Questions I keep getting wrong Flashcards

1
Q

Your patient has a decreased cardiac output and poor myocardial contractility. This will likely lead to ___________.

Select one: 
A. hypovolemic shock 
B. septic shock 
C. neurogenic shock 
D. cardiogenic shock
A

D. cardiogenic shock

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2
Q

A 56 year old male is found semiconscious by his wife. Your assessment reveals that his respirations are rapid and shallow, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is low. The patients life states he he complained of left arm pain and nausea the day before, but would not allow her to call 9 - 1 -1. The patient most condition most likely:

A. A ruptured aortic aneurysm

B. Acute myocardial infaraction

C. Cardiogenic hypoperfusion

D. severe septic hypoperfusion

A

C. Cardiogenic hypoperfusion

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3
Q

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock?

Select one: 
A. Cardiac tamponade 
B. Liver laceration 
C. Simple pneumothorax 
D. Spinal cord injury
A

A. Cardiac tamponade

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4
Q

You suspect your patient is in shock. You note the patient’s skin is pale. This is likely due to ___________.

Select one: 
A. peripheral vasoconstriction 
B. an increased heart rate 
C. peripheral vasodilation 
D. hypothermia
A

C. peripheral vasodilation

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5
Q

You are attending to a 3-year-old male patient who is presenting with severe shortness of breath. His parents report that he has had a cough and cold with a low grade fever for the past two days. They became worried today, as his level of distress has increased dramatically. On assessment, the patient is sitting upright and making high-pitched noises with each breath. Based on this information, the patient is most likely suffering from:
Select one:
A. bacterial infection of the epiglottis.
B. inflammation of the bronchioles.
C. inflammation of the lower respiratory tract and bronchospasm.
D. viral infection of the upper respiratory tract.

A

D. viral infection of the upper respiratory tract.

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6
Q

In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur:
Select one:
A. there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion.
B. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar–capillary membrane.
C. the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed.
D. the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen.

A

B. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar–capillary membrane.

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7
Q

A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when:
Select one:
A. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall.
B. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding.
C. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract.
D. the inner layers of the aorta become separated.

A

D. the inner layers of the aorta become separated.

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8
Q

You are caring for a 70 year old female with signs and symptoms of acute stroke. She is conscious, has secretions in her mouth, is breathing at a normal rate with adequate depth, and has an oxygen saturation of 96%. You should:

A. administer one tube of oral glucose and transport

B. insert an oral airway, apply oxygen, and transport

C. assist her ventilations with a bag valve mask

D. suction her oropharynx and transport immediately

A

D. suction her oropharynx and transport immediately

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9
Q

A transient ischemic attack (TIA) occurs when:

A. signs and symptoms resolve spontaneously within 48 hours

B. medications are given to dissolve a cerebral blood clot

C. a small clot in a cerebral artery causes temporary symptoms

D. a small cerebral artery ruptures and causes minimal damage

A

C. a small clot in a cerebral artery causes temporary symptoms

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10
Q

Which of the following conditions would be the LEASTA likely to mimic the signs and symptoms of a stroke?

A. Hypoglycemia

B. A postictal state

C. Hypovolemia

D. Intracranial bleeding

A

C. Hypovolemia

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11
Q

Febrile seizures:

A. are also preferred as absence seizures

B. often result in permanent brain damage

C. occur when a child’s fever rises slowly

D. are usually benign but should be evaluated

A

D. are usually benign but should be evaulated

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12
Q

A patient whose speech is slurred and difficult to understand is experiencing

A. dysarthria

B. dysphagia

C. paraplegia

D. aphasia

A

A. dysarthria

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13
Q

Which of the following is a metabolic cause of a seizure?

A. posioning

B. head trauma

C. massive stroke

D. brain tumor

A

A. posioning

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14
Q

You are caring for a 68 year old man with a sudden onset of left sided paralysis and slurred speech. His airway is patent, his respirations are 14 breaths / min with adequate depth, and his oxygen saturation is 98%. Treatment for this patient should include:

A. recovery position and transport

B. ventilatory assistance and transport

C. high flow oxygen transport

D. oral glucose gel and transport

A

A. recovery position and transport

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15
Q

Which of the following conditions would most likely affect the entire brain?

