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NPTE > Equipment, Devices and Technologies; Therapeutic Modalities > Flashcards

Equipment, Devices and Technologies; Therapeutic Modalities Flashcards

1
Q

A dependent patient must be ___ when changing positions in order to avoid shearing of skin across the bed.

A

lifted

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2
Q

Practice moving ____ from one side of the bed to the other.

A

segmentally

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3
Q

Min A is ___%.
Mod A is ___%.
Max A is ___%.

A

25%
50%
75%

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4
Q

Dependent transfer of three person carry/lift.
Used to carry someone from stretcher to…
One therapist holds ____ , the second supports___, and the third supports ____.
Therapist at the ____initiates commands.

A

bed or plinth
head and upper trunk
trunk
LE
head

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5
Q

Dependent transfer of two person lift.
Used to transfer patient between….
One therapist holds…..
Other therapists holds….

A

two surfaces of different heights or when transferring a patient to the floor.

underneath axilla; grab L forearm in R hand and R forearm in L hand.

mid to distal thighs and LE

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6
Q

Stand pivot transfer requirements…
Lead with ….
Can also be used therapeutically for someone with CVA leading with….

A

unilateral WB restrictions or hemiplegia
uninvolved
involved

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7
Q

Measuring seat height in w/c

A

measured from heel to popliteal fold and add 2 inches

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8
Q

Measuring seat depth in w/c

A

posterior buttock to popliteal fold and subtract 2 inches

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9
Q

Measuring seat width in w/c

A

measure widest aspect of buttocks, hips or thighs and add 2 inches

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10
Q

Measuring back height in w/c

A

measure seat of chair to floor of axilla with users shoulder flexed to 90 degrees and subtract 4 inches

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11
Q

Final back height of w/c should be below the ____of the scapulae

A

inferior angles

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12
Q

Back height is affected by

A

cushion

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13
Q

Measuring armrest height in w/c

A

seat of chair to olecranon process with users elbow flexed to 90 degrees and add one inch

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14
Q

Hemi frame w/c is used for those who

A

self propel using LE

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15
Q

One-hand drive frame w/c is used for those who

A

self propel using one UE

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16
Q

Amputee frame w/c is used for those who

A

self propel but center of gravity is shifted posteriorly due to amputation

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17
Q

Geri chair w/c is used for those who

A

are not able to self propel or safely operate a power mobility device

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18
Q

Reclining chair w/c is used for those who are

A

unable to perform weight shifting or unable to sit upright for extended periods.
moderate to severe trunk involvement

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19
Q

Backward tilt-in-space frame w/c is used for those who

A

are unable to sit upright or perform weight shifts but also has issues sliding or has extensor tone

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20
Q

Sling back in w/c is for those who

A

require no postural support and has no neuromuscular deficits.
usually not for long term

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21
Q

Planar back in w/c is for those who

A

require mild to moderate trunk support due to tone

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22
Q

Curved back in w/c is for those who

A

require moderate trunk support

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23
Q

Custom molded insert in w/c is for those who

A

require significant trunk support

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24
Q

If the back height is below inferior angle of scapula the pt is able to

A

self propel and has good trunk control

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25
Q

If the back height is above inferior angle of scapula the pt is

A

able to self propel but requires additional spinal support

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26
Q

Planar seat in w/c is for those who

A

have no seated deformity

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27
Q

Curved seat in w/c is for those who

A

require mild to aggressive supportive curvature to provide increased contact between lower body and seat

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28
Q

Custom molded seat in w/c is for those who

A

require customized seat support to correct pelvic obliquity or a fixed asymmetrical deformity

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29
Q

Bevel (undercut) front edge of seat in w/c is for those

A

who self-propel using LE

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30
Q

Planar lateral supported for trunk in w/c is for those who

A

require mild to moderate lateral support duet o listing or scoliosis

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31
Q

Contoured or curved lateral supports for trunk in w/c is for those who

A

require total contact lateral support for significant lateral listing or scoliosis

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32
Q

Chest strap in w/c is for those who

A

require trunk support to correct for anterior listing

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33
Q

Chest harness in w/c is for those who

A

require both trunk and shoulder support to correct for anterior listing

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34
Q

Full length arm rests in w/c are for those

A

who perform STS
require additional postural support
pt utilizing lap board

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35
Q

Tubular or single posted arms in w/c are for those who

A

require minimal support for UE and easy access to wheels for propulsion and easily removal of arms

