HAZARDOUS MATERIALS & ERP Flashcards
The term LP refers to Liquid Petroleum Gases which are stored as a liquid under pressure but vaporize into a gas when the pressure is released. Which of the following properties describing LP gas is incorrect?
A) LP gases are heavier than air (1.5 to 2 times heavier)
B) LP gases are toxic and poisonous. Asphyxiation can occur due to oxygen displacement.
C) LP gas is flammable
D) LP gas is odorless; an odorizing agent is added for domestic consumption.
ANSWER: B) LP gases are toxic and poisonous. Asphyxiation can occur due to oxygen displacement. (INCORRECT)
- NON TOXIC and NON POISONOUS
(HM 1 - 2.1)
Some basic precautions to take at LP gas fires and emergencies include all of the following except which choice?
A) Whenever possible, approach the incident from upwind. Keep the nozzle low and aim it upward to disperse gases or flaming vapors.
B) Clear all persons out of the vapor cloud area, evacuate areas in the path of the vapor cloud immediately. Shut off all ignition sources at the same time.
C) If not present, call for police assistance to establish and maintain a safety zone.
D) Keep all members engaged in operations at least 1000 feet from the front and rear of the tank and 500 feet from the sides.
ANSWER: D) Keep all members engaged in operations at least 1000 feet from the front and rear of the tank and 500 feet from the sides. (INCORRECT)
- Keep all members NOT ENGAGED IN OPERATIONS at these distances.
(HM 1 - 3.4)
When operating at an LP tank leak with a fire, which of the following procedures is described correctly?
A) Approach the tank from either end, applying water to all exposed surfaces.
B) Never extinguish the fire until the leak has been stopped.
C) Portable dry chemical extinguishers are effective on small LP gas fires. Carbon dioxide extinguishers can also be used.
D) Tank failure usually occurs in the liquid area of the tank when sufficient water cannot be applied to prevent the metal from softening or weakening to a point where metal failure occurs.
ANSWER: C) Portable dry chemical extinguishers are effective on small LP gas fires. Carbon dioxide extinguishers can also be used.
A - Approach the tank from the SIDES, applying water to all exposed surfaces as well as piping and valves.
B - Do not extinguish the fire until the leak has been stopped, EXCEPT UNDER EXTREMELY UNUSUAL CONDITIONS.
D - Tank failure under fire conditions usually occurs in the VAPOR AREA of the tank when sufficient water cannot be applied to prevent the metal from softening or weakening to a point where metal failure occurs.
(HM 1 - 1.4.6)
You are a Lt. discussing some of the inherent hazards with propane fueled vehicles with one of your probies. You make the following four remarks. Which is the only correct statement?
A) Propane is a liquefied gas stored in cylinders at a temperature below its boiling point and remains under pressure in liquid form only as long as the container remains closed to the atmosphere.
B) One cubic foot of liquid will expand 170 times as a gas.
C) There is a great possibility that a cylinder involved in a fire will BLEVE (boiling liquid expanding vapor explosion). A satisfactory performance of a relief valve will prevent a BLEVE.
D) If the tank area is involved in fire, immediately locate where the tank relief valve discharges and keep clear of this area. On passenger cars this discharge point will be within 45 degrees of the vertical.
ANSWER: D) If the tank area is involved in fire, immediately locate where the tank relief valve discharges and keep clear of this area. On passenger cars this discharge point will be within 45 degrees of the vertical.
A - Propane is a liquefied gas stored in cylinders at a temperature ABOVE its boiling point and remains under pressure in liquid form only as long as the container remains closed to the atmosphere.
B - One cubic foot of liquid will expand TWO HUNDRED AND SEVENTY (270) times as a gas.
C - A satisfactory performance of a relief valve WILL NOT prevent a BLEVE.
(HM 1 - 2.4.1)
Members are at the kitchen table discussing compressed natural gas (CNG) fueled vehicles. The probie is questioning you about the features that he might encounter with these types of vehicles. You respond with the following information. Which piece of information is incorrect?
A) All vehicles powered by CNG, which requires a FD permit to operate using such fuel, are required to have a warning placard on the rear bumper only.
B) The identification number 1971 in the diamond indicates that CNG is being used for propulsion.
C) Natural gas is flammable, non-toxic, and lighter than air (about 2/3 as heavy)
D) CNG cylinders are subject to failure, but not to BLEVE because they do not contain liquid.
ANSWER: A) All vehicles powered by CNG, which requires a FD permit to operate using such fuel, are required to have a warning placard on the rear bumper only. (INCORRECT)
- Warning placard is on the FRONT AND REAR
(HM 1 - 3.2.1)
NYC Transit Operators, both MTA and private no longer have methanol fueled buses in operation. There is however a possibility that these types of vehicles will enter NYC from other jurisdictions. All of the statements below related to methanol are correct except which?
A) Methanol is a highly volatile flammable liquid with a flash point of 54 degrees F.
B) Methanol vapors are slightly heavier than air and will flow along the ground collecting in low areas. It is soluble in water.
C) Application of large amounts of water will dilute methanol rendering it non-flammable. The concentration of methanol must be reduced below 25% to be effective.
D) Methanol is destructive to ordinary foam. Alcohol type foam must be used. Purple K is the most effective of the dry chemical extinguishing agents.
ANSWER: Application of large amounts of water will dilute methanol rendering it non-flammable. The concentration of methanol must be reduced below 25% to be effective. (INCORRECT)
- Must be reduced below TWENTY PERCENT (20%) to be effetcive.
(HM 1 - 4.2)
While working your first tour as a Lieutenant in a Queens Ladder Company, your unit responds to an accident on the BQE. Upon arrival you find an overturned tank truck which has spilled its product onto the road. On the tank truck you see a diamond placard with the number “8” at the bottom. You would be correct to identify this product as a?
A) Corrosive
B) Oxidizer
C) Flammable Liquid
D) Poison
ANSWER: A) Corrosive
“Every Good Lts. S. O. P. Reqs. Coord. Members”
E - 1) Explosives
G - 2) Gases Compressed
L - 3) Flammable Liquid
S - 4) Flammable Solid
O - 5) Oxidizers
P - 6) Poison
R - 7) Radioactive
C - 8) Corrosives
M - 9) Miscellaneous
(HM 2 2.1)
Members should be aware of how chemicals can gain entrance into their body. Which of the following is not considered a method of exposure?
A) Inhalation (breathing)
B) Skin contact (absorption)
C) Ingestion (swallowing)
D) Being within line of sight of the chemical.
ANSWER: D) Being within line of sight of the chemical. (INCORRECT)
Inhalation (breathing) / Skin contact (absorption) / Ingestion (swallowing) & PUNCTURE OR WOUND.
(HM 2 3.1)
Safety of members is of the utmost importance at a haz-mat incident. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information?
A) Proper identification of the material involved is essential to decide on safe tactics to handle any haz-mat incident. Identification should be the initial action taken by the first to arrive units.
B) Often, plant personnel or the vehicle driver can supply the name of the involved material.
C) Upon arrival at a haz-mat incident, if there are no clearly recognizable signs, it is safe to assume there are no hazards.
D) Any members who are exposed prior to the recognition of the hazardous material should be isolated until proper information is available.
ANSWER: C) Upon arrival at a haz-mat incident, if there are no clearly recognizable signs, it is safe to assume there are no hazards. (INCORRECT)
- DO NOT ASSUME THERE ARE NO HAZARDS.
(HM 2 4.8)
Proper identification of a hazardous material is essential to implementing safe tactics and should be the initial action taken by first to arrive units. One option for identification of a hazardous material in transit is to check shipping papers. Of the following choices, which description is correct?
A) Railroad - Bill of lading is kept in the caboose or engine.
B) Truck - The waybill is carried by the driver.
C) Aircraft - The air bill is kept in the rear of the fuselage
D) Ships - The cargo manifest is kept by the master or first mate.
ANSWER: D) Ships - The cargo manifest is kept by the master or first mate.
Truck ———The “bill of lading” is kept in the cab within reach of the driver.
Railroad ——The “waybill” is carried by the conductor in the caboose or engine.
Aircraft——-The “air bill” is kept by the pilot.
Ships ———-The “cargo manifest” is kept by the master or first mate.
(HM 2 4.4)
Following a recent haz-mat incident, the first arriving Engine Captain was discussing strategy and tactics with the Haz-Mat Battalion. In which choice was an incorrect comment made?
A) If no information is available from placards or chemical names on a vehicle, obtain the transporter’s name on the vehicle and the license plate number and state, which can be checked by the police department computer. A similar procedure can be used for railroad cars, using the railroad’s name and the number ont he car.
B) If 1st arriving units are able to identify a hazardous substance by name, this shall be relayed, letter by letter, phonetically (A-Adam / B-Boy etc.), to the dispatcher for notification to Chemtrec and to the hazardous materials response team (HMRT)
C) In general, Department of Transportation regulations require placards to be posted only on trucks that are transporting over 1000 pounds of the particular material.
D) In cases involving derailment of railroad tank cars, the Hazardous Materials Unit should only be called when it appears there is significant damage. In all cases, the use of water on substances leaking and/or fuming is a proper tactic pending identification and hazard assessment.
ANSWER: D) In cases involving derailment of railroad tank cars, the Hazardous Materials Unit should only be called when it appears there is significant damage. In all cases, the use of water on substances leaking and/or fuming is a proper tactic pending identification and hazard assessment. (INCORRECT)
- DO NOT use water on any substance that is fuming until after proper identification and hazard assessment.
- The Hazardous Materials unit MUST BE CALLED, even when it APPEARS THERE IS NO DAMAGE.
(HM 2 7)
Company Officers should be aware of the hazards of asbestos as well as proper tactics when responding to asbestos-related incidents. Of the following choices, which contains the most correct statements?
- Asbestos in its natural state or “Asbestos Containing Material”, when intact, does not present a health hazard.
- Isolate the suspected area and protect civilians and members from possible exposure.
- Contact the Haz-Mat Battalion via dispatcher, cell phone or 800 MHz radio. In consultation with the Haz-Mat Battalion, transmit the appropriate 10-80 signal, specifying an asbestos related incident.
- Strictly enforce the Department’s SCBA policy to reduce inhalation exposure. The SCBA must be used until decontamination procedures are initiated or the member has been washed down.
- Gently wet down suspected asbestos material using a fog or spray stream. This will minimize the amount of fibers that become airborne.
- Limit overhaul in the suspected area.
