suited member to rescue the closest victim after the establishment of a backup team and decontamination station.
D) Insure that no entry into the hot zone is attempted until the required number of properly trained CPC members are on scene and a decontamination station is established.
ANSWER: D) Insure that no entry into the hot zone is attempted until the required number of properly trained CPC members are on scene and a decontamination station is established.
- Need 5 CPC members present before entering hot zone.
- In this scenario only 4 CPC trained members on scene.
(HM 5 - 8.1)
Large scale incidents involving multiple victims are a much more complex operation than those with one or two. Arriving at a terrorist gas release at a large theater in Midtown Manhattan, you should order the members of your well trained CPC unit to perform which of the following duties?
A) Remove non-ambulatory victims first, as their need is greatest and their exposure is generally more severe.
B) Nudge all apparently unconscious victims in order to determine their level of responsiveness.
C) After performing Noxious Stimulus Triage, place a black tag on any responsive victim.
D) After removing all ambulatory victims, CPC entry teams should next remove the black tagged victims.
ANSWER: B) Nudge all apparently unconscious victims in order to determine their level of responsiveness.
A - AMBULATORY victims should be addressed first. These victims are generally farthest from the release and have experienced the smallest exposure dose and require the least amount of time to remove.
C - Using the triage tags, any victim with NO RESPONSE to NST shall be black tagged.
D - After all the ambulatory victims have been directed to the proper CCP, the Entry teams shall then turn their attention to any NON-AMBULATORY victims.
(HM 5 - 9.1)
After a hazardous materials release, vapor or aerosol hazards can still exist on victims after they have left the scene of release. The FDNY has the ability to deliver large quantities of water which is the key to removing contamination. A Lt. would know that which of the following is incorrect concerning Emergency Mass Decontamination at hazardous materials incidents?
A) When preparing for gross decontamination, realize that high pressure streams utilizing low volumes of water provide the best decontamination stream.
B) Firefighters who are exposed should remove their bunker gear prior to removing their facepiece.
C) Rapid removal of material from the victim is the single most important action associated with effective decontamination.
D) Removal of a victims clothing can remove up to 90% of decontamination from the victim.
ANSWER: A) When preparing for gross decontamination, realize that high pressure streams utilizing low volumes of water provide the best decontamination stream. (INCORRECT)
- The most expedient approach is to use our standard firefighting equipment to provide emergency LOW PRESSURE STREAMS supplying HIGH VOLUMES OF WATER, allowing for large amounts of people to be deconned quickly.
(HM 7 - 2.3)
You are the Captain of Engine 7 who has been ordered to set up an emergency mass decontamination corridor utilizing a hoseline. Proper procedures performed by your unit should include all but which of the following?
A) Members stretched a 2 1/2” handline equipped with an Aquastream fog nozzle.
B) The ECC supplied the line with an operating pressure between 60-100 psi.
C) A 2nd line was positioned opposite the 1st line at a distance of 25’ to 30’.
D) Care was taken by the nozzle teams to avoid pushing contamination on each other.
ANSWER: B) The ECC supplied the line with an operating pressure between 60-100 psi. (INCORRECT)
- The recommended operating pressure range is between FIFTY and EIGHTY (50 to 80 psi)
(HM 7 - 2.4.3)
An officer would be considered to be operating incorrectly if he were to order which nozzle utilized when establishing an emergency decontamination corridor?
A) Turbomaster Nozzle placed on the apparatus mounted multiversal of an Engine Company.
B) An Aquastream Nozzle placed on the ladder pipe of an aerial ladder.
C) A Turbomaster Nozzle mounted on the TL basket.
D) Two Aquastream Nozzles mounted on opposing Engines.
ANSWER: A) Turbomaster Nozzle placed on the apparatus mounted multiversal of an Engine Company. (INCORRECT)
- Turbomaster on Engine is NOT LISTED in this bulletin.
(HM 7 - 2.4.4)
SOC Support Ladder (SSL) Company members receive 40 hours of HazMat training and are designated as HazMat Tech 1. Which choice is correct concerning the training and staffing of a SSL Company?
A) These members are not trained or equipped to perform mitigation activities such as leak stopping, neutralizing or overpacking a product unless requested to assist HazMat Tech Unit (HMTU) or HazMat Company 1 (HMC1)
B) If assisting a HMTU or HMC1, SSL members will function only under the direct supervision of the SSL Officer.
C) To operate as a SSL Company, the unit shall be staffed with at least 3 trained FFs, or a trained Officer and 2 trained FFs
D) SSL members may perform a HazMat entry if they have 2 trained entry members on scene, with 2 trained back-up members and sufficient decontamination personnel responding to the incident.
ANSWER: A) These members are not trained or equipped to perform mitigation activities such as leak stopping, neutralizing or overpacking a product unless requested to assist HazMat Tech Unit (HMTU) or HazMat Company 1 (HMC1).
B - Members will function under the direct supervision of the HMTU OFFICER OR HMC1 OFFICER.
C - ONE (1) OFFICER & THREE (3) TRAINED FFs
D - To perform a hazardous materials entry, the IC shall ensure two entry members, two backup members and sufficient decontamination personnel are ASSEMBLED prior to entry.
(HazMat 10 - 3.1)
Company Commanders are entrusted with several responsibilities to ensure that SSL members attend required SOC/HazMat Refresher Training. Which statement is incorrect concerning this duty?
A) When units receive an email notification of future HazMat refresher training dates, a minimum of one member from each SSL Unit per training date is required to be submitted.
B) When Company Commanders receive a training order via email, they are required to complete the receipt of training order form for all members scheduled to attend.
C) If a scheduled member is unable to attend training (ML, long term detail etc.) the unit loses that training slot and it will be filled by another SSL Unit.
D) Company Commanders shall maintain a list of all SSL certified members, along with their SOC and HazMat certification dates and scheduled training dates.
ANSWER: C) If a scheduled member is unable to attend training (ML, long term detail etc.) the unit loses that training slot and it will be filled by another SSL Unit. (INCORRECT)
- Member should be REPLACED BY AN ALTERNATE MEMBER selected by the company commander.
(HM 10 5.5)
Lt. Jenkins is drilling with the members of a SSL Company on High Angle-Suspended Scaffold Emergencies, Collapse Rescue, and Trench Cave-In operations. Which statement should be corrected?
A) SSL Companies shall lower their 1/2” kernmantle rope, in place of their LSR, as a safety line to workers stranded on a suspended scaffold.
B) SSL members, due to their training in the five phases of the collapse rescue plan, may tunnel, trench or cut through supporting members at a collapse operation if Rescue or Squad personnel are not on scene.
C) At a trench cave-in operation, they shall establish a safety zone around the perimeter, and if possible, begin removing the spoil pile from the danger zone if that has been identified as a problem.
D) When operating at a 5 foot deep trench cave-in, they shall ensure there is a stairway, ramp or ladder placed in the trench so that there is no more than 25 feet of horizontal travel needed to reach these exits.
ANSWER: B) SSL members, due to their training in the five phases of the collapse rescue plan, may tunnel, trench or cut through supporting members at a collapse operation if Rescue or Squad personnel are not on scene. (INCORRECT)
- This can only be done by RESCUE
(HM 10 - 7.3)
Lt. Jenkins discussed SSL Company operations at Confined Space Rescues at a recent drill. Which one of his training points was incorrect?
A) SSL Companies shall not be permitted to attempt any entry that would require the rescuer to leave the direct line of sight of the Officer supervising entry at the entrance to this space.
B) A fully equipped back-up rescuer shall remain on standby.
C) To enter a confined space, a suitable high point anchor shall be positioned, air monitoring has taken place, and steps are taken to remove hazards or protect rescuers from the hazards.
D) Members may enter into a chemical tank at a tank farm if they wear their SCBA and remain attached to their retrieval lines at all times, whether the product is identified or not.
ANSWER: D) Members may enter into a chemical tank at a tank farm if they wear their SCBA and remain attached to their retrieval lines at all times, whether the product is identified or not. (INCORRECT)
- Entry into a chemical tank at a tank farm, where the product and hazards are not readily known, is NOT A PERMISSIBLE ENTRY.
(HM 10 7.2)
In preparation for an approaching tropical storm, the SSL vehicle of L121 is activated to be used as a Rapid Response Vehicle (RRV). Which choice concerning this activation is incorrect?
A) The RRV may operate separately from L121, but will not respond to structural fires unless it has been assigned with other units.
B) The RRV will be designated RR-121
C) If the RRV requires assistance, and has difficulty contacting the dispatcher, they shall use an available telephone.
D) Due to the SSL Vehicle being stored in quarters, HTs and all detection equipment with the exception of the Radalert 50 will be stored in a safe location on the support vehicle.
ANSWER: C) If the RRV requires assistance, and has difficulty contacting the dispatcher, they shall use an available telephone. (INCORRECT)
- Rapid Response Vehicles encountering difficulty in calling for assistance shall use an OPERATING ERS BOX.
(HM 10 - 8)
E100 and Ladder 200 arrive at the same time to a reported possible suicide in Apartment 3D, located on the 3rd floor of a 6 story NLT. When they arrive at the door of apartment 3D they notice a rotten egg smell and a sign on the door cautioning that chemicals are present. Which action taken below should be corrected?
A) The Officer of Ladder 200 transmitted a 10-80 Code 1 signal and requested NYPD.
B) The Officer of Engine 100 ordered members to stretch a line with a fog nozzle attached to be used primarily for decontamination.
C) The Officer of Ladder 200 ordered the OV FF to ventilate the windows of Apt. 3D from the fire escape prior to ordering forcible entry of the apartment’s door.
D) The Officer of Engine 100 ordered members to begin CPR immediately on an unconcious patient found in the rear bedroom of Apt. 3D.
ANSWER: D) The Officer of Engine 100 ordered members to begin CPR immediately on an unconcious patient found in the rear bedroom of Apt. 3D. (INCORRECT)
- Remove patient from area then check responsiveness
(HM 11 3.2)
A knowledgeable Officer would know which choice about Technical Decontamination Task Forces is correct?
A) A Technical Decon Task Force consisting of B26, Decon Engine 73, and SOC Support Ladder 42 with their support vehicle will be designated as Technical Decon Task Force 73.
B) The BC will be designated as the Technical Decon Task Force Leader.
C) To operate as a Decon Engine, the company shall be staffed with a minimum of 3 trained members. The Officer is included in this minimum number of trained members.
D) Decon Engine personnel will perform mitigation if needed at a serious incident.
E) Decon Engine personnel should be used with CPC Ladder Companies for rescue purposes.
ANSWER: B) The BC will be designated as the Technical Decon Task Force Leader.
A - Technical Decon Task Force (26)
C - To operate as a Decon Engine, the company shall be staffed with a minimum of ONE trained officer or trained acting officer, and at least THREE trained firefighters
D - Decon Engine Personnel are NOT Haz-Mat Technicians and will not perform mitigation.
E - Decon Engine Personnel are NOT intended to be used for rescue purposes
(HM 12 2.1)
Decon Engine Companies are key components of Technical Decon Task Forces. Which is the incorrect choice concerning these units?
A) A Decon Engine Company assigned on the initial alarm will function as a normal engine company (Water supply, site access control, etc.) unless the IC relieves them to perform Technical Decontamination.
B) Decon Engine personnel can establish the Decontamination Corridor inside the Warm Zone wearing their work duty uniform or bunker gear.
C) One Decon Engine Company can perform several different technical procedures at an incident.
D) Decon Engine personnel can peform ambulatory decontamination of patients using a privacy shower tent, ideally for a small number of patients.
E) When Decon Engine Personnel perform ambulatory decontamination of patients using a Decon Shower Apparatus, site set-up can be established in work duty uniforms.
ANSWER: C) One Decon Engine Company can perform several different technical procedures at an incident.
- Decon Engine personnel are trained to perform several different technical decontamination procedures. Depending on the type of incident, several of these procedures may be required at a single incident. Since decontamination operations are both labor and time intensive, one Decon Engine Company can ONLY PERFORM ONE TYPE of procedure at an incident.
(HM 12 4.4.6)
When the OMA Response Physician has issued a Class Order to administer nerve agent antidote, CPC trained members should know which choice is incorrect?
A) CPC members will assist in the administration of the antidote in the Exclusion and Contaminated Reduction Zones.
B) CPC members administering antidotes will initially utilize the Mark I kits assigned to their units and/or Haz-Tac personnel. Additional kits can be obtained from EMS units.
C) CPC members will administer the antidote as directed by the Haz-Tac Officer and/or designated Haz-Tac personnel.
D) Green tag patients are given priority for antidote administration.
E) Haz-Tac members will be responsible for triage and monitoring patients treated with antidote in the Exclusion and Contaminated Reduction Zones.
ANSWER: D) Green tag patients are given priority for antidote administration. (INCORRECT)
- RED tag patients are given priority
(HM 13 - 7)
E99 arrives at the scene of a CFR-D response where they locate an unconscious adult in his bedroom, strongly suspected of overdosing on fentanyl in that room. The patient’s respiratory rate is 9 per minute. In this situation, they would be correct to think that they should?
A) Treat the patient in his bedroom, administering Narcan in one nostril only at this time.
B) Move the patient to another room, and administer the Narcan in one nostril only at this time.
C) Move the patient to another room, and administer Narcan in both nostrils immediately.
D) Move the patient to another room, but do not treat the patient with Narcan unless his respiratory rate drops to 8 per minute or less.
ANSWER: B) Move the patient to another room, and administer the Narcan in one nostril only at this time.
- Treatment should NEVER take place in the area of suspected exposure. Removal of the patient from the area and removal of product from the patient’s skin and clothing is PARAMOUNT.
- If an overdose is strongly suspected, and the patient’s respiratory rate is less than (TEN) 10/minute, administer intra- nasal (IN) Naloxone via:
- NARCAN - in ONE nostril. If, after 2- 3 minutes there is no or minimal response, repeat administration of 4mg/0.1ml with a second device into OTHER nostril.
- MUCOSAL ATOMIZER DEVICE - BOTH nostrils
- If after 5 minutes, the patient’s respiratory rate is not greater than TEN 10 breaths/minute, administer a repeat dose of naloxone
(HM 18 - 4 Note)
The USPS has installed Bio-Detection Systems (BDS) in various large mail handling facilities throughout NYC. The BDS is an automated system to detect anthrax that has been placed in the mail. Which statement does not contain correct information about these systems?
A) The BDS continuously analyzes and collects air samples around high speed sorting and routing machines. The system then analyzes samples for anthrax.
B) The scanning system compresses envelopes for more accurate readings.
C) The BDS may take as long as 120 minutes to complete. The letter will continue through the facility during this 120 minute period.
D) When the system alerts, it will be treated as presumptive positive for anthrax.
ANSWER: C) The BDS may take as long as 120 minutes to complete. The letter will continue through the facility during this 120 minute period. (INCORRECT)
- NINETY (90) MINUTES to complete.
(HM 14 -2)
The objective of the FDNY is to render assistance to the USPS within the scope of our resources at
BDS activation calls. The Department’s mission will be to perform triage, treatment and decontamination of anyone that may have been exposed (USPS employees/visitors /customers). Which choice is incorrect regarding FDNY actions at BDS activations?
A) Upon activation at a BDS alarm, an automatic notification will be sent to the 911 system.
B) Upon arrival 1st arriving units shall make contact with the USPS Liaison and will enter the facility only for immediate life safety concerns.
C) Primary and Secondary searches will be performed by FDNY members properly equipped with CPC clothing and metering equipment.
D) A 10-80 is to be transmitted for a confirmed BDS activation.
ANSWER: C) Primary and Secondary searches will be performed by FDNY members properly equipped with CPC clothing and metering equipment. (INCORRECT)
- USPS EMPLOYEES will conduct primary and secondaries
(HM 14 - 3.1)
FDNY Decontamination Shower Apparatus (DSA) are designed to be used for the decontamination of firefighters or civilians. Choose the correct statement about these units.
A) They are intended to be used for ambulatory and/or non-ambulatory firefighters and/or civilian.
B) DSAs are intended to be used for technical, decontamination, including the removal of asbestos, PCBs and biological contaminants (anthrax, blood borne and airborne pathogens)
C) The primary or back-up company responsible for delivery will transport the unit to the incident scene. A Squad company, HazMat Tech Engine or HazMat 1 must be on scene to set up and break down the apparatus.
D) Each tour the primary and backup companies shall be staffed with a minimum of 3 firefighters trained to the Decon Engine level.
ANSWER: B) DSAs are intended to be used for technical, decontamination, including the removal of asbestos, PCBs and biological contaminants (anthrax, blood borne and airborne pathogens)
A - DSAs are intened to be used for AMBULATORY victims who DO NOT HAVE LIFE THREATENING SYMPTOMS.
C - PRIMARY & BACKUP COMPANIES are responsible to set up and break down DSAs.
D - Minimum of TWO (2) firefighters trained to the Decon Engine level
(HM 15 - 1.1)
A Lt. working in Engine 283, who is quartered with a Decon Shower Apparatus (DSA) would be incorrect to state which of the following choices?
A) When responding, the DSA shall respond with both the DSA and their regularly assigned apparatus.
B) The DSA should be the subject of quarterly MUDs with both the assigned and backup units taking part. Water should be run through the showerheads and tents should be inspected.
C) In most situations, the DSA will have to be backed into position.
D) When the proper positioning is obtained, the rear half of the apparatus will be in the Hot Zone.
E) It is recommended that the DSA be positioned in the middle of the street or an intersection.
ANSWER: D) When the proper positioning is obtained, the rear half of the apparatus will be in the Hot Zone. (INCORRECT)
- WARM ZONE (where decontamination occurs)
(HM 15 - 3.3)
Engine 45 responds to a commercial building for an EMS run reporting a patient with difficulty breathing. Upon arrival they find a civilian who was exposed to white powder from an envelope received in the mail. NYPD is not yet on scene. The members of this unit would be correct to take all but which one action?
A) Transmit the appropriate 10-80 signal, specifying the suspected anthrax.
B) Since the patient was ambulatory, have them walk away from the area of the envelope.
C) Ask the patient to remove their outer clothing, provide them with a disposable garment or sheet and bag the patient’s clothing in a clear plastic bag.
D) All exposed victims require Emergency Decontamination prior to being treated and transported.
ANSWER: D) All exposed victims require Emergency Decontamination prior to being treated and transported. (INCORRECT)
- All patients who are CRITICAL or UNSTABLE get emergency decontamination.
(HM 16 - 1.2)
Your Engine Company arrives at the scene of a possible mace attack on the 2nd floor of a school. The principal informs you that there are numerous students on the 2nd floor that were exposed to the irritant. You should ensure all but which one tactic listed is performed by your members?
A) At all airborne irritant incidents occupants must be evacuated from the building to fresh air.
B) Ensure full firefighting gear and SCBA are used at all times to protect from exposure.
C) Transmit a 10-80 signal to alert incoming units to proceed with caution to avoid entering a contaminated area.
D) At all incidents, the FDNY Incident Commander will oversee Life Safety operations.
ANSWER: A) At all airborne irritant incidents occupants must be evacuated from the building to fresh air. (INCORRECT)
- We CAN CHOOSE THE SHELTER IN PLACE at these incidents.
- If we have to walk patients through the contaminated area, it would be better to have them shelter in place.
(HM 17)
Engine 306 is responding to a report of an unconscious person from a possible overdose of fentanyl. The member of this company should not take which procedure at this incident?
A) If possible, treat the patient in an area away from the exposure. If patient care must be rendered in the area of the exposure, ensure proper PPE is used.
B) Do not eat, drink, smoke or use the bathroom while working in an area with known or suspected fentanyl.
C) If an overdoes is strongly suspected, and the patient’s respiratory rate is less than 10/minute, administer the Narcan Nasal spray in one nostril. If after 2-3 minutes there is no or minimal response, repeat with a second device in the other nostril.
D) If after 5 minutes, the patient’s respiratory rate is not greater than 10 breaths per minute, administer a repeat dose of Narcan.
ANSWER: A) If possible, treat the patient in an area away from the exposure. If patient care must be rendered in the area of the exposure, ensure proper PPE is used. (INCORRECT)
- NEVER treat a patient who overdosed on fentanyl in the are of suspected exposure.
(HM 18)
If a member’s gear has been exposed to synthetic opiods during firefighter operations, it would be most correct to spray the bunker gear with?
A) Significant amounts of water
B) Medium amounts of water
C) Large amounts of water
D) Just enough water to lightly wet it
ANSWER: D) Just enough water to lightly wet it
HM 18 5.2
1st alarm units observe smoke pushing from a Lithium Ion Energy Storage System. While awaiting the arrival of HazMat units, the on-scene units should take which action?
A) Establish an initial danger zone of at least 25 feet from the cabinets.
B) Shut down the Energy Storage System (ESS) with the stop device (ESTOP) found at either the Fire Department Connection (FDC) or inside the electrical room.
C) An Engine company should stretch a line to the FDC, but do not start water until ordered by the subject matter expert (SME).
D) Transmit a 10-80 No Code signal
ANSWER: B) Shut down the Energy Storage System (ESS) with the stop device (ESTOP) found at either the Fire Department Connection (FDC) or inside the electrical room.
A - Initial danger zone is at least FIFTY (50) FEET away.
C - Stretch a line and CHARGE THE FDC / Signage will state the pressure needed (With fire showing you charge/with no fire or smoke showing you stretch to FDC but do not charge)
D - Transmit 10-80 CODE 1 for ESS units
(HM 18 5.2)
Engine 55 arrives at an alarm for a Lithium Ion Energy Storage System where batteries are stored in containers in a yard. Because there is no smoke or fire showing, they would be correct to think?
A) An initial danger zone should be established of at least 100 feet from any container.
B) Exhaust fans are normally found on the same side as the FD connection. Stay at least 50 feet away from them.
C) A 3 1/2” line should be stretched to the FD connection and charged.
D) A 10-80 Code 1 should be transmitted
ANSWER: D) A 10-80 Code 1 should be transmitted
- Code 1 for ALL ESS runs (Fire/smoke or nothing showing)
A - Initial danger zone is FIFTY (50) FEET
B - Stay at least ONE HUNDRED (100) FEET away from exhaust fans.
C - Only charge FDC if there is FIRE/SMOKE SHOWING
*If no fire or smoke showing you stretch line to FDC but DO NOT CHARGE.
(HM 19)
Ladder 111 arrives at a gas boiler incident that is causing high levels of CO in a 4 story Brownstone. They find initial readings of 200-300 ppm of CO throughout, no detectors are activated anywhere, and the occupants all have nausea and headaches. In this situation, the Ladder Officer would be most correct to think that?
A) CO has a vapor density which makes it slightly heavier than air, so it will disperse evenly in the rooms of the building.
B) The occupants should be informed that the FDNY has detected potentially dangerous levels of CO and it is recommended that they leave the building.
C) A 10-38 Code 3 should be transmitted.
D) Any serious or fatal injuries at this incident must be reported to the BFI through the Borough Dispatcher.
ANSWER: D) Any serious or fatal injuries at this incident must be reported to the BFI through the Borough Dispatcher.
A - CO is slightly LIGHTER THAN AIR
B - Potentially LETHAL levels of CO
C - Give a CODE 4 if NO DETECTOR ACTIVATION
(HM 4 - 2.4)
1st alarm units respond to an alarm for a Lithium Ion-Energy Storage System housed in separate containers in an outdoor facility. On arrival, they determine there is no smoke or fire showing from any container. In this situation, The Engine Officer, as the initial IC, would be correct to?
A) Establish an initial danger zone of at least 25 feet from any container.
