Study Group Qs Flashcards
What is the r value for perfect negative correlation?
A. R = 1
B. R = 0
C. R = -1
D. R = -0.5
What is the r value for perfect negative correlation?
A. R = 1
B. R = 0
C. R = -1
D. R = -0.5
What happens to the confidence interval as sample size increases?
A. Doubles
B. Stays the same
C. Gets bigger
D. Gets narrower
What happens to the confidence interval as sample size increases?
A. Doubles
B. Stays the same
C. Gets bigger
D. Gets narrower
If the sample size increases, the 95% confidence range stays the same;
however the 95% confidence interval gets narrow since the standard error decreases if the sample size is larger
What study type should be used if you wanted to investigate if a rare exposure is associated with a disease?
A. Cohort study
B. Case control study
C. Clinical trial
D. Cross-sectional survey
What study type should be used if you wanted to investigate if a rare exposure is associated with a disease?
A. Cohort study
B. Case control study
C. Clinical trial
D. Cross-sectional survey
If an exposure is rare there may be too few people exposed in a case-control study to be able to draw conclusions
What study types is this graph often used in?
A. Cohort study
B. Case control study
C. Clinical trial
D. Cross-sectional survey
What study types is this graph often used in?
A. Cohort study
Kaplan-Meier curves
Plot proportion of people surviving over time
Compared using a log rank test
Used in cohort studies and randomized trials.
Where is aldosterone secreted from?
A. Zona reticularis
B. Zona fasciculata
C. Zona Glomerulosa
D. Cortex
Where is aldosterone secreted from?
A. Zona reticularis
B. Zona fasciculata
Zona Glomerulosa
D. Cortex
Which one of these would decrease satiety?
A. Insulin
B. Ghrelin
C. Leptin
D. Glucagon-like peptide
Which one of these would decrease satiety?
A. Insulin
B. Ghrelin
C. Leptin
D. Glucagon-like peptide
What acid-base disturbance is common in acute COPD?
A. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory acidosis
Respiratory acidosis with no compensation.
Lost sensitivity to CO2, only thing keeping patient breathing is that they are hypoxic 🡪 lost respiratory drive
Which of these causes hyperkaleamia?
A. Beta blockers
B. Diarrhoea
C. Alcoholism
D. Diuretics
Which of these causes hyperkaleamia?
A. Beta blockers
B. Diarrhoea
C. Alcoholism
D. Diuretics
RAAS inhibition
What is the rate determining enzyme in glycolysis?
A. Fructose-1,6-biphosphate
B. Glycogen synthase
C. Glycogen phosphorylase
D. Phosphofructokinase-1
What is the rate determining enzyme in glycolysis?
A. Fructose-1,6-biphosphate
B. Glycogen synthase
C. Glycogen phosphorylase
D. Phosphofructokinase1
There are different types of analysis used within statistics. What is a t-test used to compare?
A – Medians of a continuous variable between 2 groups
B – Proportions of a binary variable between 2 groups
C – Proportions of binary variable within one group, measured at 2 time points
D – Standard deviations of a continuous variable between 2 groups
E – Means of a continuous variable between 2 groups
There are different types of analysis used within statistics. What is a t-test used to compare?
A – Medians of a continuous variable between 2 groups
B – Proportions of a binary variable between 2 groups
C – Proportions of binary variable within one group, measured at 2 time points
D – Standard deviations of a continuous variable between 2 groups
E – Means of a continuous variable between 2 groups
Regurgitation through the tricuspid valve would lead to volume overload of which heart chamber?
A – R.V.
B – R.A.
C – L.V.
D – L.A.
Regurgitation through the tricuspid valve would lead to volume overload of which heart chamber?
A – R.V.
B – R.A.
C – L.V.
D – L.A.
Which type of brain herniation causes ipsilateral mydriasis (pupil dilation)?
A – Central (transtentorial)
B – Cingulate (Subfalcine)
C – Transcalvarial
D – Uncal
E – Upward cerebellar (transtentorial)
Which type of brain herniation causes ipsilateral mydriasis (pupil dilation)?