- Isolate members suspected of being contaminated to prevent cross-contamination of apparatus or other members.
A) 2,3,4,5,6,7
B) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7
C) 1,2,3,4,7
D) 1,2,3,4,6,7
ANSWER: B) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7 (All are correct)
HM 3 2.1 / 4.1-4.7
As a good officer you would know that Carbon monoxide (CO) is a natural by-product of incomplete combustion that is a flammable gas with an auto ignition temperature of 1128 degreed Farenheit. From the choices below which is the only incorrect point about CO?
A) CO has a vapor density which makes it slightly lighter than air (.968)
B) CO is a colorless, odorless, tasteless, irritating, non-toxic gas.
C) The LEL of CO is 12.5% and the UEL is 74%.
D) CO provides no early warning signs and is about 210 times more attracted to hemoglobin than O2.
ANSWER: B) CO is a colorless, odorless, tasteless, irritating, non-toxic gas. (INCORRECT)
- NON IRRITATING (silent killer)
- TOXIC GAS
(HM 4 - 2.1)
At the change of tours two officers were discussing how CO is considered to represent the most dangerous acute exposure faced by firefighters. Even at low concentrations, CO may impair judgement, visual acuteness and decision making. In which point below should the members correct the officer?
A) Low level CO poisoning can mimic flu-like symptoms, headache (mild/severe), fatigue, nasuea, dizziness, confusion, irratibility.
B) Medium level Co poisoning - vomiting, drowsiness, loss of conciousness.
C) High level CO poisoning - seizure, coma, permanent brain damage, death.
D) To reverse the buildup of carboxyhemoglobin (COHb) in the body, over 250 parts of oxygen are required to replace one part of CO.
ANSWER: D) To reverse the buildup of carboxyhemoglobin (COHb) in the body, over 250 parts of oxygen are required to replace one part of CO. (INCORRECT)
- TWO HUNDRED (200) parts of O2
(HM 4 3.11)
1 Engine & 1 Ladder respond to a CO detector activation in an OLT, apartment 3B on the 3rd floor. Which action taken by these units should be corrected?
A) The Ladder Company took initial readings of CO in the kitchen of apartment 3B at a location high and in the middle of the room.
B) The Officer of the ladder company, after determining that readings of over 150 PPM were caused by a defective stove in apartment 3B ordered the occupants of that apartment to leave the building. Once the CO levels dropped to 9 PPM the Ladder officer told the occupants they could return to their apartment and they didnt need to wait for the utility company.
C) After the Ladder company shut down the defective stove the Captain of the Engine as the IC, requested the utility company to respond.
D) The Ladder company officer sent the Roof FF & OV FF to search the utility room in the cellar.
ANSWER: A) The Ladder Company took initial readings of CO in the kitchen of apartment 3B at a location high and in the middle of the room. (INCORRECT)
- Take initial readings AT THE FRONT DOOR or the premises.
(HM 4 - 4.1.3)
In regards to Carbon Monoxide runs, the IC shall request the utility company to respond in all of the following situations except which one?
A) CO levels over 9 PPM are recorded by the meter.
B) An individual is displaying symptoms of CO poisoning.
C) The IC feels a response by the utility company is required.
D) On scene units shut down any appliance.
ANSWER: D) On scene units shut down any appliance. (INCORRECT)
- Units on the scene shut off a GAS appliance.
(HM 4 - 4.1.5)
On a busy day tour in Brooklyn, you respond to a CO alarm in a PD. Upon your investigation you find a CO Detector was present but did not activate. There is 60 PPM reading throughout the PD. What is the most accurate signal to give in this scenario?
A) 10-38 Code 1
B) 10-38 Code 2
C) 10-38 Code 3
D) 10-38 Code 4
ANSWER: D) 10-38 Code 4
- No detector activation or detector present but did not activate.
- Do not be thrown off by the # of PPM
(Comm 8 pg 11)
A CO investigation will determine if a response is just an investigation, an incident or an emergency. Choose the most correct regarding a CO incident or emergency.
A) Transmit a 10-38 Code 1 for CO incidents if no occupants are symptomatic and meter readings are 1-9 PPM.
B) If there are CO meter readings of 6 PPM but the occupant is complaining of flu-like symptoms you should transmit a 10-38 code 3.
C) SCBAs shall be worn at all CO emergencies and used at all CO investigations.
D) When a fatality or serious injury associated with a CO incident is discovered, the IC shall have NYPD notified through the dispatcher.
ANSWER: B) If there are CO meter readings of 6 PPM but the occupant is complaining of flu-like symptoms you should transmit a 10-38 code 3.
A - Code 1 is defective / unwarranted / low battery. In this scenario trasmit a a 10-38 Code 2 for an Incident.
C - SCBA shall be worn at all CO INVESTIGATIONS & used at all CO EMERGENCIES.
D - Fatality or serious injury associated with CO, contact BFI through the dispatcher.
(HM 4 - 5.1.2)
The GasAlert Extreme is a warning device issued for monitoring CO gas in ambient air. Use of the instrument is intended to alert the user to CO presence in the environment. What is the most correct point about the GasAlert Extreme?
A) If the concentration of CO in the atmopshere exceeds 9 PPM, the meter will signal the following alarm: a slow modulating tone (every 1 second) with slow flashing red lights (every 1 second) and a slow vibration (every 1 second). When the CO concentration falls below 9 PPM, the alarm will automatically turn off.
B) If the concentration of CO in the atmopshere exceeds 100 PPM, the meter will signal the following alarm: a fast modulating tone (every 1/2 second) with fast flashing red lights (every 1/2 second) and a fast vibration (every 1/2 second). When the CO concentration falls below 100 PPM, the alarm will automatically turn off.
C) The meter is equipped with 4 push buttons and should be affixed to the HT strap, near the HT antenna. To turn on and activate the meter press the green circular button on the right only. The right button is the only button to be used by field units. The other 3 buttons are for use by Haz-mat ops meter room only.
D) CO meters will display readings up to 999 PPM. If readings of 1,000 PPM or more are detected, the CO meter will display “OL”, indicating an over limit condition.
ANSWER: D) CO meters will display readings up to 999 PPM. If readings of 1,000 PPM or more are detected, the CO meter will display “OL”, indicating an over limit condition.
A - THIRTY FIVE (35) PPM (slow tone/light/vibration)
B - When concentration falls below 100 PPM, the alarm will GO INTO LOW ALARM.
C - Only push the green circular button on the LEFT. Having CO meter near handie-talkie antenna WILL CAUSE FALSE ACTIVATION. Wear near CHEST area.
(HM 4 - Addendum 4)
Which choice contains incorrect information about maintenance of the GasAlert Extreme CO Meter?
A) At the start of each tour, turn the meter on and allow it to perform a self test. Ensure the sensor port is clear from any blockage.
B) The low battery alarm consists of 1 beep (every 5 seconds), 1 flash (every 5 seconds), 1 quick vibration (every 1 minute), and a low battery icon will appear ont he display.
C) Field units are only to perform regular maintenance on the meter. Defective meters shall be exchanged directly to Haz Mat Ops meter room by the Officer.
D) If marking the meter with company ID, do not etch or use markers (sticker/tape are acceptable)
ANSWER: C) Field units are only to perform regular maintenance on the meter. Defective meters shall be exchanged directly to Haz Mat Ops meter room by the Officer. (INCORRECT)
- Field units DO NOT perform maintenance on CO meters.
- CO Meters are ONE FOR ONE EXCHANGE w/ Battalion.
(HM 4 - Addendum 4)
A Lt. from L160 was supervising a company drill concerning the Chemical Protective Clothing (CPC) carried by their unit. The Lt. should correct which statement made in regard to a CPC unit’s operations?
A) Their purpose is to assist in performing search, rescue and removal of emergency responders and civilians from contaminated areas.
B) CPC units are certified to operate in both Level A and Level B CPC and can perform required documentation.
C) They are trained to perform mitigation at hazardous material operations.
D) They can be utilized at any incident where the incident commander feels their training and equipment might be useful
ANSWER: C) They are trained to perform mitigation at hazardous material operations. (INCORRECT)
- They are NEITHER TRAINED NOR EQUIPPED to perform mitigation.
(HM 5 - 1.1)
CPC unit entries into a contaminated area require a coordinated team effort by trained CPC members. The minimum number of members required to make up this team can be found in which choice?
A) 4 members (2 entry, 2 backup)
B) 4 members (2 entry, 1 backup, 1 decontamination)
C) 6 members (2 entry, 2 backup, 2 decontamination)
D) 5 members (2 entry, 2 backup, 1 decontamination)
ANSWER: D) 5 members (2 entry, 2 backup, 1 decontamination)
HM 5 - 4.1
Two CPC trained Lieutenants were breifing the members of their units prior to entry into a contaminated area. Which statement would be a correct one for these officers to make?
A) Several units may be combined to make up a complete CPC team.
B) Under no circumstances shall a CPC officer don a CPC suit.
C) The 1st to arrive ladder company officer shall recommend the entry point into the hot zone for the CPC Unit when they arrive
D) At a minimum, there must be an entry and backup team in place prior to any entry into the hot zone.
ANSWER: A) Several units may be combined to make up a complete CPC team.
B - The CPC Unit Officer shall not don a chemical protective suit UNLESS the situation indicates that a suit is required in order to properly supervise the unit’s operation.
C - The first arriving CPC UNIT OFFICER will recommend to the IC the ENTRY POINT into the Hot Zone (based on their training, initial briefing and size-up), and then establish the CPC Unit Assembly Area adjacent to the entry point.
D - The necessary number of trained individuals must be assembled and a DECONTAMINATION STATION must be established and staffed before entry is made.
(HM 5 - 4.1 / 5.1)
The CPC entry team from Ladder Company 172 is operating at an ammonia leak with a confirmed unconcious person below grade. Members operating at this incident should know which operating procedure to be incorrect?
A) Always operate as a team, within line of sight of each other.
B) Both members of the entry team shall be radio equipped.
C) If one mmeber of the entry team goes down for any reason, the other member must immediately leave the operating area.
D) When one member must leave the operating area, he must be accompanied by the other.
ANSWER: C) If one mmeber of the entry team goes down for any reason, the other member must immediately leave the operating area. (INCORRECT)
- If one of the Entry team members goes down for an UNKNOWN REASON, the other team member must leave the operating area to insure notification is made to the Back up team for the need of an immediate rescue.
(HM 5 - 6.1)
The Backup team has very specific and important duties to perform at CPC incidents. A candidate for Lt. would be incorrect if he were to believe which statement concerning the team’s operations at a CPC event?
