Final exam review Flashcards
1
Q
American Heart Association protocols are based on __________.
Select one:
A. trends in the EMS community
B. opinions from a core group of cardiologists
C. evidence-based research
D. theories ready for field trial
A
C. evidence-based research
2
Q
As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on: Select one: A. the transport time to the hospital. B. medical director approval. C. an order from a paramedic. D. the patient's condition.
A
B. medical director approval.
3
Q
National guidelines for EMS care are intended to __________.
Select one:
A. facilitate a national EMS labor group
B. unify EMS providers under a single medical director
C. reduce expenses at the local and state levels
D. provide more consistent delivery of EMS care across the United States
A
D. provide more consistent delivery of EMS care across the United States
4
Q
Online medical control requires __________.
Select one:
A. the presence of an advanced-level provider
B. phone or radio contact with the medical director
C. a physician’s presence on the scene of the call
D. written protocols approved by medical control
A
B. phone or radio contact with the medical director
5
Q
Prehospital patient care decisions should be based on \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Select one: A. an EMS agency's fiscal resources B. EMS research C. the experiences of EMTs D. the opinions of physicians
A
B. EMS research
6
Q
The ability to handle multiple tasks based on their priority is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Select one: A. time management B. patient empathy C. integrity D. patient advocacy
A
A. time management
7
Q
The ability to take appropriate action with little direction is known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Select one: A. diplomacy B. self-motivation C. self-confidence D. time management
A
B. self-motivation
8
Q
The ability to understand others and have them understand you is known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Select one \:A. Communication B. Self-confidence C. Scene leadership D. Teamwork and diplomacy
A
A. communication
9
Q
The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based MOSTLY on: Select one: A. EMS research. B. regional trauma guidelines. C. the lead EMT's decision. D. local protocols.
A
A. EMS research.
10
Q
The EMT is legally obligated to protect a patient's privacy according to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Select one: A. CQI B. APGAR C. HIPAA D. DCAP
A
C. HIPAA
11
Q
What is an EMT’s primary service area?
Select one:
A. The area serviced by the EMT’s medical director
B. The main area in which the EMS agency operates
C. The only area the EMT is certified to provide patient care
D. The location where the EMT provides essential care during a 9-1-1 call
A
B. The main area in which the EMS agency operates
12
Q
What should an EMT do to limit errors in the field?
Select one:
A. Contact medical direction before initiating any treatments.
B. Follow the agency’s written protocols.
C. Deviate from established standards when necessary.
D. Carry an EMT text for reference at all times.
A
B. Follow the agency’s written protocols.
13
Q
Which of the following courses requires about 150 hours of training? Select one: A. EMT B. AEMT C. EMR D. Paramedic
A
A. EMT
14
Q
Which of the following descriptions MOST accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)?
Select one:
A. A system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients
B. A team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients
C. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured
D. A vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting
A
C. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured
15
Q
Which of the following interventions is used by all levels of EMS providers? Select one: A. Automatic transport ventilators B. Multilumen airways C. Needle decompression D. Automated external defibrillator
A
D. Automated external defibrillator
16
Q
Which of the following is a specific example of the Mobile Integrated Healthcare (MIH) model?
Select one:
A. EMTs assess a patient whose lung disease is “acting up”
B. The paramedic administers a patient’s flu vaccination
C. Paramedics pick up a patient from an acute care clinic
D. EMTs respond to a woman who complains of high fever
A
B. The paramedic administers a patient’s flu vaccination
17
Q
Which of the following statements regarding the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 is correct?
Select one:
A. The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to those who are disabled.
B. The minimum number of hours required to successfully complete an EMT course is less for candidates who are disabled.
C. The ADA applies only to individuals with a diagnosed and well-documented physical disability.
D. According to the ADA, EMT candidates with a documented disability are exempt from taking the NREMT exam.
A
A. The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to those who are disabled.
18
Q
Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct?
Select one:
A. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing.
B. EMS training standards are regulated by the NREMT.
C. The NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs.
D. The NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs.
A
A. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing.
19
Q
You are caring for a driver who struck a light pole. She admits to drinking alcohol but orders you not to tell anyone. You should report the information to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Select one: a. the receiving nurse or doctor b. the state motor vehicle department c. your medical director d. law enforcement personnel Incorrect
A
a. the receiving nurse or doctor
20
Q
You are encouraging a patient to go to the hospital by ambulance. You know that a transport will keep you on duty several hours after your regular quitting time. This is an example of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Select one: A. abuse of authority B. patient advocacy C. scope of practice D. undue hardship
A
B. patient advocacy
21
Q
After assessing a patient’s blood glucose level, you accidentally stick yourself with the contaminated lancet. You should:
Select one:
A. discontinue patient care and seek medical attention.
B. get immunized against hepatitis as soon as possible.
C. report the incident to your supervisor after the call.
D. immerse your wound in an alcohol-based solution.
A
C. report the incident to your supervisor after the call.
22
Q
At the scene of an automobile crash, a utility pole has been broken and power lines are lying across the car. The patients inside the car are conscious. You should:
Select one:
A. remove the lines with a nonconductive object.
B. proceed with normal extrication procedures.
C. mark off a danger zone around the downed lines.
D. advise the patients to carefully get out of the car.
A
C. mark off a danger zone around the downed lines.
23
Q
Common factors that influence how a patient reacts to the stress of an illness or injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. history of chronic disease. B. mental disorders. C. fear of medical personnel. D. assessment by the EMT.
A
D. assessment by the EMT.
24
Q
General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases?
Select one:
A. Delayed reaction, alarm response, and physical recovery
B. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery
C. Reaction and resistance, euphoria, and physical exhaustion
D. Immediate reaction, psychological exhaustion, and recovery
A
B. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery
25
Gloves, a mask, eye protection, and a face shield should be used:
Select one:
A. while handling needles or other sharps.
B. during routine cleaning of the ambulance.
C. whenever you touch nonintact skin.
D. when performing endotracheal intubation
D. when performing endotracheal intubation.
26
Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser:
Select one:
A. stares at certain parts of another person's anatomy.
B. touches another person without his or her consent.
C. makes rude remarks about a person's body parts.
D. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else.
D. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else.
27
```
The EMT's first priority is __________.
Select one:
A. personal safety
B. rapid response
C. treatment and transport
D. empathy for all patients
```
A. personal safety
28
The MOST serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is:
Select one:
A. tension among coworkers and supervisors.
B. punitive action and the loss of a job.
C. low morale and frequently missed shifts.
D. substandard or inappropriate patient care.
D. substandard or inappropriate patient care.
29
The simplest, yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to:
Select one:
A. wash your hands in between patient contacts.
B. undergo an annual physical examination.
C. undergo annual testing for tuberculosis and hepatitis.
D. ensure that your immunizations are up-to-date.
A. wash your hands in between patient contacts.
30
```
Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you note that two small cars collided head-on; the occupants are still in their vehicles. The fire department is in the process of stabilizing the vehicles and law enforcement personnel are directing traffic. After parking the ambulance at a safe distance, you and your partner should:
Select one:
A. put on high-visibility safety vests.
B. quickly begin the triage process.
C. report to the incident commander.
D. assist with vehicle stabilization.
```
A. put on high-visibility safety vests.
31
Vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unnecessary if you:
Select one:
A. have a weak immune system.
B. have been infected with hepatitis in the past.
C. are older than 35 years of age.
D. received a hepatitis B vaccination.
B. have been infected with hepatitis in the past
32
```
Vector-borne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via:
Select one:
A. direct contact.
B. animals or insects.
C. inanimate objects.
D. smoke or dust.
```
B. animals or insects.
33
When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should:
Select one:
A. clean all surfaces and patient contact areas with a mixture of alcohol and water.
B. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions.
C. use a bleach and water solution at a 1:2 dilution ratio to thoroughly wipe all surfaces.
D. spray the contaminated areas and then immediately wipe them dry with a towel.
B. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions.
34
Which of the following is an effective stress management strategy?
Select one:
A. Developing a social network outside of EMS
B. Frequently reflecting on troublesome calls
C. Requesting overtime to occupy your mind
D. Modestly increasing caffeine consumption
A. Developing a social network outside of EMS
35
Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts a posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reaction?
Select one:
A. An EMT is emotionally exhausted and depressed after a school bus crash involving critical injuries and the death of several children.
