Extra questions Flashcards
1
Q
Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct?
A. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis
B. HIV is transmitted exclusively via blood
C. There is no vaccine against HIV infection
D. HIV is easily transmittable in the EMS field
A
C. There is no vaccine against HIV infection
2
Q
While providing care to a patient, blood got onto the ambulance stretcher. Because the stretcher was not properly cleaned afterward, a versus was transmitted to another emergency medical technician several days later. Which route of transmission does this scenario describe?
A. direct contact
B. airborne transmission
C. Vector borne transmission
D. Indirect contact
A
D. Indirect contact
3
Q
The simplest, yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to:
A. wash your hands in between patient contacts.
B. ensure that your immunizations are up to date
C. undergo an annual physical examination
D. undergo annual testing for tuberculosis
A
A. wash your hands in between patient contacts.
4
Q
General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases?
A. delayed reaction, alarm response, and physical recovery
B. immediate reaction, psychological exhaustion, and recovery
C. alarm response, reaction and resistance and recovery
D. reaction and resistance, euphoria and physical exhaustion
A
C. alarm response, reaction and resistance and recovery
5
Q
When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call you should:
A. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions
B. spray the contaminated areas and then immediately wipe them dry with a towel
C. clean all surfaces and patient contact areas with a mixture of alcohol and water
D. use a bleach and water solution at a 1 :2 diluation ratio to throughly wipe all surfaces
A
A. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions
6
Q
Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you note that two small cars collided head on; the occupants are still in the vehicles. The fire departments in the process of stabilizing the vehicles and law enforcement personnel are directing traffic. After parking the ambulance at a safe distance, you and your partner should:
A. report to the incident commander
B. put on. high visibility safety vests
C. quickly begin the triage process
D. assist with vehicle stabilization
A
B. put on. high visibility safety vests
7
Q
The most serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is:
A. substandard or inappropriate patient care
B. tension among co workers and supervisors
C. punitive action and the loss of a job
D. low morale and frequently missed shifts
A
A. substandard or inappropriate patient care
8
Q
Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser:
A. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else
B. touches another person without his or her consent
C. stares at certain parts of another person’s anatomy
D. makes rude remarks about a person’s body parts
A
A. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else
9
Q
Which of the following statements regarding the different stages of the grieving process is correct?
A. it is rare that people will jump back and forth between stages
B. The stages of the grieving process may occur simulatenously
C. The grieving process typically begins with severe depression
D. Bargaining is the most unpleasant stage of the grieving process
A
B. The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously
10
Q
To help protect patients, EMS agencies are required to have ____
A. a privacy officer to answer questions
B. public forums with their medical director
C. online access to patient records
D. an anonymous reporting system
A
A. a privacy officer to answer questions
11
Q
When is forcible restraint permitted?
A. when the patient poses a significant threat to self or others
B. Anytime that the EMT feel threatened
C. only if consent to restrain is given by a family member
D. only if law enforcement personnel have witnessed threatening behavior
A
A. when the patient poses a significant threat to self or others
12
Q
Putrefaction is defined as:
A. separation of the torso from the rest of the body
B. blood setting to the lowest point of the body
C. profound cyanosis to the trunk and face
D. decomposition of the body tissues
A
D. decomposition of the body tissues
13
Q
When performing his or her duties, the EMT is generally expected to:
A. contact medical control on every EMS call
B. function above his or her scope of practice
C. consistently exceed the standard of care
D. exercise is reasonable care and act prudently
A
D. exercise is reasonable care and act prudently
14
Q
Effective therapeutic communication skills require ___
A. English - speaking patients or family members
B. supervision by advanced life support
C. verbal and nonverbal communication techniques
D. correct use of complex of medical terminology
A
C. verbal and nonverbal communication techniques
15
Q
A patient’s refusal of EMS treatment transport must be:
A. reported to the police
B. an informed refusal
C. authorized by a judge
D. witnessed by a notary
A
B. an informed refusal
16
Q
After receiving online orders from medical control to perform a patient care intervention, you should:
A. ask the physician to repeat the order
B. repeat the order to medical control word for word
C. confirm the order in your own words
D. perform the intervention as orderd
A
B. repeat the order to medical control word for word
17
Q
Which of the following is not a function of the Federal communications commission
A. Maintaining communications equipment on the ambulance
B. allocating specific radio frequencies for the use by EMS providers
C. monitoring all radio traffic and conducing field spot checks
D. licensing base stations and assigning appropriate radio call signs
A
A. Maintaining communications equipment on the ambulance
18
Q
You and your partner are attempting to resuscitate a middle aged female in cardiac arrest. Because of the remote geographic location, you are unable to contact medical control. What should you do?
