LOCO5 Flashcards

1
Q

Define crush injury [1] and crush syndrome [1]

A

Crush injury:
* Injury caused as a result of direct physical crushing of the muscles due to something heavy.

Crush syndrome:
* Also termed rhabdomyolysis, involves a series of metabolic changes produced due to an injury of the skeletal muscles of such a severity as to cause a disruption of cellular integrity and release of its contents into the circulation.

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2
Q

Healing time

Define what clinical union is [1]

Define what radiological union [1]

A

Clinical union:
* the bones move as one and can be tender when stressed

Radiological union:
* Bridging callus formation
* Fracture line is often still present
* Remodelling

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3
Q

What is are early [4] and late [3] complication to soft tissue from trauma?

A

Early:
* Plaster sores
* Infection
* Neurovascular injury
* Compartment syndrome

Late:
* Tendon rupture
* Nerve compression
* Volkmann contracture

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4
Q

Define volkman contracture [1]

A

Volkmann contracture is a deformity of the hand, fingers, and wrist caused by injury to the muscles of the forearm.

The condition is also called Volkmann ischemic contracture.

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5
Q

What triad of things are you looking for with a fat embolism? [3]

A

Lung involement: causes hypoxaemia
Brain involvement: fat droplets get lodged in white matter in brain
Petachie: droplets get stuck in vessels and cause haemorrhage

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6
Q

What are the 6Ps of compartment syndrome? [6]

Which one is early? [1] and which is late? [1]

A

Pale
Pulseless
Parenthesis: first stage
Pain
Paralysis: late stage
Polar

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7
Q

How would a S. aureus infection appear in culture? [1]

A

Appears as grape like clusters, on trypticase soy agar plate produces yellow pigment: staphlyoxanthin

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8
Q

Why does acute blood born osteomyelitis affect children? [2]

A

Have a very rich blood supply to the bones, especially the metaphyseal ends of the long bones as this is where the growth plate is

The capillary loops near the metaphysis have slow flow/sluggish flow due to a rich blood supply here, meaning they are more at risk for bacterial invasion of the bone from the blood here

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9
Q

Describe how osteomyelitis causes abscesses to grow

A
  • Bacteria enters the bone, it commonly lodges just below the epiphyseal growth plate
  • Bone produces new bone around the bacterial infection to try and wall off and contain the bacteria in one location, however it walls it off yet this cannot be accessed by antibiotics as it is walled off.
  • Can cause bone to die
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10
Q

Common consequences of osetomeylitis? [2]
Rare consequences of osetomeylitis? [2]

A

Common:
* Local bone loss
* Persistent drainage through sinuses

Rare
* Squamous cell carcinoma
* Amyloidosis

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11
Q

Risk factors for osteomyelitis? [6]

A

Age
Malnutrition
Impairment of local vascular blood supply:
* Diabetes mellitus
* Venous stasis
* Radiation fibrosis (radiation therapy damaging blood vessels)
* Sickle cell disease (due to crisis)

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12
Q

Describe how you diagnose osteomyelitis [4]

How does it appear on ultrasound? [2]

A

(same as SA)
Local non-specific pain
Elevated neutrophil count (< 50% of cases)
Elevated ESR

Ultrasound:
* Cortical thinning
* Inflamation
* Periosteal lifiting: abscess lifting it off

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13
Q

How do you treat chronic osteomyelitis? [5]

A

Puncture drainage if abscessed

Surgical debridement

Reconstruct bone (allograft/ autograft)

Antibiotics (4-6wks, at least 2 IV):
* Vancomyocin cement beads
* Flucoxallin (gram +ve)
* Clindamycin
* Piperacillin
* Ciprofloxacilin

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14
Q

How do you investigate for chronic osteomyelitis? [3]

A

MRI:
* Bone scintigraphy if MRI not available or suspicion of multifocal osteomyelitis - radiation that shows reactive bone

  • Bone biopsy
  • Blood samples
  • Radiography
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15
Q

Why does joint infection occur when giving prosthetic bone / joint replacements occur? [2]

Where does it occur? [2]

A

Occurs in osseous tissue adjacent to prosthesis:
* bone cement interface
* bone contiguous with prosthesis (cementless devices)

Results from:
* local inoculation at surgery or post-op spread from wound sepsis
* haematogenous spread

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16
Q

Name an organism that cause septic arthritis for each organism type of bacteria

Gram positive cocci [1]

Gram positive bacilli [1]

Gram negative cocci: [1]

Gram negative bacilli [1]

A

Gram positive cocci: staphylococcus aureus

Gram positive bacilli: clostridium sp

Gram negative cocci: Neisseria gonorrhoea

Gram negative bacilli: Escherichia coli, pseudomonas aeruginosa, haemophilus influenza

17
Q

What is sequestrum in chronic osteomyelitis? [1]

What is Involucrum in chronic osteomyelitis? [1]

A

Sequestrum: fragment of necrosed bone that has become separated from surrounding tissue

Involucrum: covering or sheath that contains a sequestrum of bone

18
Q

Which of the following is a fibrous ligament

achilles ligament
deltoid ligament
spring ligament
patella ligament

A

spring ligament

19
Q

Which of the following is associated with enthesitis

RA
OA
Ankylosing sponditlitis
Gout

A

Which of the following is associated with enthesitis

RA
OA
Ankylosing sponditlitis
Gout

20
Q

Unloading by temporary paralysis is most beneficial for which type of tendons?