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36
Q

Fixed or non-removable armrests in w/c are for those who

A

require durable UE support

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37
Q

Covered rim wheel in w/c are for those that

A

require assistance for adequate grasp or friction when hands are in contact with wheel rims

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38
Q

Proportional control of power w/c

A

modulate speed

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39
Q

Non-proportional control of power w/c

A

pre-set speed

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40
Q

Bariatric w/c has weight limit of

A

300-1,000 lbs

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41
Q

Proper fit positioning of crutches

A

6 inches in front
2 inches lateral
crutch height should be no greater than 3 finger widths from the axilla

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42
Q

Lofstrand crutches can be used with all levels of ….
They require the ___ level of coordination.
Arm cuff should be positioned ….
Platform attachment can be utilized.

A

WB
highest
one an one half inches below olecranon process so it doesnt interfere with elbow flexion

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43
Q

Quad canes can better assist with limited ___ on an involved LE.

A

WB

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44
Q

Canes can be used in what types of gait patterns?

A

2 point
4 point
modified 2 and 4 point

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45
Q

When guarding during ambulation what side do you stand on as the therapist?

A

to the affected side

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46
Q

2 point gait

A

two crutches or canes
opposite crutch and LE move forward together.
Each step is one point and a complete cycle is two points.

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47
Q

3 point gait

A

walker or crutches
involves one injured LE that may have decreases WB
AD is advanced, then the injured LE, then the uninjured LE.
AD and each LE is a separate point.

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48
Q

4 point gait

A

similar to 2 point gait but doesnt move extremities simultaneously with device.
This is for those with impaired coordination, balance or significant strength deficits.
Each advancement of LE and crutch is a point.

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49
Q

Guarding during ascending stairs using handrail

A

stand opposite side and behind

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50
Q

Guarding during ascending stairs not using handrail

A

stand behind patient slightly toward affected side

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51
Q

Ascending stairs with crutches/cane

A

turn crutch sideways and hold HR and crutch in same hand

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52
Q

Those with a femoral line, hip flexion WOM should be limited to

A

not >80 degrees

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53
Q

CVP catheter is aka
and what does it do?

A

central line
measures pressures in RA or superior vena cava by means of indwelling venous catheter and pressure manometer.
Used to evaluate R ventricular function, R atrial venous pressure and circulating blood volume.

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54
Q

With a CVP catheter, avoid ….
For internal jugular insertion limit….
For subclavian insertion limit…..
If this is dislodged it is a…

A

excessive movement and physical activity

limit head and neck movement

limit ipsilateral shoulder ROM to 90 degrees

life-threatening emergency

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55
Q

Indwelling R atrial catheter is aka
and is used for ….
Limit what kind of movements with this one?
Avoid what else?

A

Hickman
long-term use of substances in to venous system

limited repeated ipsilateral shoulder movements
limit aquatic therapy
avoid soft tissue mobilization and manual techniques over access point

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56
Q

Pulmonary artery catheter is aka
and is used for..
Limit….
For internal jugular insertion limit….
For subclavian insertion limit….
For femoral insertion limit….
Dislodging this is a…

A

Swan-Ganz

continuous monitoring of pulmonary artery pressure

excessive movement and physical activity

head and neck movement

ipsilateral shoulder ROM to 90 degrees

ipsilateral hip flexion to 70

life threatening

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57
Q

Intracranial pressure monitor:
Must notify… before starting physical activity.
Changing bed height might….
Maintain head and neck….
What position of bed, neck and hip increase ICP?

A

nursing

alter transducer reading

neutral

Trendelenburg
neck flexion
excessive hip flexion

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58
Q

NG tubes need to be stopped with patient in what position?

A

upright or semi-Fowler’s position for at least 30 min prior to supine activities

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59
Q

Those with G tube or PEG tube should not

A

lie flat during feeding

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60
Q

PEJ (jejunostomy tube) is used for

A

long-term feeding
also should not lie flat

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61
Q

PICC line is used for ….
precautions for this

A

long-term administration of medications

ROM exercise of involved extremities allowed
Use of axillary crutches is often contraindicated due to risk of occluding blood flow or causing thrombus

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62
Q

Avoid excessive ___and ___ movements but functional mobility can still be performed with ….and tracheostomy tube.

A

head and neck movements
endotracheal tube (intubated)

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63
Q

Displacement of ET tube is a …
PTs should develop what kind of communication with those who are intubated?
Are out of bed activities allowed?

