BB EOYS6 Flashcards

1
Q

If in A&E and a TIA occurs, which antiplatelet would you prescribe? [1]

A

Clopidogrel

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2
Q

Vestibular system

Which of the following is most sensitive to vertical acceleration when sensing movement?

Utricle
Crista
Saccle
Ampulla

A

Which of the following is most sensitive to vertical acceleration when sensing movement?

Utricle
Crista
Saccle
Ampulla

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3
Q

Which of the following is most sensitive to horizontal acceleration when sensing movement?

Utricle
Crista
Saccle
Ampulla

A

Which of the following is most sensitive to horizontal acceleration when sensing movement?

Utricle
Crista
Saccle
Ampulla

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4
Q

Meniere’s disease is associated with

A. loss of vestibular hair cells

B. damage to the vestibular nuclei

C. damage to cranial nerve VIII

D. damage to Scarpa’s ganglion

E. excess endolymph in the membranous labyrinth

A

Meniere’s disease is associated with

A. loss of vestibular hair cells

B. damage to the vestibular nuclei

C. damage to cranial nerve VIII

D. damage to Scarpa’s ganglion

E. excess endolymph in the membranous labyrinth

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5
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding vestibular nuclei?

A. There are six

B. They are located beneath the floor of the third ventricle

C. They receive afferent fibers from the spinal ganglion

D. They project only to the cerebellum

E. They are connected to the 3rd, 4th, and 6th cranial nerve nuclei by the medial longitudinal fasciculus

A

Which of the following is correct regarding vestibular nuclei?

A. There are six

B. They are located beneath the floor of the third ventricle

C. They receive afferent fibers from the spinal ganglion

D. They project only to the cerebellum

E. They are connected to the 3rd, 4th, and 6th cranial nerve nuclei by the medial longitudinal fasciculus

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6
Q

Which sensory receptor is most sensitive to angular acceleration?

A. Crista
B. Utricle

C. Saccule

D. Organ of Corti

A

Which sensory receptor is most sensitive to angular acceleration?

A. Crista
B. Utricle

C. Saccule

D. Organ of Corti

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7
Q

Linear acceleration is transduced in the:

A. Cupula

B. Cristae

C. Maculae

D. Organ of Corti

E. Scarpa’s ganglion

A

Linear acceleration is transduced in the:

A. Cupula

B. Cristae

C. Maculae: the maculae are more sensitive to linear, not angular acceleration

D. Organ of Corti

E. Scarpa’s ganglion

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8
Q

Make the best match between the below listed condition and the visual field defect. Match: occlusional of the left posterior cerebral artery

A. Contralesional superior quadranopia with macular sparing

B. Contralesional inferior quadranopia with macular sparing

C. Contralesional homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

D. Bitemporal hemianopia

E. Inability to recognize objects or colors

A

Make the best match between the below listed condition and the visual field defect. Match: occlusional of the left posterior cerebral artery

A. Contralesional superior quadranopia with macular sparing

B. Contralesional inferior quadranopia with macular sparing

C. Contralesional homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

There will be macular sparing because the caudal and lateral striate cortex receives a collateral blood supply from branches of the middle cerebral artery

D. Bitemporal hemianopia

E. Inability to recognize objects or colors

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9
Q

Which of the basal ganglia nuclei receive direct cortical input?

A. Claustrum and amygdala.

B. Centromedian nucleus and subthalamic nucleus.

C. Substantia nigra pars compacta and globus pallidus external.

D. Globus pallidus internal and substantia nigra pars reticulata.

E. Caudate and putamen

A

Which of the basal ganglia nuclei receive direct cortical input?

A. Claustrum and amygdala.

B. Centromedian nucleus and subthalamic nucleus.

C. Substantia nigra pars compacta and globus pallidus external.

D. Globus pallidus internal and substantia nigra pars reticulata.

E. Caudate and putamen

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10
Q

The spinocerebellum contains the…

A. vermis and intermediate zone of the anterior and posterior lobes.

B. Vermal and floccular parts of the flocculonodular lobe.

C. Lateral portions of the cerebellum.

D. Posterior lobe and interposed nuclei.

E. Anterior lobe and dentate nuclei.

A

The spinocerebellum contains the…

A. vermis and intermediate zone of the anterior and posterior lobes.

B. Vermal and floccular parts of the flocculonodular lobe.

C. Lateral portions of the cerebellum.

D. Posterior lobe and interposed nuclei.

E. Anterior lobe and dentate nuclei.

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11
Q

The lateral vestibular nuclei are functionally analogous to the…

A. Red nucleus

B. Purkinje cells

C. Basal ganglia

D. Thalamus

E. Deep cerebellar nuclei

A

The lateral vestibular nuclei are functionally analogous to the…

A. Red nucleus

B. Purkinje cells

C. Basal ganglia

D. Thalamus

E. Deep cerebellar nuclei

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12
Q

The diagnosis “Definite Alzheimer’s Disease” is established by:

