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Step 1 > Rapid Review: Classic/Relevant Treatments > Flashcards

Rapid Review: Classic/Relevant Treatments Flashcards

1
Q

Absence seizures

A

Ethosuximide

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2
Q

Acute gout attack

A

NSAIDs, colchicine

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3
Q

Acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3)

A

All-trans retinoic acid

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4
Q

ADHD

A

Methylphenidate, amphetamines

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5
Q

Alcohol abuse

A

AA + disulfiram for patient and Al-anon for family

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6
Q

Alcohol withdrawal

A

benzodiazepines

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7
Q

Anorexia

A

SSRIs

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8
Q

Anticoagulation during pregnancy

A

Heparin

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9
Q

Arrhythmia in damaged cardiac tissue

A

Class IB antiarrhythmic (lidocaine, mexiletine, tocainide)

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10
Q

B12 deficiency

A

Vitamin B12 supplementation (work up cause with Schilling test)

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11
Q

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

A

Tamsulosin, finasteride

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12
Q

Bipolar disorder

A

Lithium, valproate, carbamazepine, lamotrigine (mood stabilizers)

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13
Q

Breast cancer in postmenopausal women

A

Aromatase inhibitor (anastrozole)

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14
Q

Buerger’s disease

A

Smoking cessation

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15
Q

Bulimia

A

SSRIs

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16
Q

Candida albicans

A

Amphotericin B (systemic), nystatin (oral thrush, esophagitis)

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17
Q

Carcinoid syndrome

A

Octreotide

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18
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis

A

Doxycycline (+ ceftriaxone for gonorrhea coinfection), erythromycin eye drops (prophylaxis in infants)

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19
Q

Chronic gout

A

Probenecid (underexcretor), allupurinol (overproducer)

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20
Q

Chronic hepatitis

A

IFN-alpha

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21
Q

CML

A

Imatinib

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22
Q

Clostidium botulinum

A

Antitoxin

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23
Q

Clostridium difficile

A

Oral metronidazole; if refractory, oral vancomycin

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24
Q

Clostridium tetani

A

Antitoxin + vaccine booster + diazepam

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25
Q

Crohn’s disease

A

Corticosteroids, infliximab

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26
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans

A

Fluconazole (prophylaxis in AIDS patients)

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27
Q

Cyclophosphamide-induced hemorrhagic crisis

A

Mesna

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28
Q

Cystic fibrosis

A

N-acetylcysteine and antipseudomonal prophylaxis (tobramycin/azithromycin)

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29
Q

Cytomegalovirus

A

Ganciclovir

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30
Q

Depression

A

SSRIs (first-line)

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31
Q

Diabetes insipidus

A

Desmopressin (central); HCTZ, indeomethacin, amiloride (nephrogenic)

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32
Q

Diabetes mellitus type 1

A

Dietary intervention (low-sugar) and insulin replacement

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33
Q

Diabetes mellitus type 2

A

Dietary intervention, oral hypoglycemics, and insulin (possible)

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34
Q

Diabetic ketoacidosis

A

Fluids, insulin, K+

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35
Q

Enterococci

A

Vancomycin/ampicillin and aminoglycoside

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36
Q

Erectile dysfunction

A

Sildenafil, vardenafil

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37
Q

ER-positive breast cancer

A

Tamoxifen

38
Q

Ethylene glycol/methonal intoxication

A

Fomepizole (alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor)

39
Q

Haemophilus influenzae (B)

A

Rifampin (prophylaxis)

40
Q

Generalized anxiety disorder

A

Buspirone

41
Q

Heparin toxicity (acute)

A

Protamine sulfate

42
Q

HER2/neu-positive breast cancer

A

Trastuzumab

43
Q

Hyperaldosteronism

A

Spironolactone

44
Q

Hypercholesterolemia

A

Statin (first-line)

45
Q

Hypertriglyceridemia

A

Fibrate

46
Q

Immediate anticoagulation

A

heparin

47
Q

Infertility

A

Leuprolide, GnRH (pulsatile)

48
Q

Influenza

A

Rimantadine, oseltamivir

49
Q

Legionella pneumophila

A

Erythromycin

50
Q

Long-term anticoagulation

A

Warfarin

51
Q

Malaria

A

Chloroquine/mefloquine (for blood schizont), primaquine (for liver hypnozoite)

52
Q

Malignant hyperthermia

A

Dantrolene

53
Q

Medical abortion

A

Mifepristone

54
Q

Migraine

A

Sumatriptan

55
Q

MRSA

A

vancomycin

56
Q

MS

A

beta-interferon, immunosuppression, natalizumab

57
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

RIPE (rifampin, INH, pyrazinamide, ethambutol)

58
Q

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

Ceftriaxone (add doxycycline to cover likely concurrent Chlamydia)

59
Q

Neisseria meningitidis

A

Pencillin/ceftriaxone, rifampin (prophylaxis)

60
Q

Neural tube defect prevention

A

Prenatal folic acid

61
Q

Osteomalacia/rickets

A

Vit D supplementation

62
Q

Osteoporosis

A

Bisphosphonates; calcium and vitamin D supplementation

63
Q

Patent ductus arteriosus

A

Indomethacin

64
Q

Pheochromocytoma

A

alpha-antagonists (eg phenoxybenzamine)

65
Q

Pneumocystitis jirovecii

A

TMP’SMX (prophylaxis in AIDs patients)

66
Q

Prolactinoma

A

Bromocriptine (dopamine agonists)

67
Q

Prostate cancer/uterine fibroids

A

Leuprolide, GnRH (continuous)

68
Q

Prostate carcinoma

A

Flutamide

69
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Antipseudomonal penicillin and aminoglycoside

70
Q

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (idiopathic)

A

Sildenafil, bosentan, epoprostenol

71
Q

Rickettsia rickettsii

A

Doxycycline, chloramphenicol (especially in the context of aplastic anemia)

72
Q

Ringworm infections

A

Terbinafine, griseofulvin, imidazole

73
Q

Schizophrenia (negative symptoms)

A

5-HT2A antagonists (eg second generation antipsychotics)

74
Q

Schizophrenia (positive symptoms)

A

D2 receptor antagonists (eg first and second generation antipsychotics)

75
Q

SIADH

A

Demeclocycline, lithium, vasopressin receptor antagonists

76
Q

Sickle cell anemia

A

Hydroxyurea (increased fetal hemoglobin)

77
Q

Sporothrix schenckii

A

Oral potassium chloride

78
Q

Stable angina

A

sublingual nitroglycerin

79
Q

Staph aureus

A

MSSA: nafcilin, oxacillin, diclozacillin (antistaph penicillins); MRSA: vancomycin

80
Q

Strep bovis

A

Penicillin prophylaxis; evaluation for colon cancer if linked to endocarditis

81
Q

Strep pneumoniae

A

Penicillin/cephalosporin (systemic infection, pneumonia), vancomycin (meningitis)

82
Q

Strep pyogenes

A

Penicillin prophylaxis

83
Q

Temporal arteritis

A

High-dose steroids

84
Q

Tonic-clonic seizures

A

Phenytoin, valproate, carbamazepine

85
Q

Toxoplasma gondii

A

Sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine

86
Q

Treponema pallidum

A

penicillin

87
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis

A

Matronidazole (patient and partner)

88
Q

Ulcerative colitis

A

5-ASA, infliximab

89
Q

UTI prophylaxis

A

TMP-SMX

90
Q

Warfarin toxicity

A

Fresh frozen plasma (acute), vit K (chronic)

91
Q

Wegener’s granulomatosis with polyangitis

A

Cyclophosphamide, corticosteroids

Step 1 (119 decks)

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