A

life-threatening

nonverbal

yes

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64
Q

With an oxygen tent, avoid ….
Electrical devices should…. be used inside.

A

opening more often than necessary
not

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65
Q

Those with woundvac if it is how full… it should be emptied before activity.

A

more than half full

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66
Q

Arteriography

A

catheter inserted into artery either through groin or arm to heart.
Used to identify arteriosclerosis, aneurysm, vascular malformations, tumors or blockages.

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67
Q

Arthrography

A

visualize joints

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68
Q

CT used to diagnose

A

spinal lesion
diagnostic studies of brain

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69
Q

EEG does what?

A

record electrical activity of the brain
epilepsy or narcolepsy

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70
Q

EMG doe what?

A

records electrical activity of selected muscle or group of muscles during voluntary contraction

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71
Q

Fluoroscopy can show motion

A

within joints or movement of dye within digestive tract

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72
Q

Myelography looks at

A

spinal cord
nerve roots
meninges
diagnoses:
bone displacement, spinal stenosis, disk herniation, spinal cord compression, infection/inflammation of meninges or tumors

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73
Q

PET looks for

A

tumors or other lesions

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74
Q

Venography diagnoses

A

DVT
tumors
valve dysfunction

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75
Q

Ice massage can be used as a stimulus to

A

facilitate a desired motor response in those with impaired motor control.
applied with direct pressure over muscle belly for 3-5 seconds or quickly stroked over targeted muscle belly to enhance contraction.

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76
Q

Ice massage area and time

A

10cm x 15 cm
5-10 minutes

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77
Q

Phases of cooling

A

intense cold
burning
aching
analgesia

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78
Q

Cold packs should be applied for how long?
Can be reapplied every…
If treatment goal is spasticity reduction, can extend treatment time to …

A

20 min

1-2 hours

30 min

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79
Q

Vapocoolant spray is used for

A

trigger points

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80
Q

Standard size of hot pack is

A

12x12 inches

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81
Q

How many layers of towel need to be used with a hot pack ?
If commercial hot pack, how many layers of towels?

A

6-8

2-3

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82
Q

Pts cannot lie___ of hot back

A

on top of

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83
Q

Fluidotherapy used for

A

tissue healing, skin desensitization, edema management

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84
Q

Infrared lamp use for

A

soft tissue healing

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85
Q

Amount of infrared lamp tissue temperature increase is

A

directly proportional to amount of radiation that penetrates tissue

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86
Q

What should you do to protect outside target area tissue in infrared lamps?

A

protective toweling

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87
Q

How many times do you dip the hand in parrafin in a dip-wrap method?

A

6-10 times

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88
Q

What do you document when using modalities?

A

body part treated
modality used
treatment duration
parameters
response to treatment
outcome measure

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89
Q

Deep heating agents can heat to depths of

A

3-5 cm

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90
Q

Deep thermotherapy examples are

A

ultrasound and diathermy

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91
Q

Direct coupling agents in US are…

A

gel
lotion

92
Q

Indirect coupling agents in US are…

A

employed when treatment area is excessively small, irregularly shaped or unable to tolerate pressure from transducer.
Water is an example.

93
Q

Effective radiation area (ERA) is always smaller than

A

total size of transducer head

94
Q

Spatial averaged intensity is calculated by…

A

power output in Watts/total effective radiating area of soundhead in cm2

95
Q

Lower BNR is

A

preferred because pts are less likely to experience hot spots during treatment

96
Q

Attentuation

A

decrease in energy intensity as US travels through tissues

97
Q

Tissues high in water content: blood, plasma have a ___ rate of absorption while more dense tissues have…

A

low

high

98
Q

US delivered at a higher frequency is absorbed more …. .than US delivered at a lower frequency.

