NREMT prep Flashcards by victoria hughes

Which of the following is widely considered to mark the beginning of the modern EMS system?
A. A paper titled Accidental Death and Disability: The neglected Disease of modern society
B. The current National EMS education standards
C. The creation of the American Heart association
D. A paper called the EMS agenda for the future

A. A paper titled Accidental Death and Disability: The neglected Disease of modern society

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EMS care today is based on
A. what has been done in the past 
B. Whatever physicians recommend 
C. Evidence based medicine 
D. The original national standard curriculum

C. Evidence based medicine

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Which of the following describes the EMT level of training?
A. Provides basic, immediate care including bleeding control, CPR, AED, and emergency childbirth
B. Includes oxygen and ventilation skills, pulse oximetry, and administration of certain medications
C. includes advanced assessment and managements skills, various invasive skills, and extensive pharmacology interventions
D. includes advanced airway devices, intravenous and intraosseous access, and blood glucose monitoring

B. Includes oxygen and ventilation skills, pulse oximetry, and administration of certain medications

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EMT roles and responsibilities include
A. strong written and verbal communication skills
B. The ability to establish intraossous access
C. initial investigation at a crime scene
D. swift water rescue operations

A. strong written and verbal communication skills

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Which of the following EMT activities is considered high risk for the patient? 
A. assessment of vital signs 
B. obtaining a blod glucose test
C. requesting permission to treat
D. transferring patient care

D. transferring patient care

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You are called to a business for a patient with dizziness, headache, and nausea. As you enter the business, you detect strong odor and your eyes begin to water. You should immediately
A. Leave the area and call for additional resources
B. Attempt to locate the caller and remove him
C. apply a mask and safety goggles before continuing
D. determine the cause of odor and notify your dispatcher

A. Leave the area and call for additional resources

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Which of the following statements regarding stress is correct?
A. EMT’s can avoid stress by eating healthy and excising
B. stress will eventually cause most EMT’S to leave the profession
C. stress is an inevitable consequence of the profession
D. acute stress develops slowly due to repeat exposure to certain events

C. stress is an inevitable consequence of the profession

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Which of the following is a formalized process to help emergency workers deal with stress? 
A. paid time off
B. modified duty assignment 
C. critical incident stress management 
D. EMS stress management excerises

C. critical incident stress management

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Which of the following provides the best protection from exposure to an airborne disease? 
A. HEPA mask 
B. simple mask
C. long sleeve gown
D. Mask with splash guard

A. HEPA mask

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Which of the following moves is used when the scene is dangerous and the patient must be moved before providing care?
A. rent move 
B. emergency move
C. non - urgent move 
D. critical move

B. emergency move

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Which of the following terms refers to the actions an EMS provider is legally allowed to perform based on his or her license or certification level?
A. duty to act 
B. standard of care
C. scope of practice 
D. doctrine of certification

C. scope of practice

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Which of the following terms refers to the degree of care a reasonable person training should provide in a similar situation?
A. standard of care
B. scope of practice 
C. standardized curriculum 
D. EMS expectation clause

A. standard of care

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Which of the following are specific to resuscitation efforts and do not affect treatment prior to patient entering cardiac arrest? 
A. living will
B. advanced directive 
C. DNR order
D. medical power of attorney

C. DNR order

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During a negligence lawsuit, it is shown that the injury to the plaintiff was, at least in part, directly due to the EMT'S action or inaction. Which component of negligence is the EMT guilty of?
A. proximate cause
B. duty to act
C. breech of duty
D. gross incompetence

A. proximate cause

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Which of the following is a definitive sign of death?
A. decapitation 
B. pulselessness 
C. apnea 
D. unresponsivness

A. decapitation

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What federal agency regulates all radio operations in the United States?
A. federal trade commission 
B. Department of transportation 
C. National registry of EMT's
D. Federal communications commission

D. Federal communications commission

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Which of the following statements regarding EMS radio communications is correct?
A. Begin and end radio transmissions with
“please and thank you”
B. Use the 10 codes approved by the NREMT
C. Use clear text, not radio codes, for EMS communications
D. State “over and out” and the end of reach radio transmission.

