MSK Weak Points Flashcards

1
Q

ATP-PC System

A

sprinting 100 meters
enough energy for 15 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Phosphagen system represents…

A

the most rapidly available source of ATP for muscle use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ATP and PC are stored directly in

A

contractile mechanisms of muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Anaerobic glycolysis

A

sprinting 400-800 meters
glycogen used and split into glucose and then again into pyruvic acid
formulates lactic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Anaerobic is __% slower than phophocreatine system.

A

50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Anaerobic can provide a person with __-___seconds of muscle contraction

A

30-40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Anaerobic only uses what fuel source?

A

carbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which energy system yields the most ATP?

A

aerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

frontal plane has what axis?

A

anterior-posterior axis
abduction and adduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

sagittal plan has what axis?

A

medial-lateral axis
flexion and extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

transverse plane has what axis?

A

vertical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Class 1 lever: how many in the body?

A

very few

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Example of class 1 lever?

A

triceps extension
(Seesaw)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Class 2 lever: length of effort arm is always ______ than resistance arm.

A

longer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In most instances in a class 2 lever arm, what acts as effort and resistance?

A

gravity as effort
muscle as resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Class 2 lever example?

A

hand on table and weight bearing through it
(wheelbarrow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Class 3 lever: length of effort arm is always ______ than resistance arm

A

shorter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

With a class 3 lever shoulder abduction has weight where?

A

at wrist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Class 3 levers allow ___ movements at rapid speeds and are the most ____.

A

large
common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

example of class 3 lever in body

A

elbow flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Synarthroses joints are…

A

fibrous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Synarthroses (fibrous) joints are ….

A

nonsynovial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Movement in fibrous joints

A

minimal to none

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Fibrous joints

A

suture (skull)
syndesmosis (interosseous membrane of tib/fib)
gomphosis (tooth in socket)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Do suture joints move?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Syndesmosis joints’ connection and motion

A

bone to bone with fibrous membrane or cord
very little motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Amphiarthroses are known as

A

cartilaginous joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Amphiarthroses (Cartilaginous) joints have what kind of cartilage, and connect what structures and what is their movement like?

A

hyaline or fibrocartilage
bone to bone
slightly moveable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

types of cartilaginous joints

A

synchondrosis
symphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

synchondrosis joints examples in body. They have what kind of cartilage?

A

sternum and true rib articulations
hyaline cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Symphysis example in body, cartilage type.

A

pubic
two bones covered in hyaline cartilage and connected by fibrocartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Synovial joints aka

A

diarthroses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Synovial (diarthroses) joints have 5 distinguishing characteristics, what are they?

A

joint cavity, articular cartilage, synovial membrane, synovial fluid and fibrous capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

3 types of joints in synovial joints

A

uniaxial
biaxial
multiaxial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Uniaxial joints include which ones and have what kind of motion around an axis?

A

hinge and pivot
elbow and atlantoaxial
one motion around a single axis in one plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Biaxial joints include which ones and have what kind of motion around an axis?

A

condyloid- MCP
saddle-CMC
two planes and 2 axes through convex/concave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Multi axial joints include which ones and have what kind of movement around an axis?

A

plane (gliding)-carpal
ball and socket
three planes and around three axes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Gogli tendon organs are located where

A

in most joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

golgi-mazzoni corpuscles are located where?
they are sensitive to?
primarily distributed where?

A

joint capsule
compression of joint capsule
knee joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Pacinian corpuscles are usually where?
What are they sensitive to?
where are they distributed?

A

fibrous layer of joint capsule
high frequency vibration, acceleration, and high velocity changes in joint position.
all joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

ruffini endings are where?
what are they sensitive to?
and where are they distributed?

A

fibrous layer of joint capsule
stretching of capsule, amplitude and velocity of joint position
greater density in proximal joints, particularly in capsular regions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Type IIa muscle fibers are what color? Type IIb?

A

red
white

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Muscle spindle sends info about….
Important in….

A

muscle length and/or the rate of change in its length
control of posture and help of gamma sys, involuntary movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Golgi tendon organs have an average of ___-____muscle fibers connected. and send ____information.

A

10-15
instataneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Nociceptors are

A

free nerve endings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Nociceptors activated by

A

thermal, mechanical or chemical stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Nociceptors have two types of afferent neurons

A

A delta and C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

A-delta fibers transmit

A

quickly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

C fibers transmit

A

slowly and from deeper tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

A-delta are more ___pain

A

sharp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

C-fibers are more ___pain

A

dull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

nociceptors transmit to what part of spinal cord and up which tracts?