A

rapidly

99
Q

Superficial tissues frequency

A

3 MHz

100
Q

Deep tissue frequency

A

1 MHz

101
Q

Portion of treatment time US is generated during entire treatment is referred to as the

A

duty cycle

102
Q

Duty cycle is calculated by

A

on time / on+off time x100

103
Q

Continuous US is for

A

heat

104
Q

Pulsed US is for

A

non thermal

105
Q

Duty cycle for pulsed US

A

20% or lower

106
Q

Duty cycle for continuous US

A

100%

107
Q

An area two to three times the transducer typically requires a duration of

A

5 min

108
Q

Longer duration of US may be necessary when

A

using lower intensities or lower frequencies

109
Q

US should not be used for

A

areas 4x larger than ERA

110
Q

US with thermal effects is used at what stage of healing

A

later stages

111
Q

US is used how often

A

2-3 x per week

112
Q

US with nonthermal effects can be used when

A

earlier in healing process
once a day

113
Q

Most common frequency used for shortwave diathermy is

A

27.12 MHz

114
Q

Dosing for diathermy:
Dose I
Dose II
Dose III
Dose IV

A

no sensation of heat

mild heating

moderate heating

vigorous heating

115
Q

Diathermy treatment time with thermal effects?
Non-thermal?

A

20 min

30-60 min

116
Q

When to use diathermy?

A

when increase in temp is required at tissue depths greater than those achieved with superficial heating agents and when target area will not tolerate direct contact with thermal agent.

117
Q

Diathermy can heat surfaces ____x the typical US transducer.

A

25

118
Q

Water temps for acute inflammation of distal extremities?

A

32-70 degrees

119
Q

Water temps for exercise?

A

79-92 degrees

120
Q

Water temps for wound care?

A

92-96 degrees

121
Q

Water temps for cardiopulm compromise or treatment of burns?

A

96-98 degrees

122
Q

Water temps for pain management?

A

99-104 degrees

123
Q

Water temps for RA or OA and increased ROM?

A

104-110 degrees

124
Q

Flexion position for lumbar traction is in what position and results in greater separation of

A

supine
posterior structure: facet joints, intervertebral foramen

125
Q

Extended position for lumbar traction is in what position and results in greater separation of

A

prone
anterior structure like disks

126
Q

Static traction is for

A

symptoms that are slightly exaggerated by movement

127
Q

Intermittent traction is for

A

joint mobes
or those who cannot tolearate static

128
Q

Force during relax period of intermittent traction is usuallly

A

50% of force during hold

129
Q

Coefficient of friction is

A

0.5

130
Q

How many pounds should be used for initial traction session?
Force of __% of body weight used for stretching soft tissue, muscle spasm, disk protrusion.
Force of ___% used for

A

30
25%
50%

131
Q

Disk related symptoms treatment time for traction
other spinal conditions?

A

10 min
30 min

132
Q

Flexion traction for cervical spine:
Upper is how many degrees?
Mid?
Lower?

A

0-5

10-20

25-35

133
Q

Intermittent cervical traction

A

reducing pain and increasing ROM

134
Q

Force for cervical traction initially
Percentage of body weight for soft tissue, muscle spasm or disk.

Percentage of body weight for joint distraction
Force should not exceed how many pounds?

A

10 lbs

7-10%

13-20%

30

135
Q

Compression works to keep

A

venous and lymphatic flow from pooling in venous system and interstitial space

136
Q

Therapeutic effects of compression

A

control peripheral edema
management of scar formation
preventing DVT
promote lymphatic and venous return
shaping of residual limb

137
Q

When to use compression?

A

edema
hypertrophic scarring
lymphedema
new residual limb
DVT risk
stasis ulcers

138
Q

Working pressure in compression bandages

A

pressure is only exerted when patient is active

139
Q

Compression bandages offer greater pressure in which direction

A

distally than proximally
applied with figure 8

140
Q

Long-stretch bandages provide greatest ____ pressure applying ___-____mmHg of pressure. Very little working pressure. Long-stretch are used in those who are…

A

resting
60-70
immobile

141
Q

Short-stretch bandages produce low pressure at ___ and high ____pressure. Moderately effective while patient is active or at rest. Most often used during…..
Pts must have functional…

A

rest
working
exercise
functional calf muscle and functional gait pattern.

142
Q

Multi-layered bandages produce ___-___ resting pressure through the use of several bandages containing elastic and inelastic layers.
These are most commonly used to treat….

A

moderate to high
venous stasis ulcers

143
Q

Semirigid bandages most often consist of …
These treat…. and example?

A

treated gauze applied to distal extremity
venous stasis ulcers
Unna boot

144
Q

Off the shelf compression garments provide force of ___-___mmhg and used to prevent …. on bed rest.
Stocking are to be worn at all times unless bathing.
Garments used for scar tissue control ___-____mmHg.
Garments used for edema control ____-____mmHg.

A

16-18
DVT
20-30
30-40

145
Q

Compression garments last how long?

