Additional random questions Flashcards by victoria hughes

Patients with chest injuries will often present with ____

A. agonal respirations

B. tachypnea

C. Kussmaul respirations

D. Cheyenne - stokes respirations

B. Tachypnea

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Closed chest injuries are typically caused by ____

A. flying debris
B. high velocity weapons
C. blunt trauma
D. Penetrating trauma

C. blunt trauma

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You arrive at scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The patient, a 50 year old female was removed from her vehicle prior to your arrival. Bystanders who removed her state that she was not wearing a seatbelt. The patient is unresponsive, tachycardic, and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals bilaterally clear and equal breath sounds, a midline trachea, and collapsed jugular veins. You should be MOST suspicious that the patient has experienced a:

A. massive hemothorax

B. laceration of the aorta

C. tension pneumothorax

D. pericardial tamponade

B. laceration of the aorta

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You respond to a residence for a 40 year old female who was assaulted by her husband; the scene has been secured by law enforcement. Upon your arrival, you find the patient lying supine on the floor in the kitchen. She is semiconscious with severely labored breathing. Further assessment reveals a large bruise to the left anterior chest, jugular venous distention, and unilaterally absent breath sounds. As your partner is supporting her ventilation, you should;

A. immediately request ALS. support

B. obtain a set of baseline vital signs

C. insert an oropharyngeal airway

D. perform a focused a secondary exam

A. immediately request ALS. support

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In order to avoid exacerbating a patient’s injury, it is especially important to use extreme caution when providing pressure ventilation to a patient with a :

A. flail chest

B. myocardial contusion

C. pneumothorax

D. cardiac tamponade

C. pneumothorax

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An open pneumothorax occurs when:

A. extreme pleural pressure causes the lung to rupture

B. air enters the pleural space from a perforated lung

C. air enters the pleural space from outside the body

D. a fractured rib perforates the tissue of the lung

C. air enters the pleural space from outside the body

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While jogging, a 19 year old male experienced an acute onset of shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. Your assessment reveals that he has diminished breath sounds over the left side of the chest. You should:

A. administer oxygen and transport to the hospital

B. circumferentially tape a dressing around his chest

C. immediately perform a rapid head to toe exam

D. recognize that he needs a needle decompression

A. administer oxygen and transport to the hospital

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Which of the following is most likely to cause immediate death?

A. aortic rupture

B. Aortic dissection

C. Myocardial contusion

D. pulmonary contusion

A. aortic rupture

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A spinal cord injury at the level of c7 would most likely result in:

A. Paralysis of all respiratory muscle

B. paralysis of the diaphragm

C. paralysis of the intercostal muscles

D. immediate cardiac arrest

C. paralysis of the intercostal muscles

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A simple pneumothorax:

A. is caused by penetrating chest trauma

B. often has a nontraumatic cause

C. heals on it own without any treatment

D. is commonly caused by blunt chest trauma

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If a patient with a chest injury is only able to inhale smalls amount of air per breath, he or she:

A. must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume

B. will eliminate more carbon dioxide than if he or she were breathing deeply

C. will maintain adequate minute volume if his or her respiratory rate stays the same

D. often breaths at a slow rate because of lung damage caused by the injury

A. must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume

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Signs and symptoms of meningitis in the infant or child include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. altered mental status

B. sunken fontanelles

C. headache and fever

D. stiff or painful neck

B. sunken fontanelles

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Which of the following finds is LEAST suggestive of child abuse?

A. burns to the hands or feet that involve a glove distribution

B. consistency in the method or injury reported by the caregiver

C. evidence of alcohol consumption or drug use at the scene

D. an unexplained delay in seeking medical care after the injury

B. consistency in the method or injury reported by the caregiver

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Burns in children are commonly cause by all the following EXCEPT:

A. hot items on a stovetop

B. entrapment in a structural fire

C. exposure to caustic chemicals

D. scalding water in a bathtub

B. entrapment in a structural fire

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A 5 year old child has a severe vomiting and diarrhea for 4 days. Which of the following assessment findings would most indicative of decompensated shock?