A – Central (transtentorial)
B – Cingulate (Subfalcine)
C – Transcalvarial
D – Uncal
E – Upward cerebellar (transtentorial)
A 61 year old woman presents to the emergency department with diarrhoea and vomiting. She has recently been started on furosemide by her GP for hypertension. What has happened?
Hypokalaemia
Inverted QRS (Possible block)
T-wave flattening
Possibly due to new loop diuretic (furosemide)
What type of bleed is diagnosed using lumbar puncture (as well as CT)? What colour is the CSF when it is examined?
A – Epidural haematoma (Colourless)
B – Extradural haematoma (Yellow)
C – Subarachnoid haematoma (Yellow)
D – Subdural haematoma (Colourless)
E – Arteriovenous malformations (Colourless)
What type of bleed is diagnosed using lumbar puncture (as well as CT)? What colour is the CSF when it is examined?
A – Epidural haematoma (Colourless)
B – Extradural haematoma (Yellow)
C – Subarachnoid haematoma (Yellow)
D – Subdural haematoma (Colourless)
E – Arteriovenous malformations (Colourless)
Which of the following signs might be seen in shaken baby syndrome?
A – Anencephalopathy
B – Subarachnoid haemorrhage
C – Subdural haemorrhage
D – Epidural haemorrhage
E – Arteriovenosus malformations
Which of the following signs might be seen in shaken baby syndrome?
A – Anencephalopathy
B – Subarachnoid haemorrhage
C – Subdural haemorrhage
D – Epidural haemorrhage
E – Arteriovenosus malformations
Encephalopathy, Subdural haemorrhage and Retinal haemorrhage
Which of the following can be given/performed to temporarily stop contractions during pregnancy?
A – Amniofusion
B – Dexamethasone
C – Oxytocin
D – Azithromycin
E - Tocolysis
Which of the following can be given/performed to temporarily stop contractions during pregnancy?
A – Amniofusion
B – Dexamethasone
C – Oxytocin
D – Azithromycin
E - Tocolysis
Where is the active form of Vitamin D synthesised?
A – Liver
B – Lungs
C – Kidneys
D– Skeletal muscle
E – Smooth muscle
Where is the active form of Vitamin D synthesised?
A – Liver
B – Lungs
C – Kidneys
D– Skeletal muscle
E – Smooth muscle
As it exits the axilla the radial nerve lies on which of the following muscles?
A – Teres Minor
B – Teres Major
C – Pectoralis Minor
D – Pectoralis Major
E – Biceps brachii
As it exits the axilla the radial nerve lies on which of the following muscles?
A – Teres Minor
B – Teres Major
C – Pectoralis Minor
D – Pectoralis Major
E – Biceps brachii
Which cardiac abnormality is most common in a baby with Patau’s syndrome?
A – Tetralogy of Fallot
B – Coarction of the aorta
C – ASD
D – VSD
E - PDA
Which cardiac abnormality is most common in a baby with Patau’s syndrome?
A – Tetralogy of Fallot
B – Coarction of the aorta
C – ASD
D – VSD
E - PDA
Patau’s syndrome – Chromosome 13
VSD most commonly associated
-> Can lead to Eisenmenger syndrome
Name the least abundant isotype in blood serum
IgA
IgM
IgG
IgE
IgD
Name the least abundant isotype in blood serum
IgA
IgM
IgG
IgE
IgD
Which cell type in the nervous system provides the inner lining of the ventricles?
Oligodendrocytes
Astrocytes
Microglia
Ependymal cells
Schwann cells
Which cell type in the nervous system provides the inner lining of the ventricles?
Oligodendrocytes
Astrocytes
Microglia
Ependymal cells
Schwann cells
Which valvular disorder is most commonly seen in acute rheumatic fever?
Mitral stenosis
Aortic stenosis
Pulmonary stenosis
Mitral regurgitation
Aortic regurgitation
Which valvular disorder is most commonly seen in acute rheumatic fever?
Mitral stenosis
Aortic stenosis
Pulmonary stenosis
Mitral regurgitation
Aortic regurgitation
What is inspiratory capacity?