B. An EMT with many years of field experience becomes irritable with her coworkers and experiences headaches and insomnia.
C. A newly certified EMT becomes extremely nauseated and diaphoretic at the scene of an incident involving grotesque injuries.
D. An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed.
D. An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed.
36
Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct?
Select one:
A. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B.
B. There is no vaccine against HIV infection.
C. HIV is easily transmittable in the EMS field.
D. HIV is transmitted exclusively via blood.
B. There is no vaccine against HIV infection.
37
Which of the following statements regarding the different stages of the grieving process is correct?
Select one:
A. The grieving process typically begins with severe depression.
B. The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously.
C. Bargaining is the most unpleasant stage of the grieving process.
D. It is rare that people will jump back and forth between stages.
B. The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously.
38
```
Which of the following would provide the EMT with the BEST cover in a situation involving active gunfire?
Select one:
A. Stacked empty barrels
B. A large cluster of shrubs
C. A concrete barricade
D. Behind a car door
```
C. A concrete barricade
39
```
While providing care to a patient, blood got onto the ambulance stretcher. Because the stretcher was not properly cleaned afterward, a virus was transmitted to another emergency medical technician (EMT) several days later. Which route of transmission does this scenario describe?
Select one:
A. Indirect contact
B. Direct contact
C. Vector-borne transmission
D. Airborne transmission
```
A. Indirect contact
40
You are transporting an elderly woman who has possibly experienced a stroke. She is obviously scared but is unable to talk and cannot move the entire right side of her body. In addition to providing the medical care that she needs, you should:
Select one:
A. acknowledge that she is scared and tell her that you will take good care of her.
B. tell her that you understand why she is scared and that everything will likely be okay.
C. reassure her that after proper treatment in the hospital, she will regain her speech in time.
D. maintain eye contact at all times and tell her that there is no need for her to be scared.
A. acknowledge that she is scared and tell her that you will take good care of her.
41
During your monthly internal quality improvement (QI) meeting, you review several patient care reports (PCRs) with the staff of your EMS system. You identify the patient's name, age, and sex, and then discuss the treatment that was provided by the EMTs in the field. By taking this approach to the QI process, you:
Select one:
A. violated the patient's privacy because you should have discussed the information only with the EMTs involved.
B. acted appropriately but must have each EMT sign a waiver stating that he or she will not discuss the cases with others.
C. adequately safeguarded the patient's PHI because the cases were discussed internally.
D. are in violation of HIPAA because you did not remove the PHI from the PCR beforehand.
D. are in violation of HIPAA because you did not remove the PHI from the PCR beforehand.
42
As an EMT, the standards of emergency care are often partially based on:
Select one:
A. Patient care cannot be discredited based on poor documentation.
B. EMTs are not liable for any actions that are accurately documented.
C. It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included on the report.
D. Incomplete reports are common and accepted in EMS.
C. It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included on the report.
43
In which of the following circumstances can the EMT legally release confidential patient information?
Select one:
A. The family requests a copy for insurance purposes
B. The patient is competent and signs a release form
C. A media representative inquires about the patient
D. A police officer requests a copy to place on file
B. The patient is competent and signs a release form
44
Putrefaction is defined as:
Select one:
A. decomposition of the body's tissues.
B. blood settling to the lowest point of the body.
C. separation of the torso from the rest of the body.
D. profound cyanosis to the trunk and face.
A. decomposition of the body's tissues.
45
Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include:
Select one:
A. quickly moving any weapons out of the patient's sight.
B. making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later.
C. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons.
D. placing the patient in a private area until the police arrive.
C. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons.
46
```
The EMT's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the:
Select one:
A. medical director.
B. state EMS office.
C. local health district.
D. EMS supervisor.
```
A. medical director.
47
In which of the following situations does a legal duty to act clearly exist?
Select one:
A. The EMT hears of a cardiac arrest after his or her shift ends.
B. A call is received 15 minutes prior to shift change.
C. A bystander encounters a victim who is not breathing.
D. The EMT witnesses a vehicle crash while off duty.
B. A call is received 15 minutes prior to shift change.
48
When performing his or her duties, the EMT is generally expected to:
Select one:
A. exercise reasonable care and act prudently.
B. consistently exceed the standard of care.
C. function above his or her scope of practice.
D. contact medical control on every EMS call.
A. exercise reasonable care and act prudently.
49
```
Where would you MOST likely find information regarding a patient's wishes to be an organ donor?
Select one:
A. Social Security card
B. Voter registration card
C. Insurance card
D. Driver's license
```
D. Driver's license
50
Which of the following components are needed to prove negligence?
Select one:
A. Duty to act, abandonment, breach of duty, and causation
B. Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation
C. Abandonment, breach of duty, damages, and causation
D. Breach of duty, injury/damages, abandonment, and causation
B. Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation
51
When is forcible restraint permitted?
Select one:
A. Only if consent to restrain is given by a family member
B. When the patient poses a significant threat to self or others
C. Anytime that the EMT feels threatened
D. Only if law enforcement personnel have witnessed threatening behavior
B. When the patient poses a significant threat to self or others
52
Which of the following statements about the patient care report is correct?
Select one:
a. It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included on the report.
b. EMTs are not liable for any actions that are accurately documented.
c. Incomplete reports are common and accepted in EMS.
d. Patient care cannot be discredited based on poor documentation.
a. It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included on the report.
53
Which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct?
Select one:
A. Expressed consent is valid only if given in writing by a family member.
B. A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated.
C. Patients who are intoxicated are generally allowed to refuse treatment.
D. All patients older than 18 years can legally refuse treatment or transport.
B. A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated.
54
You and your partner arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The driver, a young male, is severely entrapped in his car. He has an open head injury and massive facial trauma. He is unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a palpable carotid pulse. You should:
Select one:
A. ventilate the patient for 5 minutes and then stop if there is no response.
B. stop any active bleeding and advise dispatch to send a paramedic crew.
C. request the fire department to extricate the patient so you can begin CPR.
D. have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that the patient is deceased.
D. have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that the patient is deceased
55
```
Which aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) MOST affects EMS personnel?
Select one:
A. Protecting patient privacy
B. Ensuring access to insurance
C. Controlling insurance costs
D. Preventing insurance fraud
```
A. Protecting patient privacy
56
You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle-versus-pedestrian accident. The patient, a 13-year-old male, is unconscious and has multiple injuries. As you are treating the child, a law enforcement officer advises you that the child's parents will be at the scene in approximately 15 minutes. What should you do?
Select one:
A. Begin transport at once and have the parents meet you en route to the hospital.
B. Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital.
C. Treat the child at the scene and wait for the parents to arrive and give consent.
D. Withhold treatment until the parents arrive and give you consent for treatment.
B. Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital.
57
To help protect patients, EMS agencies are required to have __________.
Select one:
A. public forums with their medical director
B. online access to patient records
C. a privacy officer to answer questions
D. an anonymous reporting system
C. a privacy officer to answer questions
58
```
Which type of consent is involved when a 39-year-old mentally competent female with a severe headache asks you to take her to the hospital?
Select one:
A. Implied
B. Informed
C. Expressed
D. Formal
```
C. Expressed
59
You are called to attend to an elderly patient with an extensive medical history who is now in cardiac arrest. The patient's family tells you that the patient has a DNR order. There is no paperwork available but the patient does have a MedicAlert bracelet indicating Do Not Resuscitate. You should:
Select one:
A. transport with minimal care.
B. initiate resuscitation in the absence of paperwork.
C. confirm the patient's identity and honor the DNR order.
D. confirm the patient identity and then confirm the DNR by calling the MedicAlert Foundation number on the bracelet.
D. confirm the patient identity and then confirm the DNR by calling the MedicAlert Foundation number on the bracelet.
60
As an EMT, the standards of emergency care are often partially based on:
Select one:
A. Patient care cannot be discredited based on poor documentation.
B. EMTs are not liable for any actions that are accurately documented.
C. It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included on the report.
D. Incomplete reports are common and accepted in EMS.
C. It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included on the report.
61
```
You could be sued for ___________ if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation.
Select one:
A. negligence
B. libel
C. slander
D. assault
```
C. slander
62
As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should:
Select one:
A. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician.
B. leave a copy of the run form with a nurse and then respond to the call.
C. place the patient in a high-visibility area and then respond to the call.
D. inform the admissions clerk of the situation and then respond at once.
A. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician.