B) Insure members remain a minimum of 50 feet away from any exhaust fan on any container.
C) Transmit a 10-80 Code 1 for a HazMat Response
D) Stretch a precautionary hand line and also stretch and charge a supply line to the FD connection.
ANSWER: C) Transmit a 10-80 Code 1 for a HazMat Response.
A - Danger Zone of at least FIFTY (50) FEET
B - ONE HUNDRED (100) FEET from any exhaust fan
D - Stretch an UNCHARGED supply line to FD connection
(HM 19 - pg 4)
Units arriving at the scene of a response to a factory see the NFPA Diamond on the entrance door. The officer notices a number of “2” in the Yellow section of the diamond. The officer would be correct to know that the “2” indicates?
A) There are materials present that can have a violent chemical change.
B) There are materials present that may detonate due to shock and heat.
C) There are materials present that have a Health Hazard considered to be “Hazardous”
D) There are materials present that have a Health Hazard considered to be “slightly hazardous”
ANSWER: A) There are materials present that can have a violent chemical change.
“SUVS May Detonate” (From 0 - 4)
0 - Stable
1 - Unstable if heated
2 - Violent Chemical Change
3 - S - Shock and Heat may detonate
4 - May Detonate
(ERP pg 39)
At HazMat incidents early recognition of incident hazards and potential risk are essential. The initial responsibility for assessment of incident hazards lies with the first responding units. One clue as to the type of hazard that can be found are Shipping Documents and Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS). Which type of MSDS would be found in railcars?
A) Bill of lading
B) Waybill
C) Cargo manifest
D) Air bill
ANSWER: B) Waybill
A - Bill of Lading (Truck)
B - Waybill (Railcar)
C - Cargo Manifest (Ship)
D - Air Bill (Plane)
(ERP 3.3.5 A)
An important task at a HazMat incident is to establish control zones based upon expected or known levels of contamination to reduce the potential for transfer of contamination. Choose an incorrect choice regarding these zones?
A) The Exclusion Zone or “Hot Zone” in the innermost area of the scene and all personnel entering this zone must wear appropriate PPE.
B) Red barrier tape should be used to identify the Exclusion Zone. People equipment and apparatus leaving the initial Exclusion Zone may need to be decontaminated before leaving the scene.
C) The Contamination Reduction Zone (CRZ) or “Warm Zone” lies between the Exclusion Zone and the Support Zone. All decontamination activities occur in the CRZ.
D) The Support Zone is the outermost area of the site and is considered uncontaminated. No contaminated persons, equipment or apparatus are permitted in the Support Zone.
ANSWER: B) Red barrier tape should be used to identify the Exclusion Zone. People equipment and apparatus leaving the initial Exclusion Zone may need to be decontaminated before leaving the scene. (INCORRECT)
- MUST BE DECONTAMINATED when leaving the Exclusion Zone.
(ERP 4.3)
Decontamination is the process of reducing levels of toxic or otherwise harmful substances from personnel, equipment and apparatus. Which choice does not show correct knowledge of decontamination?
A) For the safety of all fire and medical personnel, as well as hospital staff, all victims must be decontaminated prior to medical treatment and transport.
B) Emergency Decontamination may be necessary in potentially life-threatening situations to remove contaminants from victims as expeditiously as possible.
C) Emergency decontamination may or may not involve the formal establishment of a decontamination system.
D) Gross decontamination can be either emergency decontamination or non-emergency decontamination.
ANSWER: A) For the safety of all fire and medical personnel, as well as hospital staff, all victims must be decontaminated prior to medical treatment and transport. (INCORRECT)
- WHENEVER POSSIBLE
- Note that this is a slight conflict from ERP Section 4.3 where it states that all persons, apparatus and equipment MUST BE DECONTAMINATED before leaving the Exclusion Zone.
(ERP 4.3.9)
What level of Chemical Protective Clothing (CPC) is Bunker Gear classified as?
A) Level B
B) Level C
C) Level D
D) It is not classified as CPC
ANSWER: D) It is not classified as CPC
ERP 5.7
Several Ladder companies are trained to operate as CPC ladder companies. Choose a correct statement about these companies.
A) Their primary objective is to perform rescue of ambulatory and non ambulatory victims in the Exclusion Zone.
B) They are trained in all levels of CPC and atmospheric monitoring.
C) They should only operate in the Exclusion Zone when Technical companies are monitoring the environment.
D) CPC unit entries into a contaminated area require a coordinated effort by at least 3 CPC trained members: Entry (2), Backup (1)
ANSWER: C) They should only operate in the Exclusion Zone when Technical companies are monitoring the environment.
A - Their primary objective is to perform rescue NON AMBULATORY victims in the Exclusion Zone. (Ambulatory victims are instructed to get out on their own)
B - They DO NOT monitor or mitigate
D - At least FIVE (5) TRAINED CPC MEMBERS / Entry (2), Backup (2), Decon (1)
- No minimum required number to start tour for CPC truck.
(ERP 8.9 / HazMat 5 - 4.1)
3 Engines, 2 Ladders and a BC are on the scene of a large scale hazardous materials incident. While awaiting the arrival of HazMat units, the 1st Engine should take all but which one of the following actions?
A) Establish water supply. Stretch a line but do not place it into operation until ordered by the IC.
B) Place the initial line upwind and uphill for the safety of the members.
C) If necessary, the members of this company may perform CFRD duties.
D) The officer has the option of splitting up the members to perform more than one task.
ANSWER: D) The officer has the option of splitting up the members to perform more than one task. (INCORRECT)
- REMAIN TOGETHER unless ordered otherwise by the IC.
(ERP 12.1)
The 2nd arriving engine company at a HazMat incident is primarily responsible for what duty?
A) Coordinate with the 2nd ladder in Site Access Control
B) Establish a water supply and stretch a line for decontamination.
C) CFRD Duties
D) Information Resources
ANSWER: A) Coordinate with the 2nd ladder in Site Access Control.
“HA-SAC WA-SAC”
(ERP 12.2)
Members of the 1st arriving ladder company are responsible for hazard assessment at a Hazardous Materials Incident. The members will be divided into teams. Choose the incorrect task listed for this company.
A) The LCC should position the apparatus out of the hazardous area and as a barrier for site access control.
B) Team 1 is responsible for Hazard Identification and to provide primary search reports for locations entered.
C) Team 2 is responsible for establishing the Initial Exclusion Zone using red HazMat barrier tape, utility rope, traffic cones, etc.
D) No person involved in the operational activities of these teams is to work alone.
ANSWER: C) Team 2 is responsible for establishing the Initial Exclusion Zone using red HazMat barrier tape, utility rope, traffic cones, etc. (INCORRECT)
- Ladder 2 / Team 2 is responsible for establishing the Initial Exclusion Zone.
Ladder 1 / Team 1 = Hazard ID
Ladder 1 / Team 2 = Information Resources
Ladder 2 / Team 1 = Information Resources
Ladder 2 / Team 2 = Initial Exclusion Zone
(ERP 11.1)
Your ladder company, a SOC support Ladder, is the only unit on scene at a large scale HazMat incident. You would be correct to take all but which one of the following actions?
A) Direct self-evacuating victims to a Safe Refuge Area
B) Immediately begin by donning CPC equipment to remove non-ambulatory victims.
C) Provide a detailed preliminary report as soon as possible.
D) Attempt to determine the nature and extent of the hazardous release.
ANSWER: B) Immediately begin by donning CPC equipment to remove non-ambulatory victims. (INCORRECT)
- If the first units on scene are CPC Ladder Companies or SOC Support Ladder Companies, these units SHOULD NOT PERFORM HAZMAT DUTIES until additional companies arrive to control ambulatory victims.
- Scene control may be compromised if these units take the time to don CPC.
(ERP 15.2)
When units arrive at a suspected chemical attack underground, they detect a burnt almond odor and notice the people exiting the subway station are convulsing and gasping for air. Members should suspect which type of chemical agent was used?
A) A nerve agent or organophosphate such as Tabin, Sarin, Soman or VX.
B) A Blister Agent or vesciant such as Mustard or Lewiste.
C) A Blood or pulmonary agent such as Hydrogen Cyanide or Cyanogen Chloride.
D) A Choking agent such as Chlorine, Ammonia or Phosgene.
ANSWER: C) A Blood or pulmonary agent such as Hydrogen Cyanide or Cyanogen Chloride.
Nerve Agents - Fruity odor (Sarin / VX have no odor)
Blister Agent - Mustard (Garlic) Lewisite (Geraniums)
Blood Agent - Burnt Almonds
Choking Agent - Chlorine (Phosgene is musky hay/grass)
(ERP Addendum 2 Section 2)
Engine 100 and Ladder 200 arrive first due to a chemical release in the subway. Choose the correct action taken.
A) After seeing several unresponsive civilians 50 feet inside the station, alongside a conscious and breathing woman, the Officer of Engine 100 and Ladder 200 prohibited any of their members from entering the station.
B) Upon noticing that a dispersal device was still operational, the Officer of Ladder 200 ordered one member to disable the device to limit the contamination.
C) The Officer of Ladder 200 instructed his members, who were operating in Bunker Gear, to not proceed in the Exclusion Zone any further than the farthest deceased victim when performing hazard assessment or rescue of ambulatory victims.
D) The Officer of Engine 100 and Ladder 200 instructed members they may make contact with puddles, liquids and vapors to take a sample of the suspected agent.
ANSWER: A) After seeing several unresponsive civilians 50 feet inside the station, alongside a conscious and breathing woman, the Officer of Engine 100 and Ladder 200 prohibited any of their members from entering the station.
A - Members are NOT to enter a subway where visible persons are unresponsive.
B - If a dispersal device is still operational, the first alarm units shall make NO ATTEMPT to stop the device.
C - Members operating in bunker gear should not proceed in the Exclusion Zone any further than the FARTHEST LIVE VICTIM when performing hazard assessment or rescue of ambulatory victims.
D - Ensure members AVOID CONTACT with puddles, liquids, vapors, mists, etc.
(ERP - Addendum 2 - 4.2.7)
L-71 and L-232 arrive as the 1st and 2nd ladder companies at a response at a heavily trafficked subway station. Upon their arrival, they smell a fruity odor, and see a large number of people exiting the station showing signs of respiratory distress. Evacuating victims report that there are numerous non-ambulatory but conscious victims inside the station. Which action taken by the Officer of L-71, the 1st arriving ladder company, should be corrected?
A) The Officer instructed members that they may enter a subway where visible persons are unresponsive if they perform a risk assessment.
B) The Hazard Assessment Team donned their SCBA and facepiece, covered all exposed skin, and wore examination gloves under their firefighting gloves.
C) After hearing live victims, the Entry team made a rapid assessment of the area, using a different entrance point than the one being used by evacuating civilians.
D) The Hazard Assessment Team directed victims to the Safe Refuge Area.
ANSWER: A) The Officer instructed members that they may enter a subway where visible persons are unresponsive if they perform a risk assessment. (INCORRECT)
- DO NOT ENTER when visible people are UNRESPONSIVE.
(ERP - Addendum 2 - 6.1)
L-71 and L-232 arrive as the 1st and 2nd ladder companies at a response at a heavily trafficked subway station. Upon their arrival, they smell a fruity odor, and see a large number of people exiting the station showing signs of respiratory distress. Evacuating victims report that there are numerous non-ambulatory but conscious victims inside the station. Which members of L-71 operated incorrectly?
A) The Hazard Assessment Team, which was designated as Team 1, forced open several gates and turnstiles to speed evacuation and allow later CPC equipped members to gain access.
B) Team 1 marked the route for CPC Entry/Rescue Teams with search ropes.
C) Two of the remaining members were designated the Decontamination team and established a communications relay to the IC until relieved by a BC.
D) The LCC assisted in the establishment of the communications relay.
ANSWER: C) Two of the remaining members were designated the Decontamination team and established a communications relay to the IC until relieved by a BC. (INCORRECT)
- Two remaining members were designated as TEAM 2, THE BACKUP TEAM, and established a communications relay to the IC until relieved by the FIRST ARRIVING CPC UNIT.
(ERP - Addendum 1 - 6.1.3)
L-71 and L-232 arrive as the 1st and 2nd ladder companies at a response at a heavily trafficked subway station. Upon their arrival, they smell a fruity odor, and see a large number of people exiting the station showing signs of respiratory distress. Evacuating victims report that there are numerous non-ambulatory but conscious victims inside the station. Ladder 232 engaged in several tactical operations. Which one should be corrected?
A) The Unit was broken into two teams. Team 1 was responsible for evacuation of victims to the gross decontamination area. Team 2 performed Site Access Control.
B) All members remained outside the Exclusion Zone.
C) Team 1 directed ambulatory victims from the Safe Refuge Area to the Gross Decontamination Area and used the Stokes stretcher to assist non-ambulatory victims.
D) Team 2 defined the initial Exclusion Zone with yellow Haz-Mat barrier tape, and established the initial Contamination Reduction Zone using red barrier tape or utility rope.
ANSWER: D) Team 2 defined the initial Exclusion Zone with yellow Haz-Mat barrier tape, and established the initial Contamination Reduction Zone using red barrier tape or utility rope. (INCORRECT)
- Initial Exclusion Zone with RED BARRIER TAPE
- Initial Contamination Reduction Zone using YELLOW BARRIER TAPE.
(ERP - Addendum 1 - 6.6)
Engine 100, Engine 200 and Engine 300 arrived in response order on the first alarm for fumes at a subway station ad noticed a garlic odor, but the evacuating passengers were not exhibiting any symptoms. Ladder 99, Ladder 241 and Battalion 6 arrived at nearly the same time as the Engine companies. Which unit is responsible for providing an estimate of the number of victims to B6 and informing B6 and Ladder 241 if victims collapse on their way from the subway exit to the Gross Decontamination Area?
A) Engine 100
B) Engine 200
C) Engine 300
D) Ladder 99
ANSWER: A) Engine 100
- 1st Engine informs Second Arriving Ladder Company and Incident Commander if victims collapse on their way from the subway exit to the Gross Decontamination Area.
(ERP - Addendum 2 - 7.1)
Engine 100, Engine 200 and Engine 300 arrived in response order on the first alarm for fumes at a subway station ad noticed a garlic odor, but the evacuating passengers were not exhibiting any symptoms. Ladder 99, Ladder 241 and Battalion 6 arrived at nearly the same time as the Engine companies. In which choice did an Engine Company operate improperly?
A) Engine 100 positioned their apparatus near where Ladder 99 members entered the station and connected to a working hydrant.
B) Engine 100 members, wearing full PPE and using their SCBA, entered the station to perform CFRD duties when requested by Ladder 99.
C) Engine 200 positioned their apparatus at a different entrance than Engine 100 and prepared to perform CFRD and decontamination.
D) Engine 300 positioned their apparatus at a 3rd entrance to the subway station and prepared to perform CFRD and decontamination.
ANSWER: B) Engine 100 members, wearing full PPE and using their SCBA, entered the station to perform CFRD duties when requested by Ladder 99.
- 1st Engine remains OUTSIDE the subway system unless ordered by the IC.
(ERP - Addendum 1 - 7.1)
Any CPC level trained member or above may perform Noxious Stimulus Triage (NST). Which choice is correct concerning NST?
A) If the victim responds to voice or touch, the victim is likely to survive and should be removed from the area immediately.
B) If a victim only responds to painful stimulus, the victim is likely to survive. In a mass casualty setting, these victims should be removed first.
C) If the victim does not respond to painful stimulus, the CPC equipped member should attempt to move the vicitm to an uncontaminated area and perform NST again.
D) Deceased victims shall never be moved.
ANSWER: A) If the victim responds to voice or touch, the victim is likely to survive and should be removed from the area immediately.
B - In a mass casualty setting, the large number of victims may require that rescue efforts focus on saving those victims with a BETTER CHANCE OF SURVIVAL. (You would leave victims that only respond to painful stimuli and move on)
C - Leave in place and move to next victim
D - Deceased victims should be LEFT IN PLACE until the criminal investigation is completed, UNLESS movement of such victims is necessary to rescue additional victims or to mitigate further hazards.
(ERP - Addendum 1 - 9.4.3)
While conducting a drill on the properties, odors and visible signs of chemical agents, Captain Jones made several statements. Which one was incorrect?
A) All chemical agents except hydrogen cyanide are heavier than air.
B) Exposure to chemical agents will result in immediate signs and symptoms (seconds to minutes) except Mustards and Phosgen, which will have delayed effects (hours).
C) Lewisite has an odor of Mustard.
D) Phosgene has an odor of musky hay, and Chlorine gas has an odor of bleach.
ANSWER: C) Lewisite has an odor of Mustard. (INCORRECT)
- Lewisite has an odor of Geraniums
- Mustard has a garlic odor
- Nerve agents - fruity odor
- Blood Agents - Burnt Almond odor
- Choking Agents - Chlorine / bleach odor (Phosgene is musky hay or grass)
(ERP - Addendum 1 - 9.4.3)
Members overhauling at an apartment fire discover firearms and ammunition in a room remote from the fire area. In this situation, they would be incorrect to think that?
A) Notification should be made to both NYPD and the Bureau of Fire Investigation.
B) Evidence should only be handled by NYPD or the BFI.
C) Handling firearms or ammunition is only permitted if they were not involved in fire.
D) No one should stand in line with the muzzle or breech of any firearm
ANSWER: C) Handling firearms or ammunition is only permitted if they were not involved in fire. (INCORRECT)
- DO NOT handle firearms / ammunition / incendiary devices.
(ERP 3 - 3.1)
1st alarm units arrive at the scene of a suspicious IED where NYPD is not yet on scene. In this situation, they would be incorrect to think that?
A) HT and cell phones should not be used within 150’ of the suspected device.
B) Apparatus, Post and Marine radios should not be operated within 300’ of the suspected device.
C) Always assume if you can see the device you are operating in a potential kill zone.
D) Members should be aware of the possibility of secondary devices, and search all staging areas or any areas of operation for signs of such devices.
ANSWER: D) Members should be aware of the possibility of secondary devices, and search all staging areas or any areas of operation for signs of such devices. (INCORRECT)
- Be aware and SURVEY all staging areas.
- SURVEY meaning a visual observation
- FDNY members are not trained to search for these devices
(ERP 3 - 4.1.1)
First alarm units arrive at the scene of an explosion of multiple pipe bombs in the street at a parade in upper Manhattan. Their initial size-up shows dozens of trauma injuries with victims that are bleeding. First arriving units would be incorrect to think that they should?
A) Don their facepieces as a precaution, even if initial conditions found do not require the SCBA.
B) Bring CFRD equipment to the Point of Impact and the Triage Transfer Point.
C) Bring meters, skeds, tourniquets and triage tags to the Point of Impact and the Triage Transfer Point.
D) Do not approach any suspect’s remains or explosives
ANSWER: A) Don their facepieces as a precaution, even if initial conditions found do not require the SCBA. (INCORRECT)
- Only required to don facepiece if there are INDICATIONS OF RESPIRATORY DANGER (People gasping for air / difficulty breathing etc.)
(ERP 3 - 5.1.3)
First alarm units arrive at the scene of an explosion of multiple pipe bombs in the street at a parade in upper Manhattan. Their initial size-up shows dozens of trauma injuries with victims that are bleeding. At the Point of Impact, the priority removal are the patient’s identified as ________________?
A) Black tag
B) Red Tag
C) Orange Tag
D) Yellow Tag
ANSWER: B) Red Tag
ERP 3 - 5.1.3
First alarm units arrive at the scene of an explosion of multiple pipe bombs in the street at a parade in upper Manhattan. Their initial size-up shows dozens of trauma injuries with victims that are bleeding. Units operating at the Point of Impact should limit their operating time due to the possibility of a secondary device detonation. At the POI, they would be most correct to think they should?
A) Escort and remove ambulatory victims to a Green Treatment Area.
B) Reposition a victim’s head only twice to assess for respirations.
C) Control massive hemorrhaging of a viable victim by use of a tourniquet.
D) Immediately move onto other victims if a suspicious device is discovered on a victim.
E) Use skeds to immediately remove Black-tag victims
ANSWER: C) Control massive hemorrhaging of a viable victim by use of a tourniquet.
A - Give ambulatory victims VERBAL DIRECTION and HAND SIGNALS (These people can walk so just tell them to get themselves out of the area)
B - Reposition victims head only ONCE
D - EVACUATE FORTHWITH if discovering an explosive device on a victim.
E - LEAVE BLACK TAG VICTIMS IN PLACE
(ERP 3 - 5.2.5)
First alarm units arrive at the scene of an explosion of multiple pipe bombs in the street at a parade in upper Manhattan. Their initial size-up shows dozens of trauma injuries with victims that are bleeding. The 1st arriving Engine Officer would be correct to think he should?
A) Stretch a precautionary 1 3/4” line
B) Knock down any fire, even if it is remote from the victims
C) If a ladder officer is on scene, enter the Point of Impact area to help gather preliminary information.
D) If there is no threat of fire, remove skeds and CFR equipment for use in the POI.
ANSWER: D) If there is no threat of fire, remove skeds and CFR equipment for use in the POI.
A - ALWAYS a 2 1/2” line for an explosion (NEVER 1 3/4”)
B - Knock down fire only if it is THREATENING VICTIMS
C - If ladder officer IS NOT YET ON SCENE, enter the POI to help gather preliminary information
(ERP 3 - 5.3.1)
First alarm units arrive at the scene of an explosion of multiple pipe bombs in the street at a parade in upper Manhattan. Their initial size-up shows dozens of trauma injuries with victims that are bleeding. The 1st arriving ladder officer would be incorrect to think?
A) Enter the POI to determine the number of victims, initial location of the ICP and TTP, and preferred routes for evacuation and removal of victims.
B) Have members bring meters, skeds, and tourniquets to the POI.
C) Give verbal commands and hand signals to ambulatory victims.
D) Remove critical victims from the POI to the Triage Transfer Point.
E) Place triage tags on only critical red tag victims in the POI.
ANSWER: E) Place triage tags on only critical red tag victims in the POI. (INCORRECT)
- Only place triage tags on BLACK TAG VICTIMS
- We do not want to spend valuable time assessing whether or not a patients breathing rate is adequate or not to be labeled with red or yellow tags etc.
(ERP - 3 5.3.4)
First alarm units arrive at the scene of an explosion of multiple pipe bombs in the street at a parade in upper Manhattan. Their initial size-up shows dozens of trauma injuries with victims that are bleeding. Who mus remain at the Triage Transfer Point and assumed control of the TPP until relieved by a Battalion Chief?
A) 1st Engine Officer
B) 1st Ladder Officer
C) 2nd Engine Officer
D) 2nd Ladder Officer
ANSWER: C) 2nd Engine Officer
1st Engine and Truck = POI
2nd Engine and Truck = TPP
(ERP 3 - 5.3.2)
First alarm units arrive at the scene of an explosion of multiple pipe bombs in the street at a parade in upper Manhattan. Their initial size-up shows dozens of trauma injuries with victims that are bleeding. Members who are removing victims to the Triage Transfer Point must be aware that if there are no EMS units at the TPP, they must remain with the patient until relieved by?
A) Only EMS personnel
B) Only a CFRD unit
C) EMS personnel or a CFRD unit
D) CFRD personnel, EMS personnel or a Battalion Chief
ANSWER: C) EMS personnel or a CFRD unit
ERP 3 - 5.3.4
First alarm units arrive at the scene of an explosion of multiple pipe bombs in the street at a parade in upper Manhattan. Their initial size-up shows dozens of trauma injuries with victims that are bleeding. A Patient Relay Point may be established bu the ____________ Officer if the distance to the Triage Transfer Point is too long from the POI?