A. perform CPR only and initiate immediate transport
B. follow locally established protocols or standing orders.
C. Make continuous attempt to contact medical control
D. ask the husband if he wants to continue resuscitation
A
B. follow locally established protocols or standing orders
19
Q
You are transporting to a 66 year old patient with a history of heart problems. The patient chart indicates that he has hepatomegaly. The root of the term indicates that:
A. the organ involved is enlarged
B. the problem is a direct consequence of the patients heart disease
C. the problem is with the patients liver
D. the problem is unrelated to the patients heart condition
A
C. the problem is with the patients liver
20
Q
You are transporting a 67 year old female patient to the hospital for investigation for abdominal pain. The patient care record indicates that the patient has a history of AAA. Based on this information care record includes an abbreviation for:
A. acute abdominal aneurysm
B. acute abdominal assessment
C. abdominal aortic aneurysm
D. againist ambulance advice
A
C. abdominal aortic aneurysm
21
Q
Large amounts of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) are generated when:
A. the cells function without oxygen
B. the cells function with adequate oxygen
C. circulating blood glucose levels fall
D. carbon dioxide levels in the blood are high
A
B. the cells function with adequate oxygen
22
Q
Breathing occurs as the result of a(n)
A. increase in oxygen which decreases the Ph of the cerebrospinal fluid
B. increase in carbon dioxide, which decreases the Ph of the cerebrospinal fluid
C. decrease in carbon dioxide, which increases the Ph of the cerebrospinal fluid
D. decreases in oxygen, which increases the Ph of the cerebrospinal fluid
A
B. increase in carbon dioxide, which decreases the Ph of the cerebrospinal fluid
23
Q
The amount of air that remains in the lungs simply keep them open is called the:
A. inspiratory reserve volume
B. expiratory reserve volume
C. residual volume
D. tidal volume
A
C. residual volume
24
Q
Which of the following is NOT true of the lymphatic system?
A. It vessels closely parallel the major arteries in the body
B. it relies on muscle movement to circulate lymph
C. it circulates oxygen, nutrients and hormones to the cells
D. it circulates waste products of metabolism away from cells.
A
A. It vessels closely parallel the major arteries in the body
25
Negative - pressure breathing involves:
A. a drop in pressure within the chest cavity
B. increasing airway resistance during breathing
C. relaxing the respiratory muscles
D. pushing or forcing air into the lungs
A. a drop in pressure within the chest cavity
26
The femoral head forms a ball and socket joint with the:
A. femoral condyle
B. ischium
C. ilium
D. acetabulum
D. acetabulum
27
Which of the following is NOT a common factor that would affect a 75 year old patients vital signs?
A. medical conditions
B. medications
C. overall health
D. Increased weight
D. Increased weight
28
At what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children?
A. 18 to 24 months
B. 10 to 18 months
C. 6 to 8 months
D. 24 to 36 months
B. 10 to 18 months
29
According to the terminal drop hypothesis:
A. a person's physical health begins to decline after the age of 75 years
B. mental function is presumed to decline in the 5 years preceding death
C. most elderly patients experience depression after the death of a loved one
D. most late staged adults retain high brain function until 1 month before death
B. mental function is presumed to decline in the 5 years preceding death
30
Aged related changed in the renal system result in:
A. dilation of the blood vessels that supply the nephrons, which allows the kidneys to maintain their function
B. a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed
C. the formation of large amounts of urine secondary to an increase in kidney mass up to 20%
D. a significant increase in filtration, which causes the excretion of large amounts of water from the body
B. a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed
31
An infants blood pressure typically increases with age because:
A. his or her normal heart rate usually increases with age
B. the infants total blood volume deceases with age
C. as the infant get older, his or her blood vessels dilate
D. blood pressure directly correspond to body weight
D. blood pressure directly correspond to body weights
32
Factors that contribute to a decline in the vital capacity of an elderly patient include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. decreased residual volume
B. increased stiffness of the thoracic cage
C. increased surface area available for air exchange
D. a loss respiratory muscle mass
C. increased surface area available for air exchange
33
Why does the incidence of diabetes mellitus increases with age?
A. decreased food intake, decreased weight gain, and decreased blood sugar levels
B. decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased insulin production
C. decreased physical activity increased weight gain, and decreased blood sugar levels
D. increased physical activity, increased food intake and increased insulin production
B. decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased insulin production
34
Which of the following statements regarding an infant's vital signs is correct?
A. By 6 months of age, an infant normal tidal volume is 2 to 4 mL
B. An infant normal heart rate increases 10 beats / min each month
C. An infant heart rate generally ranges between 70 and 110 beats / min
D. An infants normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler
D. An infants normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler
35
Which is the MOST appropriate method to use when moving a patient from his or her bed to a wheeled stretcher?
A. log roll
B. draw sheet method
C. extremity carry
D. direct carry
B. draw sheet method
36
Which of the following condition or situation presents the MOST unique challenges to the EMT when immobilizing an elderly patient on a long backboard?
A. Patient disorientation
B. Abnormal spinal curvature
C. Joint flexibility
D. naturally deformed bones
B. Abnormal spinal curvature
37
The extremity lift would NOT be appropriate to use on a patient:
A, without a spinal injury
B. who complains of nausea
C. with a forearm lacerations
D. with a deformed humerus
D. with a deformed humerus
38
Which of the following would the EMT likely NOT. perform on a responsive patient with a headache and no apparent life threatening conditions?
A. systematic head to toe examination
B. noninvasive blood pressure monitoring
C. assessment of oxygen saturation
D. focused secondary assessment
A. systematic head to toe examination
39
A crackling sound produced by air bubbles under the skin is called:
A. subcutaneous emphysema
B. rhonchi
C. crepitus
D. korotkoff sounds
A. subcutaneous emphysema
40
Which of the following statement regarding stridor is correct?