63
A 4-year-old boy had an apparent seizure. He is conscious and calm and is sitting on his mother's lap. His father is sitting in a nearby chair. The child's mother suddenly begins crying uncontrollably, which causes the child to start crying. You should:
Select one:
A. ask the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother.
B. give the child a favorite toy or blanket to hold onto and perform your assessment to the best of your ability.
C. reassure the child's mother that seizures in children are very common and that there is nothing to worry about.
D. attempt to calm the child's mother, but avoid separating her from her child because this will increase her anxiety.
A. ask the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother.
64
Ethnocentrism is defined as:
Select one:
A. understanding that people from different cultural backgrounds respond to pain and stress differently.
B. suspecting that a person has an ulterior motive based on the tone of his or her voice when answering a question.
C. subconsciously forcing your cultural values onto a patient because you feel that your own values are more acceptable.
D. considering your own cultural values to be more important when interacting with people of a different culture.
D. considering your own cultural values to be more important when interacting with people of a different culture.
65
During your assessment of a 20-year-old man with a severe headache and nausea, you ask him when his headache began, but he does not answer your question immediately. You should:
Select one:
A. allow him time to think about the question and respond to it.
B. repeat your question because he probably did not hear you.
C. ask him if he frequently experiences severe headaches and nausea.
D. tell him that you cannot help him unless he answers your questions.
A. allow him time to think about the question and respond to it.
66
Medical control gives you an order that seems inappropriate for the patient's condition. After confirming that you heard the physician correctly, you should:
Select one:
A. state that you will not carry out the order because it is inappropriate.
B. carry out the order and then carefully document it on the run form.
C. advise the physician that the order is unclear and ask for clarification.
D. obtain consent from the patient and then carry out the order as usual.
C. advise the physician that the order is unclear and ask for clarification.
67
Effective therapeutic communication skills require _________.
Select one:
A. verbal and nonverbal communication techniques
B. correct use of complex medical terminology
C. supervision by advanced life support personnel
D. English-speaking patients or family members
A. verbal and nonverbal communication techniques
68
When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that:
Select one:
A. most older people think clearly and are capable of answering questions.
B. hostility and confusion should be presumed to be due to the patient's age.
C. your questions should focus exclusively on the patient's obvious problem.
D. speaking loudly and distinctly will ensure that the patient can hear you.
A. most older people think clearly and are capable of answering questions.
69
```
Which of the following incidents does NOT require a report to be filed with local authorities?
Select one:
A. Gunshot wounds
B. Animal bites
C. Spousal abuse
D. Cardiac arrest
```
D. Cardiac arrest
70
Communicating with patients who are deaf or hard-of-hearing can be facilitated by doing all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. shining a light on your face when you are in a darkened environment.
B. placing yourself in a position to ensure that the patient can see your lips.
C. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation.
D. providing pen and paper if the patient prefers to write his or her response.
C. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation.
71
Which of the following statements is NOT appropriate to document in the narrative section of a PCR?
Select one:
A. “The patient admits to smoking marijuana earlier in the day.”
B. “General impression revealed that the patient was intoxicated.”
C. “After oxygen was administered, the patient's breathing improved.”
D. “Significant damage was noted to the front end of the vehicle.”
B. “General impression revealed that the patient was intoxicated.”
72
Which of the following statements regarding a “dedicated line” is correct?
Select one:
A. It is a frequency that is used exclusively by EMTs to communicate with one another in the field.
B. It is a designated frequency on a portable radio that provides direct access to medical control.
C. It is a constantly open line of communication that cannot be accessed by outside users.
D. It is a constantly open line of communication that is under exclusive control of a single user.
C. It is a constantly open line of communication that cannot be accessed by outside users.
73
```
When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be:
Select one:
A. lengthy and complete.
B. brief and easily understood.
C. spoken in a loud voice.
D. coded and scripted.
```
B. brief and easily understood.
74
Which of the following statements regarding a patient refusal is correct?
Select one:
A. Advice given to a patient who refuses EMS treatment should not be documented.
B. Documentation of proposed care is unnecessary if the patient refuses treatment.
C. A patient who consumed a few beers will likely be able to refuse EMS treatment.
D. A mentally competent adult has the legal right to refuse EMS care and transport.
D. A mentally competent adult has the legal right to refuse EMS care and transport.
75
Which of the following will help improve radio communications?
Select one:
A. Answer questions with “yes” or “no.”
B. Wait 1 second after pressing the transmit button before speaking.
C. Hold the radio at least 6 inches from your mouth.
D. Use codes to speed communication.
B. Wait 1 second after pressing the transmit button before speaking.
76
```
Which of the following types of questions allow for the most detailed response?
Select one:
A. Closed-ended questions
B. Yes or no questions
C. Open-ended questions
D. Multiple questions asked at once
```
C. Open-ended questions
77
When providing a patient report via radio, you should protect the patient's privacy by:
Select one:
A. withholding medical history data.
B. not disclosing his or her name.
C. refraining from objective statements.
D. using coded medical language.
B. not disclosing his or her name.
78
```
You could be sued for ___________ if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation.
Select one:
A. negligence
B. libel
C. slander
D. assault
```
C. slander
79
You are caring for a 56-year-old male patient complaining of abdominal pain. Your service has recently switched to an electronic PCR system (ePCR). When completing the ePCR, it is important to be aware that:
Select one:
A. the ePCR is relatively unsecured and should not contain patient-specific information.
B. a written patient care record will need to be completed on arrival at the hospital.
C. the ePCR does not contain the same level of information as the written version and your verbal report should be expanded.
D. the ePCR allows patient information to be transmitted directly to the receiving hospital's computers.
D. the ePCR allows patient information to be transmitted directly to the receiving hospital's computers.
80
A 4-year-old boy had an apparent seizure. He is conscious and calm and is sitting on his mother's lap. His father is sitting in a nearby chair. The child's mother suddenly begins crying uncontrollably, which causes the child to start crying. You should:
Select one:
A. ask the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother.
B. give the child a favorite toy or blanket to hold onto and perform your assessment to the best of your ability.
C. reassure the child's mother that seizures in children are very common and that there is nothing to worry about.
D. attempt to calm the child's mother, but avoid separating her from her child because this will increase her anxiety.
A. ask the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother.
81
Worn out blood cells, foreign substances, and bacteria are filtered from the blood by the:
A. pancreas
B. liver
C. spleen
D. kidney
C. spleen
82
```
A patient has a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. The “130” in this measurement represents:
Select one:
A. ventricular contraction.
B. ventricular filling.
C. ventricular relaxation.
D. atrial contraction.
```
A. ventricular contraction
83
```
A patient has a large accumulation of blood in the sac surrounding the heart. Which type of shock would this condition cause?
Select one:
A. Hypovolemic
B. Obstructive
C. Cardiogenic
D. Neurogenic
```
B. Obstructive
84
```
Bile is produced by the liver and concentrated and stored in the:
Select one:
A. kidneys.
B. stomach.
C. gallbladder.
D. pancreas.
```
C. gallbladder
85
If a patient's chest barely moves during inhalation, even if the patient's respiratory rate is normal, you should suspect that:
Select one:
A. inspiratory reserve is increased.
B. expiratory reserve volume is decreased.
C. overall tidal volume is increased.
D. minute volume is decreased.
D. minute volume is decreased
86
Large amounts of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) are generated when:
Select one:
A. carbon dioxide levels in the blood are high.
B. the cells function with adequate oxygen.
C. circulating blood glucose levels fall.
D. the cells function without oxygen.
B. the cells function with adequate oxygen.
87
```
Pathophysiology is the study of the functional changes that occur when the body reacts to a particular:
Select one:
A. protocol.
B. disease.
C. assessment.
D. medication.
```
B. disease.
88
```
The ___________ is made up of the maxilla and zygoma, as well as the frontal bone of the cranium.
Select one:
A. orbit
B. sphenoid
C. occiput
D. mastoid
```
A. orbit
89
Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is a product of:
A. cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance
B. heart rate and systemic vascular resistance
C. heart rate and stroke volume
D. stroke volume and systemic vascular resistance.
A. cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance
90
The central nervous system is composed of the:
A. Motor and sensory nerves
B. spinal cord and sensory nerves
C. brain and sensory nerves
D. brain and spinal cord
D. brain and spinal cord
91
Which of the following structures does NOT contain smooth muscle?