A) 1st Ladder
B) 2nd Ladder
C) 1st Engine
D) 2nd Engine
ANSWER: A) 1st Ladder
- If the distance to the Triage Transfer Point is too long, the 1st Ladder Company may establish a Patient Relay Point (PRP) where they will transfer each victim to the 2nd Ladder Company.
- The 1st Ladder Company will return to the POI with empty skeds from the 2nd Ladder Company for retrieval of more victims.
(ERP 3 - 5.3.4)
First alarm units arrive at the scene of an explosion of multiple pipe bombs in the street at a parade in upper Manhattan. Their initial size-up shows dozens of trauma injuries with victims that are bleeding. If there are numerous victims requiring removal to the Triage Transfer Point, and there is no BC on scene, the first ladder officer may request assistance from whom?
A) Only the 2nd ladder
B) Only the 1st Engine (if they are not engaged in fire suppression)
C) The 2nd Ladder or 1st Engine (if they are not engaged in fire suppression)
D) The 2nd Ladder or 2nd Engine
ANSWER: C) The 2nd Ladder or 1st Engine (if they are not engaged in fire suppression)
- Can NEVER pull the 2nd Engine away from the TPP
(ERP 3 - 5.3.5)
First alarm units arrive at the scene of an explosion of multiple pipe bombs in the street at a parade in upper Manhattan. Their initial size-up shows dozens of trauma injuries with victims that are bleeding. The 2nd ladder company is responsible to?
- Report to the Triage Transfer Point with meters, skeds and tourniquets.
- Assist in the removal of patients to either Treatment Areas or the Transportation Sector.
- If an incident involves the subway system, set up the HT CORE relay.
A) 1 / 2 B) 1 / 3 C) 2 / 3 D) 1 / 2 / 3
ANSWER: A) 1 / 2 are CORRECT
- Choice 3 is INCORRECT
- 1st LADDER WILL SET UP HT RELAY
(ERP 3 - 5.3.5)
All chemical agents are heavier than air except which?
A) Hydrogen cyanide
B) Nitrogen mustard
C) Phosgene
D) Cyanide chloride
A) Hydrogen cyanide
(ERP ADD 2 pg 18)
Flammable gases lighter than air - “HA HA MICE”
H - Hydrogen
A - Acetylene
H - Hydrogen cyanide
A - Ammonia
M - Methane
I - Illuminating Gas
C - Carbon Monoxide
E - Ethylene
In general, department of transportation regulations require Haz-Mat placards to be posted only on trucks that are transporting over ______ pounds of a particular material.
A) 1000
B) 100
C) 500
D) 10,000
ANSWER: A) 1000
Haz-Mat 2, 7
According to the Emergency Response Plan for Hazardous Materials, what zone would you expect decontamination activities to occur?
A) Exclusion Zone
B) Warm Zone
C) Cold Zone
D) Support Zone
ANSWER: B) Warm Zone
(ERP, section 4.3.3)
- All decon activities occur in the Contamination Reduction Zone a.k.a the Warm Zone
Of the following, which choice would not be a correct distinguishing characteristic with regards to the 4 types of chemical agents that are of concern to first responders?
A) Nerve agent: odor of geraniums
B) Blister agent: garlic, mustard agent
C) Blood agent: Burnt almonds
D) Choking agent: Musky hay
ANSWER: A) Nerve agent: odor of geraniums. (Incorrect)
(ERP ADD 2 pg 20)
- Nerve agents have a fruity odor, camphor or no odor.
Nerve Agent “Nerds like fruit”
Blister Agent “Garlic skin blisters”
Blood Agent “agent and odor both begin with B.A.” (Burnt Almonds)
Choking Agent “Musky hay and bleach odors make you choke”
Lewisite (Blister agent with odor of GERANIUMS)
According to the emergency response plan for hazardous materials, what zone would you expect the casualty collection point to be located?
A) Hot zone
B) Warm zone
C) Cold zone
D) Frozen zone
ANSWER: C) Cold zone
(ERP, section 10.6.4)
*The casualty collection point is an area established in the support zone (cold zone).
While operating at a Haz-Mat incident, which units responsibilities include site access control?
A) First and Second Ladder companies
B) First Ladder and First Engine companies
C) Second ladder and Second Engine companies
D) First Ladder and Second Engine company
ANSWER: C) Second ladder and Second Engine companies.
“HA-SAC WA-SAC”
1st Ladder - Hazard Assessment
2nd Ladder - Site Access Control
1st Engine - Water Supply
2nd Engine - Site Access Control
(Haz-Mat 12.2)
You respond to an incident in which you see the NFPA 704 diamond labeling system. There is a number 4 in the yellow diamond and a number 4 in the red diamond. You would know that this indicated which choice shown below?
A) The number 4 represents the most severe hazard and the red diamond represents health.
B) The number 4 represents the least severe hazard and the red diamond represents flammability.
C) The number 4 represents the least severe hazard and the yellow diamond represents health.
D) The number 4 represents the most severe hazard and the yellow diamond represents reactivity.
ANSWER: D) The number 4 represents the most severe hazard and the yellow diamond represents reactivity.
(ERP pg 42 - NFPA 704 diamond)
“Hot Farts Rise”
Health (blue)
Flammability (red)
Reactivity (yellow)
Special information (white)
*The number 4 represents the MAX or MOST SEVERE hazard.
Regarding explosive devices, HTs and cell phones should not be used within how many feet of a suspected device?
A) 200’
B) 150’
C) 100’
D) 50’
ANSWER: B) 150’
ERP ADD 3 7.3.1
Which class would flammable solids be classified under?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
ANSWER: C) 4
(HAZMAT 2, 2.1)
“Every Good Lieutenants Standard Operating Procedure Requires Coordinated Members”
1) Explosives (Every)
2) Compressed Gases (Good)
3) Flammable Liquids (Lieutenants)
4) Flammable Solids (Standard)
5) Oxidizers (Operating)
6) Poisons (Procedure)
7) Radioactive Material (Requires)
8) Corrosives (Coordinated)
9) Miscellaneous Dangerous Goods (Members)
When units respond to Hazardous Materials Incidents, identification should be the initial action taken by the first to arrive units. One way to identify material is by checking the shipping papers. Which is the incorrect point about shipping papers?
A) The “bill of lading” is kept in the cab within the reach of the driver.
B) The “waybill” is carried by the engineer in the engine.
C) The “air bill” is kept by the pilot.
D) The “cargo manifest” is kept by the master or first mate.
ANSWER: B) The “waybill” is carried by the engineer in the engine.
(HAZMAT 2, 4.4)
- Waybill - Railroad - CONDUCTOR in caboose or engine
If units respond to an alarm in which there was a CO detector present that did not activate, and CO readings of 50 PPM are obtained, what would be the most correct Radio Code Signal to transmit?
A) 10-38 Code 1
B) 10-38 Code 2
C) 10-38 Code 3
D) 10-38 Code 4
ANSWER: D) 10-38 Code 4
(HAZMAT 4, 5.1.1)
- Codes 1-3 REQUIRE DETECTOR ACTIVATION
1 - Investigation (low battery, defective, unwarranted)
2 - Incident (1-9 PPM)
3 - Emergency (Over 9 PPM)
4 - No detector activation
Which choice contains incorrect information about the Gas Alert Extreme Carbon Monoxide Meter?
A) The green circular button on the left is the only button to be used by field units.
B) If affixing CO monitor to the HT strap, affix it in the chest area. Having the CO monitor near the HT antenna will cause false activation.
C) A visual and low audible warning with a slow vibration is given when the concentration of CO in the atmosphere exceeds 9 PPM.
D) If the monitor does not operate for any reason, the officer on duty shall notify their Battalion and arrange for an exchange (prepare RT-2). Do not send the CO monitor through the Division Messenger or through the bag.
ANSWER: C) A visual and low audible warning with a slow vibration is given when the concentration of CO in the atmosphere exceeds 9 PPM. (INCORRECT)
(HAZMAT 4, ADD 1, 1.2)
- Slow Vibration - CO exceeds 35 PPM
- Fast Vibration - CO exceeds 100 PPM
Which choice is an incorrect characteristic of Carbon Monoxide?
A) CO is a non-toxic gas with a distinct odor.
B) CO is a natural by product of incomplete combustion from fuels such as gasoline, wood, coal, propane, oil and methane.
C) CO is a flammable gas with an auto ignition temperature of 1128 degrees F, and a Lower Explosive Level of 12.5% and an Upper Explosive Level of 74%.
D) CO is slightly lighter than air (.968)
ANSWER: A) CO is a non-toxic gas with a distinct odor. (INCORRECT)
(HAZMAT 4, Carbon Monoxide 2.1)
- CO is TOXIC and ODORLESS
Units operate at a food on the stove incident in a private dwelling where CO readings of 25 PPM are obtained on their CO monitors, and no people are symptomatic. The dwelling does not have any CO detectors. What would be the correct signal to transit along with the 10-26?
A) 10-38-1
B) 10-38-2
C) 10-38-3
D) 10-38-4
ANSWER: D) 10-38-4
(Hazmat 4, 5.1.1)
- Codes 1-3 REQUIRE DETECTOR ACTIVATION
- Code 4 = No detector activation
All officers are required to wear and turn on the CO Meter whenever they are out of quarters. Which is the correct choice about this tool?
A) If affixing the CO monitor to the HT strap, affix it near the HT antenna
B) A visual and low audible warning with a slow vibration is given immediately when the concentration of CO in the atmosphere exceeds 9 PPM.
C) A visual and high audible warning with a fast vibration is given if the concentration of CO in the atmosphere exceeds 100 PPM.
D) To turn on and activate the monitor, press the red square button on the right only. The monitor has 4 buttons, all of which may be pressed to obtain more information.
ANSWER: C) A visual and high audible warning with a fast vibration is given if the concentration of CO in the atmosphere exceeds 100 PPM.
(Hazmat 4, ADD 1 Section 1.2)
A - Affix CO monitor to CHEST AREA (HT antenna causes false activation)
B - Low audible warning / slow vibration = CO exceeds 35 PPM
C - High audible warning / fast vibration = CO exceeds 100 PPM
D - To turn on and activate press GREEN BUTTON on the LEFT only. The monitor has 4 buttons, ONLY USE THE LEFT BUTTON.
Incidents involving active shooters, violent extremists, barricade situations or other aggressive deadly behavior represents some of the most challenging responses to the 1st responder community. During one of these incidents, an NYPD officer may confront FDNY members to verify their identity. This is called a “challenge situation”. In this situation, the FDNY member shall strictly adhere to all of the following procedures below except which?
A) Comply with the commands of law enforcement personnel.
B) Remain motionless (no sudden movements). Await command of law enforcement to resume current operations.
C) Do not turn your body unless instructed to do so by the challenging officer.
D) Verbally identify yourself as a member of the FDNY by unit and name.
ANSWER: D) Verbally identify yourself as a member of the FDNY by unit and name. (INCORRECT)
- Identify yourself by RANK and NAME.
(ERP 3A)
E99, E98, L100, L101 and B88 are assigned to respond to a car accident. The response ticket indicates that there is no trap, no pin, with no additional information. While responding, the dispatcher gives you an update via department radio. He states “B88 you are responding to a possible dispute, PD has been notified”. E99 turns onto the block and is met by a civilian and EMS who state that a vehicle has rammed into multiple people on the sidewalk and then ran into the hotel on the corner and shooting anyone in his path. As they are telling you this you hear what you believe to be gun shots. You know that you are operating at an aggressive deadly behavior incident. E99, L100 and a FDNY ambulance are the only units on scene. What is the only correct statement listed below?
A) E99s Officer used his EAB with a MAYDAY message to notify units that this is an active shooter incident and not a routine car accident.
B) Ladder 100 and FDNY ambulance immediately withdrew and requested a forthwith police response. Since members thought there was potential for a secondary threat, sensitive information was transmitted via cell phone, secure frequencies or MDT.
C) E99 couldn’t withdraw so they took hard cover behind a sheetrock wall.
D) Members knowing that the Hot Zone is the area of a known hazard, where the perpetrator is shooting and roaming free. No FDNY members are allowed to operate in the designed Hot Zone unless escorted by the NYPD.
ANSWER: B) Ladder 100 and FDNY ambulance immediately withdrew and requested a forthwith police response. Since members thought there was potential for a secondary threat, sensitive information was transmitted via cell phone, secure frequencies or MDT.
A - URGENT to notify units that this is an active shooter
C - Sheetrock is NOT hard cover / Members should take cover behind a THICK BRICK WALL.
D - No FDNY in Hot Zone PERIOD.
(ERP 3A / SB 89)
You are a Captain working in Ladder 100 responding to a Class 3 in a movie theater. You are the FDNY unit to arrive on scene and observe several NYPD units already at the theater. They inform you that this is an active shooter incident and NYPD ESU has the only suspect barricaded in theater 2R located in the rear of the second floor. There are multiple people shot on the 1st floor ticket booth area. Ladder 100 is still the only unit on scene. You would be most correct to perform which action below?
A) Establish an FDNY command post which should be different then the EMS Command Post.
B) Make contact with the NYPD Command Post, which is in the warm zone.
C) FDNY members shall only operate inside a Hot Zone when requested by the NYPD. This operation can only be approved by a FDNY Deputy Chief.
D) There are no FDNY Chiefs on scene, so the NYPD IC requested Ladder 100 to enter the warm zone for immediate life-saving medical intervention. They will be operating under the protection o NYPD officers. Ladder 100 Officer had his unit break up into two teams to remove victims via seeds and give medical treatment in the warm zone.
ANSWER: D) There are no FDNY Chiefs on scene, so the NYPD IC requested Ladder 100 to enter the warm zone for immediate life-saving medical intervention. They will be operating under the protection o NYPD officers. Ladder 100 Officer had his unit break up into two teams to remove victims via seeds and give medical treatment in the warm zone.
A - First fire and medical units on scene must CO-LOCATE to establish a FDNY Command Post.
B - NYPD Command Post is in COLD ZONE
C - FDNY Members can only operate in the WARM ZONE.
- No FDNY personnel are to operate in designated Hot Zones.
- Only law enforcement personnel with the appropriate level of ballistic protection will operate in known Hot Zones.
(ERP 3A 6.1.1)
When it has been decided that the FDNY and NYPD will form a Rescue Task Force to enter the warm zone at an active shooter incident, there are several requirements that must be met. Which of the following is incorrect?
A) The one fire member of the Rescue Task Force shall monitor TAC-U.
B) The task force shall enter and move in a “Rolling T” formation. Three SRG members will lead the formation and one will provide rear security. FDNY members will move in pairs at the center of this formation. The FDNY Rescue Task Force Leader will be closest to the rear security.
C) Members focus on care and removal of yellow tag patients.
D) The EMS Officer or highest medical authority on the Rescue Task Force must prioritize the medical actions of the RFT.
ANSWER: C) Members focus on care and removal of yellow tag patients. (INCORRECT)
- RED TAG patients
(ERP 3A - 11.5.1)
E3 is responding as part of the Rescue Task Force at an active shooter incident. The RFT will have a “K” suffix after their unit number to indicate they are responding as part of the Division Task Force. Members of the RFT should know that they can only take medical supplies necessary to address life threatening conditions and to facilitate patient removal. E3 should include all but which of the following equipment brought into the Warm Zone?
A) Tourniquets, Hemostatic agent, Occlusive Dressings
B) Oxygen and defibrillators
C) Triage Tags, skeds, Ballistic vests and helmets
D) Safety equipment shall be determined by the IC based on the threat environment.
ANSWER: B) Oxygen and defibrillators (INCORRECT)
ERP 3A 11.4.2
Liquid Petroleum Gas (LPG) can be hazardous when encountered during an operation. Which of the following properties of LPG is listed incorrectly?
A) It is non-toxic and non-poisonous, but flammable.
B) It is odorless, although an odorizing agent is added only when it is processed for domestic consumption.
C) In the liquid state, LPG presents a hazard similar to a highly volatile flammable liquid, but with more rapid vaporization.
D) It is lighter than air.
ANSWER: D) It is lighter than air.
- It is HEAVIER than air (1.5 to 2 times heavier).
(HM 1 1.2.1-1.2.5)
When using two Engine pumpers for Emergency Mass Decontamination, you would be correct to employ all of the tactics below except?
A) Position the two pumpers parallel to each other, approximately 30 feet apart.
B) The control panels of the pumpers should be facing the outside.
C) Place an Aquastream fog nozzle on each pumper on a selected inside discharge gate. Operate the nozzles in the fog position.
D) Utilize the recommended operating pressure of 50 to 80 psi.
ANSWER: A) Position the two pumpers parallel to each other, approximately 30 feet apart. (INCORRECT)
- Position the two pumpers parallel to each other, approximately 25 feet apart.
(HM 7 2.4.4)
If a biological release occurs indoors, evacuate the immediate area and seal off the area by closing doors and windows and using plastic to cover any openings. Avoid entry to the site for a minimum time of?
A) 5 to 10 minutes.
B) 30 minutes to 1 hour.
C) 15 to 20 minutes.
D) 1 to 2 hours.
ANSWER: B) 30 minutes to 1 hour
- This will allow the biological agent to settle to reduce exposure of the inhalation hazard.
(ERP Add 1 Ch 1 5.2.3)
A placard on the number “6” on it would indicate which hazardous material?
A) Flammable liquid
B) Radioactive
C) Corrosive
D) Poison
ANSWER: D) Poison
“Every Good Fire-Lieutenant’s Standard Operating Procedure Requires Coordinated Members”
- Explosives
- Gases (compressed)
- Flammable Liquids
- Solids (flammable)
- Oxidizers
- Poisons
- Radioactive
- Corrosives
- Misc. Dangerous Goods
(HM 2 2.1)
At a hazardous materials spill in a warehouse, you would be correct to know the designation of the first arriving Ladder “team 2” to be?
A) Utility Control
B) Information Resources
C) Hazard Identification
D) Site Access Control
ANSWER: B) Information Resources
ERP 11.1.6
At a chemical attack in a subway station, the second arriving Ladder “team 1” is assigned which duty?
A) Back-Up
B) Evacuation and Hazard Assessment
C) Evacuation to Gross Decon
D) Site Access Control
ANSWER: C) Evacuation to Gross Decon
ERP Add 2 6.5
There are four hazards/threats to a first responder at a chemical suicide incident. Which is the “primary” hazard/threat?
A) Inhalation
B) Skin absorption or caustic-acid contamination
C) Flammability
D) Blood-Borne pathogens
ANSWER: A) Inhalation
HM 11 2
Which type of radiation may be blocked by intact skin or a sheet of paper?
A) Gamma
B) Neutron
C) Beta
D) Alpha
ANSWER: D) Alpha
- It is also shielded by a few inches of air from the source. The primary hazard of this type of radiation is “inhalation.”
(ERP Add 4 p2)
When there is smoke showing from a container/cabinet housing a Li-ion-ESS installed outdoors, all of the following actions would be correct except?
A) Transmit a 10-80 code 1 radio signal for a Haz-Mat Response.
B) Establish an initial Danger Zone with all FDNY personnel staying behind any physical barrier surrounding the ESS. Observe a minimum of 25 ft from the cabinet and a minimum of 50 ft from the container exhaust fan opening, if present.
C) Shut down the ESS (ESTOP) at the Fire Department Connection. The Engine Company shall connect to the Fire Department Connection if available, and charge the water extinguishing system.
D) Use exterior lines to cool adjacent cabinets and exposures if present and necessary. Use narrow fog or straight stream application and maximum reach of streams if possible.
B) Establish an initial Danger Zone with all FDNY personnel staying behind any physical barrier surrounding the ESS. Observe a minimum of 25 ft from the cabinet and a minimum of 50 ft from the container exhaust fan opening, if present. (INCORRECT)
(HM 19 pg 6)
- Establish an initial Danger Zone with all FDNY personnel staying behind any physical barrier surrounding the ESS.
- Observe a minimum of 50 ft from the cabinet and a minimum of 100 ft from the container exhaust fan opening, if present.
- Also…..Exhaust the container/cabinet, if available (exhaust override switch at the Fire Department Connection.
Manifestation of a biological incident is not immediate; however, manifestation of a chemical attack will be immediate. It may take several hours, days or even weeks before a biological occurrence is suspected and even longer before a suspected outbreak/release can be confirmed. Which of the following statements concerning biological toxins is correct?
A) Ricin and mytotoxins are two Biological toxins that mimic chemical agents in that they show immediate symptoms.
B) By weight, chemical nerve agents are thousands of times more lethal than biological toxins.
C) With chemical agents, the presenting signs and symptoms do not constitute a definitive diagnosis.
D) With exposure to biological agents, the presenting signs and symptoms are fairly consistent between victims and typical of the mode of action of the chemical
ANSWER: A) Ricin and mytotoxins are two Biological toxins that mimic chemical agents in that they show immediate symptoms.
- Exposure to biological toxins such as ricin or mycotoxins may present immediate symptoms that mimic exposure to a chemical agent.
B - By weight, BIOLOGICAL TOXINS are thousands of times MORE LETHAL than chemical nerve agents.
C - With BIOLOGICAL AGENTS, the presenting signs and symptoms DO NOT constitute a definitive diagnosis (Everyone will show different symptoms)
D - With exposure to CHEMICAL AGENTS, the presenting signs and symptoms are fairly consistent between victims and typical of the mode of action of the chemical (Everyone will have similar symptoms)
Which chemical agent has a distinctive odor of burnt almonds?
A) Nerve agents (organophosphates)
B) Blister agents (vesicants)
C) Blood (pulmonary) agents
D) Choking agents
ANSWER: C) Blood (pulmonary) agents
(ERP Add 2 - SECTION 2)
Nerve Agents (Organophosphates) - Distinctive odor: Fruit
Blister Agents (Vesicants) - Distinctive odor: Garlic
Blood (Pulmonary) Agents - Distinctive odor: burnt almonds
Choking Agents - Distinctive odor: chlorine or grass
If you walk into the cellar of an industrial building, and the area contains 2000ppm of carbon monoxide, what would you expect your CO meter to display, if operating correctly?
A) 2000ppm
B) 999ppm
C) OM
D) OL
ANSWER: D) OL
(HM 4 Add 1 2.5)
- CO meters will display readings up to 999ppm. If readings of 1000 ppm or more are detected, the CO meter will display “OL”, indicating an “over limit” condition.
Upon arrival at a CFR response, you find an unresponsive young man exhibiting symptoms of possible fentanyl exposure. In addition, at the victim’s location there are signs of possible fentanyl use. You would be correct to take all of the following actions except?
A) Ensure members utilize appropriate PPE to avoid dermal contact, inhalation and ingestion of the suspect substance. If possible, these members should don their appropriate PPE prior to, or immediately after, initiating medical treatment.
B) Treatment should never take place in the area of suspected exposure. Removal of the patient from the area and removal of product from the patient’s skin and clothing is paramount.
C) Do not eat, drink, smoke, or use the bathroom while working in an area with known or suspected fentanyl.
D) Do not touch the eyes, mouth, and nose after touching any surface potentially contaminated with fentanyl.
ANSWER: A) Ensure members utilize appropriate PPE to avoid dermal contact, inhalation and ingestion of the suspect substance. If possible, these members should don their appropriate PPE prior to, or immediately after, initiating medical treatment. (INCORRECT)
(HM 18 1-2.2, 4)
- Ensure members utilize appropriate PPE to avoid dermal contact, inhalation and ingestion of the suspect substance.
- Members shall ALWAYS don appropriate PPE PRIOR TO initiating any medical treatment.
Which of the following choices is not in accordance with Fire Department policy when asbestos is suspected at a fire operation?