C. Use clear text, not radio codes, for EMS communications

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Which of the following is an example of an objective observation?
A. “The patient has slurred speech and an instead gait”
B. “The patient is high on something”
C. “The patient is obviously intoxicated”
D. “The patient is under the influence of alcohol or drugs”

A. “The patient has slurred speech and an instead gait”

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Your medical direction has just ordered administration of a medication for your patient. You should immediately
A. administer the medication as directed
B. Check with one additional physician to confirm the order is correct
C. repeat the order back to ensure you have understood it correctly
D. Ask the physician to verbally acknowledge that you are allowed to give the medication

C. repeat the order back to ensure you have understood it correctly

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Which of the following statements regarding the transfer of care report is correct?
A. Transfer of care must always be to the accepting physician
B. Transfer of care must include verbal report to an equal or higher medical authority
C.Transfer of care is not allowed until you complete your documentation form
D. transfer of care can be made to anyone as long as the patient agrees

B. Transfer of care must include verbal report to an equal or higher medical authority

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Which of the following suggestions should you following regarding patient care reports?
A. Always keep a copy of the PCR for your own records
B. If you didn’t do it, don’t write that you did
C. Have the patient review the PCR once it complete
D. Leave your name off the PCR if you have concerns about the call.

B. If you didn’t do it, don’t write that you did

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The minimum date set on a PCR includes
A. dispatch times
B. patient diagnosis 
C. insurance information
D. the medical directors name

A. dispatch times

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Your PCR has a section that allows you to free text a description of the call. This is known as the:
A. dispatch section 
B. treatment section
C. physical exam section 
D. narrative section

D. narrative section

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Your patient is complaining of knee pain following a fall from a bicycle. You ask the patient if he has any neck pain and he states he does not. In this case, neck pain would be considered 
A. a pertinent negative
B. an associated symptom 
C. multi - system trauma 
D. an irrelevant question

A. a pertinent negative

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What abbreviations should you use on your PCR? A. any abbreviation you like, as long as you consistent B. any abbreviation a senior EMT or paramedic uses C. only abbreviations approved by your agency and medical director D. only abbreviations approved by the NREMT

C. only abbreviations approved by your agency and medical director

Which of the following regarding homeostasis is correct? A. Homeostasis is a state of balance or equilibrium within the body B. Homeostasis is assured if all vital signs are within normal limits C.The body works to avoid homeostasis over prolonged periods D. Patients who are alert and without pain are demonstrating homeostasis

A. Homeostasis is a state of balance or equilibrium within the body

``` The frontal plane divides the body into A. left and right sides B. top and bottom halves C. anterior and posterior D. proximal and distal ```

C. anterior and posterior

``` From anatomical position, which of the following is the lateral bone in the forearm? A. the ulna B. the radius C. the humerus D. the tibia ```

B. the radius

``` Ventral refers to the A. anterior surface B. posterior surface C. medial aspel D. lateral aspect ```

A. anterior surface

``` Your adult is unconscious, breathing adequately, and has a pulse. There is no indication of trauma. The patient should be postioned A. in the shock position B. supine C. prone D. recovery position ```

D. recovery position

While assessing an infant, you note depressed fontanelles. This indicates that the infant: A. is most likely dehydrated B. is perfusing normally C. has increased intracranial pressure D. has been crying recently

A. is most likely dehydrated

Your patient is two years old. She would be considered a(n) A. neonate B. infant C. toddler D. preschooler

C. toddler

To ease a child's anxiety, it is ally best to: A. transport rapidly B. isolate the child C. avoid eye contact D. keep caregivers close by

D. keep caregivers close by

``` Eating disorders are more common among which of the following age groups? A. adolescents B. school age C. toddlers D. older adults ```

A. adolescents

Which of the following statements is correct? A. Mild physical decline typically develops in the young adult age group B. women typically experience menopause during early adulthood C.physical and mental acuity peaks in late adulthood D. Accidental trauma is a leading cause of death in the young adult age group

D. Accidental trauma is a leading cause of death in the young adult age group

``` Which of the following is the backup system to the CO2 drive? A. carbon dioxide drive B. Hypoxic drive C. anoxic drive D. oxygen drive. ```