A

dorsal horn
thalamus via spinothalamic tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Gate control theory

A

says that the a-delta and c fibers also synapse with an inhibitory interneuron A-alpha and A-beat that help inhibit pain naturally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What do we use for gate control theory as therapists?

A

e-stim and massage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Endogenous opioids are aka

A

endorphins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How do endogenous opioids work?

A

by controlling the amount of calcium and potassium that are moving in and out of the cell in depolarization and also inhibiting GABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is viscerogenic pain?

A

internal organ pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Viscerogenic pain does not ___ based on movement.

A

change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Common sites of viscerogenic pain that will refer are

A

shoulder, scap, back, chest, pelvis, SI joint, groin, hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Heart is innervated by ___-____ and can cause pain on/in

A

C3-T4
left side of body in chest, mid-back, jaw, shoulder, arm, neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Kehr’s sign is positive when?
What is it testing? What is happening?

A

pressure too upper abdomen or supine positioning results in L shoulder pain.
blood accumulating in abdominal cavity, secondary often to rupture in spleen and can cause irritation of diaphragm and refer pain to left shoulder. due to irritation of diaphragm’s nerves C3-C5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Gallstones can refer pain to

A

R upper abdomen and interscapular region because they are innervated by mid-thoracic spinal segments. Can also irritate diaphragm which will refer pain to R shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Cutaneous/ superficial somatic pain is caused by…
It feels like….

A

within skin or subcutaneous tissue
well-localized, sharp/stabbing
dull ache at rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Deep somatic pain is caused by….
type of pain felt….
associated with…

A

bone, muscle, fascia, tendons, ligaments, joint capsules and blood vessels.
diffuse and may be referred to other areas
onset of muscle spasm or trigger points

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Visceral pain is….
associated with…

A

internal organs
autonomic symptoms (perspiration, changes in BP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Neuropathic pain is…
Symptoms provocation is with….
Associated with…

A

sharp, burning, shooting, tingling or electrical that follows a peripheral and/or dermatomal pattern.
Tests that move, load or compress neural tissues will evoke symptoms.
Evoked by things that dont normally evoke pain.
sensory or motor changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Referred pain can be from what sources?
It is usually …
Does not have ….
Localized tenderness and …. are common.

A

somatic or visceral source
well-localized
well defined borders
muscle hypertonicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

3 types of classifications of pain

A

nociceptive
neuropathic
nociplastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Nociceptive

A

injury, inflammation, or mechanical irritation to non-neural tissue. usually in proportion to level of stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Neuropathic

A

nerve pain in dermatomal distribution. Sensory signs like tingling, numbness, burning as well as changes in color, temp, and trophic changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Nociplastic

A

abnormal pain processing
disproportional to stimulus applied.
Diffuse and not related to a specific structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Vascular pain

A

throbbing, pulsing, beating, pounding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Body fat percentage for males…. females

A

12-18%
18-23%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Skinfold measuring sites

A

abd
tris
bis
chest
medial calf
midaxillary
subscap
suprailiac
thigh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

If you have a low metatarsal arch, what can you see under the ball of the foot?

A

calluses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Empty end feels (Abnormal) meanings

A

joint inflammation
fracture
bursitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Firm end feels (abnormal) meanings

A

increased tone
tightening of capsule
ligament shortening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Hard end feel (abnormal) meanings

A

fracture
OA
osteophyte formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Soft end feel (abnormal) meanings

A

edema
synovitis
ligament instability/tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

MMT 2-/5

A

does not complete ROM in gravity-eliminated

81
Q

MMT 2/5

A

completes ROM in gravity-eliminated

82
Q

MMT 2+/5

A

able to initiate movement against gravity

83
Q

MMT 3-/5

A

does not complete full ROM against gravity but more than half

84
Q

MMT 3/5

A

against gravity without resistance

85
Q

MMT 3+/5

A

minimal resistance

86
Q

MMT 4-/5

A

minimal-moderate resistance

87
Q

MMT 4/5

A

moderate resistance

88
Q

What is muscle insufficiency?