A. autopsy of the patient’s brain
B. behavioral analysis
C. PET analysis
D. CAT analysis
E. MRI analysis

A

The diagnosis “Definite Alzheimer’s Disease” is established by:

A. autopsy of the patient’s brain
B. behavioral analysis
C. PET analysis
D. CAT analysis
E. MRI analysis

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13
Q

Which of the following is not a visible boundary of the hypothalamus in a hemisected brain?

A. The median eminence

B. The mammillary body
C. The optic chiasm
D. The internal capsule
E. The anterior commisure

A

Which of the following is not a visible boundary of the hypothalamus in a hemisected brain?

A. The median eminence

B. The mammillary body
C. The optic chiasm
D. The internal capsule
E. The anterior commisure

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14
Q

The hypothalamic sulcus is the rostral continuation of what anatomical feature of he brainstem?

A. The tuberculum cinereum

B. The stria medullaris
C. The sulcus limitans
D. The lateral sulcus
E. The dorsal paramedian sulcus

A

Which of the following hypothalamic nuclei is most important for encoding the set point for daily circadian rhythms?

A. supraoptic nucleus

B. arcuate nucleus
C. suprachiasmatic nucleus
D. preoptic anterior nucleus
E. paraventricular nucleus

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15
Q

Inhibition of ACTH secretion by cortisol is an example of what type of neuroendocrine feedback loop?

A. ultra-short loop feedback

B. short-loop feedback
C. indirect long-loop feedback
D. direct long-loop feedback
E. indirect ultra-long loop feedback

A

Inhibition of ACTH secretion by cortisol is an example of what type of neuroendocrine feedback loop?

A. ultra-short loop feedback

B. short-loop feedback
C. indirect long-loop feedback
D. direct long-loop feedback
E. indirect ultra-long loop feedback

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16
Q

Leptin receptors are most abundant in which of the following hypothalamic nuclei?

A. paraventricular

B. periventricular
C. preoptic/anterior
D. ventromedial
E. arcuate

A

Leptin receptors are most abundant in which of the following hypothalamic nuclei?

A. paraventricular

B. periventricular
C. preoptic/anterior
D. ventromedial
E. arcuate

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17
Q

A successful new diet drug might have which of the following effects in the hypothalamus?

A. Activates NPY receptors

B. Blocks αMSH receptors
C. Activates leptin receptors
D. Stimulates AGRP synthesis
E. Reduces CART synthesis

A

A successful new diet drug might have which of the following effects in the hypothalamus?

A. Activates NPY receptors

B. Blocks αMSH receptors
C. Activates leptin receptors
D. Stimulates AGRP synthesis
E. Reduces CART synthesis

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18
Q

The postcommissural fornix projects to which structure?

A. Substantia innominata.

B. Mammillary bodies
C. Ventromedial nuclei of the hypothalamus
D. Nucleus basalis of Meynert
E. Anterior cingulate cortex.

A

The postcommissural fornix projects to which structure?

A. Substantia innominata.

B. Mammillary bodies
C. Ventromedial nuclei of the hypothalamus
D. Nucleus basalis of Meynert
E. Anterior cingulate cortex.

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19
Q

Which structure is NOT part of the Papez circuit?

A. Anterior nucleus of the thalamus
B. Ventral nucleus of the thalamus
C. Cingulate gyrus
D. Hippocampus
E. Mammillary bodies

A

Which structure is NOT part of the Papez circuit?

A. Anterior nucleus of the thalamus

B. Ventral nucleus of the thalamus
C. Cingulate gyrus
D. Hippocampus
E. Mammillary bodies

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20
Q

A 50-year old patient with recent damage to the hippocampus from a stroke would likely have all of the following deficits EXCEPT:

A. Difficulty learning new facts

B. Difficulty describing a recent event

C. Difficulty learning a new vocabulary word

D. Difficulty recalling a childhood memory

E. Difficulty remembering a face

A

A 50-year old patient with recent damage to the hippocampus from a stroke would likely have all of the following deficits EXCEPT:

A. Difficulty learning new facts

B. Difficulty describing a recent event

C. Difficulty learning a new vocabulary word

D. Difficulty recalling a childhood memory

The hippocampus is involved in the formation of new memories, but not in the storage of old memories after they have been consolidated.