A) Strictly enforce the Department’s SCBA policy to reduce inhalation exposure. This is critical to the health and safety of members operating in the contaminated area.
B) Gently wet down suspected asbestos material using a fog or spray stream. This will minimize the amount of fibers that become airborne.
C) Do not, under any circumstances, overhaul in the suspected area of contamination.
D) Isolate members suspected of being contaminated to prevent cross-contamination of apparatus or other members. SCBA must be used until decon procedures are initiated or the member has been washed down.
ANSWER: C) Do not, under any circumstances, overhaul in the suspected area of contamination. (INCORRECT)
(HM 3 4.4-4.7)
- LIMIT overhaul in the suspected area.
At a potential active shooter incident, the NYPD may have difficulty distinguishing between perpetrators, victims and first responders. When a NYPD officer confronts a Fire Department member to verify their identity (a “challenge situation”) the member would be correct to take all of the following actions except?
A) Comply with the commands of law enforcement personnel.
B) Remain motionless (no sudden movements) and identify yourself as a member of the FDNY by rank and name.
C) Immediately turn around with your hands raised in the air to show the officer your identity.
D) Await command of law enforcement to resume current operations.
ANSWER: C) Immediately turn around with your hands raised in the air to show the officer your identity. (INCORRECT)
(ERP Add3A 2.2)
- Do NOT turn your body unless instructed to do so by the challenging officer.
While operating at a CO Emergency in a private dwelling where meter readings of 600 PPM are discovered, and one occupant of the building was seriously injured as a result of CO poisoning, you would be correct to take all of the following actions except?
A) Inform occupants that we have detected a “potentially dangerous” level of CO.
B) Begin evacuation of the affected area and ventilate.
C) Request the utility company to respond.
D) Have BFI notified through the Borough Dispatcher.
ANSWER: A) Inform occupants that we have detected a “potentially dangerous” level of CO. (INCORRECT)
(HM 4 4.1.5 A, 4.4.2, 4.5.1, 4.5.2, 5.1.2)
- Inform occupants that we have detected a “potentially LETHAL” level of CO.
- If greater than 9ppm but less than 100 ppm, inform occupants that they have a “potentially DANGEROUS” level of CO.
- When a “fatality” or “serious injury” associated with a CO incident is discovered, the Incident Commander shall have BFI notified through the Borough Dispatcher. This is in addition to all other required notifications.
Which of the following chemical agents would cause skin blistering?
A) Organophosphates
B) Pulmonary agents
C) Vesicants
D) Choking agents
ANSWER: C) Vesicants
(ERP Add 2 2.2)
Nerve Agents (Organophosphates) - respiratory distress, convulsions, S-L-U-D-G-E-M
Blister Agents (Vesicants) - signs and symptoms do not appear for several hours - skin blistering
Blood (Pulmonary) Agents - victims gasping for air, convulsions
Choking Agents - victims gasping for air, eye irritation
Of the following choices, which is correct in regards to the zones established at a radiological emergency?
A) The Department uses 2 mR/hr as an action level.
B) The Hotline is established at 2 mR/hr.
C) A warm zone does not encircle the source of radiation, rather, it is a small defined location used for decontamination or as a Casualty Collection Point (CCP), where the radiation levels are as low as possible.
D) Utilize Safe Refuge Areas (SRA) located in the Cold Zone until adequate resources are able to remove patients from the scene to designated hospitals.
ANSWER: B) The Hotline is established at 2 mR/hr.
(ERP Add 4 4.4.2 B, C, 5.1.5)
A - The Department uses 1 mR/hr as an action level.
B - The Hotline is established at 2 mR/hr.
C - A warm zone DOES NOT encircle the source of radiation, rather, it is a small defined location used for decontamination or as a Safe Refuge Area (SRA), where the radiation levels are as low as possible.
D - Utilize Casualty Collection Points (CCP) located in the Cold Zone until adequate resources are able to remove patients from the scene to designated hospitals.
The Department of Transportation classifies chemicals according to their major hazardous characteristics. Which number would identify radioactive Material?
A) 7
B) 8
C) 9
D) 6
ANSWER: A) 7
(Haz-Mat 2 2.1)
“Every Good Fire-Lieutenant’s Standard Operating Procedure Requires Coordinated Members”
- Explosives
- Gases (compressed)
- Flammable Liquids
- Solids (flammable)
- Oxidizers
- Poisons
- Radioactive
- Corrosives
- Misc. Dangerous Goods
Units responding to alarms for “unknown odors or fumes” have encountered airborne irritants such as pepper spray, mace or a mace-like substance during operations. When these irritants are encountered, all of the following actions would be considered correct with the exception of which choice?
A) Gather, evaluate, and report information prior to entering into or undertaking activities that would place members in a contaminated environment.
B) Full firefighting gear and SCBA will be used at all times as a minimum of protection against exposure.
C) Sheltering in place is always appropriate for exposed individuals, pending arrival of resources for decontamination.
D) Transmit the initial 10-80 signal to alert incoming units to proceed with caution to avoid entering a contaminated area. The Incident Commander should confer with the Haz Mat Battalion Chief to transmit the appropriate code.
ANSWER: C) Sheltering in place is always appropriate for exposed individuals, pending arrival of resources for decontamination. (INCORRECT)
(HM 17 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 2.5)
- Realize that in the case of airborne irritants, EVACUATION would be appropriate for EXPOSED individuals, however, in some instances, evacuation through a toxic atmosphere may actually cause more harm than good, such as removing occupants from their uncontaminated apartments and transporting them through a contaminated public hallway or staircase.
- In this type of situation, the decision to shelter in place would be more appropriate. In addition….Controlled ventilation (mechanical or natural) of the affected areas by fire department personnel will facilitate rapid dissipation of the vapor cloud. Be cognizant of where ventilation will move the product to. Avoid moving the product to occupied areas.
All members should be familiar with the “Transportation Index” of a package or shipment. What is the maximum level of radiation one meter from an intact package with a “Radioactive Yellow - II” label?
A:) 0.5 mR/hr
B) 10 mR/hr
C) 50 mR/hr
D) 1 mR/hr
ANSWER: D) 1 mR/hr
ERP Add 4 Appx 2 - 2.3.2
Members responding to an incident involving a suspicious package, envelope, or powder, where NYPD is not yet on scene, would be correct to adhere to all of the following guidelines except?
A) Immediately request the response of the NYPD.
B) Transmit the appropriate 10-80 signal, specifying suspected asbestos.
C) A preliminary reconnaissance should be performed by FDNY resources to gather as much information as possible regarding the incident.
D) If ambulatory, have patients walk away from the area of exposure to another room or location that is isolated from other persons.
ANSWER: B) Transmit the appropriate 10-80 signal, specifying suspected asbestos. (INCORRECT)
(HM 16 2.1.2)
Transmit the appropriate 10-80 signal, specifying suspected ANTHRAX.
- In addition…If patient contact is necessary, ensure proper PPE is worn by CFRs, EMTs and Paramedics as required and consistent with their level of haz-mat training (consult with the Haz Mat Battalion for PPE guidance).
- Shut down HVAC zones within the incident location if necessary.
- Limit the number of responders in the area to decrease the risk of exposure.
SOC Support Ladder (SSL) Companies have received basic training in Trench Rescue. At one of these incidents, it would be correct for SSL members to take each of the following actions except?
A) They shall immediately begin scene evaluation and hazard identification through the use of their air monitoring equipment.
B) They shall establish a safe zone around the perimeter of the site, with the prevention of a secondary cave-in as the prime consideration.
C) They will, if possible, begin removing the spoil pile from the danger zone if that has been identified as a problem. They shall take steps to remove unnecessary vehicles and vibrations.
D) They should ensure a stairway, ladder, ramp or other safe means of egress is located in trench excavations that are 3 feet or more in depth so as to require no more than 40 feet of lateral travel for employees.
ANSWER: D) They should ensure a stairway, ladder, ramp or other safe means of egress is located in trench excavations that are 3 feet or more in depth so as to require no more than 40 feet of lateral travel for employees. (INCORRECT)
(HM 10 7.4 B)
- A stairway, ladder, ramp or other safe means of egress shall be located in trench excavations that are FOUR (4) feet (1.22 m) or more in depth so as to require no more than TWENTY FIVE (25) feet of lateral travel for employees.
- Also…..They shall make the Incident Commander aware of the need for access for specialized rescue vehicles to the perimeter of the trench and assist in maintaining such access clear. They shall operate in full compliance with applicable OSHA regulations.
When responding to an incident involving a Lithium Ion - ESS container that is found on a rooftop and there is no fire or smoke showing from the container on arrival, members should establish a minimum safety zone of _____ feet from the container and _____ feet from the container’s exhaust fan opening.
A) 50 / 100
B) 100 / 200
C) 75 / 150
D) 25 / 50
ANSWER: A) 50 / 100
HazMat 19 - 5
At the scene of a confirmed activation of the US Postal Service Bio-Detection System (BDS), who will conduct the primary and secondary searches of the area?
A) HazMat 1 or a HazMat Tech Unit
B) United States Postal Service
C) NYPD ESU
D) The 1st arriving ladder company
ANSWER: B) United States Postal Service
HazMat 14 - 6.1
To operate as a SOC Support Ladder Company, the unit shall be staffed with a minimum of ___________.
A) One trained Officer and at least three trained FFs
B) Three trained members (Combination of Officers/FFs)
C) One trained Officer and at least two trained members
D) Two trained members (Combination of Officers/FFs)
ANSWER: A) One trained Officer and at least three trained Firefighters.
(HazMat 10 4.1)
- A trained Officer (or trained acting Officer) and at least 3 trained FFs.
Which unit is responsible to provide an estimate of the number of victims to the IC at the scene of a chemical attack in an underground subway?
A) 2nd arriving ladder
B) 1st arriving engine
C) 2nd arriving engine
D) 1st arriving ladder
ANSWER: B) 1st arriving engine
ERP - Addendum 2 - 7.1.7
Two members of a SOC Support Ladder Company were discussing OSHA regulations in regard to protecting employees from cave-ins in an excavation and were correct in which statement/s?
- There shall be an adequate protective system (shoring) unless the excavation is made entirely in stable rock.
- There shall be an adequate protective system (shoring) unless the excavation is less than 5 feet in depth and examination of the ground by a competent person provides no indication of a potential cave-in.
A) Neither 1 or 2
B) Only 1
C) Only 2
D) Both 1 and 2
ANSWER: D) Both 1 and 2
HM 10 7.4 A
At a major “lifesaving” operation at the scene of a radiological emergency that has not been deemed a catastrophic event, how long can a firefighter operate when levels of 50 Rem/hr are detected?
A) The firefighter cannot operate
B) The firefighter can operate for one hour
C) The firefighter can operate for 30 minutes
D) The firefighter can operate for 15 minutes
ANSWER: C) The firefighter can operate for 30 minutes
(ERP Add 4 Table 3 and 4)
- If a firefighter reports a reading of 50 Rem/hr; the firefighter can only be exposed for 30 minutes before reaching the dose limit for an emergency exposure of 25 Rem.
- Ex: 50 Rem/hr x 0.5 hr= 25 Rem (dose). 25 Rem is the “decision dose” for Lifesaving or Protection of Large Populations.
Upon arrival at a stationary facility, you find a NFPA 704 diamond placard posted on the door to the room of fire. There is a “3” on the blue portion of the diamond. What does this indicate?
A) Shock and Heat May Detonate
B) Deadly
C) Hazardous
D) Extreme Danger
ANSWER: D) Extreme Danger
(ERP - pg 39)
- Shock and Heat May Detonate - this is a “3” in the
yellow/reactivity section - Deadly - 4
- Hazardous - 2
Members can reduce unnecessary exposure to radiation at an operation by utilizing the proper PPE and using objects to shield or block the radiation while operating in the Hot Zone. The following are listed “minimum precautions” to be taken prior to initiating operations. Which choice is incorrect?
A) Don proper bunker gear (with hood and helmet)
B) Don an APR and adapter; keep the SCBA in close proximity
C) Utilize a radiation detector (at least one per team)
D) Utilize a dosimeter (1 per position)
ANSWER: B) Don an APR and adapter; keep the SCBA in close proximity. (INCORRECT)
(ERP Add 4 4.4.3 C)
- DON a SCBA.
- The APR and adapter must be CARRIED by each member in case SCBA tank gets depleted.
- Note: If radioactive material is dispersed (i.e. not a point source), removal of PPE should not be initiated until the member is evaluated and decontamination is verified.
Which chemical agent has a “fruit” odor?
A) Nerve Agent
B) Blister Agent
C) Blood Agent
D) Choking Agent
ANSWER: A) Nerve Agent
(ERP Add 2 2.1)
Blister Agent - garlic
Blood Agent - burnt almonds
Choking Agent - chlorine/grass
Propane is a liquefied gas stored in cylinders at a temperature above its boiling point, and remains under pressure and in liquid form only so long as the container remains closed to the atmosphere. Which of the following hazards regarding propane is incorrectly described?
A) Heat applied to the cylinder will cause excessive pressure to build up in the cylinder, opening the relief valve. One cubic foot of liquid will expand 270 times as gas.
B) There is a great possibility that a cylinder involved in a fire will “BLEVE” (Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion). A BLEVE can occur in a matter of minutes and the satisfactory performance of a relief valve cannot prevent a BLEVE.
C) Many vehicles are dual-fueled and use both propane and gasoline. A basic principle is that a propane fire should not be extinguished except by shutting off the flow of escaping propane.
D) On a propane-fueled vehicle, if the tank area is involved in fire, immediately locate where the relief valve discharges and keep clear of this area. The discharge point of the relief valve on passenger cars are positioned within 90 degrees of vertical; this could be located in the trunk, under the skirt mounted to the frame, or in the rear passenger compartment.
ANSWER: D) On a propane-fueled vehicle, if the tank area is involved in fire, immediately locate where the relief valve discharges and keep clear of this area. The discharge point of the relief valve on passenger cars are positioned within 90 degrees of vertical; this could be located in the trunk, under the skirt mounted to the frame, or in the rear passenger compartment. (INCORRECT)
(HazMat 1 - 2.6.4)
- Within FORTY FIVE (45) DEGREES of vertical
Located in “ROT”
R - Rear Quarter Panel
O - Off the rear bumper
T - Top of the Truck
“LPG” or “Bottled Gas” is generally composed of propane, butane or some combination thereof. Which choice below is incorrect?
A) LPG is non-toxic, non-poisonous, flammable and odorless; though an odorizing agent is added when it is processed for domestic consumption.
B) LPG is 1.5 to 2 times heavier than air. In the liquid state, LPG presents a hazard similar to a highly volatile flammable liquid, but with more rapid vaporization.
C) At an LPG tank fire or emergency, keep everyone not actually engaged in operations at least 1000 feet from the front and rear of the tank and 500 feet from the sides.
D) Never attempt to move a portable LPG cylinder that is exposed to a serious fire.
ANSWER: D) Never attempt to move a portable LPG cylinder that is exposed to a serious fire. (INCORRECT)
(HazMat 1 1.4.9)
- If you have to move an LPG involved in fire, move it in the UPRIGHT POSITION and DO NOT DRAG IT IN A MANNER THAT WILL DAMAGE THE VALVE.
Large capacity LPG tanks involved in, or exposed to fire are extremely hazardous situations requiring a methodical approach. Which tactic below is not in accordance with Department Policy?
A) Tank surfaces exposed to heat from auto exposure or fire from another source can be protected by supplying large quantities of water on them. Approach the tank from the sides, applying water to all exposed surfaces as well as piping and valves.
B) If the only valve that can be used to stop the flow of gas is invovled in fire or is exposed to heat or flame, consider the possibility of using a heavy fog stream to protect a member while he shuts off the valve.
C) At an LPG leak, where the leak is involved in fire, extinguishing the fire shall always take priority over shutting down the leak.
D) Under fire conditions, tank failure usually occurs in the vapor area of the tank when sufficient water cannot be applied to prevent the metal from softening or weakening to a point where metal failure occurs. Before tank failure, the rise in pressure within the tank will cause an increase in the volume of fire, or a rise in the noise level, or both; this may or may not be accompanied by a bubble or blister forming on the tank shell.
ANSWER: C) At an LPG leak, where the leak is involved in fire, extinguishing the fire shall always take priority over shutting down the leak. (INCORRECT)
(HazMat 1 1.4.3)
- Do not extinguish until the leak has been stopped EXCEPT under extremely unusual conditions.
Proper identification and recognition of vehicles powered by Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is essential to successful operations. Which of the following choices contains incorrect information?
A) All vehicles powered by CNG, which require a FD permit to operate using such fuel, are likely to be placarded on their rear bumper only. “1075” in the diamond indicates that compressed natural gas is being used for propulsion.
B) Vehicles originating outside of NYS are likely to be placarded in accordance with their applicable state regulations; there may be some states that do not require CNG powered vehicles to have any warning placard.
C) CNG cylinders are subject to failure, but not to BLEVE (Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion)
D) Natural gas is lighter than air and will dissipate quickly. A fog line can be used to direct the flow and protect exposures.
ANSWER: A) All vehicles powered by CNG, which require a FD permit to operate using such fuel, are likely to be placarded on their rear bumper only. “1075” in the diamond indicates that compressed natural gas is being used for propulsion. (INCORRECT)
(HazMat 1 3.2.1)
- “1971” in the diamond placard indicates that compressed natural gas is being used for propulsion.
- CITY - all vehicles powered by CNG, which require FD permits to operate using such fuel, are required to have a warning placard on their FRONT AND REAR bumper.
- STATE - All other CNG powered vehicles registered in the state of NY are likely to be placarded ONLY ON THE REAR bumper.
- FEDERAL/OUTSIDE STATE - Will be placarded in accordance with their applicable state regulations and MAY NOT BE PLACARDED AT ALL.
Methanol is a highly volatile flammable liquid that may be encountered in the City of New York. Which choice below reflects the most correct statements regarding Methanol?
- It has a flash point of 24 degrees F.
- Methanol vapors are slightly lighter than air and will dissipate with the assistance of fog streams.
- Methanol burns cleanly (little smoke) and its pale blue flame may be difficult to see in bright sunlight.
- Methanol is both an eye and skin irritant, and inhalation of vapor at a high concentration can produce drunkenness, drowsiness, blurred vision and unconsciousness or death.
- Use of fog stream to channel vapors away from possible ignition sources. Fog streams will absorb and dilute vapors; apply downwind of the spill to be most effective.
- Methanol is destructive to ordinary foam. Alcohol type foam must be used. For small fires Type B dry chemical extinguishers are adequate but purple K is the most effective of the dry chemical extinguishing agents.
- It is soluble in water and application of large amounts of water will dilute the Methanol, rendering it non-flammable. The concentration of methanol must be reduced below 30% to be effective.
A) 1/2/4/5
B) 3/4/5/6
C) 2/3/5/6
D) 3/4/6/7
ANSWER: B) 3/4/5/6 are CORRECT
(HazMat 1 4.2 - 4.4.2)
- 1/2/7 are INCORRECT
1 - Flash point of FIFTY FOUR (54) DEGREES
2 - Methanol is HEAVIER than air
7 - Concentration must be reduced BELOW TWENTY (20) PERCENT to be effective.
Which property of methanol, which may be used to fuel vehicles that may enter NYC, is listed incorrectly?
A) Methanol is a highly volatile flammable liquid which is soluble in water.
B) Methanol vapors are slightly lighter than air and will readily dissipate with the assistance of a fog stream.
C) Methanol has a flash point of 54 F.
D) Methanol burns cleanly (little smoke) and its pale blue flame may be difficult to see in bright sunlight.
ANSWER: B) Methanol vapors are slightly lighter than air and will readily dissipate with the assistance of a fog stream. (INCORRECT)
(HM 1 4.2)
- Methanol vapors are SLIGHTLY HEAVIER than air and will flow along the ground collecting in low areas.
At lithium ion energy storage system incidents where members must establish an initial Danger Zone (to reduce explosion exposure risks), members should observe?
A) A minimum of 50 ft from container/cabinet exhaust fan opening (usually located on the container’s/cabinet’s side opposite FDC). Cabinets may not have exhaust systems.
B) A minimum of 50 ft from container/cabinet exhaust fan opening (usually located on the container’s/cabinet’s side opposite FDC). Containers may not have exhaust systems.
C) A minimum of 100 ft from container/cabinet exhaust fan opening (usually located on the container’s/cabinet’s side opposite FDC). Cabinets may not have exhaust systems.
D) A minimum of 100 ft from container/cabinet exhaust fan opening (usually located on the container’s/cabinet’s side opposite FDC). Containers may not have exhaust systems.
ANSWER: C) A minimum of 100 ft from container/cabinet exhaust fan opening (usually located on the container’s/cabinet’s side opposite FDC). Cabinets may not have exhaust systems.
(HM 19 p4)
Members should observe:
Minimum of 50 ft radius from container(s)/cabinet(s).
Minimum of 100 ft from container/cabinet exhaust fan opening (usually located on the container’s/cabinet’s side opposite FDC). Cabinets may not have exhaust systems.
What is the 2nd arriving Engine Company responsible for at a haz-mat incident where the Department has activated the “emergency response plan?”
A) Water Supply
B) Site Access Control
C) CFR-D duties
D) Information Resources
ANSWER: B) Site Access Control
(ERP 12.2)
“HA-SAC WA-SAC”
First Arriving Engine Company—Water Supply; if necessary may perform CFR-D.
Second Arriving Engine—Site Access Control; if necessary may perform CFR-D.
Third Arriving Engine Company - should be assigned CFR-D duties. If the First or Second Arriving Engine Company is already assigned CFR-D work, then the Third Arriving Engine should be assigned to water supply and decontamination or site control as needed.
Engine members responding to an EMS run for a burn injury suspected that the burn victim was operating an illegal, clandestine lab. Upon the discovery of any type of lab all of the following notifications shall be made except?
A) Battalion and Deputy Chief
B) Request Haz Mat to respond
C) NYPD
D) Fire Prevention
ANSWER: D) Fire Prevention (INCORRECT)
(ERP Add 3, Explosive and Incendiary Incidents 8.7.5)
Bureau of Fire Investigation (BFI)
E165 and L85 respond to a CO alarm in a private dwelling. The CO levels are slightly fluctuating and the members’ actions were correct in all cases except ________.
A) 9 PPM- Inform occupant that our meter has not detected an elevated CO level and the members SCBA shall be worn.
B) 10 PPM- Inform occupants that they have a potentially dangerous level of CO and the members SCBA shall be used.
C) 10 PPM drops to 9 PPM so the officers left the premises be reoccupied, because the appliance causing the CO was shut down.
D) 10 PPM- Begin evacuation of all persons in the affected, ventilation, and the members SCBA shall be used.
ANSWER: D) 10 PPM- Begin evacuation of all persons in the affected, ventilation, and the members SCBA shall be used.
(HazMat Ch 4 sec 4.4.3 and 4.5.2)
- 10 PPM / RECOMMEND that all persons leave the affected area and begin ventilation.
- You BEGIN evacuation when levels hit 100PPM.
- SCBA shall be worn at all CO investigations and used at all CO Emergencies.
CO Incidents: Meter readings of 9 PPM or less
CO Emergency: Meter readings of greater than 9 PPM
METER READINGS OF GREATER THAN 9 BUT LESS THAN 100 PPM:
1) Inform occupants that they have a potentially dangerous level of CO.
2) Recommend that all persons leave the affected area and begin ventilation.
3) If it is determined that an appliance is malfunctioning and thereby producing CO, it should be shut down.