A. Urinary system
B. Gastrointestinal tract
C, Blood vessels
D. Skeletal System
D. Skeletal System
92
The waste products of aerobic metabolism include:
A. Carbon dioxide and water
B. ATP and glucose
C. uric acid and nitrogen
D. glucose and lactic acid
A. Carbon dioxide and water
93
Cardiac output (CO) is affected by:
A. stroke volume and heart rate
B. Heart rate only
C. blood pressure
D. stroke volume only
A. stroke volume and heart rate
94
What happens when blood volume is lost from the body?
A. The veins dilate to increase systemic perfusion
B. The arteries contract to increase the blood pressure
C. widespread vasodilation causes blood pressure to decrease
D. arterial blood is diverted to the skin and muscles
B. The arteries contract to increase the blood pressure
95
A patient has a blood pressure of 130 / 70 mm hg. The "130" in this measurement represents:
A. atrial contraction
B. ventricular relaxation
C. ventricular filing
D. ventricular contraction
D. ventricular contraction
96
Large amounts of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) are generated when:
A. the cells function without oxygen
B. the cells function with adequate oxygen
C. circulating blood glucose levels falls
D. carbon dioxide levels in the blood are high
B. the cells function with adequate oxygen
97
What is the function of the Fallopian tubes?
A. To produce progesterone and estrogen
B. To transport a mature egg to the uterus
C. To connect the ovaries
D. To supply blood to the uterine lining
B. To transport a mature egg to the uterus
98
Which organ lies in the lateral and posterior portion of the left upper quadrant of the abdomen?
C. spleen
99
Breathing occurs as the result of a(n)
A. increase in oxygen, which decreases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid
B. increase in carbon dioxide, which decreases the Ph of the cerebrospinal fluid
C. decrease in carbon dioxide, which increases the Ph of the cerebrospinal fluid
D. decrease in oxygen, which increases the Ph of the cerebrospinal fluid
B. increase in carbon dioxide, which decreases the Ph of the cerebrospinal fluid
100
The carpal bones from the:
A. wrist
B. ankle
C. hand
D. foot
A. wrist
101
The amount of air remains in the lungs simply to keep them open is called the:
A. inspriatory reserve volume
B. expiratory reserve volume
C. residual volume
D. residual volume
D. residual volume
102
Which of the following is not a true of the lymphatic system?
A. its vessels closely parallel all the major arteries in the body
B. it relies on muscle movement to circulate lymph
C. It circulates oxygen, nutrients and hormones to the cells
D. It circulates waste products of metabolic away from cells
A. its vessels closely parallel all the major arteries in the body
103
Urine is transported from the kidneys to the urinary bladder via the:
A. ureters
B. urethra
C. prostate
D. renal duct.
A. ureters
104
The ____ is a muscular dome that forms the inferior boundary of the thorax, separating the thorax from the abdomen
A. mediastinum
B. costal arch
C. costovertebral angle
D. diaphgragm
D. diaphgragm
105
The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull called the:
A. spinous foramen
B. foramen magnum
C. foramen ovale
D. vertebral foramen
B. foramen magnum
106
____ pressure is the pressure exerted by a liquid that occurs when blood moves through an artery at relatively high pressures
A. osmotic
B. hydrostatic
C. diffusion
D. oncotic
B. hydrostatic
107
Which of the following systems is responsible for releasing hormones that regulate body activities?
A. endocrine
B. skeletal
C. reproductive
D. nervous
A. endocrine
108
Which of the following is not a function of the skin?
A. Metabolic coordination
B. pressure and pain perception
C. sensory reception
D. Temperature regulation
A. Metabolic coordination
109
Negative - pressure breathing involves:
A. a drop in pressure within the chest cavity
B. increasing airway resistance during breathing
C. relaxing the respiratory muscles
D. pushing or forcing air into the lungs
A. a drop in pressure within the chest cavity
110
The femoral head forms a ball and socket joint with the:
A. femoral condyle
B. ischium
C. Ilium
D. acetabulum
D. Acetabulum
111
Which of the following is not a common factor that would affect a 75 year old patients vital signs?
A. medical conditions
B. medications
C. overall health
D. increased weight
D. increased weight
112
What age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children?
A. 18 to 24 months
B. 10 to 18 months
C. 6 to 8 months
D. 24 to 36 months
B. 10 to 18 months
113
The anterior fontanelle fuses together between the ages of:
A. 7 and 14 months
B. 3 and 4 months
C. 9 and 18 months
D. 6 and 18 months
C. 9 and 18 months
114
According to the terminal drop hypothesis:
A. a person's physical health begins to decline after the age of 75 years
B. mental function is presumed to decline in the 5 years preceding death
C. Most elderly patients experience depression after the death of a loved one
D. most late stage adults retain high brain function until. 1 month before death
B. mental function is presumed to decline in the 5 years preceding death
115
Aged related changes in the renal system in:
A. dilation of the blood vessels that supply the nephrons which allows the kidney to maintain their function.
B. a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased a ability to conserve fluids when needed
C. The formation of large amounts of urine secondary to an increase in kidney mass of up to 20%
D. a significant increase in filtration, which causes the exretion of large amounts of water from the body.
B. a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased a ability to conserve fluids when needed
116
Atherosclerosis is defined as ___
A. constriction of blood vessels
B. dilation of the Arties
C. the blockage of a coronary artery
D. the buildup of plaque inside blood vessels
D. the buildup of plaque inside blood vessels
117
The average pulse rate of a persons between 19 and 60 years of is typically:
A. 80 beats / min
B. 90 beats / min
C. 60 beats / min
D. 70 beats / min
D. 70 beats / min
118
An infant's blood pressure typically increases with age because:
A. his or her normal heart rate usually increases with age
B. the infants total blood volume decreases with age
C. as the infant gets older, his or her blood vessels dilate
D. blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight
D. blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight
119
You are assessing a 13 month old female who is running a fever and has been vomiting. While you are performing your physical examination on this child, you will most likely find that she:
A. Will readily allow you to separate her from her mother
B. is unable to track your movements with her eyes
C. has bulging fontanels secondary to severe dehydration
D. responds to her name but is fearful of your presence
D. responds to her name but is fearful of your presence
120
Factors that contribute to a decline in the vital capacity of an elderly patient include all the following except:
A. decreased residual volume
B. increased stiffness of the thoracic cage
C. increased surface area available for air exchange
D. a loss of respiratory muscle mass
C. increased surface area available for air exchange
121
The risk of bleeding in the skull, which increases with age is most directly related to:
A. a decrease in neurons
B. shrinkage of the brain
C. meningeal deterioration
D. blood vessel dilation
B. shrinkage of the brain
122
Which of the following are noticeable characteristics of a 9 month old infant?
A. walks without help, becomes frustrated with restrictions
B. knows his or her name, can walk without any assistance
C. responds to his or her name, crawls around efficiently
D. places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up
D. places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up
123
Why does the incidence of diabetes mellitus increase with age?
A. decreased food intake, decreased weight gain, and decreased blood sugar levels
B. decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased insulin production
C. decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased blood sugar levels
D. increased physical activity, increased food intake, and increased insulin production
B. decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased insulin production
124
The areas of the skull have not yet fused together are called
A. ventricles
B. sutures
C. fontanelles
D. cranial valleys
C. fontanelles
125
What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult?
A. 25 - 50 breaths / min
B. 40 - 60 breaths / min
C. 12 - 20 breaths / min
D. 15 - 30 breaths / min
C. 12 - 20 breaths / min
126
Which of the following statements regarding an infant's vital signs is correct?
A. by 6 months, an infants normal tidal volume is 2 to 4 mL/kg
B. An infants normal heart rate is increased by 10 beats / min each month.
C. an infants heart rate generally ranges between 70 and 110 beats / min
D. An infants normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschoolers
D. An infants normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschoolers
127
A 16 year old female complains of vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping that began several hours ago. During your assessment interview, you should:
A. obtain the majority of your information from one of her parents
B. avoid asking questions she will feel uncomfortable answering
C. inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible
D. recall that patients in this age prefer not to be treated as adults
C. inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible
128
In late adults, the amount of air left in the lungs after expiration of maximum amount of air:
A. remains unchanged because the lungs have become accustomed to years breathing pollution
B. decreased, which increases diffusion in the lungs and causes an accumulation of carbon dioxide
C. decreases, resulting in widespread collapsing of the alveoli and impaired diffusion of gases
D. increased, which hampers diffusion of gases because of the stagnant air that remains in the alveoli
D. increased, which hampers diffusion of gases because of the stagnant air that remains in the alveoli
129
Which of the following describes the moro reflex?