E. Difficulty remembering a face

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21
Q

Short term memories can involve all of the following processes EXCEPT:

A. Regulation of gene expression

B. Activation of second-messenger systems

C. Modulation of membrane channels

D. Modulation of transmitter release

A

Short term memories can involve all of the following processes EXCEPT:

A. Regulation of gene expression

Regulation of gene expression is associated with long-term memories and not short-term memories.

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22
Q

Classical conditioning is an example of:

A. Semantic memory

B. Episodic memory

C. Implicit memory
D. Declarative memory

E. Nonassociative memory

A

Classical conditioning is an example of:

A. Semantic memory

B. Episodic memory

C. Implicit memory
D. Declarative memory

E. Nonassociative memory

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23
Q

A 43-year old cerebral vascular accident patient was diagnosed as having persistent unilateral spatial agnosia or “visual neglect”. What cerebral region was most likely involved?

A. Non-dominant parietal-occipital cortex

B. Dominant parietal-occipital cortex
C. Dorsal prefrontal cortex
D. Dominant temporal-occipital cortex
E. Non-dominant temporal-occipital cortex

A

A 43-year old cerebral vascular accident patient was diagnosed as having persistent unilateral spatial agnosia or “visual neglect”. What cerebral region was most likely involved?

A. Non-dominant parietal-occipital cortex

B. Dominant parietal-occipital cortex
C. Dorsal prefrontal cortex
D. Dominant temporal-occipital cortex
E. Non-dominant temporal-occipital cortex

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24
Q

A delta fibers transmit primarily

A. burning diffuse pain information

B. pricking localized pain information

C. aching diffuse pain information

D. visceral pain information

E. phantom pain information

A

A delta fibers transmit primarily

A. burning diffuse pain information

B. pricking localized pain information This answer is CORRECT!

A delta fibers carry sharp/pricking pain, all the others are carried by C fibers

C. aching diffuse pain information

D. visceral pain information

E. phantom pain information

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25
Q

This photo shows the strucutres inside of a semi-circular canal.

Label A-C

A

A: ampulla
B: cupulla
C: crista

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26
Q

This photo shows the strucutres inside of a semi-circular canal.

Label A-E

A

A: ampulla
B: endolymph
C: membranous labyrinth
D: perilymph
E: bony labyrinth

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27
Q

Ampulla
Hair cells
Endolymph
Crista
Cupulla

A

Ampulla
Hair cells
Endolymph
Crista
Cupulla

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28
Q

Whta is the arrow pointing to
Ampulla
Hair cells
Endolymph
Crista
Cupulla

A

Ampulla
Hair cells
Endolymph
Crista
Cupulla

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29
Q

Which artery undergoing stenosis is attributable to 10% of all stroke? [1]

A

Carotid artery

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30
Q

Vestiublar system anatomy:

The vestibular system is connected with the spinal cord via which tracts? [2]

The vestibular system is connected with the cerebellum via the which lobe [1] and which nucleus [1]?

The vestibular system is connected to which CNs? [3]

A

The vestibular system is connected with the spinal cord via which medial and lateral vestibulospinal tracts

The vestibular system is connected with the cerebellum via the floccculonodular lobe and fastigial nucleus

The vestibular system is connected to CN III, IV & VI

31
Q

Which of the following numbers depicted the vestibular tracts [1]

A

2c

32
Q

Label A-F

A

A: (Macula of) utricle
B: (Macula of) saccule
C: cochlea
D: posterior semilunar canal
E: Stapes
F: Malleus and incus

33
Q

Name and describe the function of the two types of solution found within the vesitubular apparatus.

A

Endolymph
* inside the semicircular canals and moves, and provides most of the signalling for the vestibular hair cells

Perilymph
* fills the scalae tympani and vestibuli.