4) Once the faulty appliance is shut down and ventilation has reduced the CO level to 9 PPM or less the premises may be reoccupied.
METER READINGS OF 100 PPM AND GREATER:
1) Inform occupants that we have detected a potentially lethal level of CO.
2) Begin evacuation of the affected area and ventilate.
Liquefied Petroleum Gases are _______ heavier than air
A) 1.5 to 2 times heavier
B) 2.5 to 3 times heavier
C) 1.5 to 2 times lighter
D) 2.5 to 3 times lighter
ANSWER: A) 1.5 to 2 times heavier
HazMat Ch 1 sec 1.2.5
Chemical suicides have been growing worldwide. Warning signs may be present on the car, in an apartment, or other confined areas. A chemical suicide person may exhibit all of the following signs except:
A) Victim appears to be sleeping
B) Victim showing signs of chemical exposure (difficulty breathing, convulsions or gasping)
C) Victim blue in color (similar to carbon monoxide poisoning)
D) Presence of chemical containers or strong chemical odors, such as hydrogen sulfide (rotten egg smell)
ANSWER: C) Victim blue in color (similar to carbon monoxide poisoning) (INCORRECT)
(HazMat 11 sec 3)
- Victim RED in color
Choose the incorrect statement made in regards to the GasAlert Extreme Carbon Monoxide (CO) meter.
A) A visual and low audible warning with a slow vibration is given if the concentration of CO in the atmosphere exceeds 35 PPM
B) A visual and high audible warning with a fast vibration is given if the concentration of CO in the atmosphere exceeds 100 PPM
C) When affixing the GasAlert Extreme Carbon Monoxide (CO) meter to the handie-talkie strap, fire officers shall not affix the meter near the antenna to prevent false activation
D) The GasAlert Extreme Carbon Monoxide (CO) meter is equipped with four push buttons. To turn on and activate the meter, press the green circular button on the right only.
ANSWER: D) The GasAlert Extreme Carbon Monoxide (CO) meter is equipped with four push buttons. To turn on and activate the meter, press the green circular button on the right only. (INCORRECT)
(Hazardous Materials 4 add 1)
- Press the green circular button on the LEFT ONLY
A suspicious package with a yellow label that reads “Radioactive II” can be correctly described in which choice?
A) Indicates low levels of radiation. Maximum of 50 mR/hr on the surface, and maximum of 1 mR/hr one meter from the package.
B) Indicates almost no radiation. Maximum of 0.5 mR/hr on the surface of the package
C) Indicates high levels of radiation. Maximum of 200 mR/hr on the surface of the package, and a maximum of 10 mR/hr one meter from the package
D) Yellow II packages must have at least one label affixed to them
ANSWER: A) Indicates low levels of radiation. Maximum of 50 mR/hr on the surface, and maximum of 1 mR/hr one meter from the package.
(ERP add 4 sec 2)
WHITE I- Indicates almost no radiation. Maximum of 0.5 mR/hr on the surface of the package
YELLOW II- Indicates low levels of radiation. Maximum of 50 mR/hr on the surface, and maximum of 1 mR/hr one meter from the package
YELLOW III- Indicates high levels of radiation. Maximum of 200 mR/hr on the surface of the package, and a maximum of 10 mR/hr one meter from the package
- Radioactive White I, Yellow II, Yellow III packages must be labeled with two labels affixed to opposite sides of package
Engine 75 and Tower Ladder 33 respond to a Carbon Monoxide alarm in an H type multiple dwelling. One of the buildings occupants suffers a serious injury due to their exposure to the hazard. The captain in the engine, who was the incident commander would be correct to notify whom via the borough dispatcher?
A) The Press Desk
B) The Citywide Tour Commander
C) The Administrative Division
D) The Bureau of Fire Investigation
ANSWER: D) The Bureau of Fire Investigation
Haz Mat#4 add 1 sec. 5.1.2
SOC Support Ladders are trained to commence operations at confined space incidents within specific limits. Which limitation listed below is incorrect?
A) SOC Support Ladder Companies shall not be permitted to attempt any entry that would require the rescuer to leave the direct line of sight of the officer supervising entry at the entrance to the space.
B) A fully equipped back-up rescuer shall remain on stand-by in the event the primary (entry) rescuer is injured, overcome, or needs assistance in escaping the space.
C) SOC Support Ladders shall only attempt an entry when all necessary precautions to safeguard the rescuer are taken, specifically, a suitable high point anchor shall be positioned to allow a retrieval system to be placed, air monitoring has taken place, and suitable steps are taken to remove hazards or otherwise protect rescuers (e.g., use of the SCBA for asphyxiation hazard).
D) SOC Support Ladders shall not attempt any entry where the hazards are atmospheric or controllable, or are not readily identifiable and controllable.
ANSWER: D) SOC Support Ladders shall not attempt any entry where the hazards are atmospheric or controllable, or are not readily identifiable and controllable. (INCORRECT)
(HM 10 7.2)
- SOC Support Ladders shall NOT attempt any entry where the hazards are OTHER THAN atmospheric and controllable, or are not readily identifiable and controllable.
- For example, a rescue of a person trapped in a cesspool is a permissible entry, since the hazards are oxygen depletion and immersion. These hazards will be controlled by the rescuer wearing an SCBA at all times during entry, by remaining attached to their retrieval line at all times, and by having a suitable hauling system in place to effect their removal in case of an emergency.
- Entry into a chemical tank at a tank farm, where the product and hazards are not readily known, is NOT a permissible entry.
If members encounter aggressive deadly behavior in the form of active shooters prior to the arrival of NYPD, they should communicate their unit identity and location via the Borough Dispatcher to the NYPD. Also, if possible, provide all of following information to the NYPD except?
A) Number, location(s), and description of perpetrator(s).
B) Number and location(s) of victims and hostages, if any.
C) Number and location(s) of witnesses, if any.
D) Types of weapons in use (e.g., semiautomatic rifles, hand guns, explosives, knives).
ANSWER: C) Number and location(s) of witnesses, if any.
(ERP Add 3A 4.2)
- Also - Communication method used by perpetrator(s), if apparent (cell phones, etc.)
At a CO response, the Incident Commander shall request the utility company to respond in each of the following cases except?
A) A CO level 1 PPM or higher is recorded by a meter.
B) Units on the scene shut off a gas appliance.
C) An individual(s) is exhibiting symptoms of CO poisoning.
D) The IC feels a response by the utility company is required.
ANSWER: A) A CO level 1 PPM or higher is recorded by a meter. (INCORRECT)
(HM 4 4.1.5)
- A CO level “over 9 PPM” is recorded by a meter.
Acronym: “SICO”
S - Symptoms
I - IC feels it is necessary
C - CO over 9ppm
O - Off - appliance shut
The Captain of Engine 400 is the second due engine assigned to the Triage Transfer Point at the scene of a detonated explosive device. He would be correct to update the FDNY IC and Medical Branch Director with the number of red-tagged patients remaining at this location and any need for additional resources for transportation every how many minutes?
A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 25
ANSWER: B) 15
(ERP Addendum 3 5.5.2)
- Patient Transfer Group made up of 2nd arriving Fire units and the 2nd arriving Battalion Chief.
Captain Jones is the Incident Commander at the scene of a carbon monoxide emergency in apartment 3B of a multiple dwelling. The occupant of the apartment has just been removed and transported to the hospital with serious injuries. In addition to all the required notifications related to the carbon monoxide leak, Captain Jones should have the Dispatcher notify who?
A) OEM
B) DOB
C) BFI
D) Fire Prevention
ANSWER: C) BFI
Haz Mat 4 5.1.2
At an underground, transit chemical attack incident, who of the following is responsible for “Site Access Control?”
A) First Ladder Team 1
B) Second Ladder Team 1
C: First Ladder Team 2
D) Second Ladder Team 2
ANSWER: D) Second Ladder Team 2
(ERP Add 2 6.6)
1st LADDER “EHAB”
Team 1 “EHA” (Evacuation / Hazard Assessment)
Team 2 “B”- (Backup)
2nd LADDER “EGD SAC”
Team 1 - “EGD” (Evac to Gross Decon)
Team 2 - “SAC” (Site Access Control)
While conducting searches at a fire in a large industrial facility in downtown Brooklyn, you identify a door with the NFPA 704 Diamond on it. There is a “2” in the yellow section which indicates?
A) Violent chemical change
B) Shock and heat may detonate
C) Hazardous
D) Deadly
ANSWER: A) Violent chemical change
(ERP p39)
Reactivity / Yellow Section “SUVS May Detonate”
S - 0 Stable
U - 1 Unstable if Heated
V - 2 Violent Chemical Change
S - 3 Shock and Heat May Detonate
M - 4 May Detonate
Health Hazards / Blue “N-SHED”
N - 0 Normal Material
S - 1 Slightly Hazardous
H - 2 Hazardous
E - 3 Extreme Danger
D - 4 Deadly
At a radiological emergency, the IC allows members to conduct “general operations.” How long can members operate in the hot zone of an area with a dose-rate of 20 R/hr?
A) Members cannot operate
B) 15 minutes
C) 1 hour
D) 30 minutes
ANSWER: B) 15 minutes
(ERP Add 4 3.1.4 A, Table 3)
- Since members can absorb a max dose of 5 Rems, at a location where 20 R/hr is the dose rate, they can operate for only a quarter of the time, or 15 minutes.
During an extensive search at a fire in an industrial plant, your OV FF transmits to you that he entered a room labeled on the door with a large diamond of blue, red, white and yellow colors. He stated there was a “3” in the red section. You would be correct to tell him?
A) The flash point in this area will be between 73 and 99 degrees F.
B) Shock and heat may cause detonation of this area.
C) The flash point in this area will be between 101 and 200 degrees F.
D) This area presents an extreme health danger.
Explanation:
ANSWER: A) The flash point in this area will be between 73 and 99 degrees F.
(ERP p39)
Flammability/Red Section:
4 - Flash Point below 73 degrees F
3 - Flash Point below 100 degrees F
2 - Flash point above 100 / not exceeding 200 degrees
1 - Above 200 degrees F
0 - Will not burn
When members suspect or discover any type of clandestine lab, they shall immediately stop, DO NOT TOUCH ANYTHING, retrace their steps and back out of the area. Members shall not attempt to determine the type of lab prior to leaving, but rather evacuate surrounding occupancies as needed and make all of the following notifications except?
A) Battalion Chief and Deputy Chief.
B) Request Haz Mat to respond.
C) NYPD (including the Bomb Squad when necessary).
D) Counterterrorism Task Force.
ANSWER: D) Counterterrorism Task Force. (INCORRECT)
(ERP Add 3 8.7.5)
- BFI (The Fire Marshals) as well.
You arrive at Box 7182 for a report of “popping sounds” from an outdoor Li-ion-ESS Container. After transmitting a 10-80 code 1, Haz Mat units arrive and determine there is no rise in temperature of the battery or module. Which action below would be considered correct?
A) Shut down the ESS.
B) The initial Danger Zone is no longer required to be enforced and maintained.
C) Do not charge the FDC water extinguishing system.
D) Do not exhaust the container.
ANSWER: C) Do not charge the FDC water extinguishing system.
(HM 19 p5)
In this case (NO rise in temperature of the battery or module):
- DO NOT charge the FDC water extinguishing system.
- DO NOT shut down ESS.
- Ensure the initial Danger Zone is enforced and maintained.
- Exhaust the container/cabinet (exhaust override switch at the FDC). FYI…”Cabinets”may not have exhaust systems. If the FDC is located closer than 50 feet from the nearest container/cabinet then personnel shall only enter this area under the order of the IC.
Ask for SME for guidance via telephone.
Upon arrival at a CFR response in a subway for difficulty breathing, you find multiple victims complaining of eye irritation and a distinct odor of grass. At this incident, you should suspect victims have been exposed to what type of agent?
A: Nerve
B: Blister
C: Blood
D) Choking
ANSWER: D) Choking
(ERP Add 2 2.4)
- Phosgene / Choking Agent / musky hay or grass
Nerve Agent - Fruit odor
Blister Agent - Garlic odor
Blood Agent - Burn Almonds odor
In which choice below would you suspect an abnormal condition and transmit a 10-80 with the appropriate code for a “radiological emergency”?
A) The Rad50 reading 1 mR/hr one meter from a package with a White I label?
B) The Rad50 reading 45 mR/hr on the surface of a package with a Yellow II label?
C) The Rad50 reading 150 mR/hr on the surface of a package with a Yellow III label?
D) The Rad50 reading 50 mR/hr one meter from a five packages, each with a Yellow III label?
ANSWER: A) The Rad50 reading 1 mR/hr one meter from a package with a White I label?
(ERP Add 4 2.5, 2.5.6)
- For a White I label, the maximum is 0.5 mR/hr on the surface of the package and NO READINGS one meter from the package.
B - This is correct as written; remember, it states for a Yellow II label - 50 mR/hr is the MAXIMUM reading on the surface of the package. 1 mR/hr max one meter away.
C - Yellow III - max 200 mR/hr on the surface and max 10 mR/hr one meter from the package.
D Note: The total TI of a vehicle’s shipment may not exceed 50 mR/hr. This can be a maximum of five Yellow III packages with a max of 10mR/hr one meter away (Transportation Index or TI) each.
Company officers should be familiar with the process of identifying hazardous materials. Of the following choices, which is described correctly?
A) In a Truck, the “bill of lading” is kept in a locked compartment in the back of the cab.
B) On a Railroad, the “waybill” is carried by the conductor in the caboose or engine.
C) On an Aircraft, the “air bill” is kept by the pilot or co-pilot.
D) On a Ship, the “cargo manifest” is kept by the Captain.
ANSWER: B) On a Railroad, the “waybill” is carried by the conductor in the caboose or engine.
(HM 2 4.4)
In a Truck, the “bill of lading” is kept in the cab within reach of the driver.
On a Railroad, the “waybill” is carried by the conductor in the caboose or engine.
On an Aircraft, the “air bill” is kept by the pilot.
On a Ship, the “cargo manifest” is kept by the master or first mate.
At a haz-mat incident where a CPC entry team is deployed, a backup team of two CPC trained members dressed to the “standby position” must be ready. Which of the following is not an accurate description of the CPC Standby position?
A) Both legs in the suit
B) Outer boots and surgical gloves on
C) SCBA donned with the cylinder opened and facepiece on, but the regulator disengaged from the facepiece
D) Left arm in suit and identity tag in place
ANSWER: D) Left arm in suit and identity tag in place (INCORRECT)
(HM 5 7.1, 7.2)
- RIGHT arm in suit and identity tag in place.
When operating at a fire in a LPG-fueled vehicle, it is important to be aware of, and stay clear of, the discharge point of the relief valve on passenger cars which is positioned within 45 degrees of vertical. This could be located at each of the following locations except?
A) Under the hood
B) Rear quarter panel
C) Off the rear bumper
D) Top of the trunk
ANSWER: A) Under the hood (INCORRECT)
(HM 1 2.6.4 C)
Acronym: “ROT”
R - Rear quarter panel
O - Off the rear bumper
T - Top of the trunk
One option for setting up a mass Decon is to utilize a handline. As per Department policy, all choices below are correct regarding this procedure except?
A) Stretch a 2½” handline equipped with an Aquastream fog nozzle.
B) The nozzle team should operate the nozzle in the fog position and the victims should be directed through the fog spray, rinsing any remaining contamination off them.
C) The members performing decontamination should avoid contact with victims until the proper PPE is in use. The recommended operating pressure range is between 100 to 125 psi.
D) Consideration can be given to the use of two handlines operating opposite each other, approximately 25’ – 30’ apart, to form a large shower area that multiple victims can move through at the same time.
ANSWER: C) The members performing decontamination should avoid contact with victims until the proper PPE is in use. The recommended operating pressure range is between 100 to 125 psi. (INCORRECT)
(HM 7 2.4.3)
- The members performing decontamination should avoid contact with victims until the proper PPE is in use. The recommended operating pressure range is between 50 to 80 psi.
- Note: Care must taken to avoid pushing the contamination across to the opposing nozzle team.
At a chemical suicide incident, responding fire units would be correct to following all of the procedures below except?
A) Conduct a scene survey for safety, don full PPE and use the SCBA.
B) Stretch a charged hoseline with a fog nozzle attached. Primarily for vapor dispersal; the line can also be used for decontamination and fire suppression in case of ignition or explosion.
C) Ventilate the vehicle or occupancy prior to entering. Remove the patient from the hazardous environment and check for responsiveness. If unresponsive and the assessment meets FDNY criteria for presumed death, handle the body as part of the crime scene investigation.
D) If the assessment does not meet the FDNY criteria for presumed death, provide patient care according to CFR protocols. Remove the patient’s clothing and flush with copious amounts of water as a part of emergency decon before transport.
ANSWER: B) Stretch a charged hoseline with a fog nozzle attached. Primarily for vapor dispersal; the line can also be used for decontamination and fire suppression in case of ignition or explosion.
(HM 11 4.1)
- Stretch a charged hoseline with a fog nozzle attached. PRIMARILY for DECONTAMINATION; the line can also be used for vapor dispersal and fire suppression in case of ignition or explosion.
- Note: Avoid disturbing the container, generally found in a bucket, as it may increase chemical mixing and poisonous gas emissions.
- Note: When available, use meters to monitor oxygen levels, flammable vapor concentrations, and the presence of hydrogen sulfide, hydrogen cyanide or other chemicals.
Under which haz-mat condition below would evacuation be preferred?
A) Immediate danger of fire or explosion
B) Low to moderate toxicity
C) Small quantity solid or liquid leak
D) Release can be rapidly controlled at the source
ANSWER: A) Immediate danger of fire or explosion
(ERP 9.5.2, 9.5.5 C)
Shelter in place is preferred when:
- Low to moderate toxicity
- Totally released and dissipating
- Small quantity solid or liquid leak
- A migrating vapor of low toxicity and quantity and people are safer indoors than outside
- Release can be rapidly controlled at the source
Evacuation is best considered when:
- There is an immediate danger of fire or explosion
- The potential for a discharge is great, it has not taken place, and there is time to relocate people
- The discharge has taken place but people are sufficiently protected to permit time for evacuation
- People not yet in the path of a release will be threatened by changing conditions
There are many things to consider when selecting a site to perform decontamination during a radiological emergency. Which consideration is described incorrectly?
A) Proximity to the incident
B) Wind direction
C) Terrain
D) Water run-off (if setting up wet decon, which is the preferred decontamination method for radiological events)
ANSWER: D) Water run-off (if setting up wet decon, which is the preferred decontamination method for radiological events) (INCORRECT)
(ERP Add 4 6.2.1)
- Water run-off (if setting up wet decon; although, DRY decon is the PREFERRED decontamination method for radiological events)
While operating at a CO Emergency with meter readings of 200 PPM, you take the following actions, one of which is incorrect. Indicate the incorrect action?
A) Inform occupants that we have detected a “potentially lethal” level of CO.
B) Recommend that all persons leave the affected area and begin ventilation.
C) If a malfunctioning appliance is found producing CO, it should be shut down.
D) Inform occupants of the actions taken, and that the utility company has been requested to respond.
ANSWER: B) Recommend that all persons leave the affected area and begin ventilation. (INCORRECT)
(HM 4 4.5.1-4.5.3, 4.5.6)
- BEGIN evacuation of the affected area and ventilate.
- Only “recommend” evacuation if greater than 9 PPM and less than 100 PPM.
- Also, if greater than 9 PPM and less than 100 PPM, inform occupants that they have a “potentially dangerous” level of CO.
When encountering a United States Postal Service (USPS) facility equipped with a Bio-Detection System (BDS) you should be cognizant of all of the following except?
A) The USPS Bio-Detection System (BDS) analysis process may take as long as 90 minutes to complete. The letter will continue through the facility during this 90 minute period.
B) Postal Workers will proceed to the Safe Refuge Area (SRA) within the facility and await establishment of decontamination areas by the FDNY. USPS refers to a SRA as “In-Plant Refuge.”
C) U.S. Postal Inspectors will retrieve the PCR sample canister, which will then be transported to the DOH for confirmation of an anthrax event. FDNY members shall provide decontamination and back-up for the USPS Inspectors.
D) A CIDS card is mandatory for any USPS facility with a Bio-Detection System. The transmitted data area shall indicate the presence of a “USPS Bio-Detection System.”
ANSWER: C) U.S. Postal Inspectors will retrieve the PCR sample canister, which will then be transported to the DOH for confirmation of an anthrax event. FDNY members shall provide decontamination and back-up for the USPS Inspectors. (INCORRECT)
(HM 14 2, 5)
- U.S. Postal Inspectors will retrieve the PCR sample canister, which will then be transported to the DOH for confirmation of an anthrax event. The NYPD will provide decontamination and back-up for the USPS Inspectors.
Following possible fentanyl exposure, proper decontamination is indicated in all choices below except?
A) Areas of direct skin contact with any residue suspected of containing synthetic opioids should be immediately washed with copious amounts of water. As soon as possible, skin surfaces must be additionally washed with soap and water.
B) If no soap or water is available, members may use alcohol-based hand disinfectants or hypochlorite bleach solutions for rapid decontamination.
C) Take care not to break the skin during the decontamination process and to cover all open wounds.
D) Shower immediately after a potential exposure.
ANSWER: B) If no soap or water is available, members may use alcohol-based hand disinfectants or hypochlorite bleach solutions for rapid decontamination.
(INCORRECT)
(HM 18 5.1)
- Use of alcohol-based hand disinfectants or hypochlorite bleach solutions must be AVOIDED as they may enhance skin absorption of fentanyl analogues.
Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding Potassium Iodide (KI) tablets?
A) Engines, Ladders, Squads, Rescues, Battalions, Divisions, Borough Commanders and Command Chiefs shall all carry 130 mg Potassium Iodide (KI) tablets in the in the glovebox of their apparatus/vehicle.
B) Members shall only take Potassium Iodide (KI) tablets when directed by the Chief of Department.
C) KI tablets can be stored for at least 15 years without losing their potency. Refrigeration not required.
D) Using KI will only protect the thyroid gland from radioactive iodine. It will not protect other parts of the body from radioactive iodine and it will not protect a person from the effects of exposure to other radioactive materials that may be released.
ANSWER: C) KI tablets can be stored for at least 15 years without losing their potency. Refrigeration not required. (INCORRECT)
(ERP Add 4C 1.2, 5.1, 5.2, 5.4)
- KI tablets can be stored for at least (FIVE) 5 years without losing their potency. Refrigeration is NOT required.
Biological agents can be delivered in liquid or
dried form. It is important for members to recognize the difference, as well as the hazards of each. Which choice below is incorrect?
A) Agents in liquid form are opaque, but can vary in color depending on the method of production and the agent itself.
B) The viscosity of a biological agent in liquid form is typically thicker than water, but not as thick as syrup.
C) The color of dried biological agents varies depending on the method used to prepare the agent. For example, weaponized anthrax may appear gray or brown in color.
D) Dry biological agents are easier to produce but more difficult to disseminate because they are less stable than liquid biological agents.
ANSWER: D) Dry biological agents are easier to produce but more difficult to disseminate because they are less stable than liquid biological agents. (INCORRECT)
(ERP Add 1 Ch 1 - 3.2.8)
Hint: “L- L”
Liquid - Less stable
- Liquid biological agents are EASIER to produce but more DIFFICULT to disseminate because they are LESS stable than dried biological agents.
It is important for company officers to know the proper actions to take at the scene of an overt biological release. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information?
A) Establish an initial Exclusion Zone at least 300 feet in all directions from the source or point of release.
B) Use available PPE for initial operations. Respiratory protection is mandatory for responders and extended operations within or near the Exclusion Zone may require a higher level of PPE.