A. repertory rate of 30 breaths / min

B. pulse rate greater than 120 / min

C. blood pressure of 70 / 40 mm hg

D. capillary refill time of 4 seconds

C. blood pressure of 70 / 40 mm hg

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The purpose of the pediatric assessment triangle (PAT) is to:

A. gather critical data by performing a rapid hands on assessment of the child

B. determine if the child’s vital signs are within the age appropriate limits

C. facilitate a rapid head to toe assessment of the child by visualization only

D. allow you to rapidly and visually form a general impression of the child

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The first month of life after birth is referred to as the:

A. neonatal period

B. start of infancy

C. toddler period

D. premature phase

A. neonatal period

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While traging patients at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you encounter a 5 year old child is unresponsive and apneic. After positioning his airway , you should:

A. categorize him as immediate

B. categorize him as decreased

C. deliver 5 rescue breaths

D. Palpate for a carotid pulse

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An infant with severe dehydration would be expected to present with:

A. absent urine output

B. bulging fontanelles

C. moist oral mucosa

D. excessive tearing

A. absent urine output

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You are standing by at the scene of a hostage situation when the incident commander advises you that one of his personnel has been shot. The patient is lying supine in an open area and is not moving. As the SWAT team escorts you to the patient, you should:
Select one:
A. grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety.
B. limit your primary assessment to airway and breathing only.
C. treat only critical injuries before moving him to a safe place.
D. perform a rapid assessment and move him to a place of safety.

A. grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety.

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Extrication is defined as:
Select one:
A. using heavy equipment to access a patient.
B. immobilizing a patient before moving him or her.
C. dismantling an automobile to remove a victim.
D. removal from a dangerous situation or position.

D. removal from a dangerous situation or position.

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Upon arrival at a trench rescue operation, you should _________.
Select one:
A. determine if rescuers are operating safely
B. park at least 500 feet from the incident
C. park as close to the incident as possible
D. assist with the rescue operation

B. park at least 500 feet from the incident

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While staged at the scene of a structure fire, the EMT should _________.
Select one:
A. assess firefighters for signs of fatigue
B. remain with the ambulance
C. locate the safety officer
D. stay with the incident commander

B. remain with the ambulance

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Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you can see three patients, one who is entrapped in his car and two who have been ejected from their vehicle. You should:
Select one:
A. request law enforcement for traffic control.
B. begin triage to determine injury severity.
C. immediately request additional resources.
D. call medical control for further direction.

C. immediately request additional resources.

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The rescue team is in the process of extricating a 40-year-old male from his truck. The patient's wife, who was uninjured in the crash, is calmly observing the extrication and asks you if her husband will be all right. You should: Select one: A. ask her follow-up questions about the details of the crash. B. ensure that she is in a safe area, away from the scene. C. allow her to observe the extrication and keep her calm. D. allow her to talk to her husband during the extrication.

B. ensure that she is in a safe area, away from the scene.

``` The use of special tools to remove an entrapped patient from a vehicle is known as _________. Select one: A. simple access B. incident management C. vehicle stabilization D. complex access ```

D. complex access

A 33-year-old restrained driver of a motor vehicle crash is awake and alert, complaining only of neck pain and left leg pain. The vehicle is stable and no hazards are present. When removing this patient from his vehicle, you should: Select one: A. immobilize him with a vest-style device. B. maintain slight traction to his neck area. C. use the rapid extrication technique. D. apply a full leg splint prior to extrication.

A. immobilize him with a vest-style device.

You are attempting to gain access to a patient who was injured when his truck struck another vehicle from behind. The patient is conscious and alert, but is screaming in pain. You try to open the door, but it is locked. You should: Select one: A. use a pry bar to attempt to open the door. B. request the rescue team to extricate him. C. ask the patient if he can unlock the door. D. break the window and unlock the door.

C. ask the patient if he can unlock the door.

``` Trench collapses usually involve large areas of falling dirt that weigh approximately _______ per cubic foot. Select one: A. 150 lb B. 100 lb C. 200 lb D. 50 lb ```

B. 100 lb

Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during: A. cardiogenic shock B. Neurogenic shock C. septic shock D. anaphylactic shock

A. cardiogenic shock

Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is correct? A. anaphylactic shock is caused by immure system failure due to toxic exposure B.Anaphylactic occurs immediately after a person is sensitized to an allergen C. Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction. D. sensitized people will experience less severe reactions upon subsequent exposure

C. Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction.

You respond to a residence for a patient with a severe leg injury following an accident with a chainsaw. When you arrive, you find the patient, a 44 year old male, lying supine in the backyard. He has partial amputation of his right lower leg that is actively bleeding. The patient is conscious and breathing adequately; however he is restless and his skin is diaphoretic. you should: A. assess the rate and quality of his pulse B. administer 100% supplmental oxygen C. immediately evaluate his airway D. apply direct pressure to the wound

D. apply direct pressure to the wound

Your assessment of an unresponsive patient reveals that her breathing is inadequate. Your most immediate action should be to: A. move her to the ambulance stretcher B. administer high low oxygen C. check her airway for obstructions D. ventilate her with a bag valve mask