B. Hypoxic drive

``` You have just initiated BVM ventilations for your apneic patient. Which of the following is most important to help determine if artificial ventilation are being delivered effectively? A. check the pupillary response B. assess distal pulses C. auscultate lung sounds D. palpate the chest ```

C. auscultate lung sounds

Which of the following indicates the need for supplemental oxygen by nasal cannula or non rebreather? A. An saO2, reading of 93% B. clear bilateral lung sounds C. slow and shallow respirations D. warm, dry skin

A. An saO2, reading of 93%

Your patient is responsive only to painful stimuli. The airway is clear. How should you manage the patient's airway A. suction the airway B. insert an OPA C. insert an NPA D. begin artificial ventilation

C. insert an NPA

Due the risk of hypoxia, suction time should not exceed A. 30 seconds for an adult B. 30 seconds for a child C. 15 seconds for an infant D. 15 seconds for an adult

D. 15 seconds for an adult

While obtaining a patient history, you note the patient takes several prescription medications daily. This is known as A. multimeds B. Polypharmacy C. Unipharmacy D. Copharmacy

B. Polypharmacy

Symptoms that are important to consider, but denied by the patient are known as: A. Pertinent negatives B. Chief complaints C. Dissociated symptoms D. Irrelevant assessments

A. Pertinent negatives

During your assessment, you note the patient has irregular breathing. This means the patient A. Has an increased work of breathing B. Requires immediate ventilatory support C. Has minimal chest rise with each breath D. Presents with an abnormal breathing pattern

D. Presents with an abnormal breathing pattern

Your 5 year patient is unresponsive. To determine if chest compressions are indicated, you should immediately assess the: A. radial pulse B. Brachial pulse C. Carotid pulse D. Pedal pulse

C. Carotid pulse

Your trauma patient has a widening pulse pressure. You should suspect: A. A head injury B. hypo perfusion C. tension pneumothorax D. pericardial tamponade

A. A head injury

Which of the following medications is administered enterally? A. Epipen B. Nitroglycerin C. Oral Glucose D. Naloxone

C. Oral Glucose

Which of the following medications is used to reverse the effects of a opioid overdose? A. Narcan B. Epinephrine C. Glucagon D. Albuterol

A. Narcan

Which of the following is a common side effect of nitroglycerin administration? A. Reduced heart rate B. Elevated blood pressure C. Decreased chest pain D. Reduced blood pressure

D. Reduced blood pressure

EMT's can help administer, but cannot carry, which of the following medications? A. MDI B. Oral Glucose C. Oxygen D. Aspirin

A. MDI

Which of the following medications is an absorbent? A. Oral Glucose B. Activated Charcoal C. Epinephrine D. Naloxone

B. Activated Charcoal

You have completed the primary assessment of an unresponsive multi system trauma patient. Which of the following should be done next? A. Obtain a patients history B. Manage any secondary injuries C. assess baseline vital signs D, document your findings and interventions

C. assess baseline vital signs

Which of the following statements regarding the primary assessment is correct? A. The primary assessment always precedes the patients history B. The primary assessment is not necessary for conscious non trauma patients C. The primary assessment may follow the patient history for medical patients D. The primary assessment should never take longer than 90 seconds

A. The primary assessment always precedes the patients history

You have completed the primary assessment on a conscious patient complaining of dyspnea. There is no trauma. Which of the following should be done next? A. Obtain a patients history B. Manage any secondary injuries C. Perform a detailed physical exam D. Check the posterior for any injuries

A. Obtain a patients history

Which of the following is always your first priority while performing a physical exam on a patient? A. identify and manage life threatening conditions B. Initiate transport within 10 minutes C. You and your partners safety D. Requesting additional resources as needed

C. You and your partners safety

What is the purpose of the rapid scan? A. assess and manage the ABC B. identify all secondary injuries C. Reassess all injuries and interventions D. Identify any remaining life threats

D. Identify any remaining life threats

Shock or hyper fusion, describes a state of A. Hypotension B. hypoxia C. inadequate tissue perfusion D. irreversible system collapse

C. inadequate tissue perfusion

Your trauma patient has lost an unknown amount of blood. The patient is alert, his pulse rate is slightly elevated, and his BP is normal. Based on this information, the patient is most likely experiencing A. compensated shock B. anaphylactic shock C. decompensated shock D. neurogenic shock

A. compensated shock