A) Both members of the backup team shall be handie-talkie equipped.
B) The backup team’s primary task is to assist the entry team in the removal of downed civilians should the need arise.
C) Backup team members shall stand fast in the CPC standby position (both legs in suit, outer boots and surgical gloves on, SCBA donned, cylinder opened and facepiece on, regulator disengaged from facepiece, right arm in suit and ID tag in place)
D) Backup team members will assist entry team members with the donning of their CPC suits.
ANSWER: B) The backup team’s primary task is to assist the entry team in the removal of downed civilians should the need arise. (INCORRECT)
- They shall be ready to enter the Hot Zone, when directed to do so by the CPC Unit Officer, to RESCUE AND REMOVE AN ENTRY TEAM MEMBER(S) should the need arise.
(HM 5 - 7.1)
The IC shall special call a CPC or Haz Mat Technician Unit (HMTU) as a FAST unit when how many entry teams are expected to be put to work?
A) One entry team
B) More than one entry team
C) More than two entry teams
D) Whenever Hazardous Materials Unit 1 is special called for entry.
ANSWER: C) More than two entry teams
HM 5 - 7.2
A multiple victim incident requires substantially different tactics from those with a single victim. Additional entry teams will have to be special called. The minimum number of victims that must be encountered for it to be classified as a multiple victim incident is?
A) 5
B) 4
C) 3
D) 2
ANSWER: C) 3
HM 5 - 9.1
The CPC Ladder company you are in command of has just arrived at an alarm for an odor of gas in a taxpayer occupancy. The occupancy is the political headquarters of a Senatorial candidate. Upon arrival you are met by a staff member who states that two masked men entered the occupancy and threw a container of an unidentified liquid in the office. Two confirmed victims are visible behind the glass entrance doors. One is semi-concious and within the reach of your members, the other apparently unconscious is further back. Your unit is responding with 4 CPC trained members. The best action for you to take in this situation is found in which choice?
A) Order 2 CPC suited members to enter the hot zone due to the immediate life situation. Have one CPC trained member standby as a backup while the 4th CPC trained member establishes a decontamination station.
B) Order a rescue attempt with 2 CPC equipped members while 2 remain in the backup position for immediate rescue of the entry team.
C) Order one CPC suited member to rescue the closest victim after the establishment of a backup team and decontamination station.
D) Insure that no entry into the hot zone is attempted until the required number of properly trained CPC members are on scene and a decontamination station is established.
ANSWER: D) Insure that no entry into the hot zone is attempted until the required number of properly trained CPC members are on scene and a decontamination station is established.
- Need 5 CPC members present before entering hot zone.
- In this scenario only 4 CPC trained members on scene.
(HM 5 - 8.1)
Large scale incidents involving multiple victims are a much more complex operation than those with one or two. Arriving at a terrorist gas release at a large theater in Midtown Manhattan, you should order the members of your well trained CPC unit to perform which of the following duties?
A) Remove non-ambulatory victims first, as their need is greatest and their exposure is generally more severe.
B) Nudge all apparently unconscious victims in order to determine their level of responsiveness.
C) After performing Noxious Stimulus Triage, place a black tag on any responsive victim.
D) After removing all ambulatory victims, CPC entry teams should next remove the black tagged victims.
ANSWER: B) Nudge all apparently unconscious victims in order to determine their level of responsiveness.
A - AMBULATORY victims should be addressed first. These victims are generally farthest from the release and have experienced the smallest exposure dose and require the least amount of time to remove.
C - Using the triage tags, any victim with NO RESPONSE to NST shall be black tagged.
D - After all the ambulatory victims have been directed to the proper CCP, the Entry teams shall then turn their attention to any NON-AMBULATORY victims.
(HM 5 - 9.1)
After a hazardous materials release, vapor or aerosol hazards can still exist on victims after they have left the scene of release. The FDNY has the ability to deliver large quantities of water which is the key to removing contamination. A Lt. would know that which of the following is incorrect concerning Emergency Mass Decontamination at hazardous materials incidents?
A) When preparing for gross decontamination, realize that high pressure streams utilizing low volumes of water provide the best decontamination stream.
B) Firefighters who are exposed should remove their bunker gear prior to removing their facepiece.
C) Rapid removal of material from the victim is the single most important action associated with effective decontamination.
D) Removal of a victims clothing can remove up to 90% of decontamination from the victim.
ANSWER: A) When preparing for gross decontamination, realize that high pressure streams utilizing low volumes of water provide the best decontamination stream. (INCORRECT)
- The most expedient approach is to use our standard firefighting equipment to provide emergency LOW PRESSURE STREAMS supplying HIGH VOLUMES OF WATER, allowing for large amounts of people to be deconned quickly.
(HM 7 - 2.3)
You are the Captain of Engine 7 who has been ordered to set up an emergency mass decontamination corridor utilizing a hoseline. Proper procedures performed by your unit should include all but which of the following?
A) Members stretched a 2 1/2” handline equipped with an Aquastream fog nozzle.
B) The ECC supplied the line with an operating pressure between 60-100 psi.
C) A 2nd line was positioned opposite the 1st line at a distance of 25’ to 30’.
D) Care was taken by the nozzle teams to avoid pushing contamination on each other.
ANSWER: B) The ECC supplied the line with an operating pressure between 60-100 psi. (INCORRECT)
- The recommended operating pressure range is between FIFTY and EIGHTY (50 to 80 psi)
(HM 7 - 2.4.3)
An officer would be considered to be operating incorrectly if he were to order which nozzle utilized when establishing an emergency decontamination corridor?
A) Turbomaster Nozzle placed on the apparatus mounted multiversal of an Engine Company.
B) An Aquastream Nozzle placed on the ladder pipe of an aerial ladder.
C) A Turbomaster Nozzle mounted on the TL basket.
D) Two Aquastream Nozzles mounted on opposing Engines.
ANSWER: A) Turbomaster Nozzle placed on the apparatus mounted multiversal of an Engine Company. (INCORRECT)
- Turbomaster on Engine is NOT LISTED in this bulletin.
(HM 7 - 2.4.4)
SOC Support Ladder (SSL) Company members receive 40 hours of HazMat training and are designated as HazMat Tech 1. Which choice is correct concerning the training and staffing of a SSL Company?
A) These members are not trained or equipped to perform mitigation activities such as leak stopping, neutralizing or overpacking a product unless requested to assist HazMat Tech Unit (HMTU) or HazMat Company 1 (HMC1)
B) If assisting a HMTU or HMC1, SSL members will function only under the direct supervision of the SSL Officer.
C) To operate as a SSL Company, the unit shall be staffed with at least 3 trained FFs, or a trained Officer and 2 trained FFs
D) SSL members may perform a HazMat entry if they have 2 trained entry members on scene, with 2 trained back-up members and sufficient decontamination personnel responding to the incident.
ANSWER: A) These members are not trained or equipped to perform mitigation activities such as leak stopping, neutralizing or overpacking a product unless requested to assist HazMat Tech Unit (HMTU) or HazMat Company 1 (HMC1).
B - Members will function under the direct supervision of the HMTU OFFICER OR HMC1 OFFICER.
C - ONE (1) OFFICER & THREE (3) TRAINED FFs
D - To perform a hazardous materials entry, the IC shall ensure two entry members, two backup members and sufficient decontamination personnel are ASSEMBLED prior to entry.
(HazMat 10 - 3.1)
Company Commanders are entrusted with several responsibilities to ensure that SSL members attend required SOC/HazMat Refresher Training. Which statement is incorrect concerning this duty?
A) When units receive an email notification of future HazMat refresher training dates, a minimum of one member from each SSL Unit per training date is required to be submitted.
B) When Company Commanders receive a training order via email, they are required to complete the receipt of training order form for all members scheduled to attend.
C) If a scheduled member is unable to attend training (ML, long term detail etc.) the unit loses that training slot and it will be filled by another SSL Unit.
D) Company Commanders shall maintain a list of all SSL certified members, along with their SOC and HazMat certification dates and scheduled training dates.
ANSWER: C) If a scheduled member is unable to attend training (ML, long term detail etc.) the unit loses that training slot and it will be filled by another SSL Unit. (INCORRECT)
- Member should be REPLACED BY AN ALTERNATE MEMBER selected by the company commander.
(HM 10 5.5)
Lt. Jenkins is drilling with the members of a SSL Company on High Angle-Suspended Scaffold Emergencies, Collapse Rescue, and Trench Cave-In operations. Which statement should be corrected?
A) SSL Companies shall lower their 1/2” kernmantle rope, in place of their LSR, as a safety line to workers stranded on a suspended scaffold.
B) SSL members, due to their training in the five phases of the collapse rescue plan, may tunnel, trench or cut through supporting members at a collapse operation if Rescue or Squad personnel are not on scene.
C) At a trench cave-in operation, they shall establish a safety zone around the perimeter, and if possible, begin removing the spoil pile from the danger zone if that has been identified as a problem.
D) When operating at a 5 foot deep trench cave-in, they shall ensure there is a stairway, ramp or ladder placed in the trench so that there is no more than 25 feet of horizontal travel needed to reach these exits.
ANSWER: B) SSL members, due to their training in the five phases of the collapse rescue plan, may tunnel, trench or cut through supporting members at a collapse operation if Rescue or Squad personnel are not on scene. (INCORRECT)
- This can only be done by RESCUE
(HM 10 - 7.3)
Lt. Jenkins discussed SSL Company operations at Confined Space Rescues at a recent drill. Which one of his training points was incorrect?
A) SSL Companies shall not be permitted to attempt any entry that would require the rescuer to leave the direct line of sight of the Officer supervising entry at the entrance to this space.
B) A fully equipped back-up rescuer shall remain on standby.
C) To enter a confined space, a suitable high point anchor shall be positioned, air monitoring has taken place, and steps are taken to remove hazards or protect rescuers from the hazards.
D) Members may enter into a chemical tank at a tank farm if they wear their SCBA and remain attached to their retrieval lines at all times, whether the product is identified or not.
ANSWER: D) Members may enter into a chemical tank at a tank farm if they wear their SCBA and remain attached to their retrieval lines at all times, whether the product is identified or not. (INCORRECT)
- Entry into a chemical tank at a tank farm, where the product and hazards are not readily known, is NOT A PERMISSIBLE ENTRY.