A. when the sole of the root is stroke with blunt objects, the big toe lifts upward and the other toes fan outward.
B. an infants heart rate decreases secondary to hypoxia because he or she depends heavily on the heart rate to perfuse the body
C. when something touches a neonates cheek, he or she instinctively turns his or her head toward the touch
D. the neonate opens his or her arms wide, spreads his or her fingers, and seems to grasp at something after being startled
D. the neonate opens his or her arms wide, spreads his or her fingers, and seems to grasp at something after being startled
130
```
The _________ is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle.
Select one:
A. coccyx
B. sacrum
C. ischium
D. thorax
```
B. sacrum
131
In contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include:
Select one:
A. a collapsible undercarriage.
B. weight capacity of up to 650 lb.
C. increased stability from a wider wheelbase.
D. two safety rails on both sides of the stretcher.
C. increased stability from a wider wheelbase.
132
```
It is essential that you ____________ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease.
Select one:
A. decontaminate
B. throw out
C. properly store
D. incinerate
```
A. decontaminate
133
```
The proper technique for using the power grip is to:
Select one:
A. rotate your palms down.
B. position your hands about 6² apart.
C. hold the handle with your fingers.
D. lift with your palms up.
```
D. lift with your palms up.
134
```
To protect a restrained patient and prevent him from using leverage to break free, the EMT should secure __________.
Select one:
A. both arms above the head
B. one arm above the head
C. both arms at the patient's sides
D. only the patient's torso
```
B. one arm above the head
135
To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should:
Select one:
A. flex at the waist instead of the hips.
B. use a direct carry whenever possible.
C. avoid the use of log rolls or body drags.
D. keep the weight as close to your body as possible.
D. keep the weight as close to your body as possible.
136
Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you find a single patient still seated in his car. There are no scene hazards. As you approach the vehicle, you note that the patient is semiconscious and has a large laceration to his forehead. You should:
Select one:
A. direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient's head.
B. apply a vest-style extrication device before attempting to move the patient.
C. apply a cervical collar and quickly remove the patient with a clothes drag.
D. slide a long backboard under his buttocks and lay him sideways on the board.
A. direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient's head.
137
```
When pulling a patient, you should extend your arms no more than ________ in front of your torso.
Select one:
A. 20 to 30 inches
B. 5 to 10 inches
C. 15 to 20 inches
D. 10 to 15 inches
```
C. 15 to 20 inches
138
An EMT may injure his or her back, even if it is straight, if the:
Select one:
A. shoulder is aligned over the pelvis.
B. hands are held close to the legs.
C. back is bent forward at the hips.
D. force is exerted straight down the spine.
C. back is bent forward at the hips
139
To facilitate a safe and coordinated move, the team leader should:
Select one:
A. speak softly but clearly to avoid startling the patient.
B. never become involved in the move, only direct the move.
C. use preparatory commands to initiate any moves.
D. be positioned at the feet so the team can hear.
C. use preparatory commands to initiate any moves.
140
```
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate device to use when immobilizing a patient with a suspected spinal injury?
Select one:
A. Scoop stretcher
B. Wheeled stretcher
C. Portable stretcher
D. Long backboard
```
D. Long backboard
141
Which of the following statements regarding an emergency patient move is correct?
Select one:
A. It is not possible to perform an emergency move without injuring the patient.
B. The patient is dragged against the body's long axis during an emergency move.
C. An emergency move is performed before the primary assessment and treatment.
D. The spine must be fully immobilized prior to performing an emergency move.
C. An emergency move is performed before the primary assessment and treatment.
142
```
Which of the following conditions or situations presents the MOST unique challenge to the EMT when immobilizing an elderly patient on a long backboard?
Select one:
A. Patient disorientation
B. Naturally deformed bones
C. Joint flexibility
D. Abnormal spinal curvature
```
D. Abnormal spinal curvature
143
Which of the following statements regarding patient weight distribution is correct?
Select one:
A. The majority of a horizontal patient's weight is in the torso.
B. Most of the patient's weight rests on the foot end of the stretcher.
C. A semi-sitting patient's weight is equally distributed on both ends.
D. The EMT at the patient's head will bear the least amount of weight.
A. The majority of a horizontal patient's weight is in the torso.
144
You are attending to a 22-year-old female patient who has overdosed. The patient is unresponsive in an upstairs bedroom. The most appropriate way to bring the patient downstairs is:
Select one:
A. secured to a stair chair with the strongest provider at the foot end.
B. secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the foot end.
C. secured to a stair chair with the strongest provider at the head end.
D. secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the head end.
D. secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the head end.
145
```
You are attending to a 26-year-old female who is 34 weeks pregnant with her first child. Your patient has been having lower abdominal pains and cramping for the past two hours. In placing your patient on the stretcher and preparing for transport, you should place her:
Select one:
A. in a position of comfort.
B. supine with her legs elevated.
C. on her left side.
D. in the Fowler position.
```
C. on her left side.
146
```
It is essential that you ____________ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease.
Select one:
A. decontaminate
B. throw out
C. properly store
D. incinerate
```
A. decontaminate
147
```
A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious. He is screaming in pain and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. You should:
Select one:
A. elevate his legs and keep him warm.
B. apply direct pressure to the wound.
C. administer 100% supplemental oxygen.
D. ensure that his airway is patent.
```
B. apply direct pressure to the wound
148
During an EMS call, you should take standard precautions:
Select one:
A. before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact.
B. before you load the patient into the ambulance.
C. after it has been determined that the patient is bleeding.
D. immediately after completion of your primary assessment.
A. before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact.
149
```
An elderly patient has fallen and hit her head. Your initial care should focus on:
Select one:
A. obtaining baseline vital signs.
B. providing immediate transport.
C. gathering medical history data.
D. airway, breathing, and circulation.
```
D. airway, breathing, and circulation.
150
An injured patient is assigned a total score of 9 on the GCS. He is assigned a score of 2 for eye opening, a score of 3 for verbal response, and a score of 4 for motor response. Which of the following clinical findings is consistent with his GCS score?
Select one:
A. Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain
B. Opens eyes in response to voice, makes incomprehensible sounds, localizes pain
C. Opens eyes spontaneously, is confused when spoken to, exhibits abnormal flexion
D. Eyes remain closed, makes incomprehensible sounds, exhibits abnormal extension
A. Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain
151
The chief complaint is MOST accurately defined as the:
Select one:
A. most serious thing the patient is concerned about.
B. most life-threatening condition that you discover.
C. gross physical signs that you detect on assessment.
D. condition that exacerbates an underlying problem.
A. most serious thing the patient is concerned about.
152
```
The rapid exam of a patient that occurs following the primary assessment should take no longer than:
Select one:
A. 120 to 180 seconds.
B. 90 to 120 seconds.
C. 60 to 90 seconds.
D. 30 seconds.
```
C. 60 to 90 seconds.
153
```
In patients with deeply pigmented skin, changes in color may be apparent only in certain areas, such as the:
Select one:
A. lips or oral mucosa.
B. forehead and face.
C. back of the neck.
D. dorsum of the hand.
```
A. lips or oral mucosa.
154
```
Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident should be determined after:
Select one:
A. all the patients have been triaged.
B. a physician arrives at the scene.
C. area hospitals have been notified.
D. the number of patients is known.
```
A. all the patients have been triaged.
155
```
What maneuver should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive patient with suspected trauma?
Select one:
A. Tongue-jaw lift
B. Head tilt–neck lift
C. Head tilt–chin lift
D. Jaw-thrust maneuver
```
D. Jaw - thrust maneuever
156
When approaching a 32-year-old male who is complaining of traumatic neck pain, you should:
Select one:
A. ensure that the patient can see you approaching him.
B. stand behind him and immediately stabilize his head.
C. assess his mental status by having him move his head.
D. approach him from behind and ask him not to move.
A. ensure that the patient can see you approaching him.
157
```
Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to cause an altered level of consciousness?