Max. volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration
Equals residual volume + vital capacity
Equals tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume
350ml in females, 500ml in males
3500ml in females, 4500ml in males
What is inspiratory capacity?
Max. volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration
Equals residual volume + vital capacity
Equals tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume
350ml in females, 500ml in males
3500ml in females, 4500ml in males
What are the cells affects in multiple sclerosis?
A. Schwann cells
B. Oligodendrocytes
C. Microglia
D. Astrocytes
What are the cells affects in multiple sclerosis?
A. Schwann cells
B. Oligodendrocytes
C. Microglia
D. Astrocytes
Which one of these is the cell type of acoustic neuromas?
A. Schwann cells
B. Oligodendrocytes
C. Microglia
D. Astrocytes
Which one of these is the cell type of acoustic neuromas?
A. Schwann cells
B. Oligodendrocytes
C. Microglia
D. Astrocytes
A 55-year-old men presents with fever, shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain.
What is shown in his CXR?
Right sided Pleural effusion
Right middle lobe consolidation
Right lower lobe consolidation
Asbestosis
R.sided collapsed lung
A 55-year-old men presents with fever, shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain.
What is shown in his CXR?
Right sided Pleural effusion
Right middle lobe consolidation
Right lower lobe consolidation
Asbestosis
R.sided collapsed lung
A 62-year-old man is investigated for increasing shortness-of-breath.
Pulmonary fibrosis
COPD
Cancer
Heart failure
A 62-year-old man is investigated for increasing shortness-of-breath.
Pulmonary fibrosis
COPD
Cancer
Heart failure
A 22 year old boy present to A&E, after been stabbed in the chest, with acute shortness of breath and hypotension.
L.sided tension pneumothorax
R.sided consolidation
R.sided tension pneumothorax
Normal lung
A 22 year old boy present to A&E, after been stabbed in the chest, with acute shortness of breath and hypotension.
L.sided tension pneumothorax
R.sided consolidation
R.sided tension pneumothorax
Normal lung
What is the life threatening abnormality?
A - Tension pneumothorax
B - Pneumoperitoneum
C - Pneumobilia
D - Pulmonary oedema
What is the life threatening abnormality?
A - Tension pneumothorax
B - Pneumoperitoneum
C - Pneumobilia
D - Pulmonary oedema
A 55 year old male presents to his GP with a progressive exertional dyspnoea and a persistent dry cough. X-ray was taken.
Pleural effusion
Consolidation
Pulmonary fibrosis
Cardiomegaly
A 55 year old male presents to his GP with a progressive exertional dyspnoea and a persistent dry cough. X-ray was taken.
Pleural effusion
Consolidation
Pulmonary fibrosis
Cardiomegaly
What structure is the arrow pointing to?
A) Adenocarcinoma
B) Central vein
C) Bile duct
D) Hepatic artery
What structure is the arrow pointing to?
A) Adenocarcinoma
B) Central vein
C) Bile duct
D) Hepatic artery
A foetal ultrasound identifies the following, what is the likely diagnosis?
A – Gastroschisis
B – Myelomengocele
C – Omphalocele
D – Placental abruption
E - Spina bifida occulta
A foetal ultrasound identifies the following, what is the likely diagnosis?
A – Gastroschisis
B – Myelomengocele
C – Omphalocele
D – Placental abruption
E - Spina bifida occulta
Gastroschisis would be everywhere
Identify A:
A – Membranous urethra
B – Ischiocavernosus
C – Transverse perineal muscles
D – Bulbospongiosum
E - Puborectalis
A – Membranous urethra
B – Ischiocavernosus
C – Transverse perineal muscles
D – Bulbospongiosum
E - Puborectalis
A – Hepatic artery proper
B – Gastroduodenal artery
C – Splenic artery
D – Left gastric artery
E – Right gastric artery
A – Hepatic artery proper
Subfalcine
Insula
Truncal ataxia
Obturator
What are the boundaries of the femoral triangle? [3]
B - thalamus
C
Omphalocele
IMA
Hydrocephalus
Nav 1.7
Graphesthesia – recognising movements on skin