A

6 months

146
Q

Intermittent compression is most often delivered using

A

intermittent pneumatic compression pump

147
Q

Intermittent pneumatic compression pump is used to reduce

A

chronic and/or post-traumatic edema

148
Q

Before using intermittent pneumatic compression pump what should be taken?

A

BP and girth measurements

149
Q

Inflation of intermittent pneumatic compression pump should not exceed…
Arterial capillary pressure is approximately ___mmHg and inflation below this point will not typically have…..
Inflation pressure greater than SBP may…

A

diastolic BP
30
therapeutic value
restrict arterial blood flow and create a medical emergency

150
Q

Treatment of UE with intermittent pneumatic compression pump should be ____-____mmHg.
LE ____-____mmHg.
Treatment time?
Times per week?

A

30-60
40-80
30 min to 4 hours
3x/week
up to 4x/day

151
Q

Rate of CPM

A

two cycles per minute

152
Q

Direct current of is used with

A

iontophoresis

153
Q

When direct current or a monophasic pulsed waveform is used, ___ electrode remains the cathode and the other the anode.
In alternating the cathode and anode are ….

A

one
changing

154
Q

Unequal size electrodes are used, the current will be more concentrated in..

A

smaller electrode

155
Q

If electrodes are in close proximity, current is more dense in

A

superficial tissues

156
Q

If electrodes are further apart, current is more dense in

A

deeper tissues

157
Q

Monopolar technique

A

stimulating or active electrode is over target area.
second dispersive electrode is placed at another site away from target area.
active is smaller than dispersive
used with wounds, iontophoresis, and edema

158
Q

Bipolar technique

A

two active electrodes placed over target area
equal in size
for muscle weakness, neuromuscular facilitation, spasms and ROM

159
Q

Amplitude

A

magnitude of current

160
Q

Average amplitude

A

average amount of current supplied over a period of time

161
Q

Peak amplitude

A

maximum positive or negative point from zero where the pulse is maintained.

162
Q

Higher the amplitude, greater the

A

peak amplitude

163
Q

Rise time is the time it takes for

A

current to move from zero to the peak intensity within each phase

164
Q

Fast rise times are necessary with ____ capacitance tissues, such as large motor nerves.
Rise times are typically…

A

low
very short

165
Q

Decay time

A

time it takes for current to move from peak intensity to zero

166
Q

Phase begins when current departs from

A

zero line and ends as the current returns to zero line.

167
Q

Pulse duration

A

amount of time it takes for two phases of a pulse with biphasic current

168
Q

In monophasic current, the phase duration and pulse duration are…

A

the same

169
Q

Frequency is labeled as…
expressed as..

A

rate
pulses per second or hertz

170
Q

Common categories of modulation include

A

bursts, interrupted pulses and ramps

171
Q

Bursts

A

occur when ceases flow but only for a little bit of time without true interruption of muscle contraction

172
Q

Interrupted pulses

A

stop muscle contraction

173
Q

Functional electrical stimulation example

A

anterior tib for DF in walking

174
Q

In FES, electrodes should be separated by

A

minimum of 2 inches

175
Q

Pulse duration in NMES

A

shorter pulse durations are more comfy with small muscles
longer pulse duration are more comfy with large muscles

176
Q

When pulse duration is shortened, a greater…

A

current amplitude will be required to produce the same strength contraction

177
Q

Frequency in NMES

A

smooth tetanic contraction usually produced at a frequency of 35-50 pps

178
Q

Higher frequencies in NMES will not produce a stronger contraction but will….

A

promote more rapid fatigue.

179
Q

On/off time for NMES

A

on time=6-10 seconds
off time= 5x longer

180
Q

Ramp times for NMES if on time is 6-10 seconds

A

1-4 seconds

181
Q

Treatment time and contractions for NMES

A

10 contractions with max of 20 contractions

182
Q

Conventional TENS duration and frequency with amplitude?

A

short duration
high frequency
low current amplitude

183
Q

Acupuncture-like TENS is for
frequency, duration, amplitude

A

muscle twitching for longer lasting relief
low frequency
long duration
high amplitude

184
Q

Brief intense TENS frequency, duration and amplitude

A

high frequency
long duration
high amplitude for a motor response

185
Q

Noxious TENS frequency, duration and amplitude

A

high or low frequency
long duration
highest tolerated amplitude

186
Q

Interferential current is used for

A

pain relief
increased circulation
muscle stimulation

187
Q

Iontophoresis

A

like charges repel
so positive solution will repel from a positive electrode

188
Q

Safety concerns with electricity

A

always turn intensity dial to zero before unplugging
keep equipment 3-5 meters from each other

189
Q

Indications for Iontophoresis

A

pain
calcium deposits
fungal infection
hyperhidrosis
inflammation
ischemia
keloids
muscle spasm
myositis ossificans
plantar warts
wounds
scar tissue

190
Q

Dosage in ionto

A

40-80 mA

191
Q

40 mA-min can be delivered in___ min with a current amplitude of ___mA.

