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Histopathology > Somatic death > Flashcards

Somatic death Flashcards

1
Q

Primary changes during somatic death: failure of circulatory, respiratory, and central nervous systems

A

Primary changes during somatic death (CRC)

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2
Q

Secondary changes after somatic death: Algor mortis, Rigor mortis, Livor mortis, Postmortem clotting, Dessication, Putrefaction, Autolysis

A

Secondary changes after somatic death (ARLP DPA)

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3
Q

Postmortem cooling at a rate of ~7°F/hour

A

Algor mortis

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4
Q

Stiffening of muscles postmortem, starts in the neck and head (2-3 hrs), persists for 3-4 days

A

Rigor mortis

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5
Q

Purplish discoloration of the body due to blood pooling; does not blanch after 10-12 hours

A

Livor mortis

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6
Q

Difference between postmortem lividity and ecchymosis: lividity disappears under pressure, ecchymosis does not

A

Postmortem lividity vs. Ecchymosis

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7
Q

Clot formed after death, RBCs settle from plasma, chicken fat present, assumes vessel shape, rubbery consistency

A

Postmortem clot

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8
Q

Clot formed before death, not detachable from vessels, no chicken fat, seldom assumes vessel shape, granular and friable

A

Antemortem clot

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9
Q

Drying and wrinkling of the anterior chamber of the eye postmortem

A

Dessication

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10
Q

Invasion of tissues by intestinal microorganisms postmortem

A

Putrefaction

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11
Q

Self-digestion of cells due to lysosomal enzyme release; lysosomes are known as the ‘suicide sac’ of the cell

A

Autolysis

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12
Q

Rotting or decomposition of the body by bacterial action

A

Putrefaction

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13
Q

Changes seen in putrefaction: Greenish-blue discoloration due to iron sulfide, muscle softening (autodigestion), corneal retraction, loss of rigor mortis, skin peeling, swelling of face

A

Putrefaction changes

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14
Q

Liberation of hydrolytic enzymes leading to self-digestion of cells, enhanced by putrefactive bacteria; no inflammatory response postmortem

A

Autolysis

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15
Q

Postmortem clot with settling and separation of RBCs from the fluid phase; appearance: Chicken fat (cleared area), Currant jelly (sediment of RBC); assumes blood vessel shape; rubbery consistency

A

Postmortem clot

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16
Q

Ante-mortem clot with tangled fibrin, irregular pattern; does not resemble blood vessels; consistency is granular, not rubbery

A

Ante-mortem clot

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17
Q

Drying and wrinkling of the cornea and anterior chamber postmortem

A

Dessication

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18
Q

1st to describe the 4 signs of inflammation

A

Cornelius Celsus

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19
Q

Redness due to increased blood flow to injury

A

Rubor (Redness)

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20
Q

Heat due to increased blood flow

A

Calor (Heat)

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21
Q

Swelling caused by capillary permeability and fluid extravasation

A

Tumor (Swelling)

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22
Q

Pain due to pressure on sensory nerves

A

Dolor (Pain)

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23
Q

Loss of function caused by destruction of functional units

A

Functio laesa (Loss of function)

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24
Q

Vascular and exudative response involving PMNs transitioning to microphages in tissues

A

Acute inflammation

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25
Q

Intermediate stage between acute and chronic inflammation

A

Subchronic inflammation

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26
Q

Vascular and fibroblastic response involving monocytes transitioning to macrophages in tissues

A

Chronic inflammation

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27
Q

Continuous abnormal proliferation of cells without control or purpose, e.g., leukemia

A

Neoplasia/Tumor

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28
Q

Chronic inflammation characterized by granuloma formation; focal aggregation of activated macrophages transformed into epithelial-like cells with pink cytoplasm, surrounded by lymphocytes and plasma cells

A

Granulomatous inflammation

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29
Q

Examples include syphilis (gummas), TB, leprosy, schistosomiasis, and Bartonella henselae

A

Conditions with granulomas

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30
Q

Resolution of inflammation with no destruction of normal tissue, neutralization of the offending agent, and clearance of mediators and inflammatory cells

A

Simple resolution

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31
Q

Replacement of lost or necrotic tissue with new tissue that is structurally and functionally similar to those destroyed

A

Regeneration

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32
Q

Grading system for tumor differentiation and treatment approach based on the percentage of differentiated and undifferentiated cells

A

Broder’s Classification

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33
Q

75-100% differentiated cells, 0-25% undifferentiated cells; Treatment: Surgery

A

Grade I

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34
Q

50-75% differentiated cells, 25-50% undifferentiated cells; Treatment: Surgery or Radiation