A. reduced blood supply to the left hemisphere

B. blocked cerebral artery in the frontal lobe

C. respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest

D. ruptured cerebral artery in the occipital lobe

A

C. respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest

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16
Q

General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases?
Select one:
A. Delayed reaction, alarm response, and physical recovery
B. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery
C. Reaction and resistance, euphoria, and physical exhaustion
D. Immediate reaction, psychological exhaustion, and recovery

A

B. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery

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17
Q

Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser:
Select one:
A. stares at certain parts of another person’s anatomy.
B. touches another person without his or her consent.
C. makes rude remarks about a person’s body parts.
D. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else.

A

D. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else.

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18
Q

Ethnocentrism is defined as:
Select one:
A. understanding that people from different cultural backgrounds respond to pain and stress differently.
B. suspecting that a person has an ulterior motive based on the tone of his or her voice when answering a question.
C. subconsciously forcing your cultural values onto a patient because you feel that your own values are more acceptable.
D. considering your own cultural values to be more important when interacting with people of a different culture.

A

D. considering your own cultural values to be more important when interacting with people of a different culture.

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19
Q

A 4-year-old boy had an apparent seizure. He is conscious and calm and is sitting on his mother’s lap. His father is sitting in a nearby chair. The child’s mother suddenly begins crying uncontrollably, which causes the child to start crying. You should:
Select one:
A. ask the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother.
B. give the child a favorite toy or blanket to hold onto and perform your assessment to the best of your ability.
C. reassure the child’s mother that seizures in children are very common and that there is nothing to worry about.
D. attempt to calm the child’s mother, but avoid separating her from her child because this will increase her anxiety.

A

A. ask the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother.

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20
Q

Which of the following statements regarding a patient refusal is correct?
Select one:
A. Advice given to a patient who refuses EMS treatment should not be documented.
B. Documentation of proposed care is unnecessary if the patient refuses treatment.
C. A patient who consumed a few beers will likely be able to refuse EMS treatment.
D. A mentally competent adult has the legal right to refuse EMS care and transport.

A

D. A mentally competent adult has the legal right to refuse EMS care and transport.

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21
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT appropriate to document in the narrative section of a PCR?
Select one:
A. “The patient admits to smoking marijuana earlier in the day.”
B. “General impression revealed that the patient was intoxicated.”
C. “After oxygen was administered, the patient’s breathing improved.”
D. “Significant damage was noted to the front end of the vehicle.”

A

B. “General impression revealed that the patient was intoxicated.”

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22
Q

Which of the following will help improve radio communications?
Select one:
A. Answer questions with “yes” or “no.”
B. Wait 1 second after pressing the transmit button before speaking.
C. Hold the radio at least 6 inches from your mouth.
D. Use codes to speed communication.

A

B. Wait 1 second after pressing the transmit button before speaking.

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23
Q
Which of the following types of questions allow for the most detailed response?
Select one: 
A. Closed-ended questions 
B. Yes or no questions 
C. Open-ended questions 
D. Multiple questions asked at once
A

C. Open-ended questions

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24
Q

You are providing care to a 61-year-old female complaining of chest pain that is cardiac in origin. Your service utilizes a multiplex communication system. You wish to transmit the patient’s electrocardiogram to the hospital. In order to accomplish this, you must:
Select one:
A. send the electrocardiogram from the back of the ambulance.
B. wait until you reach the hospital to transmit the information.
C. be aware that only audio or data transmissions can be sent at any one time.
D. use the multiplex system to transmit the information .