(HM 10 7.2)
In preparation for an approaching tropical storm, the SSL vehicle of L121 is activated to be used as a Rapid Response Vehicle (RRV). Which choice concerning this activation is incorrect?
A) The RRV may operate separately from L121, but will not respond to structural fires unless it has been assigned with other units.
B) The RRV will be designated RR-121
C) If the RRV requires assistance, and has difficulty contacting the dispatcher, they shall use an available telephone.
D) Due to the SSL Vehicle being stored in quarters, HTs and all detection equipment with the exception of the Radalert 50 will be stored in a safe location on the support vehicle.
ANSWER: C) If the RRV requires assistance, and has difficulty contacting the dispatcher, they shall use an available telephone. (INCORRECT)
- Rapid Response Vehicles encountering difficulty in calling for assistance shall use an OPERATING ERS BOX.
(HM 10 - 8)
E100 and Ladder 200 arrive at the same time to a reported possible suicide in Apartment 3D, located on the 3rd floor of a 6 story NLT. When they arrive at the door of apartment 3D they notice a rotten egg smell and a sign on the door cautioning that chemicals are present. Which action taken below should be corrected?
A) The Officer of Ladder 200 transmitted a 10-80 Code 1 signal and requested NYPD.
B) The Officer of Engine 100 ordered members to stretch a line with a fog nozzle attached to be used primarily for decontamination.
C) The Officer of Ladder 200 ordered the OV FF to ventilate the windows of Apt. 3D from the fire escape prior to ordering forcible entry of the apartment’s door.
D) The Officer of Engine 100 ordered members to begin CPR immediately on an unconcious patient found in the rear bedroom of Apt. 3D.
ANSWER: D) The Officer of Engine 100 ordered members to begin CPR immediately on an unconcious patient found in the rear bedroom of Apt. 3D. (INCORRECT)
- Remove patient from area then check responsiveness
(HM 11 3.2)
A knowledgeable Officer would know which choice about Technical Decontamination Task Forces is correct?
A) A Technical Decon Task Force consisting of B26, Decon Engine 73, and SOC Support Ladder 42 with their support vehicle will be designated as Technical Decon Task Force 73.
B) The BC will be designated as the Technical Decon Task Force Leader.
C) To operate as a Decon Engine, the company shall be staffed with a minimum of 3 trained members. The Officer is included in this minimum number of trained members.
D) Decon Engine personnel will perform mitigation if needed at a serious incident.
E) Decon Engine personnel should be used with CPC Ladder Companies for rescue purposes.
ANSWER: B) The BC will be designated as the Technical Decon Task Force Leader.
A - Technical Decon Task Force (26)
C - To operate as a Decon Engine, the company shall be staffed with a minimum of ONE trained officer or trained acting officer, and at least THREE trained firefighters
D - Decon Engine Personnel are NOT Haz-Mat Technicians and will not perform mitigation.
E - Decon Engine Personnel are NOT intended to be used for rescue purposes
(HM 12 2.1)
Decon Engine Companies are key components of Technical Decon Task Forces. Which is the incorrect choice concerning these units?
A) A Decon Engine Company assigned on the initial alarm will function as a normal engine company (Water supply, site access control, etc.) unless the IC relieves them to perform Technical Decontamination.
B) Decon Engine personnel can establish the Decontamination Corridor inside the Warm Zone wearing their work duty uniform or bunker gear.
C) One Decon Engine Company can perform several different technical procedures at an incident.
D) Decon Engine personnel can peform ambulatory decontamination of patients using a privacy shower tent, ideally for a small number of patients.
E) When Decon Engine Personnel perform ambulatory decontamination of patients using a Decon Shower Apparatus, site set-up can be established in work duty uniforms.
ANSWER: C) One Decon Engine Company can perform several different technical procedures at an incident.
- Decon Engine personnel are trained to perform several different technical decontamination procedures. Depending on the type of incident, several of these procedures may be required at a single incident. Since decontamination operations are both labor and time intensive, one Decon Engine Company can ONLY PERFORM ONE TYPE of procedure at an incident.
(HM 12 4.4.6)
When the OMA Response Physician has issued a Class Order to administer nerve agent antidote, CPC trained members should know which choice is incorrect?
A) CPC members will assist in the administration of the antidote in the Exclusion and Contaminated Reduction Zones.
B) CPC members administering antidotes will initially utilize the Mark I kits assigned to their units and/or Haz-Tac personnel. Additional kits can be obtained from EMS units.
C) CPC members will administer the antidote as directed by the Haz-Tac Officer and/or designated Haz-Tac personnel.
D) Green tag patients are given priority for antidote administration.
E) Haz-Tac members will be responsible for triage and monitoring patients treated with antidote in the Exclusion and Contaminated Reduction Zones.
ANSWER: D) Green tag patients are given priority for antidote administration. (INCORRECT)
- RED tag patients are given priority
(HM 13 - 7)
E99 arrives at the scene of a CFR-D response where they locate an unconscious adult in his bedroom, strongly suspected of overdosing on fentanyl in that room. The patient’s respiratory rate is 9 per minute. In this situation, they would be correct to think that they should?
A) Treat the patient in his bedroom, administering Narcan in one nostril only at this time.
B) Move the patient to another room, and administer the Narcan in one nostril only at this time.
C) Move the patient to another room, and administer Narcan in both nostrils immediately.
D) Move the patient to another room, but do not treat the patient with Narcan unless his respiratory rate drops to 8 per minute or less.
ANSWER: B) Move the patient to another room, and administer the Narcan in one nostril only at this time.
- Treatment should NEVER take place in the area of suspected exposure. Removal of the patient from the area and removal of product from the patient’s skin and clothing is PARAMOUNT.
- If an overdose is strongly suspected, and the patient’s respiratory rate is less than (TEN) 10/minute, administer intra- nasal (IN) Naloxone via:
- NARCAN - in ONE nostril. If, after 2- 3 minutes there is no or minimal response, repeat administration of 4mg/0.1ml with a second device into OTHER nostril.
- MUCOSAL ATOMIZER DEVICE - BOTH nostrils
- If after 5 minutes, the patient’s respiratory rate is not greater than TEN 10 breaths/minute, administer a repeat dose of naloxone
(HM 18 - 4 Note)
The USPS has installed Bio-Detection Systems (BDS) in various large mail handling facilities throughout NYC. The BDS is an automated system to detect anthrax that has been placed in the mail. Which statement does not contain correct information about these systems?
A) The BDS continuously analyzes and collects air samples around high speed sorting and routing machines. The system then analyzes samples for anthrax.
B) The scanning system compresses envelopes for more accurate readings.
C) The BDS may take as long as 120 minutes to complete. The letter will continue through the facility during this 120 minute period.
D) When the system alerts, it will be treated as presumptive positive for anthrax.
ANSWER: C) The BDS may take as long as 120 minutes to complete. The letter will continue through the facility during this 120 minute period. (INCORRECT)
- NINETY (90) MINUTES to complete.
(HM 14 -2)
The objective of the FDNY is to render assistance to the USPS within the scope of our resources at
BDS activation calls. The Department’s mission will be to perform triage, treatment and decontamination of anyone that may have been exposed (USPS employees/visitors /customers). Which choice is incorrect regarding FDNY actions at BDS activations?
A) Upon activation at a BDS alarm, an automatic notification will be sent to the 911 system.
B) Upon arrival 1st arriving units shall make contact with the USPS Liaison and will enter the facility only for immediate life safety concerns.
C) Primary and Secondary searches will be performed by FDNY members properly equipped with CPC clothing and metering equipment.
D) A 10-80 is to be transmitted for a confirmed BDS activation.
ANSWER: C) Primary and Secondary searches will be performed by FDNY members properly equipped with CPC clothing and metering equipment. (INCORRECT)
- USPS EMPLOYEES will conduct primary and secondaries
(HM 14 - 3.1)
FDNY Decontamination Shower Apparatus (DSA) are designed to be used for the decontamination of firefighters or civilians. Choose the correct statement about these units.
A) They are intended to be used for ambulatory and/or non-ambulatory firefighters and/or civilian.
B) DSAs are intended to be used for technical, decontamination, including the removal of asbestos, PCBs and biological contaminants (anthrax, blood borne and airborne pathogens)
C) The primary or back-up company responsible for delivery will transport the unit to the incident scene. A Squad company, HazMat Tech Engine or HazMat 1 must be on scene to set up and break down the apparatus.
D) Each tour the primary and backup companies shall be staffed with a minimum of 3 firefighters trained to the Decon Engine level.
ANSWER: B) DSAs are intended to be used for technical, decontamination, including the removal of asbestos, PCBs and biological contaminants (anthrax, blood borne and airborne pathogens)
A - DSAs are intened to be used for AMBULATORY victims who DO NOT HAVE LIFE THREATENING SYMPTOMS.
C - PRIMARY & BACKUP COMPANIES are responsible to set up and break down DSAs.
D - Minimum of TWO (2) firefighters trained to the Decon Engine level
(HM 15 - 1.1)
A Lt. working in Engine 283, who is quartered with a Decon Shower Apparatus (DSA) would be incorrect to state which of the following choices?
A) When responding, the DSA shall respond with both the DSA and their regularly assigned apparatus.
B) The DSA should be the subject of quarterly MUDs with both the assigned and backup units taking part. Water should be run through the showerheads and tents should be inspected.
C) In most situations, the DSA will have to be backed into position.
D) When the proper positioning is obtained, the rear half of the apparatus will be in the Hot Zone.
E) It is recommended that the DSA be positioned in the middle of the street or an intersection.
ANSWER: D) When the proper positioning is obtained, the rear half of the apparatus will be in the Hot Zone. (INCORRECT)
- WARM ZONE (where decontamination occurs)
(HM 15 - 3.3)
Engine 45 responds to a commercial building for an EMS run reporting a patient with difficulty breathing. Upon arrival they find a civilian who was exposed to white powder from an envelope received in the mail. NYPD is not yet on scene. The members of this unit would be correct to take all but which one action?
A) Transmit the appropriate 10-80 signal, specifying the suspected anthrax.
B) Since the patient was ambulatory, have them walk away from the area of the envelope.
C) Ask the patient to remove their outer clothing, provide them with a disposable garment or sheet and bag the patient’s clothing in a clear plastic bag.
D) All exposed victims require Emergency Decontamination prior to being treated and transported.
ANSWER: D) All exposed victims require Emergency Decontamination prior to being treated and transported. (INCORRECT)
- All patients who are CRITICAL or UNSTABLE get emergency decontamination.