A

Grade II

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35
Q

25-50% differentiated cells, 50-75% undifferentiated cells; Treatment: Radiation

A

Grade III

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36
Q

0-25% differentiated cells, 75-100% undifferentiated cells; Treatment: Radiation

A

Grade IV

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37
Q

Active tumor cells; functional component of the tumor

A

Parenchyma

38
Q

Connective tissue framework of the tumor; supportive component

A

Stroma

39
Q

Based on capacity to produce death: Benign (e.g., mole) or Malignant

A

Types of tumor (1)

40
Q

Based on histologic characteristics: Medullary (parenchyma > stroma) or Scirrhous (stroma > parenchyma)

A

Types of tumor (2)

41
Q

Benign tumors are generally named with the suffix “-oma”

A

Benign tumor naming

42
Q

Malignant tumors include mesenchymal/CT (“-sarcoma”), epithelial (“-carcinoma”), leukemia, and lymphoma

A

Malignant tumor naming

43
Q

Benign tumor of squamous cells

A

Squamous cell papilloma

44
Q

Malignant tumor of squamous cells

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

45
Q

Malignant tumor of hepatocytes

A

Hepatoma/hepatocarcinoma

46
Q

Malignant tumor of melanocytes

A

Melanoma/melanocarcinoma

47
Q

Pregnancy occurring in the Fallopian tube

A

Ectopic pregnancy

48
Q

Size, extent of spread to lymph nodes, +/- metastases; evaluated using TNM system

A

Staging

49
Q

Staging system that includes tumor size (T), lymph node involvement (N), and metastases (M)

A

UICC TNM classification

50
Q

Combines grading (differentiation) and staging (spread)

A

AJCS Grading + Staging

51
Q

Primary tumor; classified by size and local extent

A

T (TNM system)

52
Q

Carcinoma in situ

A

Tis

53
Q

Non-invasive tumor

A

Ta

54
Q

Cannot be evaluated

A

Tx

55
Q

No evidence of tumor

A

T0

56
Q

Lesion <2 cm

A

T1

57
Q

T1 subclassifications: <0.5 cm (T1a), <1 cm (T1b), <2 cm (T1c)

A

T1 subclasses

58
Q

Lesion 2-5 cm with muscle invasion

A

T2

59
Q

Tumor invading skin/chest wall, T3a = deep muscle, T3b = through organ

A

T3

60
Q

Tumor invasion/fixation, T4a = adjacent organ, T4b = fixation (e.g., bladder, colonic wall, edema in breast)

A

T4

61
Q

Regional lymph node involvement

A

N (TNM system)

62
Q

Not evaluable lymph node involvement

A

Nx

63
Q

No regional lymph nodes involved

A

N0

64
Q

1 mobile regional lymph node involved

A

N1

65
Q

Multiple mobile regional lymph nodes involved

A

N2

66
Q

Fixed regional lymph node involved

A

N3

67
Q

Beyond regional lymph node involvement

A

N4

68
Q

Distant metastasis classification

A

M (TNM system)

69
Q

No evidence of metastases

A

M0

70
Q

Distant metastases are present

A

M1

71
Q

Distant metastases not evaluable

A

Mx

72
Q

Compound tumors; may contain hair, teeth, bones; ‘monstrous tumors’ (Greek)

A

Teratomas

73
Q

Fibroblast-derived benign tumor

A

Fibroma

74
Q

Chondroblast-derived benign tumor

A

Chondroma

75
Q

Osteoblast-derived benign tumor

A

Osteoma

76
Q

Lipoblast-derived benign tumor

A

Lipoma

77
Q

Epithelial tumor with glandular pattern

A

Adenoma

78
Q

Epithelial tumor with finger-like or warty projections

A

Papilloma

79
Q

Epithelial tumor forming a large cystic mass

A

Cystadenoma

80
Q

Malignant mesenchymal/connective tissue tumor

A

Sarcomas

81
Q

Malignant fibrous tissue tumor

A

Fibrosarcoma

82
Q

Malignant cartilage tissue tumor

A

Chondrosarcoma

83
Q

Malignant bone tissue tumor

A

Osteosarcoma

84
Q

Malignant blood-forming tissue tumors

A

Leukemias/Lymphomas

85
Q

Malignant epithelial tumor

A

Carcinomas

86
Q

Malignant glandular epithelial tumor

A

Adenocarcinoma

87
Q

Malignant squamous epithelial tumor

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

88
Q

Most reliable feature of malignancy, allowing cancer cells to enter vessels and cavities for spread

A

Metastasis

89
Q

Metastasis through penetration of natural body cavities, often in the peritoneal cavity

A

Seeding within body cavities

90
Q

Most common pathway of spread for carcinomas

A

Lymphatic spread

91
Q

Most common pathway of spread for sarcomas

A

Hematogenous spread

Histopathology (30 decks)

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