You are assessing your patient for signs and symptoms of shock. You note tachycardia and pale, cool skin. These findings are A. signs of impending circulatory collapse B. indications the patient is not in shock C. examples of the body's defense mechanisms D. not likely related to the patient's state of shock

C. examples of the body's defense mechanisms

Your patient presents with signs and symptoms of hypoerfusion. You note the patients blood pressure is lower each time you reassess vitals. This indicates the patient A. is adequately compensating B. is in irreversible shock C. has undiscovered injuries D. is in decompensated shock

D. is in decompensated shock

Which of the following statements regarding shock in pediatric patients is correct? A. Pediatric patients rarely develop shock B. pediatric patients can be in serious danger and still present without hypotension C. Pediatric patient tend to become hypotensive even during compensated shock D. Signs of shock with hypotension are not usually serious in pediatric patients.

B. pediatric patients can be in serious danger and still present without hypotension

Which of the following is a slow disease process that obstructs and damages the lower airways and alevoi? A. asthma B. foreign body airway obstruction C. croup D. COPD

D. COPD

Which of the following is an emergency in which the heart does not pump effectively, leading to a backup of fluid and pulmonary edema? A. emphysema B. asthma C. CHF D. COPD

C. CHF

Larngotracheobronchtis is also known as A. croup B. RSV C. CF D. emphysema

A. croup

Which of the following are signs and symptoms of a pulmonary embolism? A. a history of chronic or terminal illness, productive cough, weakness, low pulse oximeter reading B. a history of respiratory problems, thoracic trauma, and absent lung sounds C. a possible history of recent surgery, or long bone fracture, chest pain, tachypnea D. a possible cardiac history, rales, pedal edema, and orthopnea

C. a possible history of recent surgery, or long bone fracture, chest pain, tachypnea

Which of the following is characterized by rapid breathing and is often associated with distraught patients? A. chronic obstructive pulmonary edema B. hyperventilation syndrome C. RSV D. COPD

B. hyperventilation syndrome

Which of the following statements regarding angia is correct? A. You should always assume a patient with chest pain is experiencing angina B. Angina pain typically lasts at least 30 minutes C. Angina usually occurs during physical activity or stress D. EMT's can administer naloxone to reduce from angina

C. Angina usually occurs during physical activity or stress

Your patient is experiencing orthopnea. This means the patient has A. difficultly breathing while lying down B. distended neck veins while seated C. increased dyspnea at night D. acute swelling of the feet or ankles

A. difficultly breathing while lying down

Which of the following most likely indicates right ventricular failure? A. rales B. dyspnea C. JVD D. orhopnea

C. JVD

Your patient has a blood pressure of 146 / 94. This is considered A. hypotensive B. hypertensive C. normotensive D. tachycardia

B. hypertensive

Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for heart disease? A. race B. heredity C. gender D. diabetes

D. diabetes

Death of brain tissue due to an interruption in blood flow is known as A. a transient ischemic attack B. a stroke C. a myocardial infarction D. acute coronary syndrome

B. a stroke

Which of the following is part of the Cincinnati prehospital stroke scale? A. blood pressure B. distal pulses C. arm drift D. blood glucose

C. arm drift

Your patient is unresponsive and experiencing full body convulsions. The patient is presenting with A. absence seizures B. generalized seizures C. petit mal seizures D. partial seizures

B. generalized seizures

Which of the following presents the greatest danger to the patient? A. status epilepticus B. complex partial seizure C. Petit mal seizure D. simple partial seizure

A. status epilepticus

Which of the following patients is most likely to experience a febrile seizure A. A 65 year old patient B. A 17 year old patient C. A 35 year old patient D. A 4 - month year old patient

D. A 4 - month year old patient

Insulin will cause blood glucose levels to: A. fluctuate B. stabilize C. elevate D. drop

D. drop

Which of the following represents a normal blood glucose level? A. 40 - 60 mg / dL B. 80 - 120 mg / dL C. 120 - 160 mg / dL D. 160 - 200 mg/ dL

B. 80 - 120 mg / dL

If a patient's blood glucose level exceeds 200 mg / dL, which of the following is most likely? A. increased urinary output B. acute hypertension C. sudden loss of consciousness D. decreased respirations

A. increased urinary output

Your patient has been experiencing excessive hunger, thirst, and urinary output. You should suspect: A. insulin shock B. severe hyperglycemia C. moderate hypoglycemia D. an insulin overdose