C. check her airway for obstructions

Your patient is in shock, but the body's defense mechanisms are currently able to maintain adequate circulation. This is called ____ A. compensated shock B. irreversible shock C. decompensated shock D. late shock

A. compensated shock

A 20 year old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood soaked towel over the wound but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should: A. administer high low supplemental oxygen B. wrap the towel with pressure bandages C. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist D. apply pressure to the brachial artery

C. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist

When approaching a helicopter, whether the rotor blades are moving or not, you should: Select one: A. remember that the main rotor blade is flexible and can dip as low as 5¢ to 6¢ from the ground. B. carefully approach the aircraft from the rear unless a crew member instructs you to do otherwise. C. never duck under the body or the tail boom because the pilot cannot see you in these areas. D. approach the aircraft from the side because this will make it easier for you to access the aircraft doors.

C. never duck under the body or the tail boom because the pilot cannot see you in these areas.

Equipment and supplies that are carried on an ambulance should be stored: Select one: A. based on recommendations of the health department. B. in locked or secured cabinets in order to prevent theft. C. as directed by the EMS system's medical director. D. according to the urgency and frequency of their use.

D. according to the urgency and frequency of their use.

``` Hydroplaning of the ambulance on wet roads would MOST likely occur at speeds of greater than _____ mph. Select one: A. 15 B. 30 C. 10 D. 20 ```

B. 30

Maintaining a cushion of safety when operating an ambulance means: Select one: A. driving at the posted speed limit, regardless of the patient's condition, and routinely using your lights and siren when driving on a freeway. B. remaining in the far right-hand lane when transporting a critical patient and refraining from passing other motorists on the left side. C. driving about 2 to 3 seconds behind any vehicles in front of you and exceeding the posted speed limit by no more than 20 to 25 mph. D. keeping a safe distance between your ambulance and the vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirrors' blind spots.

D. keeping a safe distance between your ambulance and the vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirrors' blind spots.

``` The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment is called: Select one: A. sterilization. B. high-level disinfection. C. disinfection. D. cleaning. ```

D. cleaning.

You have just delivered a major trauma patient to the hospital. Shortly after departing the hospital, dispatch advises you of another call. The back of the ambulance is contaminated with bloody dressings and is in disarray, and you are in need of airway equipment and numerous other supplies. You should: Select one: A. proceed to the call, functioning only as an emergency medical responder. B. have your partner quickly clean the ambulance as you proceed to the call. C. advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit. D. quickly proceed to the call and clean and restock the ambulance afterwards.

C. advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit.

You are traging four patients who were involved in a head on motor vehicle crash. Which of the following patients should be assigned the highest (red) triage category? A. a 49 year old female with diabetes and difficult breathing B. a 36 year old female with back pain and numb extremities. C. a 29 year old male with bilaterally closed femur deformities D. a 50 year old male with an open head injury and no pulse

A. a 49 year old female with diabetes and difficult breathing

Following proper decontamination, a 30 year old male is brought to you. He is semiconscious and has rapid, shallow respirations. A quick visual assessment reveals no obvious bleeding. You should: A. administer high flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask B. ask a firefighter what the patient was exposed to C. begin some form of positive pressure ventilation D. perform a rapid assessment to locate critical injuries

C. begin some form of positive pressure ventilation

Activated charcoal is given to patients who have ingested certain substance because it: A. decreases absorption of poisons into the lungs B. binds to the substance and prevents absorption C. induces vomiting and empties the stomach D.is a direct antidote for many toxic substances

B. binds to the substance and prevents absorption

An overdose of acetaminophen, the active ingredient in Tylenol will most likely cause: A. liver failure B. CNS depression C. kidney failure D. gastric ulcers

A. liver failure

A person who routinely misuses a substance and requires increasing amounts to ache the same effect is experiencing: A. withdrawal B. dependence C. tolerance D. addiction

C. tolerance

How do poisons typically act to harm the body? A. by causing a slowing of nearly all bodily functions B. by changing the normal metabolism of cells or by destroying them C. by causing burns and damage to either external or internal organs D. By interfering with normal neuralgic function

B. by changing the normal metabolism of cells or by destroying them

Bile is produced by the liver and concentrated and stored in the: A. stomach B. gallbladder C. kidneys D. pancreas

B. gallbladder

Cardiac output (CO) is affected by: A. stroke volume and heart rate B. heart rate only C. blood pressure D. stroke volume only

A. stroke volume and heart rate

A patient has a large accumulation of blood in the sac surrounding the heart. Which type of shock would this condition cause? A. cardiogenic B. hypovolemic C. Neurogenic D. obstructive

D. obstructive

What is the function of the Fallopian tubes? A. to produce progesesterone and estrogen B. to transport a mature egg to the uterus C. to connect the ovaries D. To supply blood to the uterine lining

B. to transport a mature egg to the uterus

Which organ lies in the lateraled and posterior portion of the left upper quadrant of the abdomen? A. Liver B. Cecum C. Spleen D. Stomach

C. Spleen

Which type of consent is involved when a 39 year old mentally competent female with a severe headache asks you to take her to the hospital? A. Expressed B. Informed C. Formal D. Implied

A. Expressed

Putrefaction is defined as: A. separation of the torso from the rest of the body B. Blood settling to the lowest point of the body C. profound cyanosis to the trunk and face D. decomposition of the body's tissues

D. decomposition of the body's tissues

You are encouraging a patient to go to the hospital by ambulance. You know that a transport will keep you on duty several hours after your regular putting time. This is an example of ____ A. Patient advocacy B. undue hardship C. scope of practice D. Abuse of authority

A. Patient advocacy

What is an EMT's primary service area? A. The main area in which the EMS agency operates B. The only area the EMT is certified to provide patient care C. The area serviced by the EMT's medical director D. The location where the EMT provides essential care during a 9 - 1 - 1 call

A. The main area in which the EMS agency operates

Patients with chest injuries will often present with ___ A. agonal respirtations B. tachypnea C. Kussmual respirations D. Cheyne - stokes respirations

B. tachypnea

``` A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition? Select one: A. Exacerbation of his COPD B. Spontaneous pneumothorax C. Rupture of the diaphragm D. Acute pulmonary embolis ```

B. Spontaneous pneumothorax

``` Signs and symptoms of a hypertensive emergency would MOST likely be delayed in patients who: Select one: A. regularly take illegal drugs. B. are older than 40 years of age. C. have had a stroke in the past. D. have chronic hypertension. ```

D. have chronic hypertension.

Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients: Select one: A. who have taken up to two doses. B. who have experienced a head injury. C. with a history of an ischemic stroke. D. with a systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg.

B. who have experienced a head injury.

A patient with atherosclerotic heart disease experiences chest pain during exertion because: Select one: A. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow. B. the ragged edge of a tear in the coronary artery lumen causes local blood clotting and arterial narrowing. C. the coronary arteries suddenly spasm and cause a marked reduction in myocardial blood flow. D. tissues of the myocardium undergo necrosis secondary to a prolonged absence of oxygen.

A. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow.

``` A patient tells you that he has a left ventricular assist device (LVAD). Which of the following conditions should you suspect that he has experienced? Select one: A. Obstructive lung disease B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Uncontrolled hypertension D. Thoracic aortic aneurysm ```

B. Acute myocardial infarction

A patient in cardiac arrest is wearing an external defibrillator vest, which is interfering with effective chest compressions. The EMT should: Select one: A. perform ventilations only and allow the vest device to defibrillate. B. leave the battery attached to the monitor and remove the vest. C. remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest. D. remove the battery from the monitor and leave the vest in place.

C. remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest.

A 66-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours' duration. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and irregular, her respirations are 22 breaths/min, and her oxygen saturation is 92%. The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should: Select one: A. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further. B. obtain a SAMPLE history and contact medical control for advice. C. give her high-flow oxygen, attach the AED, and transport at once. D. give her one nitroglycerin and reassess her systolic blood pressure.

A. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further.

A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when: Select one: A. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall. B. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding. C. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract. D. the inner layers of the aorta become separated.

D. the inner layers of the aorta become separated.

You are off duty at a park when you witness an apparently healthy 12-year-old child suddenly collapse. There are no bystanders around and your mobile phone is in your car. After confirming that the child is in cardiac arrest, you should: Select one: A. deliver five rescue breaths before starting chest compressions. B. perform CPR for 2 minutes and then call 9-1-1. C. call 9-1-1 and then return to begin CPR on the child. D. perform chest compressions only until a bystander arrives.

C. call 9-1-1 and then return to begin CPR on the child.

``` When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest: Select one: A. with one or two hands. B. until a radial pulse is felt. C. to a depth of 1 to 2 inches. D. 80 to 100 times per minute. ```

A. with one or two hands

``` When assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant, you should palpate the ________ artery. Select one: A. carotid B. radial C. femoral D. brachial ```

D. brachial

``` What is the minimum number of chest compressions that should be delivered per minute to a 4-month-old infant? Select one: A. 90 B. 120 C. 100 D. 110 ```

C. 100

Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle-aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the AED pads will be placed. You should: Select one: A. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads. B. continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medication contained in the patch. C. apply the AED pad at least 1 inch away from the medication patch to avoid skin burns. D. move the patch to another area of the patient's chest and then properly apply the AED pads.

A. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads.

``` What is the correct ratio of compressions to ventilations when performing two-rescuer child CPR? Select one: A. 3:1 B. 15:2 C. 5:1 D. 30:2 ```

B. 15:2

``` Which of the following techniques should you use to dislodge a foreign body airway obstruction in a patient who is in an advanced stage of pregnancy or who is very obese? Select one: A. Abdominal thrusts B. Back blows C. Chest thrusts D. Finger sweeps ```

C. Chest thrusts

Basic life support (BLS) is defined as: Select one: A. any form of emergency medical treatment that is performed by advanced EMTs, paramedics, physicians, and emergency nurses. B. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest. C. basic lifesaving treatment that is performed by bystanders while EMS providers are en route to the scene of an emergency. D. invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous therapy, manual defibrillation, and advanced airway management.

B. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.

The proper depth of chest compressions on a 9-month-old infant is: Select one: A. one-third the diameter of the chest, or about 1½ inches. B. one-half to two-thirds the diameter of the chest. C. one-half the diameter of the chest, or about 1½ inches. D. two-thirds the diameter of the chest, or about 2 inches.

A. one-third the diameter of the chest, or about 1½ inches.

The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during active compression-decompression CPR by: Select one: A. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling. B. drawing all of the air out of the lungs in between chest compressions, which causes positive intrathoracic pressure and a reduction of blood return to the right side of the heart. C. maximizing the amount of air in the lungs following chest recoil, which hyperinflates the lungs and forces more blood from the ventricle during each compression. D. maintaining increased intrathoracic pressure during the downward stroke of each chest compression, which forces more blood from both of the ventricles.

A. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling.

``` Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. a fractured sternum. B. gastric distention. C. rib fractures. D. liver laceration. ```

B. gastric distention.

``` Most prehospital cardiac arrests occur as the result of: Select one: A. a cardiac dysrhythmia. B. severe blunt trauma. C. an acute ischemic stroke. D. obstruction of the airway. ```

A. a cardiac dysrhythmia.

When removing a critically injured patient from his or her vehicle, you should: Select one: A. move him or her in one fast, continuous step. B. protect the cervical spine during the entire process. C. release c-spine control to facilitate rapid removal. D. remove him or her using a short backboard.

B. protect the cervical spine during the entire process.

You arrive at an accident scene to find an alternative-fuel vehicle leaking an unknown substance. You should immediately _________. Select one: A. apply retardant to the leaking fuel B. search the vehicle for occupants C. call for additional resources and keep bystanders away from the vehicle D. disconnect the car battery

C. call for additional resources and keep bystanders away from the vehicle

``` Returning the emergency unit to service is part of the _________. Select one: A. transfer phase B. hazard-control phase C. termination phase D. support phase ```

C. termination phase

``` The use of special tools to remove an entrapped patient from a vehicle is known as _________. Select one: A. simple access B. incident management C. vehicle stabilization D. complex access ```

D. complex access

When functioning at the scene of a motor vehicle crash in which a patient will require complex extrication, you should enter the vehicle and provide care to the patient: Select one: A. only after you believe the vehicle has been stabilized. B. after receiving approval from the incident commander. C. after rescue personnel have cut the battery cables. D. only if the patient has experienced a major injury.

B. after receiving approval from the incident commander.

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you can see three patients, one who is entrapped in his car and two who have been ejected from their vehicle. You should: Select one: A. request law enforcement for traffic control. B. begin triage to determine injury severity. C. immediately request additional resources. D. call medical control for further direction.

C. immediately request additional resources.

While staged at the scene of a structure fire, the EMT should _________. Select one: A. assess firefighters for signs of fatigue B. remain with the ambulance C. locate the safety officer D. stay with the incident commander

B. remain with the ambulance

Extrication is defined as: Select one: A. using heavy equipment to access a patient. B. immobilizing a patient before moving him or her. C. dismantling an automobile to remove a victim. D. removal from a dangerous situation or position.

D. removal from a dangerous situation or position.

Which of the following would the EMT most likely be caused to do when assisting. a paramedic with endotracheal intubation? A. suction under direct laryngoscopy B. Preoxygenation with BVM C. Placement of the endotracheal tube D. Visualization of the vocal cords

B. Preoxygenation with BVM

Hyperventilation during the preoxygenation phase of endotracheal intubation A. Provides a better oxygen reserve for the patient B. will decrease the likelihood of aspiration C. is acceptable if done for fewer than 2 minutes D. can cause gastric distention and hypotension

D. can cause gastric distention and hypotension