A

D. use the multiplex system to transmit the information .

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25
``` Urine is transported from the kidneys to the urinary bladder via the: Select one: A. urethra. B. ureters. C. prostate. D. renal duct. ```
B. ureters.
26
Which of the following is NOT true of the lymphatic system? Select one: A. Its vessels closely parallel the major arteries in the body. B. It circulates waste products of metabolism away from cells. C. It circulates oxygen, nutrients and hormones to the cells. D. It relies on muscle movement to circulate lymph.
A. Its vessels closely parallel the major arteries in the body.
27
``` A by-product of involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is: Select one: A. lactic acid. B. oxygen. C. nitrogen. D. heat. ```
D. heat.
28
Large amounts of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) are generated when: Select one: A. carbon dioxide levels in the blood are high. B. the cells function with adequate oxygen. C. circulating blood glucose levels fall. D. the cells function without oxygen.
B. the cells function with adequate oxygen.
29
An EMT may injure his or her back, even if it is straight, if the: Select one: A. shoulder is aligned over the pelvis. B. hands are held close to the legs. C. back is bent forward at the hips. D. force is exerted straight down the spine.
C. back is bent forward at the hips.
30
As you and your partner are carrying a stable patient down a flight of stairs in a stair chair, you feel a sudden, sharp pain in your lower back. You should: Select one: A. reposition your hands and continue to move the patient. B. stop the move and have the patient walk down the stairs. C. guide your partner while moving the chair backwards. D. stop the move and request additional lifting assistance.
D. stop the move and request additional lifting assistance.
31
``` To protect a restrained patient and prevent him from using leverage to break free, the EMT should secure __________. Select one: A. both arms above the head B. one arm above the head C. both arms at the patient's sides D. only the patient's torso ```
B. one arm above the head
32
When moving a conscious, weak patient down a flight of stairs, you should: Select one: A. secure the patient to a scoop stretcher and carry him or her headfirst down the stairs to the awaiting stretcher. B. place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair. C. assist the patient in walking down the stairs and place him or her on the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs. D. collapse the undercarriage of the wheeled stretcher and carefully carry the patient down the stairs on the stretcher.
B. place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair.
33
You are attending to a 22-year-old female patient who has overdosed. The patient is unresponsive in an upstairs bedroom. The most appropriate way to bring the patient downstairs is: Select one: A. secured to a stair chair with the strongest provider at the foot end. B. secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the foot end. C. secured to a stair chair with the strongest provider at the head end. D. secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the head end.
D. secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the head end.
34
A palpable pulse is created by: Select one: A. pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction. B. the pressure that is caused when venous blood returns to the heart. C. the pressure of circulating blood against the walls of the arteries. D. electrical conduction in the heart producing ventricular contraction.
A. pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction.
35
Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the presence of any symptoms? Select one: A. A 44-year-old male with abdominal pain and severe dizziness B. A 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis C. A 55-year-old male with a severe headache and 2 days of nausea D. A 49-year-old female with blurred vision and ringing in the ears
B. A 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis
36
``` Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called: Select one: A. Cheyne-Stokes respirations. B. ataxic respirations. C. eupneic respirations. D. agonal respirations. ```
A. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
37
What occurs when a patient is breathing very rapidly and shallowly? Select one: A. Air is forcefully drawn into the lungs due to the negative pressure created by the rapid respirations. B. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange. C. Minute volume increases because of a marked increase in both tidal volume and respiratory rate. D. The majority of tidal volume reaches the lungs and diffuses across the alveolar–capillary membrane.
B. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange.
38
Which of the following statements regarding oxygen is correct? Select one: A. Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire. B. Oxygen is most safely administered in an enclosed environment. C. Oxygen cylinders must always remain in an upright position. D. Oxygen is flammable and may explode if under high pressure
A. Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire.
39
``` You are ventilating a patient with a stoma; however, air is escaping from the mouth and nose. To prevent this, you should: Select one: A. thoroughly suction the stoma. B. ventilate with less pressure. C. seal the mouth and nose. D. thrust the jaw forward. ```
C. seal the mouth and nose.
40
A 62-year-old male is seen with crushing chest pain, which he describes as being the same kind of pain that he had with a previous heart attack. He has prescribed nitroglycerin but states that he has not taken any. After administering supplemental oxygen if needed and contacting medical control, you should: Select one: A. administer the nitroglycerin unless he has taken Viagra within the past 72 hours. B. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin before assessing his blood pressure. C. assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg. D. begin immediate transport and request a rendezvous with a paramedic unit.
C. assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg.
41
``` In ___________ administration, you are administering medication to yourself or your partner. Select one: A. peer-assisted B. paramedic-administered C. patient-assisted D. EMT-administered ```
A. peer-assisted
42
``` What is the route of administration for the EpiPen auto-injector? Select one: A. Intravenous B. Intramuscular C. Sublingual D. Intraosseous ```
B. Intramuscular
43
``` Which of the following clinical signs would necessitate the administration of naloxone (Narcan)? Select one: A. Slow respirations B. Hypertension C. Extreme agitation D. Tachycardia ```
A. Slow respirations
44
Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct? Select one: A. Glucose is usually administered by the EMT via the intravenous route. B. Glucose is a complex sugar that rapidly absorbs into the bloodstream. C. Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream. D. Glucose is given to patients who are suspected of being hyperglycemic.
C. Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream.
45
Distributive shock occurs when: Select one: A. severe bleeding causes tachycardia in order to distribute blood to the organs faster. B. temporary but severe vasodilation causes a decrease in blood supply to the brain. C. an injury causes restriction of the heart muscle and impairs its pumping function. D. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds.
D. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds.
46
``` Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of: Select one: A. platelets. B. plasma. C. red blood cells. D. whole blood. ```
B. plasma.
47
When treating an 80-year-old patient who is in shock, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. medications older patients take for hypertension often cause an unusually fast heart rate. B. changes in gastric motility may delay gastric emptying, which increases the risk for vomiting. C. the older patient's central nervous system usually reacts more briskly to compensate for shock. D. compensation from the respiratory system usually manifests with increased tidal volume.
B. changes in gastric motility may delay gastric emptying, which increases the risk for vomiting.
48
``` You suspect your patient is in shock. You note the patient's skin is pale. This is likely due to ___________. Select one: A. peripheral vasodilation B. an increased heart rate C. hypothermia D. peripheral vasoconstriction ```
D. peripheral vasoconstriction
49
``` Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock? Select one: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Spinal cord injury C. Liver laceration D. Simple pneumothorax ```
A. Cardiac tamponade
50
``` A patient tells you that he has a left ventricular assist device (LVAD). Which of the following conditions should you suspect that he has experienced? Select one: A. Thoracic aortic aneurysm B. Uncontrolled hypertension C. Obstructive lung disease D. Acute myocardial infarction ```
D. Acute myocardial infarction
51
A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when: Select one: A. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding. B. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract. C. the inner layers of the aorta become separated. D. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall.
C. the inner layers of the aorta become separated.
52
Angina pectoris occurs when: Select one: A. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply. B. a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque. C. one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm. D. myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand.
A. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply.
53
``` Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom associated with malfunction of an implanted cardiac pacemaker? Select one: A. Syncope or dizziness B. A rapid heart rate C. Heart rate less than 60 beats/min D. Generalized weakness ```
B. A rapid heart rate
54
``` A patient whose speech is slurred and difficult to understand is experiencing: Select one: A. dysphagia. B. paraplegia. C. dysarthria. D. aphasia. ```
C. dysarthria.
55
During the primary assessment of a semiconscious 70-year-old female, you should: Select one: A. ask family members if the patient has a history of stroke. B. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and assist ventilations. C. immediately determine the patient's blood glucose level. D. ensure a patent airway and support ventilation as needed.
D. ensure a patent airway and support ventilation as needed.
56
``` A patient who is possibly experiencing a stroke is NOT eligible for thrombolytic (fibrinolytic) therapy if he or she: Select one: A. has had a prior heart attack. B. has bleeding within the brain. C. has a GCS score that is less than 8. D. is older than 60 years of age. ```
B. has bleeding within the brain.
57
``` The left cerebral hemisphere controls: Select one: A. the right side of the face. B. the right side of the body. C. breathing and blood pressure. D. heart rate and pupil reaction. ```
A. the right side of the face.
58
``` Interruption of cerebral blood flow may result from all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. a thrombus. B. an embolism. C. cerebral vasodilation. D. an acute arterial rupture. ```
C. cerebral vasodilation.
59