B. severe hyperglycemia

Your patient has a blood glucose of 370 mg/ dL. You should suspect A. DKA B. Insulin shock C. type 11 diabetes D. type 111 diabetes

A. DKA

Which of the following statements regarding anaphylaxis is correct? A. Anaphylaxis can be a local or systemic medical emergency B. anaphylaxis impairs primarily endocrine function C. anaphylaxis is always a systemic emergency D. anaphylaxis is typically causes itchy eyes and runny nose

C. anaphylaxis is always a systemic emergency

Anaphylaxis typically causes A. hypotension B. hypertension C. bradycardia D. bradypnea

A. hypotension

Administration of an epinephrine auto - injector is indicated for A. any patient experiencing an allergic reaction B. a patient with obvious local symptoms of an allergic reaction C. patients with signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis D. patients with signs and symptoms of narcotic overdose

C. patients with signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis

Which of the following is true regarding the epinephrine auto - injector? A. The epinephrine auto injector is administered intravenously B.The epinephrine auto injector is administered intramuscularly C.The epinephrine auto injector is administered subcutaneously D.The epinephrine auto injector is administered transdermally

B.The epinephrine auto injector is administered intramuscularly

Patients can develop sensitivity to a substance that did not previously cause a reaction. This is known as: A. desensitization B. antigen deployment C. an antigen reaction D. sensitization

D. sensitization

Which of the following is a physical or psychological need to continue misusing a drug or toxin? A. habituation B. tolerance C. addiction D. withdrawal

C. addiction

What is the most common route of exposure? A. ingestion B. inhalation C. absorption D. injection

A. ingestion

An overdose on sedatives, barbiturates or narcotics is most likely to cause A. excitation B. tachycardia C. respiratory depression D. hypertension

C. respiratory depression

Your overdose patient has a decreased LOC and "pinpoint" pupils. Which of the following is most likely? A. amphetamine overdose B. narcotic overdose C. cocaine overdose D. barbiturate overdose

B. narcotic overdose

LSD and PCP are A. barbiturates B. cannabis C. narcotics D. hallucinogens

D. hallucinogens

Your patient complains of acute abdominal pain. This mean the pain A. is severe B. is sharp C. started suddenly D. requires surgery

C. started suddenly

Your patient complains of abdominal pain that is dull, diffuse, and difficult to localize. This is known as: A. visceral pain B. parietal pain C. referred pain D. acute pain

A. visceral pain

Your patient complains of abdominal pain. He states it was diffuse, but is now localized in the right lower abdominal quadrant. The patient denies any trauma or surgeries. Which of the following is most likely? A. peritonitis B. appendicitis C. cholecystitis D. diverticulitis

B. appendicitis

Your patient complains of abdominal pain. He states he as been experiencing dark, tarry stool, and hematochezia. You should suspect A. GI bleeding B. diverticulitis C. Kidney stones D. food poisoning

A. GI bleeding

Which of the following is an infection with associated diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting? A. gonorrhea B. food poisoning C. pancreatitis D. gastroenteritis

D. gastroenteritis

Abnormal behavior that is unacceptable to patients, family members, or society considered A. a physiological emergency B. a behavior emergency C. an environmental emergency D. a seizure disorder

B. a behavior emergency

Which of the following is a physiological cause of a behavior emergency A. anxiety B. depression C. paranoia D. alcohol

D. alcohol

Your patient has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder. This means the patient experiences A. a constant, deep sadness B. extreme suspicion of others C. disorganized speech and thinking D. drastic mood swings

D. drastic mood swings

Which of the following methods of suicide is most common? A. firearms B. hanging C. jumping from heights D. asphyxiation

A. firearms

Which of the following is a known risk factor for suicide? A. recent retirement B. a recent move C. recent divorce D. a recent promotion

C. recent divorce

Which of the following is true regarding a real impact motor vehicle collision? A. injuries along the left side of the drivers body are common B. occupants are likely to go down and under the dash C. neck injuries due to hyperextension are common D. Injury patterns are unpredictable with a real impact collision

C. neck injuries due to hyperextension are common

The risk of ejection from a motor vehicle collision is highest with A. a rotational spin B. a rollover C. a lateral impact D. a head on collision

B. a rollover