A. it is caused by incorrect airway positioning
B. it is whistling sound heard in the lower airway
C. it suggests the presence of fluid in the lungs
D. it is high pitched, crowing upper airway sound
D. it is high pitched, crowing upper airway sound
41
Which of the following statement regarding the mechanism of injury (MOI) is correct?
A. The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient injuries
B. A significant MOI always results in patient death or permanent disability
C. A nonsignificant MOI rules out the possibility of serious trauma
D. The exact location of a patients injuries can be determined by the MOI
A. The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient injuries
42
Poor peripheral circulation will cause the skin to appear:
A. pink
B. ashen
C. cyanotic
D. flushed
B. ashen
43
```
Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called:
Select one:
A. ataxic respirations.
B. eupneic respirations.
C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
D. agonal respirations.
```
C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
44
Which of the following statements regarding breathing adequacy is correct?
Select one:
A. Patients with a grossly irregular breathing pattern usually do not require assisted ventilation.
B. Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate.
C. A patient with slow respirations and adequate depth will experience an increase in minute volume.
D. The single most reliable sign of breathing adequacy in the adult is his or her respiratory rate.
B. Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate.
45
```
A patient who is suspected of being hypoxic and is breathing adequately should be given supplemental oxygen with a:
Select one:
A. nonrebreathing mask.
B. bag-valve mask.
C. mouth-to-mask device.
D. nasal cannula.
```
A. nonrebreathing mask
46
Which of the following patients should you place in the recovery position?
Select one:
A. A 19-year-old conscious male with a closed head injury and normal respirations
B. A 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing
C. A 40-year-old conscious female with a possible neck injury and regular respirations
D. A 24-year-old unconscious female who overdosed and has a reduced tidal volume
B. A 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing
47
Which of the following statements regarding oxygen is correct?
Select one:
A. Oxygen is most safely administered in an enclosed environment.
B. Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire.
C. Oxygen cylinders must always remain in an upright position.
D. Oxygen is flammable and may explode if under high pressure.
B. Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire.
48
Which of the following statements regarding normal gas exchange in the lungs is correct?
Select one:
A. The oxygen content in the alveoli is highest during the exhalation phase.
B. The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the capillaries.
C. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries.
D. Blood that returns to the lungs from the body has low levels of carbon dioxide
C. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries.
49
Aspirin is beneficial to patients suspected of having a heart attack because it:
A. causes direct coronary
B. reduces the associated chest pain
C. prevents the aggregation of platelets
D. dissolves the coronary artery clot
C. prevents the aggregation of platelets
50
Activated charcoal is an example of an
A. solution
B. elixir
C. suspension
D. gel
C. suspension
51
How is nitroglycerin is usually given by the EMT?
A. inhaled
B. orally
C. sublingually
D. injected
C. sublingually
52
Which of the following is not a characteristic of epinephrine?
A. decreases heart rate and blood pressure
B. secreted naturally by the adrenal glands
C. dilates passages in the lungs
D. constricts the blood vessels
A. decreases heart rate and blood pressure
53
What medication arm does oral glucose come in?
A. suspension
B. liquid
C. Gel
D. Fine powder
C. Gel
54
Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct?
A. glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream
B. glucose is given to patients who are suspected of being hyperglycemic
C. Glucose is a complex sugar that rapidly absorbs in the blood stream
D. glucose is usually administered by the EMT via the intravenous route
A. glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream
55
When assessing an elderly male who complains of nausea and generalized weakness, you find that he takes atorvastatin (Liptor) and amlodipine (norvasc) these medications suggest a history of:
A. bacterial infection
B. reactive airway disease
C. cardiovascular disease
D. non insulin dependent diabetes
C. cardiovascular disease
56
Which of the following medications routes delivers a drug through the skin over an extended period of time, such as nitroglycerin or nicotine patch?
A. transcutaenous
B. intraosseous
C. subcutaneous
D. sublingual
A. transcutaenous
57
Advil, nuprin, and Motrin are trade names for the generic medication
A. acetaminophen
B. nitrostat
C. aspirin
D. iburpofen
D. iburpofen
58
A 56 year old male is found semiconscious by his wife. Your assessment reveals that his respirations are rapid and shallow, his pulse is rapid and irregular and his blood pressure is low. The patients wife states that he complained of left arm pain and nausea the day before but would not allow her to call 9 - 1 - 1. The MOST likely cause of this patients present condition is:
A. a ruptured aortic aneurysm
B. acute myocardial infaraction
C. cardiogenic hypofusion
D. severe septic hypo perfusion
C. cardiogenic hypofusion
59
Clinical signs of compensated shock include all the following, EXCEPT:
A. cool and clammy skin
B. rapid, shallow breathing
C restlessness or anxiety
D. absent peripheral pulses
D. absent peripheral pulses
60
Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock?
A. spinal cord
B. cardiac tamponade
C. simple pneumothroax
D. liver laceration
B. cardiac tamponade
61
Your suspect your patient is in shock. You note the patient's skin is pale. This is likely due to
A. peripheral vasodilation
B. peripheral vasoconstriction
C. an increased heart rate
D. hypothermia
B. peripheral vasoconstriction
62
Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during:
A. cardiogenic shock
B. neurogenic shock
C. septic shock
D. anaphylactic shock
A. cardiogenic shock
63
Your assessment of an unresponsive patient reveals that her breathing is inadequate. Your MOST immediate action should be to:
A. move her to the ambulance stretcher
B. administer high flow oxygen
C. check her airway for obstruction
D. ventilations her with a bag valve mask
C. check her airway for obstruction
64
Signs and symptoms of hypertensive emergency would MOST likely be delayed in patients who:
A. regularly take illegal drugs
B. are older than 40 years of age
C. have a had a stroke in the past
D. have chronic hypertension
D. have chronic hypertension
65
A patient with atherosclerotic heart disease experiences chest pain during exertion because:
Select one:
A. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow.
B. the ragged edge of a tear in the coronary artery lumen causes local blood clotting and arterial narrowing.
C. the coronary arteries suddenly spasm and cause a marked reduction in myocardial blood flow.
D. tissues of the myocardium undergo necrosis secondary to a prolonged absence of oxygen.
A. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow.
66
Most AEDs are set up to adjust the voltage based on the impedance, which is the:
Select one:
A. distance between the two AED pads on the chest.
B. actual amount of energy that the AED will deliver.
C. resistance of the body to the flow of electricity.
D. direction that the electrical flow takes in the body.
C. resistance of the body to the flow of electricity.
67
```
Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure?
Select one:
A. Flat jugular veins
B. Pulmonary edema
C. Dependent edema
D. Labored breathing
```
C. Dependent edema
68
```
Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom associated with malfunction of an implanted cardiac pacemaker?
Select one:
A. Generalized weakness
B. Syncope or dizziness
C. Heart rate less than 60 beats/min
D. A rapid heart rate
```
D. A rapid heart rate
69
A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when:
Select one:
A. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall.
B. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding.
C. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract.
D. the inner layers of the aorta become separated
D. the inner layers of the aorta become separated
70
The mental status of a patient who has experienced generalized seizure:
A. is likely to improve over a period 5 to 30 minutes
B. is easily differentiated from that of acute hypoglycemia
C. typically does not improve even after several minutes
D. progressively worsens over a period of a few hours
A. is likely to improve over a period 5 to 30 minutes
71
Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to mimic the sins and symptoms of a stroke?
A. hypoglycemia
B. postrical state
C. hypovolemia
D. intracranial bleeding
C. hypovolemia
72
Febrile seizures:
A. are also referred to as absence seizures
B. often result in permanent brain damage
C. occur when a child's fever rises slowly
D. are usually benign but should be evaluated
D. are usually benign but should be evaluated
73
A transient ischemic attack (TIA) occurs when:
A. signs and symptoms resolve spontaneously within 48 hours
B. medications are given to dissolve a cerebral blood clot
C. small clot in a cerebral artery causes temporary symptoms
D. a small cerebral artery ruptures and causes minimal damage
C. small clot in a cerebral artery causes temporary symptoms
74
When transporting a stable stroke patient with a paralyzed extremity, place place the patient in a:
A. recumbent position with the paralyzed side down
B. supine position with the legs elevated 6 feet to 12 feet
C. recumbent position with the paralyzed side up
D. sitting position with the head at a 45 too 90 degree angle
A. recumbent position with the paralyzed side down
75
You are caring for a 68 year old man with sudden onset of left sided paralysis and slurred speech. His airway is patient, respirations are 14 breaths / min with adequate depth and his oxygen saturation s 98%. Treatment for this patient should:
A. recovery position and transport
B. ventilatory assistance and transport
C. high flow oxygen an transport
D. oral glucose gel and transport
A. recovery position and transport
76
Which of the following conditions would MOST likely affect the entire brain?
A. reduced blood supply to the left hemisphere
B. blocked cerebral artery in the frontal lobe
C. respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest
D. ruptured cerebral artery in the occipital lobe
C. respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest
77
A patient with hypoglycemia will often present with the following signs / symptoms?
A. deep, rapid respirations
B. pale, cool, and clammy skin
C. warm, red, and dry skin
D. hypertension
B. pale, cool, and clammy skin
78
Which of the following statements regarding sickle cell disease is correct?
A. the red blood cells of a patients with sickle cell disease are round and control hemoglobin
B. in sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen
C. sickle cell disease is an inherited blood disorder that causes the blood to clot too quickly
D. because of their abnormal shape, red blood cells in patients with sickle cell disease are less apt to lodge in a blood vessel
B. in sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen
79
A 75 year old male with type 1 diabetes presents with chest pain and a general feeling of weakness. He tells you that he took his insulin today and ate a regular meal approximately 2 hours ago. You should treat this patent as though he is experiencing
A. hypoglycemia
B. hyperglycemia
C. an acute stroke
D. a heart attack
D. a heart attack
80
A man find his 59 year old wife unconscious on the couch. He states that she takes medications for type 2 diabetes. He further tells you that his wife has been ill recently and has not eaten for the past 24 hours. Your assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive. You should:
A. administer oral glucose between her cheek and gum
B. open and maintain her airway and assess breathing
C. administer 100% oxygen via a non breathing mask
D. assess for the presence of a medical identification tag
B. open and maintain her airway and assess breathing
81
A 66 year old women experienced a sudden onset of difficult breathing. She has a history of type 2 diabetes and deep vein thrombosis (DVT). On the basis of her medical history, which of the following should the EMT suspect?