A

when a muscle contraction is less than optimal due to extremely lengthened or shortened position

89
Q

Active insufficiency

A

incapable of shortening to produce full ROM

90
Q

Passive insufficiency

A

incapable of lengthening to produce full ROM

91
Q

Power grip

A

fingers in flexion, wrist in ulnar deviation and slight extension

92
Q

cylindrical grip holds

A

soda can

93
Q

fist grasp holds

A

hammer

94
Q

spherical grip holds

A

baseball

95
Q

hook grasp controlled by and holds

A

forearm flexors and extensors
pail handle

96
Q

precision grip

A

MCP and IP joints on radial side of hand

97
Q

3 types of precision grip

A

digital prehension
lateral prehension
tip prehension

98
Q

digital prehension grip

A

pencil

99
Q

lateral prehension grip

A

key

100
Q

tip prehension grip

A

needle

101
Q

Intrarater reliability of dynamometry

A

> .94

102
Q

Handheld dynamomter grip strength is ___-___lbs greater in dominant hand

A

5-10

103
Q

Isometric dynamometry is contraindicated for

A

those with fxs
and significant HTN

104
Q

Isokinetic dynamometry

A

constant speed
alters resistance
speeds of motion include: 60, 120, 180 degrees per second

105
Q

What is a make test?

A

patient is asked to apply force through dynamometer

106
Q

Break test?

A

patient holds a contraction

107
Q

Movement of pelvis during initial swing

A

backward rotatino 4-5*

108
Q

Movement of pelvis during midswing

A

neutral

109
Q

Movement of pelvis during terminal swing

A

forward rotation 4-5*

110
Q

Movement of pelvis during initial contact

A

forward rotation maintained

111
Q

Movement of pelvis during loading response

A

less forward rotation

112
Q

Movement of pelvis during midstance

A

neutral

113
Q

Movement of pelvis during terminal stance

A

backward rotation 4-5*

114
Q

Movement of pelvis during pre-swing

A

backward rotation 4-5*

115
Q

Hip flexion during initial swing and midswing

A

20*

116
Q

Hip flexion during terminal swing, initial contact and loading response

A

30*

117
Q

Hip flexion during midstance

A

extending to neutral

118
Q

Hip flexion during terminal stance

A

apparent hyperextension 10*

119
Q

Hip flexion during preswing

A

neutral extension

120
Q

knee movement during initial swing

A

flexed to 60*

121
Q

knee movement during midswing

A

60-30* flexion

122
Q

knee movement during terminal swing

A

extension -0*

123
Q

knee movement during initial contact

A

full extension

124
Q

knee movement during loading response

A

flexion 15*

125
Q

knee movement during midstance

A

extending to neutral

126
Q

knee movement during terminal stance

A

full extension

127
Q

knee movement during pre-swing

A

35*

128
Q

ankle movement during initial swing

A

PF 10*

129
Q

ankle movement during midswing and terminal swing

A

neutral

130
Q

ankle movement during initial contact

A

neutral, heel first

131
Q

ankle movement during loading response

A

PF 15*

132
Q

ankle movement during midstance

A

PF -10* DF

133
Q

ankle movement during terminal stance

A

neutral with tibia stable and heel off prior to IC of opposite foot

134
Q

ankle movement during pre swing

A

PF 20*

135
Q

Toes are neutral during gait except when?

A

terminal stance and pre swing where MP are extended

136
Q

ROM requirements for normal gait: Hip flexion
hip extension
knee flexion
knee extension
ankle DF
ankle PF

A

0-30*
0-10*
0-60*
0*
0-10*
0-20*

137
Q

Average base of support during gait (distance between the left and right foot during progression of gait)

A

2-4 in

138
Q

Average cadence for a walking adult

A

110-120 steps per minute

139
Q

Average degree of toeing out during gait

A

7*

140
Q

Average pelvic rotation during gait

A

8*
4* forward with swing leg and 4* backward with stance

141
Q

Step length is

A

measured between R heel strike and L heel strik

142
Q

Average step length

A

28 in

143
Q

Stride length is

A

R heel strike to R heel strike

144
Q

Average stride length

A

56 in

145
Q

Antalgic gait is where stance time is____. There is rapid and shorter swing phase of the ____limb. Causes of this gait….

A

decreased
uninvolved limb
bone or joint disease, joint inflammation, injuries to muscles, tendons or ligaments

146
Q

Ataxic gait usually involves…

A

WBOS
movements that are exaggerated

147
Q

Circumduction may be used to compensate for

A

insufficient hip and knee flexion or DF

148
Q

Double step

A

alternate steps are of a different length or rate

149
Q

Equine gait pattern

A

high steps from over activity of gastroc

150
Q

hemiplegic gait pattern

A

abducts paralyzed limb, swings it around to bring it forward

151
Q

spastic gait pattern

A

toes seeming to catch and drag, legs held together, hip and knee joints slightly flexed

152
Q

Steppage gait pattern

A

feet and toes are lifted through hip and knee flexion to excessive heights
usually secondary to DF weakness
foot slap at IC

153
Q

Tabetic gait pattern

A

high stepping ataxic gait where the feet are slapping the ground

154
Q

Mobilizations are contraindicated for

A

joint replacement

155
Q

Grade I mobilization is what size amplitude?