Your patient was a passenger in the vehicle the struck a tree. Which of the following is considered the "third collision" based on this mechanism? A. The patient's internal organs striking the internal structures of the body B. The vehicles impact with the tree C. The patient's collision with the seat belt or air bags D. The patient's collision with the interior structures of the vehicle

A. The patient's internal organs striking the internal structures of the body

Which of the following is true regarding vehicle safety restraint systems? A. A vehicle SRS is not beneficial in a rollover accident B. The SRS eliminate the risk of coup countercoup injuries C. The SRS includes a collapsible steering column D. A vehicle SRS can reduce decelerations injuries

D. A vehicle SRS can reduce decelerations injuries

Your patient has injuries due to the pressure wave of an explosive device. These injuries are considered A. Primary blast injuries B. secondary blast injuries C. tertiary blast injuries D. miscellaneous blast injuries

A. Primary blast injuries

Your trauma patient presents with abdominal bruising and distention. Which of the following is most likely? A. evisceration B. flail segment C. hemothroax D. internal bleeding

D. internal bleeding

You are attempting to control significant external bleeding on your trauma patient. Direct pressure alone is ineffective and the injury is in a location that does not allow use of a tourniquet. You should: A. Use a topical hemostatic agent B. discontinue direct pressure C. place the patient in a seated position D. apply a pressure bandage

A. Use a topical hemostatic agent

Your patient is experiencing epistaxis. This means the patient has A. internal bleeding B. dental trauma C. a nosebleed D. blood in the stool

C. a nosebleed

Which of the following soft tissue injuries can be open or closed? A. crush injury B. avulsion C. incision D. contusion

A. crush injury

When should an impaled object be removed? A. never B. always C. when there is an airway obstruction D. when it is difficult to stabilize

C. when there is an airway obstruction

Your patient has a circumferential burn. This means the burn A. goes all the way through the dermis B. Covers more than 10% of the body C. goes all the way around D. creates a rounded burn pattern

C. goes all the way around

Your adult patient has a full thickness burn covering about 5% of his total body surface. Based on this information, the burn would be considered A. minor B. moderate C. severe D. second degree

B. moderate

What is the risk of prolonged application of a wet burn design to a significant burn injury? A. hypothermia B. hypertension C. airway compromise D. increased pain

A. hypothermia

Why should you attempt to remove jewelry from your burned patient? A. jewelry must be turned over to investigators B. to reduce the patients pain C. to relate trapped heat D. swelling is likely to develop

D. swelling is likely to develop

The palm of the patient hand equals about A. 1% TBSA B. 2% TBSA C. 3% TBSA D. 4% TBSA

A. 1% TBSA

Which of the following is considered a potentially limb threatening injury? A. any orthopedic injury with deformity B. any orthopedic injury with significant swelling C. any orthopedic injury with associated cotusions D. any orthopedic injury with loss of distal circulation

C. any orthopedic injury with associated cotusions

What is the most common cause of hip fractures in elderly patients? A. fall injuries B. motor vehicle accidents C. pathetic fractures D. elderly abuse

A. fall injuries

Which of the following fractures is most likely to increase the risk of pulmonary embolism? A. rib fracture B. femur fracture C. humerus fracture D. ulnar fracture

B. femur fracture

Which of the following is the highest priority for a patient with an amputation injury? A. wrap the amputated part in a sterile dressing B. assure the patient the condition is not permanent C. control any significant bleeding D. rapidly reduce the temperature of the amputated part

C. control any significant bleeding

Your patient has a suspected fracture to the forearm. You should immobilize A. the forearm only B. the forearm and wrist C. the humerus, elbow, forearm, wrist, and hand D. the elbow, forearm, and wrist

D. the elbow, forearm, and wrist

Battle's signs and raccoon's eyes are signs of a: A. basal skull fracture B. tempural fracture C. linear fracture D. concussion injury

A. basal skull fracture

You are assessing a patient who was struct in the head by a baseball. Your patient is having trouble remembering events prior to the injury. This is known as: A. anterograde amnesia B. retrograde amnesia C. diffuse amnesia D. concussive amnesia

B. retrograde amnesia

Your patient was struct in the head by a baseball. Witnesses state he experienced a brief loss of consciousness and then woke up. You note his LOC is deteriorating. You should be most concerned about A. an epidural hematoma B. a concussion C. an orbital fracture D. Battle sign

A. an epidural hematoma

Herniation syndrome is the result of A. an open skull fracture B. increased intracranial pressure C. decreased intracranial pressure D. an elevated systolic blood pressure

B. increased intracranial pressure

Which of the following are signs are known as Cushing response? A. hypotension, tachycardia, bradypnea B. hypertension, tachycardia, altered respiratory pattern C. hypotension, bradycardia, bradypnea D. hypertension, bradycardia, altered respiratory pattern

D. hypertension, bradycardia, altered respiratory pattern

A progressive collapsing of lung tissue due to accumulation of air in the thorax is known as: A. simple pneumothorax B. hemothroax C. pulmonary embolism D. tension pneumothorax

D. tension pneumothorax

An open pneumothorax is also known as a: A. sucking chest wound B. flail chest C. hemothroax D. pulmonary embolism

A. sucking chest wound

Beck's triad indicates A. a closed head injury B. a flail chest C. cardiac tamponade D. pulmonary embolism

C. cardiac tamponade

Your suspect your patient has a flail chest. The patient presents with severe respiratory distress. You should immediately A. apply oxygen with a nonrebreather mask B. initiate BVM ventilations C. place a bulky dressing over chest D. obtain a pulse oximetry reading

B. initiate BVM ventilations

Which of the following is the correct management of a sucking chest wound? A. apply a three sided occlusive dressing B. apply a bulky dressing C. apply a sterile gauze pad D. apply an occlusive dressing secured on all sides

A. apply a three sided occlusive dressing

How should most cases of non - penetrating foreign objects on the sclera be managed? A. bandage both eyes B. Use a cotton swab to remove the object C. Irrigate the eye D. Have the patient blink rapidly

C. Irrigate the eye

Your patient experienced facial trauma and now complains of double vision. You note deformity around the left orbit. You should suspect a(n) A. orbital fracture B. corneal abrasion C. mandibular injury D. mastoid fracture

A. orbital fracture

Which of the following helps reduce movement of an impaled object in the eye? A. place the patient supine B. keep the uninjured eye open C. keep both eyes closed D. remove the impaled object

C. keep both eyes closed

Your patient has a tooth knocked out during a fight. You should: A. place the tooth in a plastic bag B. wrap the tooth in an occlusive dressing C. wrap the tooth in a dry, sterile dressing D. place the tooth in saline soaked gauze

D. place the tooth in saline soaked gauze

What should be done to reduce the risk of an air embolism for a large open neck wound? A. apply a tourniquet B. apply an occlusive dressing C. place the patient seated upright D. Place gentle pressure on both sides of the neck

B. apply an occlusive dressing

Your environment patient is experiencing peripheral vasoconstriction and a slowing metabolic rate. The patient is most likely experiencing a A. Local heat emergency B. systemic heat emergency C. local cold emergency D. systemic cold emergency

D. systemic cold emergency

Your patient was found wandering outside on a cold, calm night. The patient was wearing only shorts and shoes. Which of the following would most likely cause this patient to become hypothermic A. conduction B. convection C. evaporation D. radiation

D. radiation

Rewarming a hypothermic patient too rapidly can lead to A. ventricular fibrillation B. bradycardia C. tachypnea D. hyperventilation syndrome

A. ventricular fibrillation

Which of the following is a common systemic heat emergency caused by a combination of heat exposure and hypovolemia A. heat stroke B. heat exhaustion C. heat cramps D. hypertensive crisis

B. heat exhaustion

If you suspect your patient is experiencing a heat stroke, your cooling measures must be A. slow and cautious B. monitored by ALS personnel C. delayed until arrival at the hospital D. rapid and aggressive

D. rapid and aggressive

Which of the following statements regarding cardiovascular changes in the pregnant patient is correct? A. During pregnancy, the cardiac workload decreases B. Pregnant patient are at an increased risk of anemia C. signs of shock are more obvious in the pregnant patient D. Postural hypotension is uncommon in pregnant patient.

B. Pregnant patient are at an increased risk of anemia

Which of the following is a common cause of bleeding in the pregnant patient during the third trimester? A. placenta previa B. preeclampsia C. ectopic pregnancy D. uterine rupture

A. placenta previa

Your patient is 37 weeks pregnant. She is complaining of headache, blurred vision, and swelling. You should suspect A. Preeclampsia B. Eclampsia C. Ectopic pregnancy D. uterine rupture

A. Preeclampsia

Your pregnant patient states her blood pressure has been high each of her last three ties she has checked it. You should suspect: A. supine hypotensive syndrome B. eclampsia C. pregnancy induced hypertension D. ectopic pregnancy

C. pregnancy induced hypertension

Your patient is 37 weeks pregnant. You find her in a supine in bed complaining of weakness and nausea. You should immediately be concerned about A. a hypertensive crisis B. gestational diabetes C. domestic abuse D. supine hypotensive syndrome.

D. supine hypotensive syndrome

You are assessing a pediatric patient with bradycardia and an altered LOC. Your immediate priority should be A. a complete and thorough secondary assessment B. assessment and management of suspected hypoxia C. placement of the AED on the patient for further analysis D. administration of oral glucose for suspected hypoglycemia

B. assessment and management of suspected hypoxia

Which of the following is one of the three key assessment of the pediatric assessment triangle? A. airway B. baseline vitals C. appearance D. control bleeding

C. appearance

Which of the following statements is correct regarding management of pediatric patient you suspect has been abused? A. You are legally required to report suspected abuse to the appropriate authorities B. You can only report suspected abuse to your direct supervisor C. You are not permitted to report suspected abuse without a guardians consent D. You must have proof of physical abuse before reporting your suspicions

A. You are legally required to report suspected abuse to the appropriate authorities

Select the correct statement regarding the rule of nines for pediatric patients A. The rule of nines for pediatric patients is the same as for adults B. The pediatric rule of nines assigns a higher percentage to the legs C. The pediatric rule of nines assigns a higher percentage to the head D. The rule of nines should not be applied to pediatric patients under 10 years of age

C. The pediatric rule of nines assigns a higher percentage to the head

Which of the following statements regarding SIDS is correct? A. SIDS is any non traumatic cardiac arrest in pediatric patients B. SIDS only occurs in patients over 1 years of age C. SIDS is easily identifiable upon autopsy D. SIDS only applies to deaths cannot be explained by autopsy

D. SIDS only applies to deaths cannot be explained by autopsy

Your elder patient has a curvature of the spine that causes her to have a rounded back. This is known as: A. spondylosis B. kyphosis C. lordosis D. scoliosis

B. kyphosis

Your elderly female patient complains of weakness and non specific abdominal pain. You should maintain a high index of suspicion for A. gastroenteritis B. food poisoning C. a typical MI D. diverticulities

C. a typical MI

Your elderly patient presents with pulmonary edema and respiratory distress. The patient has a history of hypertension and two previous MI's. You should suspect: A. Left heart failure B. Right heart failure C. COPD D. Pulmonary embolism

A. Left heart failure

Your elderly patient is overweight and recently had surgery for a long bone fracture. He has decided to take a 12 hour flight overseas to relax and recover. The patient has multiple risk factors for A. cardiac tamponade B. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease C. pulmonary embolism D. status asthmatics

C. pulmonary embolism

Your elderly patient complains of abdominal pain, coffee ground like emesis, and dark, tarry stool. You suspect A.ingestion of coffee grounds B. a stomach flu C. a bowel obstruction D. GI bleeding

D. GI bleeding

Your patient receives dialysis and has AV shunt on the left arm. You should: A. Take all blood pressure on the left arm B. avoid taking blood pressures on the left arm C. delay taking any blood pressure until ALS arrives D. ask the patient which arm should be used for blood pressure

B. avoid taking blood pressures on the left arm

Your patient has a tracheostomy tube and presents with signs of hypoxia. You suspect the tube is partially obstructed. You should: A. Remove the tracheostomy tube B. place the patent on nasal cannula C. Perform abdominal thrusts D. suction the tracheostomy tube

D. suction the tracheostomy tube

Your patient has a stoma and requires supplemental oxygen. You should: A. Contact medical direction before administering supplemental oxygen B. Apply a nasal cannula set to maximum of 6lpm C. Place an oxygen mask over the stoma D. Administer oxygen via NRB as normal

C. Place an oxygen mask over the stoma

Your patient is on a home ventilator. The ventilator appears to be malfunctioning. You should immediately. A. Begin ventilating the patient with a BVM B. contact medical control for instructions C. try resetting the power on the ventilator D. Increase the tidal volume on the ventilator

A. Begin ventilating the patient with a BVM

Your hospice patient has a PCA pump. The. PCA pump is used to A. self administer pain medication B. administer medications intravenously C. facilitate renal dialysis D. improve cardiac output

A. self administer pain medication