(HM 16 - 1.2)
Your Engine Company arrives at the scene of a possible mace attack on the 2nd floor of a school. The principal informs you that there are numerous students on the 2nd floor that were exposed to the irritant. You should ensure all but which one tactic listed is performed by your members?
A) At all airborne irritant incidents occupants must be evacuated from the building to fresh air.
B) Ensure full firefighting gear and SCBA are used at all times to protect from exposure.
C) Transmit a 10-80 signal to alert incoming units to proceed with caution to avoid entering a contaminated area.
D) At all incidents, the FDNY Incident Commander will oversee Life Safety operations.
ANSWER: A) At all airborne irritant incidents occupants must be evacuated from the building to fresh air. (INCORRECT)
- We CAN CHOOSE THE SHELTER IN PLACE at these incidents.
- If we have to walk patients through the contaminated area, it would be better to have them shelter in place.
(HM 17)
Engine 306 is responding to a report of an unconscious person from a possible overdose of fentanyl. The member of this company should not take which procedure at this incident?
A) If possible, treat the patient in an area away from the exposure. If patient care must be rendered in the area of the exposure, ensure proper PPE is used.
B) Do not eat, drink, smoke or use the bathroom while working in an area with known or suspected fentanyl.
C) If an overdoes is strongly suspected, and the patient’s respiratory rate is less than 10/minute, administer the Narcan Nasal spray in one nostril. If after 2-3 minutes there is no or minimal response, repeat with a second device in the other nostril.
D) If after 5 minutes, the patient’s respiratory rate is not greater than 10 breaths per minute, administer a repeat dose of Narcan.
ANSWER: A) If possible, treat the patient in an area away from the exposure. If patient care must be rendered in the area of the exposure, ensure proper PPE is used. (INCORRECT)
- NEVER treat a patient who overdosed on fentanyl in the are of suspected exposure.
(HM 18)
If a member’s gear has been exposed to synthetic opiods during firefighter operations, it would be most correct to spray the bunker gear with?
A) Significant amounts of water
B) Medium amounts of water
C) Large amounts of water
D) Just enough water to lightly wet it
ANSWER: D) Just enough water to lightly wet it
HM 18 5.2
1st alarm units observe smoke pushing from a Lithium Ion Energy Storage System. While awaiting the arrival of HazMat units, the on-scene units should take which action?
A) Establish an initial danger zone of at least 25 feet from the cabinets.
B) Shut down the Energy Storage System (ESS) with the stop device (ESTOP) found at either the Fire Department Connection (FDC) or inside the electrical room.
C) An Engine company should stretch a line to the FDC, but do not start water until ordered by the subject matter expert (SME).
D) Transmit a 10-80 No Code signal
ANSWER: B) Shut down the Energy Storage System (ESS) with the stop device (ESTOP) found at either the Fire Department Connection (FDC) or inside the electrical room.
A - Initial danger zone is at least FIFTY (50) FEET away.
C - Stretch a line and CHARGE THE FDC / Signage will state the pressure needed (With fire showing you charge/with no fire or smoke showing you stretch to FDC but do not charge)
D - Transmit 10-80 CODE 1 for ESS units
(HM 18 5.2)
Engine 55 arrives at an alarm for a Lithium Ion Energy Storage System where batteries are stored in containers in a yard. Because there is no smoke or fire showing, they would be correct to think?
A) An initial danger zone should be established of at least 100 feet from any container.
B) Exhaust fans are normally found on the same side as the FD connection. Stay at least 50 feet away from them.
C) A 3 1/2” line should be stretched to the FD connection and charged.
D) A 10-80 Code 1 should be transmitted
ANSWER: D) A 10-80 Code 1 should be transmitted
- Code 1 for ALL ESS runs (Fire/smoke or nothing showing)
A - Initial danger zone is FIFTY (50) FEET
B - Stay at least ONE HUNDRED (100) FEET away from exhaust fans.
C - Only charge FDC if there is FIRE/SMOKE SHOWING
*If no fire or smoke showing you stretch line to FDC but DO NOT CHARGE.
(HM 19)
Ladder 111 arrives at a gas boiler incident that is causing high levels of CO in a 4 story Brownstone. They find initial readings of 200-300 ppm of CO throughout, no detectors are activated anywhere, and the occupants all have nausea and headaches. In this situation, the Ladder Officer would be most correct to think that?
A) CO has a vapor density which makes it slightly heavier than air, so it will disperse evenly in the rooms of the building.
B) The occupants should be informed that the FDNY has detected potentially dangerous levels of CO and it is recommended that they leave the building.
C) A 10-38 Code 3 should be transmitted.
D) Any serious or fatal injuries at this incident must be reported to the BFI through the Borough Dispatcher.
ANSWER: D) Any serious or fatal injuries at this incident must be reported to the BFI through the Borough Dispatcher.
A - CO is slightly LIGHTER THAN AIR
B - Potentially LETHAL levels of CO
C - Give a CODE 4 if NO DETECTOR ACTIVATION
(HM 4 - 2.4)
1st alarm units respond to an alarm for a Lithium Ion-Energy Storage System housed in separate containers in an outdoor facility. On arrival, they determine there is no smoke or fire showing from any container. In this situation, The Engine Officer, as the initial IC, would be correct to?
A) Establish an initial danger zone of at least 25 feet from any container.
B) Insure members remain a minimum of 50 feet away from any exhaust fan on any container.
C) Transmit a 10-80 Code 1 for a HazMat Response
D) Stretch a precautionary hand line and also stretch and charge a supply line to the FD connection.
ANSWER: C) Transmit a 10-80 Code 1 for a HazMat Response.
A - Danger Zone of at least FIFTY (50) FEET
B - ONE HUNDRED (100) FEET from any exhaust fan
D - Stretch an UNCHARGED supply line to FD connection
(HM 19 - pg 4)
Units arriving at the scene of a response to a factory see the NFPA Diamond on the entrance door. The officer notices a number of “2” in the Yellow section of the diamond. The officer would be correct to know that the “2” indicates?
A) There are materials present that can have a violent chemical change.
B) There are materials present that may detonate due to shock and heat.
C) There are materials present that have a Health Hazard considered to be “Hazardous”
D) There are materials present that have a Health Hazard considered to be “slightly hazardous”
ANSWER: A) There are materials present that can have a violent chemical change.
“SUVS May Detonate” (From 0 - 4)
0 - Stable
1 - Unstable if heated
2 - Violent Chemical Change
3 - S - Shock and Heat may detonate
4 - May Detonate
(ERP pg 39)
At HazMat incidents early recognition of incident hazards and potential risk are essential. The initial responsibility for assessment of incident hazards lies with the first responding units. One clue as to the type of hazard that can be found are Shipping Documents and Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS). Which type of MSDS would be found in railcars?
A) Bill of lading
B) Waybill
C) Cargo manifest
D) Air bill
ANSWER: B) Waybill
A - Bill of Lading (Truck)
B - Waybill (Railcar)
C - Cargo Manifest (Ship)
D - Air Bill (Plane)
(ERP 3.3.5 A)
An important task at a HazMat incident is to establish control zones based upon expected or known levels of contamination to reduce the potential for transfer of contamination. Choose an incorrect choice regarding these zones?
A) The Exclusion Zone or “Hot Zone” in the innermost area of the scene and all personnel entering this zone must wear appropriate PPE.
B) Red barrier tape should be used to identify the Exclusion Zone. People equipment and apparatus leaving the initial Exclusion Zone may need to be decontaminated before leaving the scene.
C) The Contamination Reduction Zone (CRZ) or “Warm Zone” lies between the Exclusion Zone and the Support Zone. All decontamination activities occur in the CRZ.
D) The Support Zone is the outermost area of the site and is considered uncontaminated. No contaminated persons, equipment or apparatus are permitted in the Support Zone.
ANSWER: B) Red barrier tape should be used to identify the Exclusion Zone. People equipment and apparatus leaving the initial Exclusion Zone may need to be decontaminated before leaving the scene. (INCORRECT)
- MUST BE DECONTAMINATED when leaving the Exclusion Zone.
(ERP 4.3)
Decontamination is the process of reducing levels of toxic or otherwise harmful substances from personnel, equipment and apparatus. Which choice does not show correct knowledge of decontamination?
A) For the safety of all fire and medical personnel, as well as hospital staff, all victims must be decontaminated prior to medical treatment and transport.
B) Emergency Decontamination may be necessary in potentially life-threatening situations to remove contaminants from victims as expeditiously as possible.
C) Emergency decontamination may or may not involve the formal establishment of a decontamination system.
D) Gross decontamination can be either emergency decontamination or non-emergency decontamination.
ANSWER: A) For the safety of all fire and medical personnel, as well as hospital staff, all victims must be decontaminated prior to medical treatment and transport. (INCORRECT)
- WHENEVER POSSIBLE
- Note that this is a slight conflict from ERP Section 4.3 where it states that all persons, apparatus and equipment MUST BE DECONTAMINATED before leaving the Exclusion Zone.
(ERP 4.3.9)
What level of Chemical Protective Clothing (CPC) is Bunker Gear classified as?
A) Level B
B) Level C
C) Level D
D) It is not classified as CPC
ANSWER: D) It is not classified as CPC
ERP 5.7
Several Ladder companies are trained to operate as CPC ladder companies. Choose a correct statement about these companies.
A) Their primary objective is to perform rescue of ambulatory and non ambulatory victims in the Exclusion Zone.
B) They are trained in all levels of CPC and atmospheric monitoring.
C) They should only operate in the Exclusion Zone when Technical companies are monitoring the environment.
D) CPC unit entries into a contaminated area require a coordinated effort by at least 3 CPC trained members: Entry (2), Backup (1)
ANSWER: C) They should only operate in the Exclusion Zone when Technical companies are monitoring the environment.
A - Their primary objective is to perform rescue NON AMBULATORY victims in the Exclusion Zone. (Ambulatory victims are instructed to get out on their own)
B - They DO NOT monitor or mitigate
D - At least FIVE (5) TRAINED CPC MEMBERS / Entry (2), Backup (2), Decon (1)
- No minimum required number to start tour for CPC truck.
(ERP 8.9 / HazMat 5 - 4.1)
3 Engines, 2 Ladders and a BC are on the scene of a large scale hazardous materials incident. While awaiting the arrival of HazMat units, the 1st Engine should take all but which one of the following actions?
A) Establish water supply. Stretch a line but do not place it into operation until ordered by the IC.
B) Place the initial line upwind and uphill for the safety of the members.