34
Q

What is the difference in ion concentration between endolymph and perilymph? [2]

A

Perilymph: has similar concentrations of ions to plasma; high sodium and low potassium

Endolymph: extremely low sodium and high potassium

35
Q

Describe how the semicircular canals function to detect angular acceleration/deceleration of the head

A

There are three semicircular canals: anterior, posterior, and lateral. located in a different plane and each connect to an ampulla (widening of the canal) which conncects to the utricle

Within each ampulla there are hair cells and cristae with a gelatinous cupula above the hair cells * crista

Each canal is a continuous endolymph filled loop, when the head rotates endolymph displaces the gelitinous cupula and excites the hair cells causing depolarisation or hyperpolarisation

Movement towards the kinocilium causes the opening of channels and a subsequent depolarization of the cell. Movement away from the kinocilium causes the closure of channels leading to hyperpolarization of nerve fibers.

36
Q

Describe the function of the utricle / saccle [1]

What is the macula of the utricle and saccle and what substance does it contain? [2]

A

Saccule and utricle is to keep the head vertically oriented with respect to gravity

Macula of utricle / saccle: cilia of hair cells embedded in a gelatinous mass.

Contains calcium carbonate crystals call otoliths

37
Q

What is the difference in function betweenthe utricle and saccule? [2]

Describe how the saccule and utricle keep the head vertically oriented with respect to gravity [3]

A

Utricle: longitudinal acceleration,
Saccule: acceleration along the vertical axis

Mechanism:
* otoliths provide the inertia, so that when movement to one side occurs, the otolith-gel mass causes the hair cells to deviate

  • The hair cells are excited, or inhibited, by bending of the stereocilia towards or away from the kinocilium, just as the hair cells in the semi-circular canals
  • Linear acceleration of the head causes a shear force between the otolithic membrane and macula, causing displacement of the hair bundles.
38
Q

Describe how the VOR works

A

Automatically sensing head rotations and elicits a compensatory adjustment in the opposite direction of the eyes

Causes innervation on the medial-lateral rectus muscles (adduction / abduction), the inferior rectus-superior oblique pair (depression and extorsion, elevation and intorsion) and the superior rectus-inferior oblique pair (elevation and intorsion, depression and extorsion via the ascending medial longitudinal fasciulus

39
Q

The axonal connections between the vestibular and oculomotor nuclei that mediate the VOR travel in a tract called the []

A

The axonal connections between the vestibular and oculomotor nuclei that mediate the VOR travel in a tract called the medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF)

40
Q

Central pathways of the vestibular system

Where do the superior and medial vesibitular subnuclei recieve input from? [1]

Where do the lateral, inferior and medial vesibitular subnuclei receive inputs from? [1]

A

superior and medial: semi-circular canals

lateral, inferior and medial: saccule and utricle (together aka maculae)

41
Q

Where does input from the: semi-circular canals to the superior and medial vestibular subnuclei project to? [4]

Where does input from the: saccule and utricle to the lateral, inferior and medial vesibitular subnucleii project to? [3]

A

Semi-circular goes to ocular nuclei and reticular formation, gaze centres and tectal nuclei

(double check which pathways these are sent via)

Saccule and utricle goes to spinal motor nuclei via the lateral and medial VSTs, which are involved in postural balance

42
Q

The superior and lateral vestibular nuclei also interact with which structure in the brain [] ?

A

The superior and lateral vestibular nuclei also interact with the flocculo-nodular lobe of the cerebellum

43
Q

Describe the neuronal connections that determine our conscious appreciation of equilibrium and head position.

A

Second order vestibular neurones project to the contralateral ventral posterior nucleus of the thalamus, and from there the somatosensory cortex and posterior parietal cortex.

44
Q

What is the name given to the region of the cortex where there is convergence of the vestibular and proprioceptive signals?

What is important to rememver about this?

A

Parietal insular vestibular cortex

Remember that this is responsible for the contralateral side of the body/limb.

45
Q

Describe the features of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) [1]

Describe the physiopathlogy behind BPPV? [1]

A

A brief, 60 second, intense sensation of vertigo that occurs because of a specific positional change of the head

Dislodged otolith from the utricle, which then gets stuck in the ampulla, making it sensitive to gravity.

In certain positions, the otolith can stimulate the cupula, causing abnormal sensations. These persist until the crystals relocate elsewhere or disperse

46
Q

Describe the symptoms of Menieres disease [3]

Describe the pathophysiology of Menieres disease

A

Inner ear fluid balance disorder that causes episodes of vertigo, fluctuating hearing loss, tinnitus and the sensation of fullness in the ear

Caused by an imbalance between the production and reabsorption of endolymph, which eventually ruptures the membranes, causing changes in ion concentration of the solute, leading to depolarisation of the endolymph fluid, ultimately killing the hair cells.