Long tendons that undergo tendon-bone healing
Short tendons that undergo tendon-bone healing
Long tendons that undergo flexor tendon healing
Short tendons that undergo flexor tendon healing

A

Short tendons that undergo tendon-bone healing

21
Q

Name the condition for pain at the tendon at the arrow [1]

A

De Quervain’s tenosynovitis

22
Q

Jaccoud arthropathy is a deforming non-erosive arthropathy characterized by ulnar deviation of the 2nd to 5th fingers with metacarpophalangeal joint subluxation.

Which of the following is it associated with

A
23
Q

Which pathogen causes hot tub folliculitis? [1]

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

24
Q

What is cellulitis in the face called? [1]

How does it differ to cellulitis in location? [1]

Most common pathogen? [1]

A

Erysipelas (cellulitis of the face) but just in the dermis and not in subcutaneous fat

Streptococcus pyogenes

25
Q

What is this skin infection? [1]

Which pathogen causes this? [1]

A

Scalded skin syndrome:
Staphylococcus aureus

26
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of scalded skin syndrome [2]

A

Exotoxins are proteases that destroy desmosomes holding keratinocytes in granulosum and spinosum layers together:

Causes widespread fluid filled blisters that easily break

27
Q

Therapy for Necrotising fascitis? [3]

A

Treatment:
* Surgical debridement
* Empiric antibiotics
* Hyperbaric oxygen (Add on therapy)

28
Q

Treatment for HPV: viral warts and veruccas? [5]

A

Topical salicylic acid
**Fluorouracil cream **
Cryosurgery
Surgical curettage
Laser treatment (CO2 laser 582nm)

29
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of Pityriasis versicolour [1]

Which populations does it impact more? [1]

A

Overgrowth of commensal yeast Pityrosporum orbiculare; young adults, brown/pink scaly patches, hypopigmented if suntanned

Affects young adults and slightly more men than women:

It is not contagious infection is not due to poor hygiene usually occurs in warmer months white, salmon or light brown patches chest,back, arms and legs

More common in hot humid climates and only affects people that sweat heavily

Often clears during the winter months and reappears each summer

30
Q

Describe what Postherpetic neuralgia (PHN) is [2]

A

Unpredictable complication of varicella zoster virus- (VZV-) induced herpes zoster (HZ) which often occurs in elderly and immunocompromised persons

The main symptom of post-herpetic neuralgia is intermittent or continuous nerve pain in an area of your skin previously affected by shingles.

31
Q

Treatment for leprosy? [3]

A

Rifampicin, dapsone and clofazimine

32
Q

Which imaging technique is preferred in diagnosing DDH in young patients?

MRI
Ultrasound
X-ray
CT

A

Ultrasound

33
Q

State what the acetabular angle should be for each of the following ages?

0 - 1 year old < []
1 > 4 year old < []
> 4 year old < []

A

The acetabular angle should decrease with age:

0 - 1 year old < 34
1 > 4 year old < 28
> 4 year old < 25

34
Q

DDH:

What acetabular angles would correct with splintage [1] and would require surgery [1]

A

An angle of < 45 deg will spontaneously correct with splintage, whereas angle of > 60 deg will usually require surgery.

35
Q

Describe how you would manage CDH in a

Newborn [1]

6-18 months [2]

A

Newborn
* Splintage in abduction (Pavlik harness, Von Rosen splint)

6 - 18 months
* Closed reduction – Traction, Splintage
* Open reduction and Splintage

36
Q

Ankle arthrodesis is the fusion of the [] most commonly performed for end-stage arthritis of the joint.

A

Ankle arthrodesis is the fusion of the tibiotalar joint most commonly performed for end-stage arthritis of the joint.

37
Q

State the effect of:

Barlow test [1]
Ortalini test [1]

What are positive results for each test? [2]

A

Barlow test:
* dislocates / subluxes the hip
* Positive if the hip can be popped out of the socket with this maneuver.

Ortalini test:
* if the hip was dislocated, a distinctive clunk will be heard as the hip relocates.

38
Q

Name this apparatus being used [1]

What pathology is it treating? [1]

What ages would this be used for? [1]

A

Pavlik harness: treats CDH for newborns - 6 months

39
Q

Name this apparatus being used [1]

What pathology is it treating? [1]

What ages would this be used for? [1]

A

Von Rosen splint: CDH between newborn - 6 months