Select one:
A. Inadequate perfusion
B. Acute anxiety
C. Drug overdose
D. Poisoning
```
B. Acute anxiety
158
```
When you shine a light into one pupil, the normal reaction of the other pupil should be to:
Select one:
A. become larger.
B. dilate.
C. not react.
D. become smaller.
```
D. become smaller.
159
You are assessing a 72-year-old man with abdominal pain. The patient is sitting in a chair; he is conscious, alert, and calm. As you are talking to the patient, your partner discreetly directs your attention to a handgun, which is located on a nearby table. You should:
Select one:
A. position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance.
B. direct your partner to move the gun to a safe area and then advise the patient that his weapon has been secured.
C. document the presence of the weapon, including its specific location, and continue your assessment of the patient.
D. immediately cease all patient care, carefully back out of the residence, and request law enforcement assistance.
A. position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance.
160
Which of the following actions would NOT be performed during the scene size-up?
Select one:
A. Asking a neighbor to secure the patient's dog
B. Notifying the dispatcher to send fire personnel
C. Rapidly assessing a patient's respiratory status
D. Noting the position of a crashed motor vehicle
C. Rapidly assessing a patient's respiratory status
161
How does CPAP improve oxygenation and ventilation in patients with certain respiratory problems?
Select one:
A. It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which allows more room for lung expansion.
B. It pushes thick, infected pulmonary secretions into isolated areas of the lung.
C. It forces the alveoli open and pushes oxygen across the alveolar membrane.
D. It prevents alveolar collapse by pushing air into the lungs during inhalation.
C. It forces the alveoli open and pushes oxygen across the alveolar membrane.
162
```
Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called:
Select one:
A. ataxic respirations.
B. eupneic respirations.
C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
D. agonal respirations.
```
C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
163
```
When testing a mechanical suctioning unit, you should turn on the device, clamp the tubing, and ensure that it generates a vacuum pressure of more than:
Select one:
A. 100 mm Hg.
B. 200 mm Hg.
C. 400 mm Hg.
D. 300 mm Hg.
```
D. 300 mm Hg.
164
In which of the following patients would the head tilt–chin lift maneuver be the MOST appropriate method of opening the airway?
Select one:
A. A 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed
B. A 50-year-old male who is unconscious following head trauma
C. A 45-year-old male who is semiconscious after falling 20 feet
D. A 24-year-old male who is found unconscious at the base of a tree
A. A 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed
165
Which of the following statements regarding breathing adequacy is correct?
Select one:
A. Patients with a grossly irregular breathing pattern usually do not require assisted ventilation.
B. Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate.
C. A patient with slow respirations and adequate depth will experience an increase in minute volume.
D. The single most reliable sign of breathing adequacy in the adult is his or her respiratory rate.
B. Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate.
166
```
A man was found unresponsive in his bed at home. There is no evidence of injury and the patient's medical history is not known. The patient's face is cyanotic, yet the pulse oximeter reads 98%. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this?
Select one:
A. His extremities are cold
B. Severe pulmonary edema
C. Increased body temperature
D. Carbon monoxide poisoning
```
D. Carbon monoxide poisoning
167
```
The physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs is called:
Select one:
A. diffusion.
B. oxygenation.
C. respiration.
D. ventilation.
```
D. ventilation.
168
```
You are performing mouth-to-mask ventilations with oxygen connected and set at a flow rate of 15 L/min. What percentage of oxygen is your patient receiving?
Select one:
A. 55%
B. 45%
C. 75%
D. 65%
```
A. 55%
169
```
A patient who is suspected of being hypoxic and is breathing adequately should be given supplemental oxygen with a:
Select one:
A. nonrebreathing mask.
B. bag-valve mask.
C. mouth-to-mask device.
D. nasal cannula.
```
A. nonrebreathing mask.
170
Which of the following patients should you place in the recovery position?
Select one:
A. A 19-year-old conscious male with a closed head injury and normal respirations
B. A 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing
C. A 40-year-old conscious female with a possible neck injury and regular respirations
D. A 24-year-old unconscious female who overdosed and has a reduced tidal volume
B. A 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing
171
What occurs when a patient is breathing very rapidly and shallowly?
Select one:
A. The majority of tidal volume reaches the lungs and diffuses across the alveolar–capillary membrane.
B. Minute volume increases because of a marked increase in both tidal volume and respiratory rate.
C. Air is forcefully drawn into the lungs due to the negative pressure created by the rapid respirations.
D. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange.
D. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange
172
```
You are ventilating a patient with a stoma; however, air is escaping from the mouth and nose. To prevent this, you should:
Select one:
A. seal the mouth and nose.
B. ventilate with less pressure.
C. thoroughly suction the stoma.
D. thrust the jaw forward.
```
A. seal the mouth and nose.
173
A 19-year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your primary assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should:
Select one:
A. insert the airway no further but leave it in place as a bite block.
B. continue to insert the airway as you suction her oropharynx.
C. remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx.
D. select a smaller oropharyngeal airway and attempt to insert it.
C. remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx.
174
Which of the following statements regarding oxygen is correct?
Select one:
A. Oxygen is most safely administered in an enclosed environment.
B. Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire.
C. Oxygen cylinders must always remain in an upright position.
D. Oxygen is flammable and may explode if under high pressure.
B. Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire.
175
Which of the following statements regarding normal gas exchange in the lungs is correct?
Select one:
A. The oxygen content in the alveoli is highest during the exhalation phase.
B. The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the capillaries.
C. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries. D. Blood that returns to the lungs from the body has low levels of carbon dioxide.
C. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries.
176
Which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator of adequately performed bag-valve mask ventilations in an apneic adult with a pulse?
Select one:
A. Decreased compliance when squeezing the bag
B. Consistently increasing heart rate
C. Twenty breaths/min being delivered to the adult
D. Adequate rise of the chest when squeezing the bag
D. Adequate rise of the chest when squeezing the bag
177
```
During your assessment of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear wheezing when listening to breath sounds. This indicates:
Select one:
A. a lower airway obstruction.
B. secretions in the airway.
C. swelling of the upper airway.
D. fluid in the alveoli.
```
A. a lower airway obstruction.
178
Aspirin is beneficial to patients suspected of having a heart attack because it:
A. causes direct coronary vasodilation
B. reduces to associated chest pain
C. prevents aggregations of platelets
D. dissolves the coronary artery clot
C. prevents aggregations of platelets
179
EMT's respond to a known heroin abuser who is responsive. If they give naloxone (Narcan) to this patient, the EMT's should recall that:
A. Naloxone should be administered in increments of 2 mg
B. naloxone should not be given if the patient's breathing is slow
C. naloxone administration could cause seizures in this patient
D. the effects of naloxone last longer than most opioid drugs
C. naloxone administration could cause seizures in this patient
180
Activated charcoal is an example of a(n):
A. solution
B. elixir
C. suspension
D. gel
C. suspension
181
How is nitroglycerin usually given by the EMT?
A. Inhaled
B. Orally
C. Sublingually
D. Injected
C. Sublingually
182
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of epinephrine?
A. decreases heart rate and blood pressure
B. secreted naturally by the adrenal glands
C. dilates passages in the lungs
D. constricts the blood vessels
A. decreases heart rate and blood pressure
183
What medication form does oral glucose come in?
A. suspension
B. liquid
C. Gel
D. Fine powder
C. Gel
184
Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct?
A. glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodsteam
B. Glucose is given to patients who are suspected of being hyperglycemic
C. Glucose is a complex of sugar that rapidly absorbs into the bloodstream
D. Glucose is usually administered by the EMT via the intravenous route
A. glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream
185
A 31 year old female is experiencing an acute asthma attack. She is concuss and alert, but in obvious respiratory distress. After assisting her with prescribed MDI, you should;
A. reassess the patient and document her response to the medication
B. Contact medical control and apprise him or her what you did
C. administer another treatment in 30 seconds if she is still in distress.
D. Check the drug's expiration date to ensure that it is still current.
A. reassess the patient and document her response to the medication
186
Which of the following is an example of a generic drug?
A. Bayer
B. Exedrin
C. Advil
D. Aspirin
D. Aspirin
187
Medications encased in a gelatin shell that are taken by mouth are called:
A. caplets
B. capsules
C. tablets
D. pills
B. capsules
188
When assessing an elderly man who complains of nausea and generalized weakness, you find that he takes atrovastatin (Lipitor) and amlodipine (norvasc). These medications suggest a history of:
A. bacterial infection
B. reactive airway disease
C. cardiovascular diease
D. non - insulin - depdedent diabetes
C. cardiovascular disease
189
Which of the following medication routes delivers through the skin over an extended period of time such as a nitroglycerin or nicotine patch?