A

small

156
Q

Grade II mobilization is what size amplitude?

A

large

157
Q

Grade III mobilization is what size amplitude?

A

large

158
Q

Grade IV mobilization is what size amplitude?

A

small

159
Q

Convex moving on concave will be

A

opposite directions

160
Q

Any movement beyond end range is considered

A

stretching

161
Q

Stress-strain curve: toe region

A

initial stress that results in the wavy collagen fibers becoming straight and aligning with one another

162
Q

Stress-strain curve: elastic region

A

added stress to the tissue results in greater deformation, though the tissue returns to its resting length if the stretch is not maintained. Tissues with greater stiffness will have a steeper slope in this portion of the curve.S

163
Q

Stress-strain curve: plastic region

A

addition of more stress results in permanent deformation even after the stretch force is no longer applied due to the failure of bonds between the collagen fibers.

163
Q

What is the principle for the basis of stretching?

A

creep

163
Q

What is creep?

A

soft tissue that is stretched for a sustained duration will elongate and not return to its original length after the load is removed due to viscoelastic property

163
Q

Middle layer of muscle fibers that wraps muscle fibers into groups called fasciculus

A

perimysium

163
Q

Innermost connective tissue of muscle that enwraps the individual muscle fibers

A

endomysium

163
Q

Myofibrils make up

A

sarcomeres

163
Q

Outermost connective tissue layer of muscle that surrounds the entire muscle.

A

epimysium

163
Q

Subunits of muscle

A

myofibrils

164
Q

Sarcomeres are made up of….

A

actin and myosin

165
Q

Isometric

A

without a change in muscle length

166
Q

Isotonic

A

constant load
concentric and eccentric

167
Q

Isokinetic

A

constant speed and variable load.
equipment

168
Q

Power training reps and sets

A

low reps very high intensity

169
Q

Volume in strength training is calculated by

A

of reps x intensity

170
Q

Exercise sequence

A

large muscles first then small
multi-joint before single joint
high intensity before low intensity

171
Q

DeLorne exercise programming

A

1st: 50% (of 10 rep max) @10 reps
2nd: 75% (of 10 rep max) @10 reps
3rd: 100% (of 10 rep max) @10 reps

172
Q

Oxford exercise programming

A

1st: 100% (of 10 rep max) @10reps
2nd: 75% (of 10 rep max) @10 reps
3rd: 50% (of 10 rep max) @ 10reps

173
Q

SAID

A

specific adaptation to imposed demands

174
Q

Reversibility principle

A

reversible effects can begin within 1-2 weeks of stopping an exercise program

175
Q

length-tension relationship

A

muscle can produce maximal force near its normal resting length. If it lengthened or shortened it will likely produce less force.

176
Q

force-velocity relationship

A

speed of muscle contraction affects the force
concentric= as speed increases, force decreases
eccentric= as speed increases the force also increases

177
Q

Moment arm

A

linear distance from the axis of rotation to the site of the external load

178
Q

power

A

rate at which work is performed
work/time

179
Q

torque

A

ability of external load to produce rotation around an axis, calculated by multiplying the magnitude of the load by the moment arm

180
Q

work

A

magnitude of load multiplied by the distance the load is moved
weight x ROM

181
Q

During strength training muscle fibers IIB turn into

A

IIA

182
Q

During strength training what happens to capillary bed density?

A

decreases or there is no change

183
Q

During strength training what happens to mitochondria?

A

decreased density

184
Q

What happens to ATP during strength training?

A

increases stores

185
Q

Which type of muscle fibers are resistant to fatigue?

A

I

186
Q

DOMS characterized by

A

tenderness to palpation in the muscle belly or at the muscle-tendon junction

187
Q

What types of exercises reduce the likelihood of DOMS?

A

concentric and isometric

188
Q

Edema vs effusion

A

edema: outside joint capsule
effusion: inside joint capsule

189
Q

Normal Q angle in supine with knee straight: females vs males

A

females:18 degrees
males: 13 degrees

190
Q

Sprain grades

A

I: little to no tear
II: minimal to moderate tearing
III: total tear

191
Q

Strain grades

A

I: pain, minimal swelling and tenderness
II: moderate swelling, tenderness and impaired motor function
III: palpable defect of muscle, severe pain and poor motor function

192
Q
A