C) If necessary, the members of this company may perform CFRD duties.
D) The officer has the option of splitting up the members to perform more than one task.
ANSWER: D) The officer has the option of splitting up the members to perform more than one task. (INCORRECT)
- REMAIN TOGETHER unless ordered otherwise by the IC.
(ERP 12.1)
The 2nd arriving engine company at a HazMat incident is primarily responsible for what duty?
A) Coordinate with the 2nd ladder in Site Access Control
B) Establish a water supply and stretch a line for decontamination.
C) CFRD Duties
D) Information Resources
ANSWER: A) Coordinate with the 2nd ladder in Site Access Control.
“HA-SAC WA-SAC”
(ERP 12.2)
Members of the 1st arriving ladder company are responsible for hazard assessment at a Hazardous Materials Incident. The members will be divided into teams. Choose the incorrect task listed for this company.
A) The LCC should position the apparatus out of the hazardous area and as a barrier for site access control.
B) Team 1 is responsible for Hazard Identification and to provide primary search reports for locations entered.
C) Team 2 is responsible for establishing the Initial Exclusion Zone using red HazMat barrier tape, utility rope, traffic cones, etc.
D) No person involved in the operational activities of these teams is to work alone.
ANSWER: C) Team 2 is responsible for establishing the Initial Exclusion Zone using red HazMat barrier tape, utility rope, traffic cones, etc. (INCORRECT)
- Ladder 2 / Team 2 is responsible for establishing the Initial Exclusion Zone.
Ladder 1 / Team 1 = Hazard ID
Ladder 1 / Team 2 = Information Resources
Ladder 2 / Team 1 = Information Resources
Ladder 2 / Team 2 = Initial Exclusion Zone
(ERP 11.1)
Your ladder company, a SOC support Ladder, is the only unit on scene at a large scale HazMat incident. You would be correct to take all but which one of the following actions?
A) Direct self-evacuating victims to a Safe Refuge Area
B) Immediately begin by donning CPC equipment to remove non-ambulatory victims.
C) Provide a detailed preliminary report as soon as possible.
D) Attempt to determine the nature and extent of the hazardous release.
ANSWER: B) Immediately begin by donning CPC equipment to remove non-ambulatory victims. (INCORRECT)
- If the first units on scene are CPC Ladder Companies or SOC Support Ladder Companies, these units SHOULD NOT PERFORM HAZMAT DUTIES until additional companies arrive to control ambulatory victims.
- Scene control may be compromised if these units take the time to don CPC.
(ERP 15.2)
When units arrive at a suspected chemical attack underground, they detect a burnt almond odor and notice the people exiting the subway station are convulsing and gasping for air. Members should suspect which type of chemical agent was used?
A) A nerve agent or organophosphate such as Tabin, Sarin, Soman or VX.
B) A Blister Agent or vesciant such as Mustard or Lewiste.
C) A Blood or pulmonary agent such as Hydrogen Cyanide or Cyanogen Chloride.
D) A Choking agent such as Chlorine, Ammonia or Phosgene.
ANSWER: C) A Blood or pulmonary agent such as Hydrogen Cyanide or Cyanogen Chloride.
Nerve Agents - Fruity odor (Sarin / VX have no odor)
Blister Agent - Mustard (Garlic) Lewisite (Geraniums)
Blood Agent - Burnt Almonds
Choking Agent - Chlorine (Phosgene is musky hay/grass)
(ERP Addendum 2 Section 2)
Engine 100 and Ladder 200 arrive first due to a chemical release in the subway. Choose the correct action taken.
A) After seeing several unresponsive civilians 50 feet inside the station, alongside a conscious and breathing woman, the Officer of Engine 100 and Ladder 200 prohibited any of their members from entering the station.
B) Upon noticing that a dispersal device was still operational, the Officer of Ladder 200 ordered one member to disable the device to limit the contamination.
C) The Officer of Ladder 200 instructed his members, who were operating in Bunker Gear, to not proceed in the Exclusion Zone any further than the farthest deceased victim when performing hazard assessment or rescue of ambulatory victims.
D) The Officer of Engine 100 and Ladder 200 instructed members they may make contact with puddles, liquids and vapors to take a sample of the suspected agent.
ANSWER: A) After seeing several unresponsive civilians 50 feet inside the station, alongside a conscious and breathing woman, the Officer of Engine 100 and Ladder 200 prohibited any of their members from entering the station.
A - Members are NOT to enter a subway where visible persons are unresponsive.
B - If a dispersal device is still operational, the first alarm units shall make NO ATTEMPT to stop the device.
C - Members operating in bunker gear should not proceed in the Exclusion Zone any further than the FARTHEST LIVE VICTIM when performing hazard assessment or rescue of ambulatory victims.
D - Ensure members AVOID CONTACT with puddles, liquids, vapors, mists, etc.
(ERP - Addendum 2 - 4.2.7)
L-71 and L-232 arrive as the 1st and 2nd ladder companies at a response at a heavily trafficked subway station. Upon their arrival, they smell a fruity odor, and see a large number of people exiting the station showing signs of respiratory distress. Evacuating victims report that there are numerous non-ambulatory but conscious victims inside the station. Which action taken by the Officer of L-71, the 1st arriving ladder company, should be corrected?
A) The Officer instructed members that they may enter a subway where visible persons are unresponsive if they perform a risk assessment.
B) The Hazard Assessment Team donned their SCBA and facepiece, covered all exposed skin, and wore examination gloves under their firefighting gloves.
C) After hearing live victims, the Entry team made a rapid assessment of the area, using a different entrance point than the one being used by evacuating civilians.
D) The Hazard Assessment Team directed victims to the Safe Refuge Area.
ANSWER: A) The Officer instructed members that they may enter a subway where visible persons are unresponsive if they perform a risk assessment. (INCORRECT)
- DO NOT ENTER when visible people are UNRESPONSIVE.
(ERP - Addendum 2 - 6.1)
L-71 and L-232 arrive as the 1st and 2nd ladder companies at a response at a heavily trafficked subway station. Upon their arrival, they smell a fruity odor, and see a large number of people exiting the station showing signs of respiratory distress. Evacuating victims report that there are numerous non-ambulatory but conscious victims inside the station. Which members of L-71 operated incorrectly?
A) The Hazard Assessment Team, which was designated as Team 1, forced open several gates and turnstiles to speed evacuation and allow later CPC equipped members to gain access.
B) Team 1 marked the route for CPC Entry/Rescue Teams with search ropes.
C) Two of the remaining members were designated the Decontamination team and established a communications relay to the IC until relieved by a BC.
D) The LCC assisted in the establishment of the communications relay.
ANSWER: C) Two of the remaining members were designated the Decontamination team and established a communications relay to the IC until relieved by a BC. (INCORRECT)
- Two remaining members were designated as TEAM 2, THE BACKUP TEAM, and established a communications relay to the IC until relieved by the FIRST ARRIVING CPC UNIT.
(ERP - Addendum 1 - 6.1.3)
L-71 and L-232 arrive as the 1st and 2nd ladder companies at a response at a heavily trafficked subway station. Upon their arrival, they smell a fruity odor, and see a large number of people exiting the station showing signs of respiratory distress. Evacuating victims report that there are numerous non-ambulatory but conscious victims inside the station. Ladder 232 engaged in several tactical operations. Which one should be corrected?
A) The Unit was broken into two teams. Team 1 was responsible for evacuation of victims to the gross decontamination area. Team 2 performed Site Access Control.
B) All members remained outside the Exclusion Zone.
C) Team 1 directed ambulatory victims from the Safe Refuge Area to the Gross Decontamination Area and used the Stokes stretcher to assist non-ambulatory victims.
D) Team 2 defined the initial Exclusion Zone with yellow Haz-Mat barrier tape, and established the initial Contamination Reduction Zone using red barrier tape or utility rope.
ANSWER: D) Team 2 defined the initial Exclusion Zone with yellow Haz-Mat barrier tape, and established the initial Contamination Reduction Zone using red barrier tape or utility rope. (INCORRECT)
- Initial Exclusion Zone with RED BARRIER TAPE
- Initial Contamination Reduction Zone using YELLOW BARRIER TAPE.
(ERP - Addendum 1 - 6.6)
Engine 100, Engine 200 and Engine 300 arrived in response order on the first alarm for fumes at a subway station ad noticed a garlic odor, but the evacuating passengers were not exhibiting any symptoms. Ladder 99, Ladder 241 and Battalion 6 arrived at nearly the same time as the Engine companies. Which unit is responsible for providing an estimate of the number of victims to B6 and informing B6 and Ladder 241 if victims collapse on their way from the subway exit to the Gross Decontamination Area?
A) Engine 100
B) Engine 200
C) Engine 300
D) Ladder 99
ANSWER: A) Engine 100
- 1st Engine informs Second Arriving Ladder Company and Incident Commander if victims collapse on their way from the subway exit to the Gross Decontamination Area.
(ERP - Addendum 2 - 7.1)
Engine 100, Engine 200 and Engine 300 arrived in response order on the first alarm for fumes at a subway station ad noticed a garlic odor, but the evacuating passengers were not exhibiting any symptoms. Ladder 99, Ladder 241 and Battalion 6 arrived at nearly the same time as the Engine companies. In which choice did an Engine Company operate improperly?
A) Engine 100 positioned their apparatus near where Ladder 99 members entered the station and connected to a working hydrant.
B) Engine 100 members, wearing full PPE and using their SCBA, entered the station to perform CFRD duties when requested by Ladder 99.
C) Engine 200 positioned their apparatus at a different entrance than Engine 100 and prepared to perform CFRD and decontamination.
D) Engine 300 positioned their apparatus at a 3rd entrance to the subway station and prepared to perform CFRD and decontamination.
ANSWER: B) Engine 100 members, wearing full PPE and using their SCBA, entered the station to perform CFRD duties when requested by Ladder 99.
- 1st Engine remains OUTSIDE the subway system unless ordered by the IC.
(ERP - Addendum 1 - 7.1)
Any CPC level trained member or above may perform Noxious Stimulus Triage (NST). Which choice is correct concerning NST?
A) If the victim responds to voice or touch, the victim is likely to survive and should be removed from the area immediately.
B) If a victim only responds to painful stimulus, the victim is likely to survive. In a mass casualty setting, these victims should be removed first.
C) If the victim does not respond to painful stimulus, the CPC equipped member should attempt to move the vicitm to an uncontaminated area and perform NST again.
D) Deceased victims shall never be moved.
ANSWER: A) If the victim responds to voice or touch, the victim is likely to survive and should be removed from the area immediately.
B - In a mass casualty setting, the large number of victims may require that rescue efforts focus on saving those victims with a BETTER CHANCE OF SURVIVAL. (You would leave victims that only respond to painful stimuli and move on)
C - Leave in place and move to next victim
D - Deceased victims should be LEFT IN PLACE until the criminal investigation is completed, UNLESS movement of such victims is necessary to rescue additional victims or to mitigate further hazards.
(ERP - Addendum 1 - 9.4.3)
While conducting a drill on the properties, odors and visible signs of chemical agents, Captain Jones made several statements. Which one was incorrect?
A) All chemical agents except hydrogen cyanide are heavier than air.
B) Exposure to chemical agents will result in immediate signs and symptoms (seconds to minutes) except Mustards and Phosgen, which will have delayed effects (hours).
C) Lewisite has an odor of Mustard.
D) Phosgene has an odor of musky hay, and Chlorine gas has an odor of bleach.
ANSWER: C) Lewisite has an odor of Mustard. (INCORRECT)
- Lewisite has an odor of Geraniums
- Mustard has a garlic odor
- Nerve agents - fruity odor
- Blood Agents - Burnt Almond odor
- Choking Agents - Chlorine / bleach odor (Phosgene is musky hay or grass)
(ERP - Addendum 1 - 9.4.3)
Members overhauling at an apartment fire discover firearms and ammunition in a room remote from the fire area. In this situation, they would be incorrect to think that?
A) Notification should be made to both NYPD and the Bureau of Fire Investigation.
B) Evidence should only be handled by NYPD or the BFI.
C) Handling firearms or ammunition is only permitted if they were not involved in fire.
D) No one should stand in line with the muzzle or breech of any firearm
ANSWER: C) Handling firearms or ammunition is only permitted if they were not involved in fire. (INCORRECT)
- DO NOT handle firearms / ammunition / incendiary devices.
(ERP 3 - 3.1)
1st alarm units arrive at the scene of a suspicious IED where NYPD is not yet on scene. In this situation, they would be incorrect to think that?
A) HT and cell phones should not be used within 150’ of the suspected device.
B) Apparatus, Post and Marine radios should not be operated within 300’ of the suspected device.
C) Always assume if you can see the device you are operating in a potential kill zone.
D) Members should be aware of the possibility of secondary devices, and search all staging areas or any areas of operation for signs of such devices.
ANSWER: D) Members should be aware of the possibility of secondary devices, and search all staging areas or any areas of operation for signs of such devices. (INCORRECT)
- Be aware and SURVEY all staging areas.
- SURVEY meaning a visual observation
- FDNY members are not trained to search for these devices
(ERP 3 - 4.1.1)
First alarm units arrive at the scene of an explosion of multiple pipe bombs in the street at a parade in upper Manhattan. Their initial size-up shows dozens of trauma injuries with victims that are bleeding. First arriving units would be incorrect to think that they should?
A) Don their facepieces as a precaution, even if initial conditions found do not require the SCBA.
B) Bring CFRD equipment to the Point of Impact and the Triage Transfer Point.
C) Bring meters, skeds, tourniquets and triage tags to the Point of Impact and the Triage Transfer Point.
D) Do not approach any suspect’s remains or explosives
ANSWER: A) Don their facepieces as a precaution, even if initial conditions found do not require the SCBA. (INCORRECT)
- Only required to don facepiece if there are INDICATIONS OF RESPIRATORY DANGER (People gasping for air / difficulty breathing etc.)
(ERP 3 - 5.1.3)
First alarm units arrive at the scene of an explosion of multiple pipe bombs in the street at a parade in upper Manhattan. Their initial size-up shows dozens of trauma injuries with victims that are bleeding. At the Point of Impact, the priority removal are the patient’s identified as ________________?
A) Black tag
B) Red Tag
C) Orange Tag
D) Yellow Tag
ANSWER: B) Red Tag
ERP 3 - 5.1.3
First alarm units arrive at the scene of an explosion of multiple pipe bombs in the street at a parade in upper Manhattan. Their initial size-up shows dozens of trauma injuries with victims that are bleeding. Units operating at the Point of Impact should limit their operating time due to the possibility of a secondary device detonation. At the POI, they would be most correct to think they should?
A) Escort and remove ambulatory victims to a Green Treatment Area.
B) Reposition a victim’s head only twice to assess for respirations.
C) Control massive hemorrhaging of a viable victim by use of a tourniquet.
D) Immediately move onto other victims if a suspicious device is discovered on a victim.
E) Use skeds to immediately remove Black-tag victims
ANSWER: C) Control massive hemorrhaging of a viable victim by use of a tourniquet.
A - Give ambulatory victims VERBAL DIRECTION and HAND SIGNALS (These people can walk so just tell them to get themselves out of the area)
B - Reposition victims head only ONCE
D - EVACUATE FORTHWITH if discovering an explosive device on a victim.
E - LEAVE BLACK TAG VICTIMS IN PLACE
(ERP 3 - 5.2.5)
First alarm units arrive at the scene of an explosion of multiple pipe bombs in the street at a parade in upper Manhattan. Their initial size-up shows dozens of trauma injuries with victims that are bleeding. The 1st arriving Engine Officer would be correct to think he should?
A) Stretch a precautionary 1 3/4” line
B) Knock down any fire, even if it is remote from the victims
C) If a ladder officer is on scene, enter the Point of Impact area to help gather preliminary information.
D) If there is no threat of fire, remove skeds and CFR equipment for use in the POI.
ANSWER: D) If there is no threat of fire, remove skeds and CFR equipment for use in the POI.
A - ALWAYS a 2 1/2” line for an explosion (NEVER 1 3/4”)
B - Knock down fire only if it is THREATENING VICTIMS
C - If ladder officer IS NOT YET ON SCENE, enter the POI to help gather preliminary information
(ERP 3 - 5.3.1)
First alarm units arrive at the scene of an explosion of multiple pipe bombs in the street at a parade in upper Manhattan. Their initial size-up shows dozens of trauma injuries with victims that are bleeding. The 1st arriving ladder officer would be incorrect to think?
A) Enter the POI to determine the number of victims, initial location of the ICP and TTP, and preferred routes for evacuation and removal of victims.
B) Have members bring meters, skeds, and tourniquets to the POI.
C) Give verbal commands and hand signals to ambulatory victims.
D) Remove critical victims from the POI to the Triage Transfer Point.
E) Place triage tags on only critical red tag victims in the POI.
ANSWER: E) Place triage tags on only critical red tag victims in the POI. (INCORRECT)
- Only place triage tags on BLACK TAG VICTIMS
- We do not want to spend valuable time assessing whether or not a patients breathing rate is adequate or not to be labeled with red or yellow tags etc.
(ERP - 3 5.3.4)
First alarm units arrive at the scene of an explosion of multiple pipe bombs in the street at a parade in upper Manhattan. Their initial size-up shows dozens of trauma injuries with victims that are bleeding. Who mus remain at the Triage Transfer Point and assumed control of the TPP until relieved by a Battalion Chief?
A) 1st Engine Officer
B) 1st Ladder Officer
C) 2nd Engine Officer
D) 2nd Ladder Officer
ANSWER: C) 2nd Engine Officer
1st Engine and Truck = POI
2nd Engine and Truck = TPP
(ERP 3 - 5.3.2)
First alarm units arrive at the scene of an explosion of multiple pipe bombs in the street at a parade in upper Manhattan. Their initial size-up shows dozens of trauma injuries with victims that are bleeding. Members who are removing victims to the Triage Transfer Point must be aware that if there are no EMS units at the TPP, they must remain with the patient until relieved by?
A) Only EMS personnel
B) Only a CFRD unit
C) EMS personnel or a CFRD unit
D) CFRD personnel, EMS personnel or a Battalion Chief
ANSWER: C) EMS personnel or a CFRD unit
ERP 3 - 5.3.4
First alarm units arrive at the scene of an explosion of multiple pipe bombs in the street at a parade in upper Manhattan. Their initial size-up shows dozens of trauma injuries with victims that are bleeding. A Patient Relay Point may be established bu the ____________ Officer if the distance to the Triage Transfer Point is too long from the POI?
A) 1st Ladder
B) 2nd Ladder
C) 1st Engine
D) 2nd Engine
ANSWER: A) 1st Ladder
- If the distance to the Triage Transfer Point is too long, the 1st Ladder Company may establish a Patient Relay Point (PRP) where they will transfer each victim to the 2nd Ladder Company.
- The 1st Ladder Company will return to the POI with empty skeds from the 2nd Ladder Company for retrieval of more victims.
(ERP 3 - 5.3.4)
First alarm units arrive at the scene of an explosion of multiple pipe bombs in the street at a parade in upper Manhattan. Their initial size-up shows dozens of trauma injuries with victims that are bleeding. If there are numerous victims requiring removal to the Triage Transfer Point, and there is no BC on scene, the first ladder officer may request assistance from whom?
A) Only the 2nd ladder
B) Only the 1st Engine (if they are not engaged in fire suppression)
C) The 2nd Ladder or 1st Engine (if they are not engaged in fire suppression)
D) The 2nd Ladder or 2nd Engine
ANSWER: C) The 2nd Ladder or 1st Engine (if they are not engaged in fire suppression)
- Can NEVER pull the 2nd Engine away from the TPP
(ERP 3 - 5.3.5)
First alarm units arrive at the scene of an explosion of multiple pipe bombs in the street at a parade in upper Manhattan. Their initial size-up shows dozens of trauma injuries with victims that are bleeding. The 2nd ladder company is responsible to?
- Report to the Triage Transfer Point with meters, skeds and tourniquets.
- Assist in the removal of patients to either Treatment Areas or the Transportation Sector.
- If an incident involves the subway system, set up the HT CORE relay.
A) 1 / 2 B) 1 / 3 C) 2 / 3 D) 1 / 2 / 3
ANSWER: A) 1 / 2 are CORRECT
- Choice 3 is INCORRECT
- 1st LADDER WILL SET UP HT RELAY
(ERP 3 - 5.3.5)
All chemical agents are heavier than air except which?