C) A biological agent released at dawn, dusk, or during the night will have a lesser impact, thereby decreasing the potential for exposure.
D) Higher humidity will facilitate the dispersal of a liquid agent, whereas lower humidity is more conducive to dispersal of a dried biological agent.
ANSWER: C) A biological agent released at dawn, dusk, or during the night will have a lesser impact, thereby decreasing the potential for exposure. (INCORRECT)
(ERP Add 1 Ch 1 5.2.1, 5.2.2, 5.6.3)
- A biological agent released at dawn, dusk, or during the night will have a GREATER IMPACT. The temperature of the ground and the air hovering just above the ground is cooler than the upper layers of air, creating a temperature inversion, which keeps the aerosol cloud closer to the ground, thereby INCREASING the potential for exposure.
- Also… The sun’s UV rays will destroy some biological agents.
At a recent drill on Improvised Explosive Devices (IEDs) at a busy Manhattan Truck Company, one member made an incorrect statement. Which comment made was incorrect?
A) There is no reliable method to determine the difference between an Improvised Incendiary Device (i.e. Molotov cocktail) and an Improvised Explosive Device. Therefore, members shall not handle any type of device thought to be explosive or incendiary. The NYPD Bomb Squad shall be requested if a device is discovered.
B) Members shall not attempt to handle or move any firearm, ammunition or incendiary device. Notifications shall be made to the New York City Police Department (NYPD) and Bureau of Fire Investigation (BFI). When consistent with safety, the IC shall assign members to safeguard evidence from a safe distance until the arrival of the NYPD or BFI.
C) At the scene of a suspected IED, HT and cell phones shall not be used within 150 ft of a suspected device, and Apparatus, Post and Marine radios should not be operated within 300 ft of a suspected device. These distances are only guidelines and should not normally hamper FDNY operations since the isolation zone surrounding a device would generally exceed 300 ft.
D) At the scene of a confirmed IED, when possible, FDNY resources shall be staged on only one side of the incident to allow for a single approach to the point of impact (POI) in the event the device detonates. Keep in mind that shock waves move around buildings and fragments or shrapnel can travel faster than a bullet. Avoid areas where window glass may fall on staged personnel or apparatus.
ANSWER: D) At the scene of a confirmed IED, when possible, FDNY resources shall be staged on only one side of the incident to allow for a single approach to the point of impact (POI) in the event the device detonates. Keep in mind that shock waves move around buildings and fragments or shrapnel can travel faster than a bullet. Avoid areas where window glass may fall on staged personnel or apparatus. (INCORRECT)
(ERP Add 3 3.1, 4.1.1, 4.1.4, 7.2)
- At the scene of a confirmed IED, when possible, FDNY resources shall be staged to allow for a TWO-SIDED approach to the point of impact (POI) in the event the device detonates.
- Keep in mind that shock waves move around buildings and fragments or shrapnel can travel faster than a bullet. Avoid areas where window glass may fall on staged personnel or apparatus.
A Note: Care shall be exercised in extinguishing activated incendiary devices. Precautionary hoselines shall be stretched and members staged in a safe area, out of the line-of-sight.
B Note: Evidence should only be handled by the NYPD or BFI and the disposal of dangerous articles shall only be performed by law enforcement.
As the first arriving Engine on scene at an IED incident, post-detonation, you would be correct to take all of the following actions except?
A) If first unit on scene, confirm the location of the POI using plain language on the department radio. Notify the dispatcher and advise incoming units that an explosion has occurred, so that all incoming units may alter response routes when necessary.
B) Consider staging in a protected area, being mindful of distance and/or shielding. Consider transmitting a 10-60 with the appropriate code.
C) If there is no threat of fire, use skeds to remove critical victims from the POI to the Triage Transfer Point. If there are no EMS units at the Triage Transfer Point, then proceed with triage of critical victims.
D) Properly position the apparatus, establish water supply, stretch a precautionary 1 3/4” hoseline and, when necessary, knock down fires threatening victims. If there is no threat of fire, remove skeds and CFR equipment for use in the POI.
ANSWER: D) Properly position the apparatus, establish water supply, stretch a precautionary 1 3/4” hoseline and, when necessary, knock down fires threatening victims. If there is no threat of fire, remove skeds and CFR equipment for use in the POI.
(ERP Add 3 5.3.1)
- Properly position the apparatus, establish water supply, stretch a precautionary TWO AND A HALF INCH HOSELINE.
Company officers should be aware that, at the scene of a detonated IED?
A) Only deceased victims should be tagged in the POI (Black-tag).
B) Only critical victims should be tagged in the POI (Red-tag).
C) Both deceased and critical victims should be tagged in the POI (Black-tag and Red-tag).
D) No victims should be tagged in the POI.
ANSWER: A) Only deceased victims should be tagged in the POI (Black-tag).
(ERP Add 3 5.3.1)
Propane fueled vehicles present many challenges to Fire Department members. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A) Propane is a liquefied gas stored in cylinders at a temperature above its boiling point and remains under pressure and in liquid form only so long as the container remains closed to the atmosphere.
B) Heat applied to the cylinder will cause excessive pressure to build up in the cylinder, opening the relief valve. One cubic foot of liquid will expand 270 times as a gas.
C) There is a great possibility that a cylinder involved in a fire will “BLEVE” (Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion). A BLEVE can occur in a matter of minutes. A satisfactory performance of a relief valve, however, will prevent a BLEVE.
D) When a BLEVE occurs in a propane cylinder, it will usually result in an explosion and fire ball, with the cylinder becoming a flying missile.
ANSWER: C) There is a great possibility that a cylinder involved in a fire will “BLEVE” (Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion). A BLEVE can occur in a matter of minutes. A satisfactory performance of a relief valve, however, will prevent a BLEVE. (INCORRECT)
(HM 1 - 2.4.1 / 2.4.3)
- There is a great possibility that a cylinder involved in a fire will “BLEVE” (Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion). A BLEVE can occur in a matter of minutes. A satisfactory performance of a relief valve CAN NOT prevent a BLEVE.
Which of the following choices contains correct information regarding Fire Department operations at an IED incident, post detonation?
A) Fire units should respond to the POI and Triage Transfer Point with the following equipment: Meters. Skeds, Tourniquets, Triage tags and CFR equipment.
B) FDNY members assigned to a Staging Area must conduct a thorough search of the area for secondary devices.
C) Leave emergency vehicles that were inside of the primary blast/crime scene area in place until the Incident Comnander determines they are safe to move and moving them will not destroy key evidence.
D) In all cases, members should don appropriate PPE, including their SCBA facepieces, and this equipment must be worn and used throughout the entire operation.
ANSWER: A) Fire units should respond to the POI and Triage Transfer Point with the following equipment: Meters. Skeds, Tourniquets, Triage tags and CFR equipment.
(ERP Add 3 5.1.3)
B - FDNY members assigned to a Staging Area must conduct a thorough SURVEY of the area to ensure that all threats and suspicious objects are identified and mitigated. Members of the FDNY are NOT trained to conduct a SEARCH for explosive devices. Members are to SURVEY (VISUAL OBSERVATION) the Staging Area but shall not conduct a search for devices.
C - Leave emergency vehicles that were inside of the primary blast/crime scene area in place until the NYPD BOMB SQUAD can determine they are safe to move and moving them will not destroy key evidence.
D - Members should don appropriate PPE. However, members should NOT don their SCBA facepieces unless there are indications of respiratory danger based on victim reaction (SLUDGEM) or meter readings. Wearing the facepiece could inhibit vision at this type of operation.
Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding Fire Department operations at fires and emergencies involving Methanol?
A) Methanol is destructive to ordinary foam; alcohol type foam must be used. For small fires, Type B dry chemical extinguishers are adequate although Purple K is the most effective of the dry chemical extinguishing agents.
B) Application of large amounts of water will dilute Methanol, rendering it non-flammable. The concentration of Methanol must be reduced below 54% to be effective.
C) When applying water to dilute Methanol, run-off should be contained by diking or other means to prevent entry into sewers and to assist in the dilution.
D) A Methanol fire may be invisible during day light hours. Proceed with caution when establishing the boundary of the fire.
ANSWER: B) Application of large amounts of water will dilute Methanol, rendering it non-flammable. The concentration of Methanol must be reduced below 54% to be effective. (INCORRECT)
(HM 1 4.4.2)
- Application of large amounts of water will dilute Methanol, rendering it non-flammable. The concentration of Methanol must be reduced BELOW 20% to be effective.
- The FLASH POINT of Methanol is 54 degrees F.
What would the Department of Transportation classify a flammable solid as (i.e. what you would find on a placard on a truck or rail car if it were transporting flammable solids)?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 8
ANSWER: C) 4
(HM 2 2.1)
Acronym: “Every Good Fire-Lt.’s Standard Operating Procedures Requires Coordinated Members”
- Explosives.
- Gases (Compressed)
- Flammable Liquids.
- Solids (Flammable)
- Oxidizers.
- Poisons.
- Radioactive Material.
- Corrosives.
- Miscellaneous Dangerous Goods.
Which choice contains correct information regarding biological agents?
A) Generally, manifestation of a biological incident is immediate.
B) SOC units carry meters that can detect the presence of a biological agent instantaneously.
C) By weight, chemical nerve agents are thousands of times more lethal than biological toxins.
D) Exposure to biological toxins such as ricin or mycotoxins may present immediate symptoms that mimic exposure to a chemical agent.
ANSWER: D) Exposure to biological toxins such as ricin or mycotoxins may present immediate symptoms that mimic exposure to a chemical agent.
(ERP Add 1 Ch 1 2.1.1, 2.1.2, 2.1.5)
A - Generally, manifestation of a biological incident is NOT immediate. It may take several hours, days or even weeks before a biological occurrence is suspected and even longer before a suspected outbreak/release can be confirmed.
B - There are NO DEVICES currently available to the Department that can detect the presence of a biological agent instantaneously or in real time.
C - By weight, BIOLOGICAL toxins are thousands of times more lethal than CHEMICAL nerve agents.
Most chemical agents will cause victims to display signs and symptoms immediately (seconds to minutes). Which agents will have delayed effects (hours)?
A) Chlorine and Ammonia
B) Hydrogen Cyanide and Cyanogen Chloride
C) Tabun and Sarin
D) Mustards and Phosgene
ANSWER: D) Mustards and Phosgene
(ERP Add 2 2, p18)
- Exposure to chemical agents will result in immediate signs and symptoms (seconds to minutes), with the exception of Mustards and Phosgene, which will have delayed effects (hours).
On a Haz-Mat Technician Unit, the Officer, Entry and Backup positions shall be filled by FDNY qualified Haz-Mat Technicians. The Decon position shall also be filled by an FDNY qualified Haz-Mat Technician, but in the event a Haz-Mat Technician is not available, who can staff this position?
A) A senior firefighter from an Engine.
B) A Decon-trained firefighter from SOC.
C) A member of a CPC Ladder.
D) A member with at least 5 years in rank from any unit.
ANSWER: B) A Decon-trained firefighter from SOC.
(HM 8 6.2)
- Although CPC members are trained in Decon, section 6.2 specifically states a Decon-trained firefighter from “SOC.”
Members of the Department may respond to an incident involving a suspicious powder. When NYPD is already on scene, members shall adhere to each of the following guidelines except?
A) Make contact with the NYPD Incident Commander in order to determine credibility or intelligence, if available.
B) Transmit the appropriate 10-80 signal, specifying suspected anthrax.
C) Determine if life safety operations are necessary, in progress, or completed. Determine the number of people needing decontamination, if any.
D) When patient contact is necessary, ensure proper PPE is worn; consult with the NYPD for PPE guidance.
ANSWER: D) When patient contact is necessary, ensure proper PPE is worn; consult with the NYPD for PPE guidance. (INCORRECT)
(HM 16 2.1.1)
- Consult with the HAZ MAT BATTALION.
- Also, maintain open lines of communication with units of the responding Haz Mat Group for additional assistance.
In order to control a gas leak from a CNG-fueled vehicle, follow the information in each of the following choices except?
A) Stop the flow of gas; each vehicle has an emergency shut off.
B) The location of the gas shutoff is different on each vehicle, but can be found by looking for the sign “Emergency Shut Off” on the outside of the vehicle.
C) The shutoff valve is a common gas valve (1/4 turn to shut off).
D) Each CNG cylinder can be shut off individually by closing the cylinder valve counterclockwise on the top of the cylinder.
ANSWER: D) Each CNG cylinder can be shut off individually by closing the cylinder valve counterclockwise on the top of the cylinder. (INCORRECT)
(HM 1 3.5.1 D)
- Each CNG cylinder can be shut off individually by closing the cylinder valve CLOCKWISE on the top of the cylinder.
Haz Mat Tech Units (HMTUs) are specially-trained units equipped with a second apparatus (Haz-Mat Tender). These units are a great asset at many types of fires and emergencies. Of the following choices, which HMTU response consideration is inaccurate?
A) When the unit leaves quarters for training or other non-response activities, the Haz-Mat Tender shall accompany the unit.
B) When out of quarters with the Haz-Mat Tender and the unit receives a redirected response (structural fire, etc.) which does not call for the use of the tender or the equipment carried on it, the tender shall be properly locked and secured upon arrival at the scene.
C) For response from quarters for other then haz-mat incidents, the Haz-Mat Tender shall be left in quarters, available for immediate pick up if needed.
D) If the HMTU is out of quarters without the Haz-Mat Tender and is assigned a haz-mat response, they are to immediately report to quarters to transport the Haz-Mat Tender to the scene.
ANSWER: D) If the HMTU is out of quarters without the Haz-Mat Tender and is assigned a haz-mat response, they are to immediately report to quarters to transport the Haz-Mat Tender to the scene.
(HM 8 - 4.3, 4.4)
- If the HMTU is out of quarters without the tender and is assigned a haz-mat response, they are to notify the dispatcher, who will special call the NEAREST AVAILABLE UNIT to transport the tender to the scene.
All members should be familiar with the types of improvised explosive devices (IEDs) that may be encountered. Which of the following is incorrect?
A) Low Explosives are the controlled release of gas that creates a propellant, causing a pushing effect. They are designed to burn and easier to ignite; initiated by flame or impact, detonate at speeds less than 3000 ft/sec (e.g., black powder, smokeless powder, rocket fuel).
B) High Explosives are initiated by shock from a detonator or blasting cap (not spark or flame). They create a shattering effect in an instantaneous release of energy for maximum dispersion and damage, and detonate at speeds greater than 3000 ft/sec. They are the weapon of choice for suicide terrorists.
C) There are five forms of stimuli or “insults” that initiate explosions include heat, friction, impact, electrostatic discharge (ESD) and shock. These insults can be accidentally (by first responders or civilians on scene) or intentionally (by a terrorist or his/her handler) applied to cause an explosion.
D) In general, flame initiates high explosives with detonators, and shock initiates low explosives with primers. Members familiar with the components of the triggering apparatus may recognize what may be a device prior to it detonating.
ANSWER: D) In general, flame initiates high explosives with detonators, and shock initiates low explosives with primers. Members familiar with the components of the triggering apparatus may recognize what may be a device prior to it detonating. (INCORRECT)
(ERP Add 3 6.2, 6.3, 6.5)
- In general, SHOCK initiates high explosives with detonators, and FLAME initiates low explosives with primers. Members familiar with the components of the triggering apparatus may recognize what may be a device prior to it detonating.
B Note: An average bullet from a rifle travels at approximately 2700 ft/sec).
Engine Companies have very specific duties when operating at a chemical attack in an underground subway. Which choice below is not in accordance with Department policy?
A) The first arriving Engine should stage the apparatus and equipment upwind and away from any potential sources of contamination such as subway entrances and sidewalk gratings, but near enough to begin Gross Decontamination of contaminated victims. When staging the apparatus, position near the location of the access/egress point(s) of first arriving Ladder Company performing assessment.
B) The first arriving Engine should remain outside the subway system unless ordered by the IC. They should direct persons who have been decontaminated to Casualty Collection Points (CCPs) staffed by EMS for triage, treatment and transport.
C) The first arriving Engine should provide an estimate of the number of victims to Incident Commander. Additionally, they should inform the first arriving Ladder Company and second arriving Engine officer if victims collapse on their way from the subway exit to the Gross Decontamination Area.
D) The second and third arriving Engines may operate independently, each at their own entrance, to ensure that decontamination facilities are available quickly at these locations. Additionally, they should be prepared to perform CFR-D duties as needed.
ANSWER: C) The first arriving Engine should provide an estimate of the number of victims to Incident Commander. Additionally, they should inform the first arriving Ladder Company and second arriving Engine officer if victims collapse on their way from the subway exit to the Gross Decontamination Area. (INCORRECT)
(ERP Add 2 7.1.1, 7.1.4, 7.1.6-7.1.8, 7.2)
- The first arriving Engine should provide an estimate of the number of victims to Incident Commander. Additionally, they should inform the SECOND ARRIVING LADDER COMPANY and INCIDENT COMMANDER if victims collapse on their way from the subway exit to the Gross Decontamination Area.
The low battery alarm of the CO Meter consists of each of the following alerts except?
A) 1 beep (every 5 seconds)
B) 1 flash (every 5 seconds)
C) 1 quick vibration (every 5 seconds)
D) A low battery icon on the display
ANSWER: C) 1 quick vibration (every 5 seconds)
(HM 4 Add 1 3.5)
- 1 quick vibration (EVERY 1 MINUTE)
Proper identification of the material involved is essential in deciding on safe tactics to handle a motor vehicle accident involving hazardous materials. Of the following choices, which is not in compliance with the Department’s Haz-Mat policy?
A) Identification should be the initial action taken by the first to arrive units.
B) Look for visible placards, labels, chemical names, symbols, etc. on the container, tank, drum, or vehicle. Often, the vehicle driver can supply the name of the material.
C) Manufacturers and transporters tend to play down the hazards, so try to check any information about the hazard obtained from these sources. It is advisable to rely on the more restrictive source as a safety precaution.
D) If no information is available from placards or chemical names on a vehicle, obtain the driver of the vehicle’s name as well as his/her license number and state, which can be checked through the Battalion’s IPad for identification.
ANSWER: D) If no information is available from placards or chemical names on a vehicle, obtain the driver of the vehicle’s name as well as his/her license number and state, which can be checked through the Battalion’s IPad for identification. (INCORRECT)
(HM 2 4.1-4.3, 4.6)
- If no information is available from placards or chemical names on a vehicle, obtain the TRANSPORTER’S NAME on the vehicle and the LICENSE PLATE NUMBER and STATE, which can be checked by POLICE DEPARTMENT computer. The owner of the vehicle can then be contacted for identification of the contents.
Note: A similar procedure can be used for railroad cars, using the railroad’s name and the number on the car.
With biological agents, what should be the last
item removed from a victim or responder during the decontamination process?
A) outer clothing
B) respiratory protective devices
C) footwear
D) undergarments
ANSWER: B) respiratory protective devices
ERP Add 1 - ch 1 6.3.9
All chemical agents are heavier than air except?
A) sarin
B) lewisite
C) hydrogen cyanide
D) cyanogen chloride
ANSWER: C) hydrogen cyanide
(ERP Add 2 p18)
- All chemical agents, except hydrogen cyanide, are heavier than air.
Which level of chemical protective clothing offers “minimal skin and respiratory protection?”
A) Level A
B) Level B
C) Level C
D) Level D
ANSWER: C) Level C
(ERP 5.6)
Level A: The highest level of skin and respiratory protection; positive pressure SCBA inside vapor-tight chemical clothing.
Level B: The highest level of respiratory protection, but a lower level of skin protection; positive pressure SCBA and a chemical ensemble that provides splash protection.
Level C: Minimal skin and respiratory protection.
Level D: Minimal protection and is used to guard against nuisance contamination only.
- Structural firefighter protective clothing i.e. bunker gear is NOT classified as chemical protective clothing.
Captain Smith, currently covering in a Haz Mat Technician Unit (HMTU), made an incorrect comment in which choice below regarding these specially trained units?
A) At Haz-Mat mass casualty incidents, the HMTUs may be assigned to victim removal, first aid, and/or decontamination.
B) At incidents involving an unusually large number of victims, the HMTU’s primary emphasis will be on victim removal.
C) A HMTU is capable, within the limitation of their training and equipment, to operate as an independent Haz-Mat Team in the control and mitigation of an incident.
D) Entries by HMTU members into contaminated areas shall be made only when appropriate positions (e.g. Entry, Backup, etc.) are filled and a decontamination station is established. This may necessitate awaiting the arrival of a second HMTU to staff the decontamination station.
ANSWER: B) At incidents involving an unusually large number of victims, the HMTU’s primary emphasis will be on victim removal. (INCORRECT)
(HM 8 - 5.2, 5.3, 5.6, 6.3)
- At incidents involving an “unusually large number of victims,” the HMTU’s primary emphasis will be on DECONTAMINATION.
What is the MAXIMUM Transportation Index (TI) you can expect on a “Yellow II” label?
A) 50 mR/hr
B) 1 mR/hr
C) 10 mR/hr
D) 0 mR/hr
ANSWER: B) 1 mR/hr
(ERP Add 4 p33)
White I - 0.5 mR/hr on surface; N/A TI
Yellow II - 50 mR/hr on surface; 1 mR/hr TI
Yellow III - 200 mR/hr on surface; 10 mR/hr TI
Your unit responds to a call for a Li-ion-ESS container with smoke showing on arrival. Which action is in accordance with Department procedures for this incident?
A) Shut down the ESS (ESTOP) at the FDC or inside the electrical room if the ESS is supplying a building.
B) The Engine Company shall connect to the FDC, if available, but not charge the water extinguishing system.
C) Do not exhaust the container. Most containers do not have an exhaust system place.
D) Transmit a 10-80 no code radio signal for a Haz-Mat Response.
ANSWER: A) Shut down the ESS (ESTOP) at the FDC or inside the electrical room if the ESS is supplying a building.
(HM 19 5)
B - The Engine Company shall connect to the FDC, if available, AND CHARGE the water extinguishing system.
C - EXHAUST the container using the exhaust override switch at the FDC. CABINETS may not have exhaust systems.
D - Transmit a 10-80 CODE 1 radio signal for a Haz-Mat Response.
Note: Also…. Use exterior lines to cool adjacent cabinets and exposures if present and necessary. Use narrow fog or straight stream application and maximum reach of streams if possible.
During a seemingly routine operation, things can become quite complex when it’s been determined a hazardous material is involved. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A) If during the operation it is determined that a hazardous material is present, a hazard assessment must be made to determine if a release of the hazardous material has occurred. An attempt to identify the material and its hazards should become a top priority.
B) If it is determined that the material has been released and members do not have the proper PPE, units must withdraw from the area. A defensive posture should begin with the transmission of a 10-80 signal with the appropriate code and hazard and risk assessments should continue until Haz-Mat resources arrive to begin offensive operations in the appropriate level of PPE.
C) Initial rescue actions should concentrate on removing able-bodied (ambulatory) persons from immediate danger. Involvement in complicated rescue situations should never be attempted.
D) When the probability is high that a victim is not viable, rescue or recovery should not be attempted if it will place the rescuer at unnecessary risk. The danger of exposure to unknown chemicals or a potential explosion may also make the risk unacceptable.
ANSWER: C) Initial rescue actions should concentrate on removing able-bodied (ambulatory) persons from immediate danger. Involvement in complicated rescue situations should never be attempted. (INCORRECT)
(ERP 10.4, 10.5, 10.7.2, 10.7.3)
- Initial rescue actions should concentrate on removing able-bodied (ambulatory) persons from immediate danger. Involvement in complicated rescue situations should be CAREFULLY EVALUATED before being attempted.
While operating at a train derailment, the IC orders your unit to perform a hazard assessment for hazardous materials. You would be correct to look for which type of shipping papers?
A) The “bill of lading” kept within reach of the conductor.
B) The “waybill” carried by the conductor in the caboose or engine.
C) The “bill of lading” kept within reach of the master.
D) The “waybill” carried by the operator.
ANSWER: B) The “waybill” carried by the conductor in the caboose or engine.
(HM 2 4.4)
When operating at a Hazardous Material incident, scene security and control involves preventing or reducing the exposure to any civilian or responder, as well as preventing the transfer of hazardous substances by civilians, members and equipment from the Exclusion Zone to the Support Zone. Choose the most correct procedure when operating within these zones.
A) Contamination Reduction Corridor is established in the Exclusion Zone
B) Yellow barrier tape should be used for perimeter identification of the Exclusion Zone
C) Red barrier tape should be used for perimeter identification of the Contamination Reduction Zone
D) Safe Refuge Area is established in the Contamination Reduction Zone
ANSWER: D) Safe Refuge Area is established in the Contamination Reduction Zone
(ERP Hazardous Materials sec 4)
A - Contamination Reduction Zone
B - Red tape
C - Yellow tape
The Department of Transportation numerically classifies chemicals according to their major hazardous characteristics. The correct numerical classification for Corrosives can be found in which choice?
A) 9
B) 8
C) 7
D) 5
ANSWER: B) 8
(Hazardous Materials 2 sec 2.1)
There are 9 Classifications
“Every Good Lt’s SOP Requires Coordinated Members”
1 - Explosives
2 - Compressed gases
3 - Flammable Liquids
4 - Flammable Solids
5 - Oxidizers
6 - Poisons
7 - Radioactive Material
8 - Corrosives
9 - Miscellaneous Dangerous Goods
You are first to arrive to a vehicle (truck) accident with possible hazardous materials involved. Your initial action is to ID the material by various means such as visible placards, labels, chemical names, and symbols on the container, tank, drum, or vehicle. When unable to ID the material through these means, you decide to ask the driver for the shipping papers. The correct name of the shipping papers and location where they are kept can be found in which choice?
A) Bill of Lading and kept in the cab within reach of the driver
B) Cargo manifest and kept near or attached to the hazardous material
C) Waybill bill and kept in a clear folder under the drivers seat
D) Air bill and kept near or attached to the hazardous material
ANSWER: A) Bill of Lading and kept in the cab within reach of the driver.
(Hazardous Material 2 sec 4.4)
Truck - “Bill of Lading” is kept in the cab within reach of the driver
Railroad - “Waybill” is carried by the conductor in the caboose or engine
Aircraft - “Air bill” is kept by the pilot
Ships - “Cargo Manifest” is kept by the master or first mate
The first arriving units at a chemical release in a subway will be incident driven. However, for the most part, the first arriving units have predetermined assignments in place according to FDNY procedures. Choose the Company/Team that incorrectly carried out their assignment.
A) First arriving Ladder/Team 1 performed evacuation and hazard assessment
B) First arriving Ladder/Team 2 performed site access
C) Second arriving Ladder/Team 1 directed ambulatory victims from the Safe Refuge Area to the Gross Decontamination Area
D) Second arriving Ladder/Team 2 defined initial Exclusion Zone with red Haz-Mat barrier tape
ANSWER: B) First arriving Ladder/Team 2 performed site access (INCORRECT)
(ERP add 2 sec 6)
1st Ladder (Chemical attack) “EHAB”
Team 1 - “EHA” Evacuation and Hazard Assessment
Team 2 - “B” - Backup
2nd Ladder (Chemical attack) “EGD SAC”
Team 1 - “EGD” Evacuate to Gross Decon
Team 2 - “SAC” Site Access Control
The incorrect position/tactic when operating at an explosion (Post-Detonation) can be found in which choice?
A) First arriving engine company properly position the apparatus, establish water supply, stretch a precautionary 1 3/4” hoseline and, when necessary, knock down fires threatening victims
B) With Ladder companies on scene, the 2nd arriving engine officer will report to, and remain at the Triage Transfer Point and assume control until relieved by a BC
C) First arriving Ladder officer to enter the Point of Impact and begin conducting a rapid assessment tagging only deceased victims (black tag)
D) One of the duties of the second arriving Ladder company is to report to the Triage Transfer Point and assist in the removal of patients to either Treatment Areas or the Transportation Sector
ANSWER: A) First arriving engine company properly position the apparatus, establish water supply, stretch a precautionary 1 3/4” hoseline and, when necessary, knock down fires threatening victims (INCORRECT)
(ERP add 3 p- 13- 17)
- 2 1/2” hoseline
- Remember, if no Ladder on scene and all actions in choice A have been taken, first arriving engine officer to enter the Point of Impact and begin conducting rapid assessments
Members of the FDNY have seen an uptick in the amount of chemical suicide incidents throughout the five boroughs. Of the procedures listed below, choose the incorrect procedure when operating at a chemical suicide incident.
A) Stretch a charged hoseline with a fog nozzle attached. This line is primarily for vapor dispersal and fire suppression in case of ignition or explosion
B) Ventilate the vehicle or occupancy prior to entering
C) Remove patient from the hazardous environment and check for responsiveness. Remove patients clothing and flush with copious amounts of water as a part of emergency decon before transport
D) Upon confirmation, transmit a 10-80-1 and ensure the response of NYPD
ANSWER: A) Stretch a charged hoseline with a fog nozzle attached. This line is primarily for vapor dispersal and fire suppression in case of ignition or explosion (INCORRECT)
(Hazardous Materials ch 11 sec 4.1)
- This line is primarily for DECONTAMINATION; the line can also be used for vapor dispersal and fire suppression in case of ignition or explosion
The Captain of Engine 100 arrives first due at a Lithium Ion Energy Storage System. On arrival, smoke is showing from one of the containers. The Captain directed her members to take the following actions but was incorrect in which one?
A) Use a wide fog stream to cool adjacent cabinets and exposures.
B) Shut down the ESS (ESTOP).
C) Exhaust the container.
D) Connect to the FDC supplying the fire extinguishing system of the container and charge water extinguishing systems.
ANSWER: A) Use a wide fog stream to cool adjacent cabinets and exposures. (INCORRECT)
(Haz Mat 19 Section 5 Page 6)
- Use a NARROW FOG OR STRAIGHT stream to cool adjacent cabinets and exposures.
At roll call, the Captain of Ladder 399 is discussing the FDNY’s protocol when responding to active shooter events. The Captain made the following comments but was incorrect in which one?
A) FDNY members shall not operate in any known Hot Zone.
B) An active shooter incident is a single command event with the NYPD as the IC.
C) FDNY members shall only operate inside a Warm Zone when requested by the NYPD. This operation must be approved by an FDNY Battalion Chief, unless the NYPD IC requests entry for immediate life-saving medical intervention.
D) Oxygen and defibrillators shall not be brought into the Warm Zone.
ANSWER: C) FDNY members shall only operate inside a Warm Zone when requested by the NYPD. This operation must be approved by an FDNY Battalion Chief, unless the NYPD IC requests entry for immediate life-saving medical intervention (INCORRECT)
(ERP 3A 7.4, 7.5, 8.2, 11.4.2)
- FDNY members shall only operate inside a Warm Zone when requested by the NYPD. This operation must be approved by an FDNY DEPUTY CHIEF, unless the NYPD IC requests entry for immediate life-saving medical intervention.
With all three of your assigned Lieutenants on LODML, the change of tours can be frustrating with your mailbox stuffed with forms needed to be signed and forwarded. Today is no different. You have a Rad-2 form waiting for your signature and to be forwarded. You sign the Rad-2 form and forwarded where?
A) Haz-Mat Operations
B) Chief of Operations
C) Chief of Department
D) Meter Room
ANSWER: A) Haz-Mat Operations
(ERP add 4 p-41)
- Rad-2 is a form for Elevated Background Radiation
- Readings Above 0.05mR/hr - Any unusual or elevated background readings (between 0.05mR/hr and 0.9 mR/hr…..(between background levels and the Department’s action level) shall require the officer on duty to forward a copy of the attached report (Rad-2) to Haz-Mat Operations.
Ladder 100 arrives first due at the scene of a reported chemical release in a subway station in Manhattan. The Captain disembarks the rig to survey the area and get a strong odor of geraniums. The Captain would be correct to think this indicates the presence of which chemical listed below?
A) Phosgene
B) Cyanogen Chloride
C) Lewisite
D) Nitrogen Mustard
ANSWER: C) Lewisite
(ERP Addendum 2 Page 18)
Lewisite - Geraniums
Phosgene - Musky hay
Cyanogen Chloride - Burnt almonds
Nitrogen Mustard - Fishy, musty odor
Just after roll call, Engine 176 is dispatched to a reported tank truck fire. On scene, units encounter a leaking LPG tank that is on fire. The Captain working in Engine 176 has the following thought but was incorrect in which one?
A) Do not extinguish the fire until the leak has been stopped except under extremely unusual conditions.
B) Tank failure under fire conditions usually occurs in the liquid area of the tank when sufficient water cannot be applied to prevent the metal from softening to a point where metal failure occurs.
C) Approach the tank from the sides, applying water to all exposed surfaces as well as piping and valves.
D) Before tank failure occurs, the rise in pressure within the tank will cause an increase in the volume of fire, or a rise in the noise level or both.
ANSWER: B) Tank failure under fire conditions usually occurs in the liquid area of the tank when sufficient water cannot be applied to prevent the metal from softening to a point where metal failure occurs. (INCORRECT)
(Hazardous Materials 1: 1.4.1, 1.4.3, 1.4.7, 1.4.8)
- Tank failure under fire conditions usually occurs in the VAPOR AREA of the tank when sufficient water cannot be applied to prevent the metal from softening to a point where metal failure occurs.
Captain McReynolds was operating on-scene of a carbon monoxide incident. After entering the occupancy he glanced at his meter and saw 100 PPM of carbon monoxide. Which one choice below is incorrect regarding this operation?
A) Captain McReynolds informed his members to begin evacuation of the affected area and ventilate.
B) Captain McReynolds informed the occupants that they have detected a potentially lethal level of CO.
C) At this level of CO, Captain McReynolds meter alarmed with a visual and high audible warning with a fast vibration.
D) Once the source of the CO had been mitigated and the level of CO reduced to 9 PPM or less, Captain McReynolds informed the occupants that they could reoccupy the area.
C. At this level of CO, Captain McReynolds meter alarmed with a visual and LOW audible warning with a SLOW vibration.
ANSWER: C) At this level of CO, Captain McReynolds meter alarmed with a visual and high audible warning with a fast vibration.
(Haz Mat Ch 4 4.5 / Addendum 1 1.2, 1.3)
EXCEEDS 35 ppm is a visual and low audible warning with a slow vibration.
EXCEEDS 100 ppm is a visual and high audible warning with a fast vibration.
THIS WAS A TIGHT QUESTION TO POINT OUT THAT YOU MUST BE CAREFUL WITH WORDS LIKE “EXCEEDS”, “GREATER THAN”, “LESS THAN” ETC.
A Captain operating at a chemical attack underground should know that which one of the following units is responsible to provide an estimate of the number of victims to the IC?
A) First arriving engine company
B) First arriving ladder company
C) Second arriving engine company
D) Second arriving ladder company
ANSWER: A) First arriving engine company
ERP Addendum 2 7.1.7
While operating at the scene of a hazardous materials incident, the Captain of the first arriving ladder company sees an NFPA 704 Diamond with the number “3” in yellow section of the diamond. He should know that this indicates which hazard below?
A: Extreme Danger
B) Shock and Heat May Detonate
C) Slightly Hazardous
D) May Detonate
ANSWER: B) Shock and Heat May Detonate
(ERP Hazardous Material Pg 39)
This exact area was asked on a previous promotional exam.
Health Hazard or Blue Section : CODE “N SHED”
4 Deadly "D" 3 Extreme Danger "E" 2 Hazardous "H" 1 Slightly Hazardous "S" 0 Normal Material "N"
Reactivity Hazard or Yellow Section: CODE “SUVS MAY DETONATE”
4 May Detonate "MD" 3 Shock and Heat May Detonate "S" 2 Violent Chemical Change "V" 1 Unstable if Heated "U" 0 Stable "S"
The Captain of a busy Manhattan engine company has been reading about the increase in Fentanyl incidents around the city and decides to discuss the FDNY’s policy with his members during drill. Which statement below concerning these incidents is incorrect?
A) Treatment should not take place in the area of suspected exposure unless the patient is not breathing.
B) Use of alcohol-based hand disinfectants or hypochlorite bleach solutions must be avoided as they may enhance skin absorption of fentanyl analogues.
C) If exposure to synthetic opioids occurs during firefighting operations, the PPE should be lightly wetted (sprayed with just enough to wet the gear and not excessively drip off), removed, and stored in a bag until proper decontamination can be performed.
D) Shower immediately after a potential exposure.
ANSWER: A) Treatment should not take place in the area of suspected exposure unless the patient is not breathing. (INCORRECT)
(Hazardous Materials 4.0 Note, 5.1, 5.2)
- Treatment should NEVER take place in the area of suspected exposure.
At an explosive or incendiary incident which company officer is required to remain at the triage transfer point until relived by a Battalion Chief?
A) 1st due engine officer
B) 2nd due engine officer
C) 1st due ladder officer
D) 2nd due ladder officer
ANSWER: B) 2nd due engine officer
ERP Addendum 3 5.3.2
A Captain responds first due to a chemical suicide incident. On arrival, he discovers a vehicle with what appears to be an unconscious victim inside. The Captain takes the following actions. Which one is incorrect?
A) He orders his members to stretch a charged hose line with a fog nozzle used primarily for decontamination.
B) He transmits a 10-80 no code and ensures the response of NYPD.
C) He orders his members to ventilate prior to entering the vehicle.
D) After removing the victim, he orders his members to remove the patients clothing and flush with copious amounts of water.
ANSWER: B) He transmits a 10-80 no code and ensures the response of NYPD. (INCORRECT)
(Hazardous Materials 11 4.0, 4.1)
- He transmits a 10-80 CODE 1 and ensures the response of NYPD.
INCIDENT SPECIFIC: 10-80 CODE 1
You are a ladder officer that has arrived first at the scene of Haz-Mat incident, where there is an unusual odor in a college science lab reported. As you investigate, you note an NFPA 704 Diamond sign on the entrance door with the number “2” in the yellow diamond area. You would be most correct to believe that this number indicates?
A) A health hazard that is slightly hazardous
B) A health hazard that is hazardous
C) A reactivity hazard where violent chemical change may occur
D) A reactivity hazard where shock and heat may detonate
ANSWER: C) A reactivity hazard where violent chemical change may occur
(ERP—Pg 41)
“SUVS May Detonate”
S (0) - Stable
U (1) - Unstable if heated
V (2) - Violent Chemical Change
S (3) - Shock and heat may detonate
May Detonate (4)
First alarm units are operating at a Radiological emergency where they are getting readings of 20 Rem/hr at a distance of 10 feet away from a broken package. In this situation, they would be correct to think that at 20 feet away, the readings will most likely be?
A) 20 Rem / hr
B) 10 Rem / hr
C) 5 Rem / hr
D) 2 Rem / hr
ANSWER: C) 5 Rem / hr
(ERP 4—Page 14)
- Distance doubled (10 feet to 20 feet) then intensity dropped to ONE QUARTER (1/4) original
- 10 feet = 20Rem/hr
- 20 feet = 5Rem/hr (5x4=20)
You are an officer working a day tour in E315 when at 1415 hours you are dispatched to an active shooter incident to utilize your ballistic vests and helmets as part of a Rescue Task Force. When operating in the Rescue Task Force, you would be correct to think that?
A) The only medical supplies you should bring are tourniquets, hemostatic agents, occlusive dressings and oxygen
B) You as the fire officer should be on the TAC-U Channel, while all other firefighters and EMS members in the RTF are on the Warm Zone Tactical Channel
C) As the Rescue Task Force Leader, you should be closest to the three SRG members leading the Rolling “T” formation
D) The EMS Officer or highest medical authority on the RTF must prioritize the medical actions of the RTF
ANSWER: D) The EMS Officer or highest medical authority on the RTF must prioritize the medical actions of the RTF
(ERP 3A—11.4.1, 11.4.2, 11.6.1, 11.7.2, App A—Pg 3)
A - Oxygen and Defibrillators SHOULD NOT be brought into the Warm Zone.
B - NYPD will be on “TAC-U” / 6 FDNY members will all be on “Warm Zone Tactical except ONE FIREFIGHTER who will be on “TAC-U” / FDNY OFFICER will be on Warm Zone Tactical in order to communicate with the FDNY BC.
C - Three SRG will lead the formation and ONE will provide rear security. FDNY RTF Leader (you) will be closest to REAR security.
Units operating at a possible chemical attack in an underground subway station notice an odor of geraniums throughout the station. They should suspect which one of the following agents to be released?
A) Lewisite
B) VX
C) Hydrogen Cyanide
D) Phosgene
ANSWER: A) Lewisite
(ERP Add. 2 Page 18)
Lewisite- Blister Agent - Geraniums
VX- Nerve Agent with No odor
Hydrogen Cyanide - Blood Agent / Burnt Almond odor,
Phosgene - Choking Agent with an odor of musky hay.
Your unit is the 2nd arriving engine company at an explosion in the street with numerous civilians injured. As the officer of this unit you should report to and remain at which location?
A) The Staging Area
B) The Triage Transfer Point
C) The Transportation Group
D) The Treatment Areas
ANSWER: B) The Triage Transfer Point
ERP Add.3 5.3.2
The Transport Index of package being transported indicates the maximum level of radiation at?
A) 1 foot from the package and applies to beta and gamma radiation only.
B) 1 foot meter from the package and applies to gamma radiation only.
C) 1 meter from the package and applies to beta and gamma radiation only.
D) 1 meter from the package and applies to gamma radiation only.
ANSWER: D) 1 meter from the package and applies to gamma radiation only.
(ERP Add.4 2.5.1, 2.5.4)
- Transport Index of a package should not exceed 10 mR/hr.
- Total Transportation Index of a vehicle’s shipment may not exceed 50 mR/hr.
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a chemical attack in an underground subway station in midtown Manhattan. In this situation, they would be incorrect to think that?
A) The first arriving Ladder should mark the route for CPC Entry / Rescue Teams with search ropes
B) The second arriving Ladder should establish the initial Contamination Reduction Zone using barrier tape or utility rope
C) The first arriving Engine should provide an estimate of the number of victims to the IC
D) The second arriving Ladder should establish a communications relay to the IC
ANSWER: D) The second arriving Ladder should establish a communications relay to the IC. (INCORRECT)
(ERP Add 2 - 6.1.3, 6.2, 6.3.2, 6.4.2, 7.1.7)
- FIRST LADDER establishes communications link
- 1st arriving Ladder - Chemical attack - “EHAB”
Team 1 - “EHA” (Evacuation and Hazard Assessment) - Do not enter if visible persons are unresponsive/ Mark route for CPC/Rescue teams with search ropes
Team 2 “B” - Backup team 1 and establish comm link
- 2nd arriving Ladder - Chemical attack - “EGD SAC”
Team 1 - “EGD” Evacuate to Gross Decon (direct ambulatory victims to GD, assist non-ambulatory to GD with stokes)
Team 2 - “SAC” Site Access Control - Define initial Exclusion Zone / establish Contamination Reduction Zone and Corridor
First alarm units arrive at the scene of an explosion on a downtown street in Brooklyn where there are numerous civilians seriously injured. In this situation, they would be most correct to think that?
A) Verbal or hand signals shall be used to direct ambulatory victims to yellow treatment areas
B) If there is no fire, the first arriving engine should establish a water supply and stretch a precautionary 1 ¾” hoseline
C) Only live victims should be tagged for triage purposes at the Point of Impact
D) If there is no threat of fire, the first arriving Engine should remove skeds and CFR equipment for use in the Point of Impact
ANSWER: D) If there is no threat of fire, the first arriving Engine should remove skeds and CFR equipment for use in the Point of Impact.
(ERP 3—Pg 13, 5.3.1)
A - GREEN treatment area
B - If there is a fire, stretch a precautionary 2 1/2” and when necessary knock down fire threatening victims. If there is NO threat of fire REMOVE SKEDS AND CFR EQUIPMENT for use in the POI.
C - Only DECEASED victims should be tagged in the POI (Black-tag).
An Engine Company responds on a CFR-D response for a report of an unconscious individual in a multiple dwelling. During patient assessment, which one of the following symptoms would be indicative of a Fentanyl exposure?
A) High Blood Pressure
B) Bradycardia - slowed heart rate
C) Large pupils
D) Hyperventilation
ANSWER: B) Bradycardia - slowed heart rate
(HM 18—3)
- Remember with fentanyl everything is SMALL/SLOW (pupils / heart rate / blood pressure)
- SLOWED heart rate (bradycardia)
- SLOW shallow breathing
- SMALL pupils
- LOW blood pressure (HYPOTENSION)
Lieutenant Gassy is discussing the properties of LPG at a drill. The Officer was most correct when he stated that?
A) Propane is a liquefied gas stored in cylinders at a temperature just below its boiling point
B) One cubic foot of propane liquid will expand 270 times as a gas
C) A satisfactory performance of a relief valve can sometimes prevent a BLEVE
D) LP gases are 1 - 1 ½ times heavier than air
ANSWER: B) One cubic foot of propane liquid will expand 270 times as a gas
(HM 1—1.2.5, 2.4.1, 2.4.2, 2.4.3)
A - Propane is a liquefied gas stored in cylinders at a temperature ABOVE its boiling point and remains under pressure and in liquid form only so long as the container
remains closed to the atmosphere.
C - A satisfactory performance of a relief valve CAN NOT prevent a BLEVE.
D - 1/2 to 2 times heavier
First alarm units arrive at an alarm for fire at a Lithium Ion Energy Storage System and find light smoke showing from a container installed in the outside facility. In this situation, they would be incorrect to take which action?
A) Transmit a 10-80 Code 1
B) Establish a danger zone of a minimum of 50 feet from any exhaust fan opening
C) Shut down the ESS
D) Exhaust the container using the exhaust override switch
ANSWER: B) Establish a danger zone of a minimum of 50 feet from any exhaust fan opening (INCORRECT)
(HM 19—5)
- Minimum of 50 ft RADIUS from container(s)/cabinet(s)
- Minimum of 100 ft from container/cabinet EXHAUST FAN opening (usually located on the container’s/cabinet’s side opposite FDC). Cabinets may not have exhaust
systems.
The Officer of Ladder 4 arrives at a CO emergency in a brownstone building. He would be most correct to think that CO has?
A) An auto ignition temperature of 1228 degrees F
B) A lower explosive level of 10.5%
C) An Upper Explosive Level of 74%
D) A vapor density which makes it slightly heavier than air (.968)
ANSWER: C) An Upper Explosive Level of 74%
(HM 4—2.5, 2.5)
A - Auto ignition temperature of 1128 degrees
B - LEL of 12.5%
D - CO has a vapor density which makes it slightly LIGHTER than air (.968)
First alarm units arrive at a hazardous material incident in a commercial building where they find a chemical odor present. In this situation, they would be correct to think that “Information Resources” as per the Emergency Response Plan is the responsibility of the?
A) First arriving ladder and first arriving engine
B) First arriving ladder and second arriving ladder
C)First arriving ladder and second arriving engine
D) Second arriving ladder and second arriving engine
ANSWER: B) First arriving ladder and second arriving ladder
(ERP—11.1.6, 11.2.4)
“HA-SAC WA-SAC”
- 1st Ladder - Hazard Assessment
Team 1 - Hazard ID / primary search reports
Team 2 - Info resources / Backup / Access Guidebook
- 2nd Ladder - Site Access Control (Initial Exclusion Zone)
Team 1 - Assist 1st Ladder with site assessment, backup, or information resources
Team 2 - Establish physical barriers as initial exclusion zone using red barrier tape
- 1st Engine - Water Supply
Stretch a line but do not operate until ordered by IC
May perform CFRD / provide number of victims to IC
- 2nd Engine - Site Access Control (assist 2nd Ladder)
May be ordered to assist 1st Engine with water, line placement, site control or evacuation / May perform CFRD.
- 3rd Engine - CFRD for members and civilians
If 1st or 2nd Engine is already assigned to CFRD then 3rd Engine should be assigned water supply and decontamination or site access control.
The Department of Transportation classifies chemicals according to their major hazardous characteristics. The classifications are in numerical order (1-9). Which number would be Radioactive Material be under?
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 9
ANSWER: C) 7
(Hazardous Materials ch 2 sec 2.1)
“Every Good Lieutenant Standard Operating Procedure Requires Coordinated Members”
1 - Explosives 2 - Compressed Gases 3 - Flammable Liquids 4 - Flammable Solids 5 - Oxidizers 6 - Poisions 7 - Radioactive Material 8 - Corrosives 9 - Miscellaneous Dangerous Goods
In the NFPA 704 Diamond, the number 2 in the red section can be best described in which choice?
A) Flash point above 100 degrees, not exceeding 200 degrees.
B) Hazardous condition
C) Violent chemical change
D) Acid
ANSWER: A) Flash point above 100 degrees, not exceeding 200 degrees.
- Red section is flammability. Choice “A” is the only choice that had to do with flammability
B - Blue 2
C - Yellow 2
D - White section
(2005 Lts exam)
The most correct tactic while operating at chemical suicide incident can be found in which choice?
A) Stretch a charged hoseline, which is primarily used for fire suppression in case of ignition or explosion
B) Ventilate the vehicle or occupancy after entering
C) Avoid disturbing the container, generally found in a bucket, as it may increase chemical mixing and poisonous gas emissions.
D) Leave the patients clothing on and flush with copious amounts of water as part of emergency decon before transport
ANSWER: C) Avoid disturbing the container, generally found in a bucket, as it may increase chemical mixing and poisonous gas emissions.
(Haz-Mat ch 11 sec 4.1)
A - Primarily used for DECON; the line can also be used for vapor dispersal and fire suppression in case of ignition or explosion
B - Ventilate the vehicle or occupancy after PRIOR to entering
D - REMOVE the patients clothing and flush with copious amounts of water as part of emergency decon before transport
Emergency Mass Decon using water spray can be correctly described in which choice?
A) When using 2 handlines (2 1/2) with the Aquastream fog nozzle, the lines will be opposite each other approximately 25’- 30’ apart
B) When using two pumpers, the pumpers should be positioned parallel to each other approximately 15’ apart
C)If a Tower Ladder is used it shall be equipped with a Aquastream fog nozzle
D) If an Aerial Ladder is used it shall be equipped with a Turbomaster fog nozzle
ANSWER: A) When using 2 handlines (2 1/2) with the Aquastream fog nozzle, the lines will be opposite each other approximately 25’- 30’ apart
(Haz-Mat ch 7 sec 2.4)
B - When using two pumpers, the pumpers should be positioned parallel to each other approximately TWENTY FIVE (25’) apart, 50-80 psi
C - Turbomaster fog nozzle for TL
D - Aquastream fog nozzle for Aerial
Which chemical agent has an odor of Musky Hay?
A) Nerve agent
B) Blister agent
C) Blood agent
D) Choking agent
ANSWER: D) Choking agent
(ERP add 2 p-18)
A - Nerve - Fruity
B - Blister - Garlic
C - Blood - Burnt almonds
D - Choking - Musky hay
Which unit operated incorrectly, when operating at an Explosion and Incendiary Incident?
A) With no Ladder Company on scene, the first arriving Engine entered the point of impact (POI) and tagged only deceased victims (black-tag)
B) Upon arrival, the second arriving Engine reported to the Triage Transfer Point (TTP)
C) Upon arrival, the first arriving Ladder Officer shall enter the POI to determine the number of victims, initial location of the Command Post, initial location of the TTP, and preferred routes for evacuation and removal of victims (Rescue Corridor)
D) Upon arrival, the second arriving Ladder Company shall report to the Transportation Sector
ANSWER: D) Upon arrival, the second arriving Ladder Company shall report to the Transportation Sector. (INCORRECT)
(ERP add 3 - 5.3.5)
- Assist or provide relief at the POI as requested and needed. Report to the TRIAGE TRANSFER POINT (TTP) and assist in the removal of patients to either Treatment Areas or the Transportation Sector.
An Engine company arrives 1st on scene of an apparent chemical suicide incident in a van in a parking lot. In this situation, they would be correct to think that they should?
A) Transmit a 10-80 Code 1, and insure the response of the fire marshals.
B) Vent the vehicle immediately upon making entry
C) Stretch a charged line with fog nozzle attached, primarily for vapor dispersal.
D) If the victim is still alive, remove the victim’s clothing and flush the victim with copious amounts of water.
ANSWER: D) If the victim is still alive, remove the victim’s clothing and flush the victim with copious amounts of water.
(HM 11 - 4)
A - 10-80 Code 1 ENSURE NYPD response.
B - Ventilate PRIOR to entering
C - Primarily for DECONTAMINATION
Which odor below is correctly linked with the gas product listed?
A) Hydrogen Sulfide Gas - Bitter Almond odor
B) Nitrogen Gas - Fruity odor
C) Phosphine Gas - Fish or garlic odor
D) Hydrogen Cyanide gas - Rotten eggs odor
ANSWER: C) Phosphine Gas - Fish or garlic odor
(HM 11 - pg 4)
Hydrogen Sulfide - Rotten Egg
Nitrogen - Odorless (displaces oxygen / primary hazard)
Phosphine - Garlic or fish
Hydrogen Cyanide - Bitter Almond
Engine 239 arrives at a CFR response where the use of fentanyl is suspected. In this situation the members were incorrect to think?
A) Symptoms of fentanyl include pinpoint pupils, low BP and shallow breathing.
B) Treatment should never take place in the area of suspected exposure.
C) If an OD is strongly suspected and the patients respiratory rate is 9 per minute or less, administer Naloxone.
D) After administering Naloxone, wait 5 minutes, and if the patient’s respiratory rate is not greater than 9 breaths per minute, administer a repeat does of Naloxone.
ANSWER: D) After administering Naloxone, wait 5 minutes, and if the patient’s respiratory rate is not greater than 9 breaths per minute, administer a repeat does of Naloxone. (INCORRECT)
- Wait 5 minutes and if patient’s respiratory rate is not GREATER THAN 10 breaths per minute, give a repeat dose.
Note C: Book states LESS THAN 10 (9 or less)
Members operating at a 10-75 are exposed to synthetic opiods during firefighting efforts. Regarding their contaminated PPE, they would be most correct to?
A) Maximize the use of free chlorine based decontamination solutions on their PPE.
B) Spray gear with copious amounts of water so it will excessively drip off.
C) Remove the contaminated PPE using techniques that will aerisolize the powdered contaminants.
D) Bag items requiring decontamination in double sealed clear plastic bags with an attached label.
ANSWER: D) Bag items requiring decontamination in double sealed clear plastic bags with an attached label.
(HM 18 - 5.2)
A - MINIMIZE the use of free chlorine-based decontamination solutions on PPE surfaces as they may deteriorate the PPE materials.
B - LIGHTLY WET gear, just enough to wet and NOT excessively drip off
C - Techniques that PREVENT aerisolization
An officer conducting a drill on Lithium Ion Storage Systems was incorrect to state that?
A) Containers are defined as small to medium sized storage enclosures. Be aware that containers may not have exhaust systems.
B) Uninterruptible Power Supply applications should not be shut down by members without consulting the building engineer.
C) An explosive atmosphere can be created in enclosed areas by the flammable gases produced by lithium ion batteries.
D) Grid support systems should not be shut down by members without consultation of utility personnel.
ANSWER: A) Containers are defined as small to medium sized storage enclosures. Be aware that containers may not have exhaust systems. (INCORRECT)
(HM 19 - 2/3/4)
- CABINETS are small to medium sized storage enclosures. (Resembles a commercial refrigerator) Cabinets may not have exhaust systems.
- CONTAINER is a large size storage enclosure used to store the components of the ESS. (Resembles a maritime shipping container)
When operating at a Lithium Ion ESS location at a hospital facility, where there is no fire or smoke showing, and there is no rise in temperature of any batteries, members would be correct to take which action?
A) Charge the FDC water extinguishing system.
B) Shut down the ESS
C) Exhaust the containers via the override switch at the FDC
D) Ensure a minimum of 100’ danger zone is maintained around all containers.
E) Transmit a 10-80 no code
ANSWER: C) Exhaust the containers via the override switch at the FDC
(HM 19 - 5)
NO fire or smoke / NO rise in temperature
A - DO NOT charge FDC
B - DO NOT shut down ESS
D - Ensure minimum of FIFTY (50’) radius from CONTAINERS (100’ from exhaust fans)
E - 10-80 CODE 1 automatic for ESS
1st alarm units arrive at a Lithium Ion Storage location where they find no fire or smoke showing from any of the containers on scene. Which action taken was incorrect?
A) Transmit a 10-80 Code 1
B) Establish a danger zone a minimum of 50 feet from any container exhaust fan.
C) Ensured all members stayed behind fencing surrounding the ESS location.
D) Stretched both a precautionary handline and supply lines to the FDC for the water extinguishing system.
ANSWER: B) Establish a danger zone a minimum of 50 feet from any container exhaust fan. (INCORRECT)
(HM 19 - 5)
- FIFTY (50) FOOT RADIUS from CONTAINER
- 100 feet from container EXHAUST FANS
When operating at a Lithium Ion ESS location owned by Con Ed, where there is no fire or smoke showing from any container, but there is a rise in temperature of some batteries, members would be incorrect to take which action?
A) Charge the FDC water extinguishing system
B) Shut down the ESS under direction of the Con Ed white hat.
C) Exhaust the containers via the override switch at the FDC.
D) Be aware that exhaust fan openings are usually located on the container on the same side of the FDC.
ANSWER: D) Be aware that exhaust fan openings are usually located on the container on the same side of the FDC. (INCORRECT)
(HM 19 - 5)
- Usually located on the container’s/cabinet’s side OPPOSITE the FDC.
When operating at a Con Ed Lithium Ion ESS location where there is fire and smoke showing from a container, 1st alarm units would be correct to take which actions? (More than 1 correct)
A) Charge the FDC water extinguishing system
B) Shut down the ESS, but this may only be done under the direction of a Con Ed white hat.
C) Exhaust the containers via the override switch at the FDC.
D) Ensure a 50 foot danger zone is maintained around all containers.
E) Use at least a 30 degree fog pattern to cool adjacent exposures
F) Transmit a 10-80 Code 1
ANSWER: A/C/D/F are CORRECT
A) Charge the FDC water extinguishing system
C) Exhaust the containers via the override switch at the FDC.
D) Ensure a 50 foot danger zone is maintained around all containers. (100 from exhaust fans)
F) Transmit a 10-80 Code 1
B/E are INCORRECT
B - SHUT DOWN ESS
E - Use NARROW FOG or STRAIGHT STREAM
Regarding the post fire considerations after a Lithium Ion ESS fire, it would be most correct to think that?
A) FDNY personnel may open container or cabinet doors after consult with the SME and assurance the fire is extinguished.
B) FDNY personnel may enter containers only after consult with both HazMat and the SME.
C) FDNY personnel may perform overhaul only after consulting the SME.
D) Decommissioning the fire watch is the responsibility of the FDNY IC.
ANSWER: A) FDNY personnel may open container or cabinet doors after consult with the SME and assurance the fire is extinguished.
(HM 19 - 6)
B - FDNY SHALL NOT enter any container
C - NO OVERHAUL
D - IC transfers responsibility to the SME for decommissioning of the fire watch.
For a suspected chemical attack in a subway, the two ladder companies on the initial alarm will be broken up into four teams to carry out specific duties. Choose the incorrect team/duties.
A) First arriving Ladder Company Team 1- Evacuation and Hazard Assessment
B) First arriving Ladder Company Team 2- Back-up team 1
C) Second arriving Ladder Company Team 1- Evacuation to Gross Decon
D) Second arriving Ladder Company Team 2- Provide estimate of number of victims to IC
ANSWER: D) Second arriving Ladder Company Team 2- Provide estimate of number of victims to IC. (INCORRECT)
(ERP add 2 p- 6-9)
- Second arriving Ladder Company Team 2- Site Access Control
- First arriving Engine- establish a positive water source, and provide estimate number of victims to IC.
1st Ladder “EHAB” (Evac and Haz. Ass / Backup)
2nd Ladder “EGD SAC” (Evac to G Decon / Site Access)
You are on scene for a confirmed active shooter incident (NYPD is on scene). The incorrect procedure for this type of incident can be found in which choice?
A) FDNY members shall not operate in any known Hot Zone
B) FDNY members shall only operate inside a Warm Zone when requested by the NYPD. This operation must be approved by a FDNY Deputy Chief, unless the NYPD IC requests entry for immediate life-saving medical intervention.
C) When operating as a FDNY Rescue Task Force (RTF), one member of the RTF shall switch to and monitor TAC-U
D) When operating as a FDNY RTF, the team shall enter and move in a “Rolling “T” formation. The FDNY RTF Leader will be closest to the front security (NYPD)
ANSWER: D) When operating as a FDNY RTF, the team shall enter and move in a “Rolling “T” formation. The FDNY RTF Leader will be closest to the front security (NYPD) (INCORRECT)
(ERP add 3A)
- Closest to the REAR security (11.6.1)
Note C: One member will monitor TAC-U (this will be a firefighter) The other members, including the Fire Officer will be on the Warm Zone Tactical channel.
When arriving to a scene of an explosion (post detonation), which unit operated correctly?
A) With the 1st Engine and Ladder on scene, the 2nd arriving engine reported to the Point of Impact (POI) to provide assistant in removing victims
B) The 1st arriving Ladder on scene shall report to the Triage Transfer Point, with Rescue and Squad companies reporting into the POI to begin conducting a rapid assessment
C) 1st arriving engine shall properly position apparatus, establish water supply, stretch 2 1/2” precautionary line, when necessary, knocking down fires threatening victims. Enter the POI area if 1st Ladder is not on scene or is delayed to begin assessment
D) With no assistance needed at the POI the 2nd arriving Ladder company reported to the Transportation Sector
ANSWER: C) 1st arriving engine shall properly position apparatus, establish water supply, stretch 2 1/2” precautionary line, when necessary, knocking down fires threatening victims. Enter the POI area if 1st Ladder is not on scene or is delayed to begin assessment
(ERP add 3 sec 5.3.1)
A - 2nd arriving engine reports to the TRIAGE TRANSFER POINT and assumes control until relieved by a Battalion Chief.
B - 1st arriving Ladder to enter the POI and begin conducting rapid assessment.
D - 2nd arriving Ladder company….if assistant is needed or requested at the POI then report into the POI area. If not needed or requested at the POI area then report into the TRIAGE TRANSFER POINT.
During an Underground chemical attack involving the transit system the first two Ladder Companies on scene are broken up into teams. Choose the correct teams in relation to the Ladder Companies responsibilities.
A) First arriving Ladder Team 1 site access. First arriving Ladder Team 2 Evacuation to Gross Decon. Second arriving Ladder Team 1 Back up. Second arriving ladder 2 Evacuation and Hazard Assessment.
B) First arriving Ladder Team 1 Evacuation and Hazard Assessment. First arriving Ladder Team 2 Back up. Second arriving Ladder Team 1 Evacuation to Gross Decon. Second arriving ladder 2 Site Access Control.
C) First arriving Ladder Team 1 Evacuation and Hazard Assessment. First arriving Ladder Team 2 Back up. Second arriving Ladder Team 1 Evacuation to Gross Decon. Second arriving ladder 2 Assist in Evacuation.
D) First arriving Ladder Team 1 Site access. First arriving Ladder Team 2 Assist in Site access. Second arriving Ladder Team 1 Evacuation to Gross Decon. Second arriving ladder 2 Site Access Control.
ANSWER: B) First arriving Ladder Team 1 Evacuation and Hazard Assessment. First arriving Ladder Team 2 Back up. Second arriving Ladder Team 1 Evacuation to Gross Decon. Second arriving ladder 2 Site Access Control.
(ERP add 2 sec 6)
1st - “EHAB” (Evac/Hazard Assessment - Backup)
2nd - “EGD-SAC” (Evac to GD - Site Access)
The NFPA 704 Diamond posted at fixed sites uses colors and numbers to indicate the hazards of the materials located within the facility. From the list below, choose the most correct color associated with the number for the hazard that is Unstable if Heated.
A) Red 0
B) Yellow 1
C) Blue 2
D) White 1
ANSWER: B) Yellow 1
- To indicate the degree of hazard presented by the material, the numbers from 0-4 are used. The number four (4) indicates the maximum or most severe hazard
Yellow (Reactivity Hazard) “SUVS May Detonate”
Yellow 0 Stable
Yellow 1 Unstable if Heated
Yellow 2 Violent Chemical Change
Yellow 3 Shock and Heat May Detonate
Yellow 4 May Detonate
Blue - Health Hazard “NSHED”
Blue 0 Normal Material
Blue 1 Slightly Hazardous
Blue 2 Hazardous
Blue 3 Extreme Danger
Blue 4 Deadly
Red - Flammability Hazard
Red 0 Will Not Burn
Red 1 Above 200 degrees F
Red 2 Flash Point above 100 degrees F, not exceeding 200 degrees F
Red 3 Flash Point below 100 degrees F
Red 4 Flash Point below 73 degrees F
White - Special Information
OX Oxidizer
W (with a line through)Use no water
ACID Acid
ALK Alkali
According to ERP/Hazardous Materials, the first 2 Ladder Companies on scene of a HazMat call will be broken up into teams in order of their arrival. In the choices listed below select the correct teams.
A) 1st arriving Ladder Team 1 Hazard ID 1st arriving Ladder Team 2 Information Resources 2nd arriving Ladder Team 1 Information Resources 2nd arriving Ladder Team 2 Initial Exclusion Zone
B) 1st arriving Ladder Team 1 Initial Exclusion Zone 1st arriving Ladder Team 2 Information Resources 2nd arriving Ladder Team 1 Information Resources 2nd arriving Ladder Team 2 Hazard ID
C) 1st arriving Ladder Team 1 Initial Exclusion Zone 1st arriving Ladder Team 2 Hazard ID 2nd arriving Ladder Team 1 Information Resources 2nd arriving Ladder Team 2 Information Resources
D) 1st arriving Ladder Team 1 Information Resources 1st arriving Ladder Team 2 Hazard ID 2nd arriving Ladder Team 1 Information Resources 2nd arriving Ladder Team 2 Initial Exclusion Zone
ANSWER: A) 1st arriving Ladder Team 1 Hazard ID 1st arriving Ladder Team 2 Information Resources 2nd arriving Ladder Team 1 Information Resources 2nd arriving Ladder Team 2 Initial Exclusion Zone.
(ERP HazMat p-20-22)
HazMat - “HAHIIR” and “SACIRIEZ”
1st Ladder - Hazard Assessment “HA”
1st Ladder Team 1 - Hazard ID “HI”
1st Ladder Team 2 - Information Resources “IR”
2nd Ladder - Site Access Control “SAC”
2nd Ladder Team 1 - Information resources “IR”
2nd Ladder Team 2 - Initial Exclusion Zone “IEZ”
- These teams are different when arriving to a Chemical attack in a Subway: “EHA-B” and “EGD-SAC”
1st Ladder Team 1 Evacuation and Hazard Assessment “EHA”
1st Ladder Team 2 Back-up “B”
2nd Ladder Team 1 Evacuation to Gross Decon “EGD”
2nd Ladder Team 2 Site Access Control “SAC”
During a recent study group, one of your fellow firefighters made several statements referencing Haz-Mat operations. He was incorrect in which statement?
A) For fire or smoke showing in a Lithium-Ion Energy Storage System involving a Cabinet/Container, the minimum safety distance for FDNY personnel is 50’ from the cabinet/container, and 100’ from the cabinet/container exhaust fan opening (usually on the opposite side of the FDC)
B) A 10-80 code is the initial notification by field units of a hazardous materials incident and will serve to have responders proceed rapidly
C) A number 3 found in the Blue section of the NFPA 704 Diamond defines that an Extreme Danger hazard exists
D) Team 2 of the 2nd arriving Ladder Company during a chemical attack involving an underground transit system is responsible for Site Access Control
ANSWER: B) A 10-80 code is the initial notification by field units of a hazardous materials incident and will serve to have responders proceed rapidly (INCORRECT)
(Various HM & ERP Bulletins)
- Transmission of the signal 10-80 will serve to warn responders to PROCEED WITH CAUTION TO AVOID ENTERING A RESTRICTED AREA.
A - If the FDC is located closer than 50’ from the nearest container/cabinet, then personnel shall only enter this area under the order of the IC. (HM 19)
C - ERP p-39 - “NSHED” Numbered 0-4
Blue
0-Normal Material
1- Slightly Hazardous
2- Hazardous
3- Extreme Danger
4- Deadly
D - ERP add 2 sec 6.5
1st arriving Ladder “EHAB”
Team 1: Evacuation and Hazard Assessment
Team 2: Back-up Team 1
2nd arriving Ladder “EGD-SAC”
Team 1: Evacuation to Gross Decon
Team 2: Site Access Control
In addition to being well versed in fire operations, each company officer needs to have knowledge in Haz-Mat operations, especially when arriving on the first alarm. Choose the incorrect Haz-Mat operation.
A) When encountering a fruity smell when entering a possible chemical attack in a subway, you immediately suspect a Nerve agent
B) When arriving post detonation of an explosive device, with only the 1st Engine, and both ladder companies on scene, the 2nd Engine officer reported in to the 1st Engine officer to assist in the Point of Impact Area (POI)
C) After completing the Rad-2 form (elevated background radiation readings above .05 R/hr) the company officer forwarded the Rad-2 to Haz-Mat Operations
D) The 1st arriving officer, during a Haz-Mat spill relays to the dispatcher that corrosives are involved after seeing the number 8 on the placard
ANSWER: B) When arriving post detonation of an explosive device, with only the 1st Engine, and both ladder companies on scene, the 2nd Engine officer reported in to the 1st Engine officer to assist in the Point of Impact Area (POI) (INCORRECT)
(ERP add 3 sec 5.3.2)
- The 2nd arriving Engine officer report to the Triage Transfer Point. The officer must remain at the Triage Transfer Point and assume control until relieved by a Battalion Chief….
(ERP p-18)
Nerve - Fruity
Blister - Garlic
Blood - Burnt Almonds
Choking - Musky Hay
C - ERP add 4 p-41 (2005 Lts exam)
D - (HM ch 2 sec 2.1) “EGLSOPRQM”
1- Explosives
2- Compressed Gases
3- Flammable Liquids
4- Flammable Solids
5- Oxidizers
6- Poisons
7- Radioactive Materials
8- Corrosives
9- Miscellaneous