A. congestive heart failure
B. severe hypoglycemia
C. pulmonary embolism
D. diabetic ketoacidosis
C. pulmonary embolism
82
Excessive eating caused by cellular "hunger" is called:
A. dyspepsia
B. polyphagia
C. dysphasia
D. polydipsia
B. polyphagia
83
A patient with an altered mental status; high blood glucose levels and deep rapid breathing may have a condition known as ___
A. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma
B. hyperglycemic crisis
C. diabetic ketocidosis
D. hypoglycemic crisis
C. diabetic ketocidosis
84
During your assessment of a 19 year old male, you are told he is being treated with a factor VII. This indicates that:
A. he has thrombophilla
B. he has a thrombosis
C. his blood clots too quickly
D. he has a hemophilia A
D. he has a hemophilia A
85
Utricaria is the medical terms for:
A. burning
B. a wheal
C. hives
D. swelling
C. hives
86
A 37 year old male is having a severe allergic reaction to penicillin. He does not have an epinephrine auto injector and your protocols do not allow you to carry epinephrine on the ambulance. How should you proceed with treatment of this patient?
A. remain at the scene with the patient and request a paramedic ambulance
B. quickly determine if there are any bystanders who may carry epinephrine
C. administer oxygen, transport at once, and request a paramedic interception
D. ask the patient if he has any diphenhydramine tablets that you can administer
C. administer oxygen, transport at once, and request a paramedic interception
87
The effects of epinephrine are typically observed within _____ following administration
A. 1 hour
B. 30 minutes
C. 1 minute
D. 30 seconds
C. 1 minute
88
Of the four avenues of poisoning, generally ____ is the most worrisome in terms of treatment to the EMS provider
A. inhalation
B. ingestion
C. injection
D. absorption
C. injection
89
The recommended treatment for absorbed or contact poisons includes ____
A. collecting and transporting the poisons substance to the emergency department for identification
B. transporting the patient to the emergency department with the poisonous substance in place
C. neutralizing the poisonous substance with a chemical
D. safety removing or diluting the poisonous substance
D. safety removing or diluting the poisonous substance
90
Hypotension, hypoventilation, and pinpoint pupils would be expected following an overdose of:
A. amphetamine sulfate
B. ecstacy
C. crack cocaine
D. oxycodone
D. oxycodone
91
When caring for a known alcoholic patient with severe trauma to the chest and abdomen, you should be concerned that:
A. delirium tremens are commonly induced by a physical trauma and can lea to life threatening seizures
B. internal bleeding may be profuse because prolonged alcohol use may impair the blood ability to clot
C. sign and symptoms of shock may be masked by the stimulant effects produced by alcohol
D. long bone fracture are likely because chronic alcohol consumption weakness the structure of the bones
B. internal bleeding may be profuse because prolonged alcohol use may impair the blood ability to clot
92
Activated charcoal is given to patients who have ingested certain substance because it:
A. decreases absorption of poisons
B. binds to the substance and prevents absorption
C. induces vomiting and empties the stomach
D. is a direct antidote for many toxic substances
B. binds to the substance and prevents absorption
93
Most poisons occur via the ____ route
A. ingestion
B. inflation
C. injection
D. absorption
A. ingestion
94
How do poisons typically act to harm the body?
A. by causing a slowing of nearly all function
B. by changing the normal metabolism of cells or by destroying them
C. by caring burns and damages to either external or internal organs
D. by interfering with normal neuralgic function
B. by changing the normal metabolism of cells or by destroying them
95
Victims of inhaled positing will require which of the following?
A. ventilation with a bag valve mask
B. an oropharyngeal or nasopharyngeal device to maintain an airway
C. suctioning to clear the airway
D. transport to an emergency department for evaluation
D. transport to an emergency department for evaluation
96
When caring for a patient experiencing excited delirium, the EMT should remember that:
A. a sudden death occur if the patients violence is not controlled
B. excited delirium is worsened by nervous system depressant drugs
C. lights and siren are effective in redirecting the patients behavior
D. most patients will have low blood pressure and hyperglycemia
A. a sudden death occur if the patients violence is not controlled
97
Signs of excited delirium include:
A. diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hallucinations
B. subdued behavior, crying, and suicidal thoughts
C. slurred speech, bradycardia, and a big fever
D. pallor, hypertension, and constricted pupils
A. diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hallucinations
98
Which of the following terms applies to a state of delusion in which the patient is out of touch with reality?
A. suicidal
B. psychosis
C. agitated delirium
D. schizophrenia
B. psychosis
99
The physical examination of sexual assault victim should be:
A. as detailed as possible so all injuries can be documented
B. performed in the presence at least two police officers
C. deferred until the patient can be evaluated by a physician
D. limited to a brief survey for life threatening
D. limited to a brief survey for life threatening
100
When caring for a female patients who has been sexually assaulted, you should:
A. advise her that she will not be allowed to shower or change her clothes
B. allow law enforcement to take her statements before you begin treatment
C. ask the patient for a concise, detailed report of what happened to her
D. place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bag
D. place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bag
101
Which of the following infections, when left untreated, may lead to infection of the blood and brain?
A. bacterial vaginosis
B. pelvic inflammatory disease
C. chlamydia
D. gonorrhea
D. gonorrhea
102
Following a blunt injury to the head, a 22 year old female is confused and complains of a severe headache and nausea. On the basis of these signs and symptoms, you should be MOST concerned with the possibility of:
A. a fracture of the skull
B. spinal cord injury
C. airway compromise
D. intracranial bleeding.
D. intracranial bleeding.
103
Which of the following finds would be LEAST suggestive of the presence of high energy trauma?
A. intrusion into the vehicle
B. dismounted seats
C. steering wheel deformity
D. deployment of airbag
D. deployment of airbag
104
Which of the following interventions is the MOST critical to the outcome of a patient with multi system trauma?
A. rapid transport to a trauma center
B. early administration of oxygen
C. intravenous fluid administration
D. elevation of the lower extremities
A. rapid transport to a trauma center
105
Approximately 25% of severe injuries in the aorta occur during:
A. lateral collisions
B. frontal collisions
C. rollover collisions
D. rear end collisions
A. lateral collisions
106
A young male was shot in the abdomen by an unknown type of gun. He is semiconscious, has shallow breathing, and is bleeding externally from the wound. As you control the external bleeding, your partner should:
A. assist the patients ventilations
B. apply a nonrebreathing mask
C. obtain baseline vital signs
D. perform a secondary assesment
A. assist the patients ventilations
107
A 67 year old male presents with weakness, dizziness, and melena that began approximately 2 days ago. He denies a history of trauma. His blood pressure is 90/ 50 and his pulse is 120 beats / min and thready. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient is experiencing
A. an aortic aneurysm
B. intrathoracic hemorrhaging
C. acute appendicitis
D. gastrointestinal bleeding
D. gastrointestinal bleeding
108
In older patients, the first indicator of non traumatic I internal bleeding may be:
A. low blood pressure
B. a heart rate over 120 beats / min
C. diaphoresis and pale skin
D. weakness or dizziness
D. weakness or dizziness
109
Internal bleeding into a fractured extremity is MOST often controlled by:
A. applying a tourniquet
B. keeping the patient warm
C. applying a chemical ice pack
D. splinting the extremity
D. splinting the extremity
110
Which organ or organ system has the greatest tolerance for lack of perfusion?
A. kidneys
B. skeletal muscle
C. gastrointestinal system
D. brain
C. gastrointestinal system
111
A 56 year old male has an incomplete avulsion to his right forearm. After controlling any bleeding from the wound, you should:
A. replace the avulsed flap to its original position and cover it with a sterile dressing
B. carefully remove the avulse flap and warp it in a moist, sterile trauma dressing
C. throughly irrigate the wound with sterile water and cover it with a sterile dressing
D. carefully probe the wounds to determine if the bleeding is venous or arterial
A. replace the avulsed flap to its original position and cover it with a sterile dressing
112
A burn that is characterized by redness and pain is classified as a:
A. superficial burn
B. full thickness burn
C. second degree burn
D. partial thickness burn
A. superficial burn
113
A closed solo issue injury characterized by swelling and ecchymosis is called an
A. contusion
B. abrasion
C. crush injury
D. hematoma
A. contusion
114
Burns to pediatric patients are generally considered more serious than burns to adults because:
A. pediatric patients have more surface area relative to total body mass
B. most burns in children are the result of child abuse
C. pediatric patients have a proportionately large volume of blood
D. pediatric patients are more prone to hyperthermia
A. pediatric patients have more surface area relative to total body mass
115
Which of the following open soft tissue injuries is listed to the superficial layer of the skin and results in the least amount of blood loss?
A. laceration
B. avulsion
C. abrasion
D. incision
C. abrasion
116
The superficial temporal artery can be palpated:
A. slightly above the ear
B. at the angel of the jaw
C. cover the mastoid process
D. just anterior to the tragus
D. just anterior to the tragus
117
A 30 year old female presents with redness, inflammation and pain to her left eye. During your assessment, you note that she is having difficulty keeping her eyes open. You should suspect that she is experiencing
A. conjunctivitis
B. acute retintis
C. corneal abrasion
D. a detached retina
A. conjunctivitis
118
Significant trauma to the face should increase the EMT index of suspicion for an:
A. airway obstruction
B. basilar skull fracture
C. displaced mandible
D. spinal column injury
D. spinal column injury
119
The MOST significant complication assailed with facial injuries is:
A. mandibular immobility
B. damage to the eyes
C.airway compromise
D. cervical spine injury
C.airway compromise
120
In contrast to a cerebral concussion, a cerebral contusion;
A. does not cause pressure within the skull
B. involves physical injury to the brain tissue
C. results from a laceration to the brain tissue
D. usually does not cause a loss of consciousness
B. involves physical injury to the brain tissue
121
Which of the following breathing patterns is most indicative of increased intracranial pressure?
A. increased rate with a normal inspiratory time and a prolonged expiratory time
B. slow, shallow, occasional gasps that progress to prolonged periods of apnea
C. increased rate and depth with the distinct odor of acetone on the patients breath
D. irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea
D. irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea
122
When assessing a patient with a head injury, you note the presence of thin, bloody fluid draining from his right ear. This indicates:
A. significant pressure and bleeding in between the skull an dura mater
B. a linear skull fracture and a significant increase in intracranial pressure
C. rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head
D. fractures to the internal structures of the ear following direct trauma
C. rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head
123
An indicator of an expanding intracania hematoma of rapidly or rapidly progressing brain swelling is:
A. a progressively lowering blood pressure
B. acute unilateral paralysis
C. an acute increase in the patients pulse rate
D. rapid deterioration of neuralgic signs
D. rapid deterioration of neuralgic signs
124
The five sections of the spinal column, in descending order, are the:
A. coccygeal, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical
B. thoracic, cervical, lumbar, coccygeal, and sacral
C. cervical, coccygeal, thoracic, sacral, and lumbar
D. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal
D. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal
125
When activated, the sympathetic nervous system produce all of the following effects, EXCEPT:
A. shunting of blood to vital organs
B. pupillary constriction
C. dilation of the bronchiole smooth muscle
D. increase in heart rate
B. pupillary constriction
126
What part of the nervous system controls the body voluntary activities?
A. central
B. somatic
C. sensory
D. autonmoic
B. somatic
127
Hyperextension injuries of the spine are MOST commonly the result of:
A. compression
B. falls
C. diving
D. hangings
D. hangings
128
Patients with chest injuries will often present with ____
A. agonal respirations
B. tachypnea
C. kussmaul respirations
D. cheyne - stroke respirations
B. tachypnea
129
You response to residence for a 40 year old female who was assaulted by her husband; the scene has been secured by law enforcement. Upon your arrival, you find the patient lying supine on the floor in the kitchen. She is semiconscious with severely labored breathing. Further assessment reveals a large bruise to the left anterior chest, jugular venous distention, and unilaterally absent breaths sounds. As your partner is supporting her ventilation, you should:
A. immediately request ALS support
B. obtain a set of baseline vital signs
C. insert an oropharyngeal
D. perform a focused secondary exam
A. immediately request ALS support
130
In order to avoid exacerbating a patients injury, it is especially important to use extreme caution when provide positive pressure ventilation to patients with a:
A. flail chest
B. myocardial contusion
C. pneumothorax
D. cardiac tamponade
C. pneumothorax
131
An open pneumothorax:
A. extreme pleural pressure causes the lung to rupture
B. air enters the pleural space from a perforated lung
C. air enters the pleural space from outside the body
D. a fractured rib perforates the tissue of the lung
C. air enters the pleural space from outside the body
132
A simple pneumothorax:
A. is caused by penetrating chest trauma
B. often has a nontraumtic
C. heals on it owns without any treatment
D. is commonly caused by blunt chest trama
D. is commonly caused by blunt chest trama
133
In pediatric patients, the liver and spleen are ___
A. more protected by the thorax compared to adults
B. large in proportion to the abdomen
C. smaller in proportion to the abdomen
D. less likely to bleed when injuries
B. large in proportion to the abdomen
134
When a patient stiffen the muscles of the abdomen. It is known as ____
A. guarding
B. instability
C. crepitus
D. distention
A. guarding
135
In general, musoloskeletal injuries should be splinted before moving the patient unless:
A. the patient is clinically unstable
B. the patient is in severe pain
C. transport time is less than 15 minutes
D. deformity and swelling are present
A. the patient is clinically unstable
136
With regard to musculoskeletal injuries, the zone of the injury is defined as the:
A. area of obvious deformity over the site of impact
B. exact part of the bone or joint that was disrupted
C. part of the body that sustained secondary injury
D. area of soft tissue damage surrounding the injury
D. area of soft tissue damage surrounding the injury
137
Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest threat to a patient life?
A. pelvic fracture with hypotension
B. an ampuated extremity
C. bilateral femur fractures
D. non displaced long fractures
A. pelvic fracture with hypotension
138
Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would MOST likely result in deformity?
A. severe strain
B. hairline fracture
C. moderate sprain
D. displaced fracture
D. displaced fracture
139
Crepitus and false motion are:
A. positive indicators of a fracture
B. most common dislocation
C. only seen with open fractures
D. indicators of severe sprain
A. positive indicators of a fracture
140
A suprancondylar or intercondylar fracture is also know a fracture of the
A. distal humerus
B. proximal radius
C. olecranon process
D. radial head
A. distal humerus
141
Which of the following MOST accurately describes hyperthermia?
A. The body eliminates more heat than it can generate
B. the core body temperature exceeds 99.5
C. The body is exposed to more than it can lose
D. heat evaporations a significant amount of body water
C. The body is exposed to more than it can lose
142
Most of the serious injuries associated with scuba diving are caused by:
A. cold water temperature
B. alcohol consumption
C. too rapid of a ascent
D. too rapid of a descent
C. too rapid of an ascent
143
When a warm hand is immersed in water that is 70 heat is transferred from the hand to the water through a process is called:
A. convection
B. conduction
C. evaporation
D. radiation
B. conduction
144
The most prominent symptom of decompression sickness is:
A. dizziness and nausea
B. tightness in the chest
C. abdominal or joint pain
D. difficultly with vision
C. abdominal or joint pain
145
The body natural cooling mechanism, in which sweat is converted to a gas is called:
A. radiation
B. evaporation
C. conduction
D. convection
B. evaporation
146
If a baby is born 7:52, the second Apgar score should be calculated at:
A. 7: 57
B. 7:59
C. 8:00
D. 7: 53
A. 7: 57
147
Your 22-year-old patient is in active labor. Upon visual inspection, you note that the infant's leg is protruding from the vagina. Appropriate management of this situation includes:
Select one:
A. gently pulling on the infant's leg in an attempt to facilitate delivery.
B. carefully attempting to push the infant's leg off of the umbilical cord.
C. placing the mother supine with her head down and pelvis elevated.
D. placing the mother in a recumbent position and rapidly transportin
C. placing the mother supine with her head down and pelvis elevated.
148
You and your partner are both male and are attending to a 28-year-old female patient complaining of diffuse abdominal pain. The patient is 34 weeks pregnant with her first child. The patient refuses to allow you to examine her, and her husband informs you that their culture does not allow males to examine or care for pregnant women. You should:
Select one:
A. respect the patient's wishes, ensure that the appropriate documentation is completed, and transport the patient.
B. insist that the patient requires proper care and that requires an adequate physical assessment and that you cannot be responsible for the outcome.
C. inform the patient that by calling for an ambulance, she is agreeing to the care provided and continue with your assessment and management.
D. call for the police to ensure that patient assessment is carried out.
A. respect the patient's wishes, ensure that the appropriate documentation is completed, and transport the patient.
149
When determining the frequency of contractions, you should time the contractions from the:
Select one:
A. start of one to the start of the next.
B. end of one to the end of the next.
C. start of one to the end of the next.
D. end of one to the start of the next.
A. start of one to the start of the next.
150
Following delivery of a full-term baby, you have properly cared for the baby and have clamped and cut the umbilical cord. During transport, you note that the mother is experiencing moderate vaginal bleeding. You should:
Select one:
A. firmly massage the uterine fundus with a circular motion.
B. carefully insert a sterile trauma dressing into her vagina.
C. elevate her legs 6 to 8 inches and cover her with a blanket.
D. place her legs together and position her on her left side.
A. firmly massage the uterine fundus with a circular motion.
151
A pregnant trauma patient may lose a significant amount of blood before showing signs of shock because:
Select one:
A. blood is shunted to the uterus and fetus during major trauma.
B. pregnant patients can dramatically increase their heart rate.
C. pregnancy causes vasodilation and a lower blood pressure.
D. pregnant patients have an overall increase in blood volume.
D. pregnant patients have an overall increase in blood volume.
152
During your visual inspection of a 25-year-old woman in labor, you see the baby's head crowning at the vaginal opening. What should you do?
Select one:
A. Tell the mother not to push and transport her immediately.
B. Apply gentle pressure to the baby's head as it delivers.
C. Place your fingers in the vagina to assess for a nuchal cord.
D. Maintain firm pressure to the head until it completely delivers.
B. Apply gentle pressure to the baby's head as it delivers.
153
```
The amniotic fluid serves to:
Select one:
A. transfer oxygen to the fetus.
B. remove viruses from the fetus.
C. insulate and protect the fetus.
D. assist in fetal developmen
```
C. insulate and protect the fetus.
154
```
A mother who is pregnant with her first baby is typically in the first stage of labor for approximately:
Select one:
A. 10 hours.
B. 8 hours.
C. 16 hours.
D. 4 hours
```
C. 16 hours.
155
The presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid indicates:
Select one:
A. that the baby's airway may be obstructed.
B. an expected finding in full-term infants.
C. that the fetus is at least 4 weeks premature.
D. that full newborn resuscitation will be needed
A. that the baby's airway may be obstructed.
156
When preparing a pregnant patient for delivery, you should position her:
Select one:
A. on her left side with the right leg elevated.
B. in a sitting position with her hips elevated 12 inches.
C. on a firm surface with her hips elevated 2 to 4 inches.
D. in a supine position with her legs spread.
C. on a firm surface with her hips elevated 2 to 4 inches.
157
A nuchal cord is defined as an umbilical cord that:
Select one:
A. is lacerated due to a traumatic delivery.
B. is wrapped around the baby's neck.
C. has abnormally developed blood vessels.
D. has separated from the placenta
B. is wrapped around the baby's neck.
158
```
Three days after delivering her baby, a 30-year-old woman complains of a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. Her level of consciousness is decreased and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect:
Select one:
A. spontaneous pneumothorax.
B. intrauterine bleeding.
C. acute pulmonary edema.
D. pulmonary embolism
```
D. pulmonary embolism
159
```
Common interventions used to stimulate spontaneous respirations in the newborn include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. thorough drying with a towel.
B. suctioning of the upper airway.
C. positive-pressure ventilations.
D. some form of tactile stimulation
```
C. positive-pressure ventilations.
160
When a child struck by a car, the area of the greatest injury depends mostly on the:
A. speed at which the car was traveling when impact occurred
B. age of the child and the size the car that struck him or her
C. size of the child and the height of the bumper upon impact
D. height of the child around the speed which the car was traveling
C. size of the child and the height of the bumper upon impact
161
Unless he or she is critically ill or injured you should generally begin your assessment of a toddler
A. in the ambulance
B. enroute to the hospital
C. at the feet
D. at the head
C. at the feet
162
The first month of life after birth is referred to as the:
A. neonatal period
B. start of infancy
C. toddler period
D. premature phase
A. neonatal period
163
Pale skin in a child indicates that the:
A. blood vessels near the skin are constricted
B. oxygen content in the blood is decreased
C. child's core body temperature is elevated
D. child is severe decompresnated shock
A. blood vessels near the skin are constricted
164
Common causes of seizures in the children include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. infection
B. hyperglycemia
C. electrolyte imbalances
D. poisoning or ingestions
B. hyperglycemia