A 30-year-old male experienced a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure, which stopped before you arrived at the scene. The patient is conscious, is answering your questions appropriately, and refuses EMS transport. Which of the following would be the MOST compelling reason to disagree with his refusal of transport? Select one: A. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15 B. He is currently not prescribed any medications C. His wife states that this was his “usual” seizure D. He has experienced seizures since he was 20
B. He is currently not prescribed any medications
60
Which of the following MOST accurately describes a simple partial seizure? Select one: A. A seizure that causes the patient to stare blankly B. A seizure that begins in one extremity C. A generalized seizure without incontinence D. A seizure that is not preceded by an aura
B. A seizure that begins in one extremity
61
Which of the following MOST accurately describes what the patient will experience during the postictal state that follows a seizure? Select one: A. Confusion and fatigue B. Hyperventilation and hypersalivation C. A rapidly improving level of consciousness D. A gradually decreasing level of consciousness
A. Confusion and fatigue
62
``` When caring for a patient with documented hypoglycemia, you should be MOST alert for: Select one: A. a seizure. B. respiratory distress. C. a febrile convulsion. D. an acute stroke. ```
A. a seizure.
63
``` A 29-year-old pregnant woman has had severe vomiting for the last 2 days. Today, she is vomiting large amounts of blood. Her skin is cool and pale and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect: Select one: A. esophagitis. B. Mallory–Weiss tear. C. esophageal varices. D. acute pancreatitis. ```
B. Mallory–Weiss tear.
64
A 30-year-old woman with a history of alcoholism presents with severe upper abdominal pain and is vomiting large amounts of bright red blood. Her skin is cool, pale, and clammy; her heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak; and her blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg. Your MOST immediate action should be to: Select one: A. give her high-flow supplemental oxygen. B. protect her airway from aspiration. C. keep her supine and keep her warm. D. rapidly transport her to the hospital.
B. protect her airway from aspiration.
65
Peritonitis may result in shock because: Select one: A. severe pain causes systemic dilation of the vasculature. B. fluid shifts from the bloodstream into body tissues. C. intra-abdominal hemorrhage is typically present. D. abdominal distention impairs cardiac contractions.
B. fluid shifts from the bloodstream into body tissues.
66
For a patient with a gastrointestinal complaint, it is MOST important for the EMT to _________. Select one: A. determine the cause of the patient's complaint B. identify whether the patient requires rapid transport C. avoid transporting the patient if the condition is minor D. perform all interventions prior to transport
B. identify whether the patient requires rapid transport
67
Which of the following statements regarding the acute abdomen is correct? Select one: A. An acute abdomen almost always occurs as the result of blunt trauma to solid abdominal organs. B. The most common cause of an acute abdomen is inflammation of the gallbladder and liver. C. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized. D. The parietal peritoneum is typically the first abdominal layer that becomes inflamed or irritated.
C. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized.
68
``` Your patient complains of abdominal pain that occurs mostly at night or after eating fatty foods. You should suspect ____________. Select one: A. cholecystitis B. appendicitis C. kidney stones D. a hernia ```
A. cholecystitis
69
``` A 66-year-old woman experienced a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She has a history of type 2 diabetes and deep vein thrombosis (DVT). On the basis of her medical history, which of the following should the EMT suspect? Select one: A. Pulmonary embolism B. Diabetic ketoacidosis C. Congestive heart failure D. Severe hypoglycemia ```
A. Pulmonary embolism
70
``` A 75-year-old male with type 1 diabetes presents with chest pain and a general feeling of weakness. He tells you that he took his insulin today and ate a regular meal approximately 2 hours ago. You should treat this patient as though he is experiencing: Select one: A. a heart attack. B. an acute stroke. C. hyperglycemia. D. hypoglycemia. ```
A. a heart attack
71
``` Excessive eating caused by cellular “hunger” is called: Select one: A. dyspepsia. B. polydipsia. C. polyphagia. D. dysphasia. ```
C. polyphagia.
72
A patient with an altered mental status; high blood glucose levels; and deep, rapid breathing may have a condition known as __________. Select one: A. diabetic ketoacidosis B. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma C. hyperglycemic crisis D. hypoglycemic crisis
A. diabetic ketoacidosis
73
A 40-year-old male intentionally cut his wrist out of anger after losing his job. Law enforcement has secured the scene prior to your arrival. As you enter the residence and visualize the patient, you can see that he has a towel around his wrist and a moderate amount of blood has soaked through it. You should: Select one: A. quickly tend to the bleeding wound. B. calmly identify yourself to the patient. C. tell the patient that you want to help. D. approach the patient with caution.
B. calmly identify yourself to the patient.
74
A 56-year-old male has an incomplete avulsion to his right forearm. After controlling any bleeding from the wound, you should: Select one: A. carefully remove the avulsed flap and wrap it in a moist, sterile trauma dressing. B. replace the avulsed flap to its original position and cover it with a sterile dressing. C. thoroughly irrigate the wound with sterile water and cover it with a sterile dressing. D. carefully probe the wound to determine if the bleeding is venous or arterial.
B. replace the avulsed flap to its original position and cover it with a sterile dressing.