47
Q

An infection to which structure causes a labyrinthitis? [1]

Name two symptoms [2]

A
  • Labyrinthitis is an infection or inflammation of the semi-circular canals causing dizziness and loss of balance
48
Q

What is vestibular neuritis? [1]

What is a perilymph fistula? [1]

A
  • Vestibular neuritis is a viral infection of the vestibular nerve
  • Perilymph fistula is a leakage of inner ear fluid into the middle ear. It can occur after head injury or physical exertion, or is idiopathic
49
Q

Describe 6 tests that can be conducted to test for balance disorders [6]

A
  • Hallpike’s Manoeuvre: With the patient lying in supine position, the head is lowered quickly below the horizontal plane of the table and turned to one side. The patient then sits up and the test is repeated, turning the head to the other side. If there is vestibular dysfunction, the patient will develop nystagmus and complain of vertigo within 10 seconds of head movement
  • Audiometry
  • The caloric test: weak nystagmus or the absence of nystagmus may indicate an inner ear disorder. The way to remember the correct response is COWS: cold water in the ear should cause the nystagmus to be away from this ear, whereas warm water causes the nystagmus to be flickering towards this ear
  • Imaging of the head and brain
  • Posturography: this requires the individual to stand on a tilt table, capable of movement within a controlled visual environment. Body sway is recorded in response to movement of the platform and/or visual environment
  • Videonystagmography
  • Electronystagmography
50
Q

Which of the following is caused by ‘imbalance of production and absorbtion of endolymph, which ulitmately can result in tympanic membrane bursting’

benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
labyrinthitis
ménière’s disease
vestibular neuritis
perilymph fistula

A

Which of the following is caused by ‘imbalance of production and absorbtion of endolymph, which ulitmately can result in tympanic membrane bursting’

benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
labyrinthitis
ménière’s disease
vestibular neuritis
perilymph fistula

51
Q

What does this image depict?

benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
labyrinthitis
ménière’s disease
vestibular neuritis
perilymph fistula

A

What does this image depict?

benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
labyrinthitis
ménière’s disease
vestibular neuritis
perilymph fistula

52
Q

What does this image depict?

benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
labyrinthitis
ménière’s disease
vestibular neuritis
perilymph fistula

A

What does this image depict?

benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
labyrinthitis
ménière’s disease
vestibular neuritis
perilymph fistula

53
Q

What is the name for this test of vestibular function / dysfunction? [1]

A

Hallpike’s Manoeuvre:

54
Q

How do you perform Hallpikes manouevre? [1]

A

With the patient lying in supine position, the head is lowered quickly below the horizontal plane of the table and turned to one side.

The patient then sits up and the test is repeated, turning the head to the other side.

If there is vestibular dysfunction, the patient will develop nystagmus and complain of vertigo within 10 seconds of head movement

55
Q

The caloric test assesses the function of which reflex? [1]

A

Vestibular-ocular reflex

56
Q

A 17-year-old female presents with worsening hearing on her right side. The clinician identifies a significant amount of cerumen impaction in the right external auditory canal. The patient is positioned supine, and her head is elevated 30 degrees. The right auditory meatus is irrigated with warm water. After a large piece of cerumen dislodges, the clinician continues to irrigate; however, the patient states she “feels funny.” What will most likely be seen on an ocular exam?

A. Fast beating nystagmus towards the right
B. Fast beating nystagmus towards the left
C. Conjugate eye deviation towards the right
D. Conjugate eye deviation towards the left

A

A 17-year-old female presents with worsening hearing on her right side. The clinician identifies a significant amount of cerumen impaction in the right external auditory canal. The patient is positioned supine, and her head is elevated 30 degrees. The right auditory meatus is irrigated with warm water. After a large piece of cerumen dislodges, the clinician continues to irrigate; however, the patient states she “feels funny.” What will most likely be seen on an ocular exam?

A. Fast beating nystagmus towards the right
B. Fast beating nystagmus towards the left
C. Conjugate eye deviation towards the right
D. Conjugate eye deviation towards the left

57
Q

A 14-year-old female is being evaluated after a high-speed motor vehicle collision. She was unresponsive at the scene and was immediately intubated by EMS for airway protection. Upon arrival at the hospital, she remains unresponsive though she has not required any sedation during transport. She has an intact gag reflex upon suctioning. Which of the following clinical findings is most likely to be present in this patient?