A) Hydrogen cyanide
B) Nitrogen mustard
C) Phosgene
D) Cyanide chloride
A) Hydrogen cyanide
(ERP ADD 2 pg 18)
Flammable gases lighter than air - “HA HA MICE”
H - Hydrogen
A - Acetylene
H - Hydrogen cyanide
A - Ammonia
M - Methane
I - Illuminating Gas
C - Carbon Monoxide
E - Ethylene
In general, department of transportation regulations require Haz-Mat placards to be posted only on trucks that are transporting over ______ pounds of a particular material.
A) 1000
B) 100
C) 500
D) 10,000
ANSWER: A) 1000
Haz-Mat 2, 7
According to the Emergency Response Plan for Hazardous Materials, what zone would you expect decontamination activities to occur?
A) Exclusion Zone
B) Warm Zone
C) Cold Zone
D) Support Zone
ANSWER: B) Warm Zone
(ERP, section 4.3.3)
- All decon activities occur in the Contamination Reduction Zone a.k.a the Warm Zone
Of the following, which choice would not be a correct distinguishing characteristic with regards to the 4 types of chemical agents that are of concern to first responders?
A) Nerve agent: odor of geraniums
B) Blister agent: garlic, mustard agent
C) Blood agent: Burnt almonds
D) Choking agent: Musky hay
ANSWER: A) Nerve agent: odor of geraniums. (Incorrect)
(ERP ADD 2 pg 20)
- Nerve agents have a fruity odor, camphor or no odor.
Nerve Agent “Nerds like fruit”
Blister Agent “Garlic skin blisters”
Blood Agent “agent and odor both begin with B.A.” (Burnt Almonds)
Choking Agent “Musky hay and bleach odors make you choke”
Lewisite (Blister agent with odor of GERANIUMS)
According to the emergency response plan for hazardous materials, what zone would you expect the casualty collection point to be located?
A) Hot zone
B) Warm zone
C) Cold zone
D) Frozen zone
ANSWER: C) Cold zone
(ERP, section 10.6.4)
*The casualty collection point is an area established in the support zone (cold zone).
While operating at a Haz-Mat incident, which units responsibilities include site access control?
A) First and Second Ladder companies
B) First Ladder and First Engine companies
C) Second ladder and Second Engine companies
D) First Ladder and Second Engine company
ANSWER: C) Second ladder and Second Engine companies.
“HA-SAC WA-SAC”
1st Ladder - Hazard Assessment
2nd Ladder - Site Access Control
1st Engine - Water Supply
2nd Engine - Site Access Control
(Haz-Mat 12.2)
You respond to an incident in which you see the NFPA 704 diamond labeling system. There is a number 4 in the yellow diamond and a number 4 in the red diamond. You would know that this indicated which choice shown below?
A) The number 4 represents the most severe hazard and the red diamond represents health.
B) The number 4 represents the least severe hazard and the red diamond represents flammability.
C) The number 4 represents the least severe hazard and the yellow diamond represents health.
D) The number 4 represents the most severe hazard and the yellow diamond represents reactivity.
ANSWER: D) The number 4 represents the most severe hazard and the yellow diamond represents reactivity.
(ERP pg 42 - NFPA 704 diamond)
“Hot Farts Rise”
Health (blue)
Flammability (red)
Reactivity (yellow)
Special information (white)
*The number 4 represents the MAX or MOST SEVERE hazard.
Regarding explosive devices, HTs and cell phones should not be used within how many feet of a suspected device?
A) 200’
B) 150’
C) 100’
D) 50’
ANSWER: B) 150’
ERP ADD 3 7.3.1
Which class would flammable solids be classified under?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
ANSWER: C) 4
(HAZMAT 2, 2.1)
“Every Good Lieutenants Standard Operating Procedure Requires Coordinated Members”
1) Explosives (Every)
2) Compressed Gases (Good)
3) Flammable Liquids (Lieutenants)
4) Flammable Solids (Standard)
5) Oxidizers (Operating)
6) Poisons (Procedure)
7) Radioactive Material (Requires)
8) Corrosives (Coordinated)
9) Miscellaneous Dangerous Goods (Members)
When units respond to Hazardous Materials Incidents, identification should be the initial action taken by the first to arrive units. One way to identify material is by checking the shipping papers. Which is the incorrect point about shipping papers?
A) The “bill of lading” is kept in the cab within the reach of the driver.
B) The “waybill” is carried by the engineer in the engine.
C) The “air bill” is kept by the pilot.
D) The “cargo manifest” is kept by the master or first mate.
ANSWER: B) The “waybill” is carried by the engineer in the engine.
(HAZMAT 2, 4.4)
- Waybill - Railroad - CONDUCTOR in caboose or engine
If units respond to an alarm in which there was a CO detector present that did not activate, and CO readings of 50 PPM are obtained, what would be the most correct Radio Code Signal to transmit?
A) 10-38 Code 1
B) 10-38 Code 2
C) 10-38 Code 3
D) 10-38 Code 4
ANSWER: D) 10-38 Code 4
(HAZMAT 4, 5.1.1)
- Codes 1-3 REQUIRE DETECTOR ACTIVATION
1 - Investigation (low battery, defective, unwarranted)
2 - Incident (1-9 PPM)
3 - Emergency (Over 9 PPM)
4 - No detector activation
Which choice contains incorrect information about the Gas Alert Extreme Carbon Monoxide Meter?
A) The green circular button on the left is the only button to be used by field units.
B) If affixing CO monitor to the HT strap, affix it in the chest area. Having the CO monitor near the HT antenna will cause false activation.
C) A visual and low audible warning with a slow vibration is given when the concentration of CO in the atmosphere exceeds 9 PPM.
D) If the monitor does not operate for any reason, the officer on duty shall notify their Battalion and arrange for an exchange (prepare RT-2). Do not send the CO monitor through the Division Messenger or through the bag.
ANSWER: C) A visual and low audible warning with a slow vibration is given when the concentration of CO in the atmosphere exceeds 9 PPM. (INCORRECT)
(HAZMAT 4, ADD 1, 1.2)
- Slow Vibration - CO exceeds 35 PPM
- Fast Vibration - CO exceeds 100 PPM
Which choice is an incorrect characteristic of Carbon Monoxide?
A) CO is a non-toxic gas with a distinct odor.
B) CO is a natural by product of incomplete combustion from fuels such as gasoline, wood, coal, propane, oil and methane.
C) CO is a flammable gas with an auto ignition temperature of 1128 degrees F, and a Lower Explosive Level of 12.5% and an Upper Explosive Level of 74%.
D) CO is slightly lighter than air (.968)
ANSWER: A) CO is a non-toxic gas with a distinct odor. (INCORRECT)
(HAZMAT 4, Carbon Monoxide 2.1)
- CO is TOXIC and ODORLESS
Units operate at a food on the stove incident in a private dwelling where CO readings of 25 PPM are obtained on their CO monitors, and no people are symptomatic. The dwelling does not have any CO detectors. What would be the correct signal to transit along with the 10-26?
A) 10-38-1
B) 10-38-2
C) 10-38-3
D) 10-38-4
ANSWER: D) 10-38-4
(Hazmat 4, 5.1.1)
- Codes 1-3 REQUIRE DETECTOR ACTIVATION
- Code 4 = No detector activation
All officers are required to wear and turn on the CO Meter whenever they are out of quarters. Which is the correct choice about this tool?
A) If affixing the CO monitor to the HT strap, affix it near the HT antenna
B) A visual and low audible warning with a slow vibration is given immediately when the concentration of CO in the atmosphere exceeds 9 PPM.
C) A visual and high audible warning with a fast vibration is given if the concentration of CO in the atmosphere exceeds 100 PPM.
D) To turn on and activate the monitor, press the red square button on the right only. The monitor has 4 buttons, all of which may be pressed to obtain more information.
ANSWER: C) A visual and high audible warning with a fast vibration is given if the concentration of CO in the atmosphere exceeds 100 PPM.
(Hazmat 4, ADD 1 Section 1.2)
A - Affix CO monitor to CHEST AREA (HT antenna causes false activation)
B - Low audible warning / slow vibration = CO exceeds 35 PPM
C - High audible warning / fast vibration = CO exceeds 100 PPM
D - To turn on and activate press GREEN BUTTON on the LEFT only. The monitor has 4 buttons, ONLY USE THE LEFT BUTTON.
Incidents involving active shooters, violent extremists, barricade situations or other aggressive deadly behavior represents some of the most challenging responses to the 1st responder community. During one of these incidents, an NYPD officer may confront FDNY members to verify their identity. This is called a “challenge situation”. In this situation, the FDNY member shall strictly adhere to all of the following procedures below except which?
A) Comply with the commands of law enforcement personnel.
B) Remain motionless (no sudden movements). Await command of law enforcement to resume current operations.
C) Do not turn your body unless instructed to do so by the challenging officer.
D) Verbally identify yourself as a member of the FDNY by unit and name.
ANSWER: D) Verbally identify yourself as a member of the FDNY by unit and name. (INCORRECT)
- Identify yourself by RANK and NAME.
(ERP 3A)
E99, E98, L100, L101 and B88 are assigned to respond to a car accident. The response ticket indicates that there is no trap, no pin, with no additional information. While responding, the dispatcher gives you an update via department radio. He states “B88 you are responding to a possible dispute, PD has been notified”. E99 turns onto the block and is met by a civilian and EMS who state that a vehicle has rammed into multiple people on the sidewalk and then ran into the hotel on the corner and shooting anyone in his path. As they are telling you this you hear what you believe to be gun shots. You know that you are operating at an aggressive deadly behavior incident. E99, L100 and a FDNY ambulance are the only units on scene. What is the only correct statement listed below?
A) E99s Officer used his EAB with a MAYDAY message to notify units that this is an active shooter incident and not a routine car accident.
B) Ladder 100 and FDNY ambulance immediately withdrew and requested a forthwith police response. Since members thought there was potential for a secondary threat, sensitive information was transmitted via cell phone, secure frequencies or MDT.
C) E99 couldn’t withdraw so they took hard cover behind a sheetrock wall.
D) Members knowing that the Hot Zone is the area of a known hazard, where the perpetrator is shooting and roaming free. No FDNY members are allowed to operate in the designed Hot Zone unless escorted by the NYPD.
ANSWER: B) Ladder 100 and FDNY ambulance immediately withdrew and requested a forthwith police response. Since members thought there was potential for a secondary threat, sensitive information was transmitted via cell phone, secure frequencies or MDT.
A - URGENT to notify units that this is an active shooter
C - Sheetrock is NOT hard cover / Members should take cover behind a THICK BRICK WALL.
D - No FDNY in Hot Zone PERIOD.
(ERP 3A / SB 89)