A. Transcutaneous
B. Intaosseous
C. Subcutaenous
D. Sublingual
A. Transcutaneous
190
A 74 year old women complains of heaviness in her chest, nausea, and sweating that suddenly began about an hour ago. She is conscious and alert, but anxious. Her blood pressure is 144 / 84 and her heart rate is 110 beats. She took two of her prescribed nitroglycerin (0.4) before your arrival but still feel heaviness in her chest, you should:
B. recall that geriatric patients often have slower absorption and eliminate times which may necessitate modification of the dosing of certain drugs.
191
The medical term for an extremity low blood glucose level is:
A. hypotension
B. hypoglycemia
C. hyperglycemia
D. hypertension
B. hypoglycemia
192
Advil, nubbin, and Motrin are trade names for the generic medication:
A. acetaminophen
B. nitrostat
C. aspirin
D. ibuprofen
D. ibuprofen
193
A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should:
Select one:
A. administer high-flow supplemental oxygen.
B. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist.
C. wrap the towel with pressure bandages.
D. apply pressure to the brachial artery.
B. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist.
194
A 25-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. She has signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the result of intrathoracic bleeding. Which of the following interventions will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival?
```
Select one:
A. High-flow oxygen administration
B. Intravenous fluid administration
C. Rapid transport to a trauma center
D. Full immobilization of her spine
```
C. Rapid transport to a trauma center
195
Foods, medications, and insects are common causes of ________.
```
Select one:
A. psychogenic shock
B. neurogenic shock
C. septic shock
D. anaphylactic shock
```
D. anaphylactic shock
196
Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during:
```
Select one:
A. anaphylactic shock.
B. neurogenic shock.
C. cardiogenic shock.
D. septic shock.
```
C. cardiogenic shock.
197
Shock due to severe infection is called ________.
```
Select one:
A. anaphylactic shock
B. hypovolemic shock
C. neurogenic shock
D. septic shock
```
D. septic shock
198
When assessing a patient with signs and symptoms of shock, it is important to remember that:
Select one:
A. irreversible shock often responds well to a prompt blood transfusion.
B. blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock.
C. the patient's respirations are deep during the early stages of shock.
D. multiple fractures are the most common cause of hypovolemic shock.
B. blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock.
199
Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock?
```
Select one:
A. Cardiac tamponade
B. Liver laceration
C. Simple pneumothorax
D. Spinal cord injury
```
A. Cardiac tamponade
200
You suspect your patient is in shock. You note the patient's skin is pale. This is likely due to ___________.
```
Select one:
A. peripheral vasoconstriction
B. an increased heart rate
C. peripheral vasodilation
D. hypothermia
```
C. peripheral vasodilation
201
Your patient has a decreased cardiac output and poor myocardial contractility. This will likely lead to ___________.
```
Select one:
A. hypovolemic shock
B. septic shock
C. neurogenic shock
D. cardiogenic shock
```
D. cardiogenic shock
202
```
Your patient is in shock, but the body's defense mechanisms are currently able to maintain adequate circulation. This is called ___________.
Select one:
A. decompensated shock
B. late shock
C. irreversible shock
D. compensated shock
```
D. compensated shock
203
A 56 year old male is found semiconscious by his wife. Your assessment reveals that his respirations are rapid and shallow, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is low. The patients life states he he complained of left arm pain and nausea the day before, but would not allow her to call 9 - 1 -1. The patient most condition most likely:
A. A ruptured aortic aneurysm
B. Acute myocardial infaraction
C. Cardiogenic hypoperfusion
D. severe septic hypoperfusion
C. Cardiogenic hypoperfusion
204
Clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following, except:
A. cool and clammy skin
B. rapid, shallow breathing
C. restlessness or anxiety
D. absent peripheral pulses
D. absent peripheral pulses
205
Neurogenic shock occurs when:
A. the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging
B. there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular contrainer
C. failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation
D. massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury
C. failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation
206
```
Crackles (rales) are caused by _________.
Select one:
A. narrowing of the upper airways
B. severe bronchoconstriction
C. air passing through fluid
D. mucus in the larger airways
```
C. air passing through fluid
207
You are assisting an asthma patient with his prescribed metered-dose inhaler. After the patient takes a deep breath and depresses the inhaler, you should:
Select one:
A. allow him to breathe room air and assess his oxygen saturation.
B. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can.
C. immediately reapply the oxygen mask and reassess his condition.
D. advise him to exhale forcefully to ensure medication absorption.
B. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can.
208
```
Which of the following must be assessed in every respiratory patient?
Select one:
A. Distal pulse, motor, sensation
B. Lung sounds
C. Blood glucose levels
D. Orthostatic vital signs
```
B. Lung Sounds
209
Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing?
Select one:
A. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin
B. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis
C. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor
D. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin
D. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin
210
```
When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has:
Select one:
A. abnormal breath sounds.
B. diminished breath sounds.
C. normal breath sounds.
D. an absence of breath sounds.
```
A. abnormal breath sounds.
211
```
A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition?
Select one:
A. Exacerbation of his COPD
B. Spontaneous pneumothorax
C. Rupture of the diaphragm
D. Acute pulmonary embolism
```
B. Spontaneous pneumothorax
212
```
His parents tell you that their son has had a chest infection for the past two days and when they took him to their family doctor, they were told it was likely due to the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). They have kept him well hydrated, but the infection seems to have gotten worse. On auscultation, you hear decreased air entry bilaterally with fine expiratory wheezes and the occasional coarse wet crackle. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from:
Select one:
A. epiglottitis.
B. pertussis.
C. bronchiolitis.
D. croup.
```
C. bronchiolitis.
213
You are attending to a 54-year-old female patient in a homeless shelter. The patient tells you that she had the flu a couple of weeks ago, and she has not gotten over it. She has been tired and keeps waking up at night, sweating. She has been coughing up blood-tinged sputum occasionally and has been experiencing episodes of chest pain that get worse when she breathes. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from:
Select one:
A. influenza Type A.
B. pneumonia.
C. tuberculosis.
D. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
C. tuberculosis.
214
```
Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to result in hypoxia?
Select one:
A. Pleural effusion
B. Pulmonary edema
C. Severe anxiety
D. Narcotic overdose
```
C. Severe anxiety
215
```
Which of the following is a genetic disorder that predisposes the patient to repeated lung infections?
Select one:
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Severe acute respiratory syndrome
C. Celiac sprue
D. Multiple sclerosis
```
A. Cystic fibrosis
216
A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as:
Select one:
A. fluid accumulation outside the lung.
B. a unilaterally collapsed lung.
C. a bacterial infection of the lung tissue.
D. diffuse collapsing of the alveoli.
A. fluid accumulation outside the lung.
217
```
In what area of the lungs does respiration occur?
Select one:
A. Bronchi
B. Trachea
C. Alveoli
D. Capillaries
```
C. Alveoli
218
```
Your patient has a chronic respiratory condition. His stimulus to breathe is triggered by low oxygen levels in the blood. This is known as the ___________.
Select one:
A. COPD drive
B. hypoxic drive
C. CO2 drive
D. alternate drive
```
B. hypoxic drive
219
```
“PASTE” is an alternate assessment tool for ___________.
Select one:
A. cardiac patients
B. respiratory patients
C. seizure patients
D. stroke patients
```
B. respiratory patients
220
```
Asthma is caused by a response of the:
Select one:
A. respiratory system.
B. endocrine system.
C. immune system.
D. cardiovascular system.
```
C. immune system.
221
You are attending to a 3-year-old male patient who is presenting with severe shortness of breath. His parents report that he has had a cough and cold with a low grade fever for the past two days. They became worried today, as his level of distress has increased dramatically. On assessment, the patient is sitting upright and making high-pitched noises with each breath. Based on this information, the patient is most likely suffering from:
Select one:
A. bacterial infection of the epiglottis.
B. inflammation of the bronchioles.
C. inflammation of the lower respiratory tract and bronchospasm.
D. viral infection of the upper respiratory tract.
D. viral infection of the upper respiratory tract.
222
Treatment with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) would MOST likely be contraindicated in which of the following situations?
