spine and stroke - Sheet1

Question 1

What is a spinal cord injury (SCI)?

Answer 1

Damage to the bundle of nerves that sends and receives signals from the brain, causing temporary or permanent changes in feeling, movement, and body function.

Question 2

What is the difference between a complete and incomplete SCI?

Answer 2

A complete SCI results in permanent damage to the affected spinal cord area, while an incomplete SCI involves partial damage, with some function retained.

Question 3

Who is at the greatest risk for SCI?

Answer 3

Young adult men, due to higher involvement in risk-taking activities.

Question 4

What are common etiologies of SCI?

Answer 4

Motor vehicle accidents (MVAs), falls, violence, and sports injuries.

Question 5

What is spinal shock?

Answer 5

The complete cessation of spinal cord functions below the injury, causing loss of reflexes, flaccid paralysis, and bladder/rectal control loss.

Question 6

How long can spinal shock last?

Answer 6

Up to 3 months, ending when reflexes return.

Question 7

What is neurogenic shock?

Answer 7

Loss of sympathetic outflow after cervical or upper thoracic spinal injury, leading to hypotension, bradycardia, and poikilothermia.

Question 8

What are the signs of neurogenic shock?

Answer 8

Hypotension, bradycardia, poikilothermia, and altered breathing.

Question 9

What is a primary spinal cord injury?

Answer 9

Initial mechanical trauma and immediate tissue destruction, caused by shearing, compression, or penetration.

Question 10

What is a secondary spinal cord injury?

Answer 10

A cascade of vascular, cellular, and biochemical events after the initial injury, involving edema, ischemia, excitotoxicity, and oxidative damage.

Question 11

What is autonomic hyperreflexia (dysreflexia)?

Answer 11

A life-threatening syndrome caused by massive reflex sympathetic discharge in patients with SCI at T6 or above, leading to a severe cardiovascular response.

Question 12

What are the classic signs of autonomic hyperreflexia?

Answer 12

Hypertension (up to 300 mmHg), bradycardia (30-40 bpm), pounding headache, sweating and flushing above the lesion, and cool/pale skin below the lesion.

Question 13

What are the common manifestations of autonomic hyperreflexia?

Answer 13

Hypertension, blurred vision, nausea, sweating above the lesion, piloerection, and cool skin below the injury.

Question 14

What is a stroke (CVA)?

Answer 14

Abrupt or rapid onset of neurological deficit caused by interference of oxygenated blood supply to the brain.

Question 15

What are the nonmodifiable risk factors for stroke?

Answer 15

Gender, age (older adults), race, and heredity.

Question 16

What are the modifiable risk factors for stroke?

Answer 16

Hypertension, cardiac disease, diabetes, obesity, blood lipid abnormalities, smoking, alcohol use, and diet.

Question 17

What is a transient ischemic attack (TIA)?

Answer 17

A serious warning sign of stroke; 1 in 5 people who have a TIA will have a stroke within 90 days.

Question 18

How quickly does neuronal metabolism alter after blood flow is interrupted?

Answer 18

Within 30 seconds.

Question 19

How long does it take for cellular death to occur in a stroke?

Answer 19

Cellular death occurs in 5 minutes.

Question 20

What are the two main classifications of stroke?

Answer 20

Ischemic stroke (85% of strokes) and hemorrhagic stroke.

Question 21

What is the primary cause of ischemic stroke?

Answer 21

Loss of blood flow leading to loss of oxygen delivery to the brain, caused by thrombotic or embolic events.

Question 22

What is the most common etiology of hemorrhagic stroke?

Answer 22

Hypertension is the most common cause of intracerebral hemorrhage, and a ruptured aneurysm is the most common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage.

Question 23

What are the differences between right-sided and left-sided stroke manifestations?

Answer 23

Right-sided: left hemiplegia, left neglect, spatial-perceptual deficits, impulsiveness, impaired judgment, and denial. Left-sided: right hemiplegia, impaired language, slow and cautious behavior, depression/anxiety, impaired comprehension.

Question 24

What diagnostic tests are used for CVA?

Answer 24

CT scan (<5 minutes for brain imaging) and MRI (better for ischemic strokes, typically used within 12 hours of symptom onset).

Question 25

What is a seizure?

Answer 25

Transient, uncontrolled electrical discharge of neurons in the brain that interrupts normal function.

Question 26

What are some common etiologies of seizures?

Answer 26

Birth injuries, congenital CNS defects, infections, trauma, stroke, metastatic brain tumors, alcohol withdrawal, and hypoglycemia.

Question 27

What are the classifications of seizures?

Answer 27

General (tonic-clonic, absence), focal, and psychogenic.

Question 28

What is epilepsy?

Answer 28

A disorder characterized by recurring seizures.

Question 29

What is status epilepticus?

Answer 29

Continuous seizure activity or rapid consciousness changes between seizures, which is a medical emergency.

Question 30

What is an intracranial aneurysm?

Answer 30

A localized dilation or outpouching of an artery wall, usually located at bifurcations near the circle of Willis.

Question 31

What are common etiologies of intracranial aneurysms?

Answer 31

Atherosclerosis, genetic disorders, poorly controlled hypertension, and poorly controlled diabetes.

Question 32

What are the manifestations of an intracranial aneurysm?

Answer 32

Often asymptomatic until it ruptures, leading to a severe headache and rapid mental status changes.