A. Stimulation of the left ear with cold water causes left nystagmus
B. Stimulation of the left ear with cold water causes right nystagmus
C. Stimulation of either ear with cold water causes rotary nystagmus
D. Stimulation of the right ear with warm water causes left nystagmus

A

B. Stimulation of the left ear with cold water causes right nystagmus

This patient has suffered a traumatic brain injury (TBI).
With an intact gag reflex, CN IX and X are intact, as is the vestibulo-ocular reflex (CV VIII and III/IV).
Therefore, one would expect a positive response to caloric testing, which can be remembered by recalling the pneumonic “COWS,” cold opposite, warm same.

58
Q

Label A-C

A

A: ampullae
B: utricle
C: saccle

59
Q

Label A-D

A

A: Ampulla
B: Cupulla
C: Crista
D: Vestibulocochlea nerve

60
Q

Name 3 nociceptive channels and what they are activated by [6]

A

Acid-sensing ion channel (ASIC) channel:
* cation channel activated by pH changes and other stimuli - important in inflammatory response

(TRPM8)channel (cold and menthol receptor 1):
* ion channel activated by cold temperature and cooling agents (menthol).

Transient receptor potential cation channel subfamily V member 1 (TRPV1) channel (capsaicin receptor/vanilloid receptors 1):
* Non-selective cation channel that is activated by temperature, acid, capsaicin, and mustard/wasabi.

61
Q

Which type of Na channel is particularly important for nociceptive function [1]

State the gene that codes this channel [1]

A

Loss of NaV1.7 (sodium channel subunit).

SCN9A gene (encode sodium channel NaV1.7).

62
Q

Loss of NaV1.7 can lead to which disease? [1]

A

Congenital insensitivity to pain (CIP): Rare condition in which individual cannot feel pain so often have wounds, broken bones, health issues not detected.

63
Q

Name a disease if NaV1.7 is overexpressed / gain of function occurs [1]

A

Inherited erythromelalgia (IE): A painful neuropathy involving severe chronic burning pain sensations in hands and feet.

64
Q

Neuropathy pain (loss of sensory fibres)

Name a disease that is caused by insensitivty to pain from a deficit in nerve growth factor [1]

Which gene mutates to create this disease? [1]

A

Congenital insensitivity to pain with anhidrosis (CIPA)

  • TRKA gene codes for TrKA receptor to create nerve growth factor (NGF)
  • NGF is crucial for development of Adelta and C-fibres
65
Q

come back transmission !

A
66
Q

Different sensory neurons have distinct projections in the dorsal horn. State what they are

A

Lamina found within dorsal horn:

Lamina I to V

  • : project deepest - lamina IV & V
  • project middle: lamina I
  • C fibres project into lamina I & II
67
Q

Transmission

Describe the Aδ nociceptor pathway onto the dorsal horn [2]

A

Aδ nociceptor axon projects on to Lamina I via excitatory glutamate synapse on to either NMDA or AMPA receptors

68
Q

Transmission

Describe the C-fibre nociceptor pathway [2]

A

C fibres activate lamina I cells via gluatmata onto excitatory interneurons in lamina II, which then excites lamina I dendrite with glutamate

69
Q

Pathophysiology of ICH

What are potential complications of ICH? [3]

A

herniations (if bleed big enough)
* subfalcine hernia;
* transtentorial hernia (ascending or descending)
* tonsillar hernia

Raise ICP - reduces brain perfusion

Hydrocephalus: blood into ventricles can clog up CSF drainage pathways / cerebral aquaduct is block

70
Q

Management of ICH

What would need to check what medicaton a patient is on and why? [2]

A

Confirm if on aspirin and warfarin & stop.

Warfarin worsens the severity of hemorrhage and dramatically increases the risk of mortality from ICH.

71
Q

Ischaemic stroke pathophysiolgoy

Describe the ischaemic stroke cascade at microscopic level [4]

A

Cellular ischaemia:
- Na / K+ pump failure
- Causes depolarisation
- Causes Ca2+ food in
- Cascade of enzymes that respond to ischaemia (like caspases)
- Causes cell death

72
Q

Which cause of ischaemic stroke increases in younger patients? [1]

A

Carotid dissections

73
Q

Risk factors for stroke?

What are the key medical conditions that increase risk of stroke? [4]

A

Hypertension
Hypercholesteroamia
Diabetes
Cardiac - AF

74
Q

TIA treatment?

A