Select one:
A. Pulmonary edema, history of hypertension, and anxiety
B. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg
C. Difficulty breathing, two-word dyspnea, and tachycardia
D. Conscious and alert patient with an oxygen saturation of 85%
B. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg
223
In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur:
Select one:
A. there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion.
B. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar–capillary membrane.
C. the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed.
D. the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen.
B. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar–capillary membrane.
224
```
A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all the lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him high-flow oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is:
Select one:
A. a beta-antagonist.
B. an antihistamine.
C. albuterol.
D. epinephrine.
```
D. epinephrine.
225
```
Signs and symptoms of a hypertensive emergency would MOST likely be delayed in patients who:
Select one:
A. regularly take illegal drugs.
B. are older than 40 years of age.
C. have had a stroke in the past.
D. have chronic hypertension.
```
D. have chronic hypertension.
226
```
Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the:
Select one:
A. right atrium.
B. left ventricle.
C. left atrium.
D. right ventricle.
```
A. right atrium.
227
```
After the AED has delivered a shock, the EMT should:
Select one:
A. assess for a carotid pulse.
B. transport the patient at once.
C. re-analyze the cardiac rhythm.
D. immediately resume CPR.
```
D. immediately resume CPR.
228
Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients:
Select one:
A. who have taken up to two doses.
B. who have experienced a head injury.
C. with a history of an ischemic stroke.
D. with a systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg
B. who have experienced a head injury
229
A patient with atherosclerotic heart disease experiences chest pain during exertion because:
Select one:
A. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow.
B. the ragged edge of a tear in the coronary artery lumen causes local blood clotting and arterial narrowing.
C. the coronary arteries suddenly spasm and cause a marked reduction in myocardial blood flow.
D. tissues of the myocardium undergo necrosis secondary to a prolonged absence of oxygen.
A. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow.
230
```
A patient tells you that he has a left ventricular assist device (LVAD). Which of the following conditions should you suspect that he has experienced?
Select one:
A. Obstructive lung disease
B. Acute myocardial infarction
C. Uncontrolled hypertension
D. Thoracic aortic aneurysm
```
B. Acute myocardial infarction
231
Most AEDs are set up to adjust the voltage based on the impedance, which is the:
Select one:
A. distance between the two AED pads on the chest.
B. actual amount of energy that the AED will deliver.
C. resistance of the body to the flow of electricity.
D. direction that the electrical flow takes in the body.
C. resistance of the body to the flow of electricity.
232
A 49-year-old male presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You should:
Select one:
A. assess the adequacy of his respirations.
B. administer up to 324 mg of baby aspirin.
C. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin.
D. obtain vital signs and a SAMPLE history.
A. assess the adequacy of his respirations.
233
```
The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the:
Select one:
A. bundle of His.
B. atrioventricular node.
C. sinoatrial node.
D. coronary sinus.
```
C. sinoatrial node.
234
A 66-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours' duration. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and irregular, her respirations are 22 breaths/min, and her oxygen saturation is 92%. The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should:
Select one:
A. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further.
B. obtain a SAMPLE history and contact medical control for advice.
C. give her high-flow oxygen, attach the AED, and transport at once.
D. give her one nitroglycerin and reassess her systolic blood pressure.
A. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further.
235
```
Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure?
Select one:
A. Flat jugular veins
B. Pulmonary edema
C. Dependent edema
D. Labored breathing
```
C. Dependent edema
236
```
Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom associated with malfunction of an implanted cardiac pacemaker?
Select one:
A. Generalized weakness
B. Syncope or dizziness
C. Heart rate less than 60 beats/min
D. A rapid heart rate
```
D. A rapid heart rate
237
```
When preparing to obtain a 12-lead ECG, the “LL” and “RL” electrodes should be placed:
Select one:
A. on either side of the chest.
B. on the lower abdomen.
C. on the thighs or ankles.
D. anywhere on the arms.
```
C. on the thighs or ankles.
238
Angina pectoris occurs when:
Select one:
A. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply.
B. myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand.
C. one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm.
D. a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque.
A. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply.
239
A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when:
Select one:
A. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall.
B. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding.
C. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract.
D. the inner layers of the aorta become separated.
D. the inner layers of the aorta become separated.
240
```
Your patient opens his eyes, moans and pulls away from you when you pinch his trapezius muscle. You should assign a Glasgow coma scale of:
A. 8
B. 9
C. 7
D. 6
```
A. 8
241
You are caring for a 70 year old female with signs and symptoms of acute stroke. She is conscious, has secretions in her mouth, is breathing at a normal rate with adequate depth, and has an oxygen saturation of 96%. You should:
A. administer one tube of oral glucose and transport
B. insert an oral airway, apply oxygen, and transport
C. assist her ventilations with a bag valve mask
D. suction her oropharynx and transport immediately
D. suction her oropharynx and transport immediately
242
The mental status of a patient who has experienced a generalized seziure
A. Is likely to improve over a period of 5 to 30 minutes
B. is easily differentiated from that of acute hypoglycemia
C. typically does not improve, even after several minutes
D. progressively worsens over a period of a few hours
A. Is likely to improve over a period of 5 to 30 minutes
243
You are assessing the arm drift component of the Cincinnati prehospital stroke scale on a 60 year old woman. When she holds her arms out in front of her and closes her eyes, both of her arms immediately fall on her sides. You should:
A. defer this part f the test and assess her for facial droop and slurred speech
B. repeat the arm drift test, but move the patients arm into position yourself.
C. repeat the arm drift test and ensure that her palms are facing downward
D. Instruct the patient to keep her eyes open than repeat the arm drift test.
B. repeat the arm drift test, but move the patients arm into position yourself.
244
A transient ischemic attack (TIA) occurs when:
A. signs and symptoms resolve spontaneously within 48 hours
B. medications are given to dissolve a cerebral blood clot
C. a small clot in a cerebral artery causes temporary symptoms
D. a small cerebral artery ruptures and causes minimal damage
C. a small clot in a cerebral artery causes temporary symptoms
245
The most basic functions of the body such as breathing, blood pressure, and swallowing are controlled by the:
A. cerebral cortex
B. cerebrum
C. cerebellum
D. brain stem
D. brain stem
246
Which of the following conditions would be the LEASTA likely to mimic the signs and symptoms of a stroke?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. A postictal state
C. Hypovolemia
D. Intracranial bleeding
C. Hypovolemia
247
When transporting a stable stroke patient with a paralyzed extremity, place the patient in a:
A. recumbent position with the paralyzed side down
B. supine position with the legs elevated 6 feet to 12 feet
C. recumbent position with the paralyzed side up
D. sitting position with the head a 45 to 90 angle
A. recumbent position with the paralyzed side down
248
A patient with an altered mental status is:
A. usually able to be aroused with a painful stimulus
B. completely unresponsive to all forms of stimuli
C. typically alert but is confused as to preceding events
D. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused
D. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused
249
Febrile seizures:
A. are also preferred as absence seizures
B. often result in permanent brain damage
C. occur when a child's fever rises slowly
D. are usually benign but should be evaulated
D. are usually benign but should be evaulated
250
A patient whose speech is slurred and difficult to understand is experiencing
A. dysarthria
B. dysphagia
C. paraplegia
D. aphasia
A. dysarthria
251
Which of the following is a metabolic cause of a seizure?
A. posioning
B. head trauma
C. massive stroke
D. brain tumor
A. poisoning
252
You are caring for a 68 year old man with a sudden onset of left sided paralysis and slurred speech. His airway is patent, his respirations are 14 breaths / min with adequate depth, and his oxygen saturation is 98%. Treatment for this patient should include:
A. recovery position and transport
B. ventilatory assistance and transport
C. high flow oxygen transport
D. oral glucose gel and transport
A. recovery position and transport
253
Which of the following symptoms would lead the EMT to believe that a patient's headache is caused by a sinus congestion?
A. there is associated neck stiffness
B. there is numbness in the extremities
C. the pain is worse when bending over
D. the headache began suddnely
C. the pain is worse when bending over
254
Which of the following conditions would most likely affect the entire brain?
A. reduced blood supply to the left hemisphere
B. blocked cerebral artery in the frontal lobe
C. respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest
D. ruptured cerebral artery in the occipital lobe
C. respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest
