PT tests and measures for Cardiopulm Flashcards

1
Q

Angina pain scales:
1
2
3
4

A

mild
moderate
moderately severe
most severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ABI

A

checks for peripheral artery disease
divide the highest ankle by the highest arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ABI interpretation
<1.4
1.0-1.4
0.8-0.99
0.4-0.79
<0.4

A

rigid and check for peripheral artery
normal
mild blockage
moderate blockage
severe blockage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If BP cuff is too small

A

false high reading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Hypertensive crisis

A

> 180 and/ or >120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

S1

A

first heart sound
closure of mitral and tricuspid valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

S2

A

2nd heart sound
closure of aortic and pulmonary valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

S3

A

vibrations of the distended ventricle walls
normal in healthy young children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

S4

A

pathological vibration of ventricular wall
associated with HTN, stenosis, hypertensive heart disease and MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Heart murmurs

A

vibrations longer duration than the heart sounds
soft, blowing or swishing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Tracheal and bronchial normal breath sounds

A

loud, tubular sounds normally heard over the trachea
inspiratory phase is shorter than expiratory
slight pause in between
Bronchial sounds heard over distal airways is considered abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Vesicular breath sounds

A

high pitched, breezy sounds normally heard over distal airways
inspiratory phase is longer than expiratory phase and no pause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Adventitious breath sounds

A

abnormal sounds heart with inspiration and/or expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Crackle (formerly rales)

A

high-pitched popping sound more often with inspiration
Can be associated with restrictive and obstructive disorders
movement of fluid/secretions (wet)
or sudden opening of closed airways (dry)
Occur at latter half of inspiration during atelectasis, fibrosis, pulmonary edema or pleural effusion
Crackles with secretions usually low pitched and heard during inspiration and/or expiration
pulmonary edema may produce fine crackles
crackles heard at base of lungs with interstitial lung disease, atelectasis, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pleural friction rub

A

dry, crackling sound during inspiration and expiration
inflamed visceral and parietal pleurae rub together
heard over spot where patient feels pleuritic pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Rhonchi

A

continuous low-pitched sounds
snoring and gurgling during inspiration and expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Stridor

A

high-pitched wheeze heard inspiration or expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Bronchial breath sounds can be heard in what condition?

A

pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Decreased or diminished sounds indicate

A

severe congestion, emphysema or hypoventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Absent breath sounds indicate

A

pneumothorax or lung collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Normal lung, transmission of spoken sounds is usually

A

muffled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Increase in loudness or distinctness in spoken sound over lungs indicate

A

consolidation
atelectasis or firbrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Whispered breath and spoken sound are somewhat more valuable than breath sounds when detecting

A

pulmonary consolidation
infarction
atelectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Bronchophony

A

clarity with 99

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Egophony

A

spoken long E sounds like nasally A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Whispered pectoriloquy

A

whispered words 1,2,3 recognized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Overweight BMI

A

25-29.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Obesity class I BMI

A

30-34.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Obesity class II BMI

A

35-39.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Extreme obesity Class III BMI

A

> 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Normal capillary refill time

A

<2 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Abnormal capillary refill time

A

> 2 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Claudication is a cardinal symptom of
Claudication occurs when

A

peripheral artery disease
skeletal muscle oxygen demand during exercise exceeds blood oxygen supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Initial claudication distance score for test
Absolute claudication distance score

A

pain free
max distance when test is terminated due to pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Grading scale for claudication pain
1
2
3
4

A

definite discomfort or pain but only of initial or modest levels
moderate discomfort or pain from which the patient’s attention can be diverted
intense pain from which the patient’s attention cannot be diverted
excruciating and unbearable pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Pain in butt or hip obstruction of

A

aorta and iliac arteries

37
Q

Pain in calf obstruction of

A

femoral and popliteal arteries

38
Q

Pain in ankle and foot obstruction of

A

tibial and fibular arteries

39
Q

HR in infant
Child
adult

A

100-130
80-100
60-100

40
Q

Amplitude of pulse
3+
2+
1+
0

A

large or bounding
normal or average
small or reduced
absence

41
Q

Obstructive impairment

A

decreased expiratory flows
FEV1/FVC <70%
asthma, emphysema, chronic bronchitis

42
Q

Restrictive impairment

A

reduced lung volumes and relatively normal expiratory flow rates
FEV1/FVC is normal or >80%
interstitial lung disease, pleural disease, chest wall deformities, obesity, pregnancy, neuromuscular disease, tumor

43
Q

SpO2<___ in acutely ill patients.
or <___ in chronic lung disease patients
activity should be stopped and discussed with physician

A

90%
85%

44
Q

Rate pressure product

A

index of MI oxygen consumption and coronary blood flow
RPP=HR SBP

45
Q

RPE of 13-14 represents ____% max HR.
11-13 corresponds to

A

70
upper limit of prescribed training during early cardiac rehab

46
Q

RPE can be substituted for HR when

A

ability to monitor HR is compromised
pts begin exercise program without exercise test
HR response is altered
physical activities other than cardiorespiratory endurance activity are assessed
clinical status or medical therapies change

47
Q

RR:
newborn
1 year
10 years
adult

A

33-45
25-35
15-20
12-20

48
Q

Normal respiratory rhythm
COPD respiratory rhythm

A

inspiration is half as long as expiration
longer expiration phase

49
Q

6 min walk test is at least ____ feet.

A

100

50
Q

Can patients use medications, O2, and an AD during the 6 min walk test?

A

yes

51
Q

How many walks are recommended with at least 15 min rest in between for the 6 min walk test ?

A

3

52
Q

What do you record as part of the 6 min walk test?

A

distance walked and number of stops

53
Q

Increased risk of diabetes, dyslipidemia, HTN, CVD associated with circumference of > ____ in in men and > in in women.

A

40
35

54
Q

Percent of max HR formula for lower target heart rate (THR)=

A

HRmax x55%

55
Q

Percent of max HR formula for upper target heart rate (THR)=

A

HRmax x 90%

56
Q

Karvonen formula
Lower THR

A

[(HRmax-HRrest) x 40%] + HRrest

57
Q

Karvonen formula
Upper THR

A

[(HRmax-HRrest) x 85%] +HRrest

58
Q

Normal cardio response to exercise with SBP

A

linear increase with SBP 8-12 mmHg per MET

59
Q

Normal cardio response to exercise with DBP

A

no change or moderate decrease in DBP

60
Q

Normal cardio response to exercise with RR and tidal volume

A

increased

61
Q

ACB technique

A

forced expiratory technique
Three phases: breathing control, thoracic expansion exercises, and forced expiratory technique.

62
Q

Autogenic drainage

A

varying expiratory airflow without postural drainage positions or coughing.
Theory is to improve airflow in small airways to facilitate movement of mucus
May not be suitable for young children and patients not motivated or easily distracted.

63
Q

AD procedure

A

Controlled breathing at 3 volumes:
unsticking phase: breathe in through nose, hold, exhale.
collecting phase: breathe normally with periodic holds
evacuating phase: deeper inspirations from low volumes with breath holding and huff

64
Q

Huff doesnt produce the same airflow velocity as a cough but the potential for

A

airway collapse is less

65
Q

Huffing can be reinforced with a quick

A

adduction of arms to self-compress the chest wall

66
Q

Huff is contraindicated for

A

those with elevated intracranial pressure or known aneurysm
reduced coronary perfusion like a recent MI
and more

67
Q

High-frequency airway oscillation devices
what is it

A

acapella and flutter
handheld devices that combine positive expiratory pressure and high frequency airway vibrations to mobilize mucus secretions

68
Q

Postural drainage positions are contraindicated for

A

those with intracranial pressure >20 mmHg
pulmonary edema with CHF
among others

69
Q

Trendelenburg is contraindicated for

A

uncontrolled HTN
distended abdomen

70
Q

Postural drainage for Apical segments L and R upper lobes

A

sitting, leaning back 30-40 degrees

71
Q

Postural drainage for Posterior segment R upper lobe

A

prone on L side with bed horizontal and head and shoulders raised on a pillow

72
Q

Postural drainage for Posterior segment L upper lobe

A

prone on R side with head of bed elevated to 45 degrees

73
Q

Postural drainage for lingula L upper lobe

A

supine on R side with foot of bed elevated 12 inches

74
Q

Postural drainage for anterior segments R and L upper lobes

A

supine in bed horizontal

75
Q

Postural drainage for R middle lobe

A

supine on L with foot of bed elevated 12 inches

76
Q

Postural drainage for L and R lower lobes

A

prone with bed horizontal

77
Q

Postural drainage for anterior basal segments L and R lower lobes

A

supine with foot of bed elevated 18 inches

78
Q

Postural drainage for posterior basal segments L and R lower lobes

A

prone with foot of bed elevated 18 inches

79
Q

Postural drainage for lateral basal segments lower lobes

A

sidelying with foot of bed elevated 18 inches

80
Q

white or gray sputum

A

COPD, asthma

81
Q

yellow or green sputum

A

lung abscess
bronchiectasis
chronic bronchitis
cystic fibrosis

82
Q

Brown or black sputum

A

smoking
black lung disease (coal inhalation)

83
Q

Pink or bloody

A

pulmonary edema
lung cancer
pulmonary embolism
bronchiectasis
CF
TB

84
Q

Rust

A

pneumococcal pneumonia

85
Q

Fetid odor

A

bacterial infections
lung abscess
bronchietasis

86
Q

Thick/tenacious consistency

A

asthma
CF

87
Q

Frothy

A

pulmonary edema

88
Q

Increased volume

A

chronic bronchitis
bronchiectasis
pulmonary edema
pneumonia
TB
smoking
exposure to pollution

89
Q
A