A

10
4.0

192
Q

Current amplitudes in ionto range from

A

1-4

193
Q

Electrode containing ion solution is referred to as the …
The second electrode is called the ___ electrode and is placed….
Recommended spacing is …
As spacing increases the current density in superficial tissues…..
Smaller electrodes have ___ current density and used to treat specific lesion.
Larger electrodes are used when treatment area is ____.
Slowly increase intensity towards max of ___ mA.
Treatment should last ___-___min.

A

active

dispersive

away from active

equivalent to diameter of active electrode

decreases

higher

less well defined

4

10-20

194
Q

Acidic reaction with ionto

A

from hydrochloric acid under positive

195
Q

Alkaline reaction to ionto

A

from sodium hydroxide under negative

196
Q

Can leave active electrode on skin for how long?

A

12-24 hours

197
Q

Acetic acid what what polarity and used for what?

A

negative

calcific deposits
myositis ossificans

198
Q

Dexamethasone has what polarity and is used for what?

A

negative

inflammation

199
Q

Iodine has what polarity and is used for what?

A

negative

scars
adhesive capsulitis

200
Q

Lidocaine has what polarity and is used for what?

A

positive

analgesia
inflammation

201
Q

Magnesium sulfate has what polarity and is used for what?

A

positive

muscle spasms
ischemia

202
Q

Salicylates has what polarity and is used for what ?

A

negative

muscle and joint pain
plantar warts

203
Q

Zinc oxide has what polarity and is used for what?

A

positive

healing
dermal ulcers
wounds

204
Q

With EMG, normal relaxed muscle should exhibit

A

electrical silence

205
Q

With EMG, spontaneous potentials during rest means

A

nerve or muscle damage

206
Q

Fibrillation potentials in EMG

A

LMN disease

207
Q

Positive sharp wave in EMG

A

denervated muscle disorders at rest, primary muscle disease like muscular dystrophy

208
Q

Fasciculations in EMG

A

irritation/degeneration of anterior horn cell, nerve root compression or muscle spasms

209
Q

Repetitive discharges in EMG

A

myopathies, lesion of anterior horn cells and peripheral nerves

210
Q

Voluntary polyphasic potentials in EMG

A

myopathies, muscle or peripheral nerve involvement

211
Q

EMG sites:
C6-7
C7-8
C8-T1
L4-5
L5-S1
L5-S2
S1-2

A

triceps and flexor carpi radialis

extensor indicis proprius

abductor pollicis brevis

first dorsal interossei

tib anterior

fibularis longus

glute max and hamstrings

gastroc

212
Q

Centrifugal direction in massage
Centripetal direction in massage

A

center of body out

moving from extremities toward center of body

213
Q

Effleurage..
Stroke direction
Can also be applied as..

A

light stroke for reflexive response

towards heart

deep stroke for mechanical and reflexive response

214
Q

Friction massage for

A

chronic inflammation
overuse injuries

215
Q

Tapotement

A

rapid alternating movements: tapping, hacking, cupping, slapping
enhances stimulation to peripheral nerve endings

216
Q

Vibration massage

A

initiates motion from forearm while maintaining contact. Primarily used for relaxation

217
Q

Air temp during massage

A

72-75

218
Q

Standard w/c seat specifications

A

18 in wide
16 in deep
20 in high

219
Q

Walker, crutches, cane should allow flexion of elbows ___-___ degree.s

A

20-25

220
Q

Superficial heating agents produce the larges temp elevation within ___ cm from skin surface.

A

0.5

221
Q

Paraffin has a low

A

specific heat

222
Q

Area of ___-___ times of size of US transducer typically requires duration of ….

A

2-3
5 minutes

223
Q

Minimal erythemal dose refers to…

A

smallest does of UV light needed to produce an area of mild redness within 8 hours of UV exposure that disappears within 24 hours after exposure.

224
Q

Static traction is more desirable for

A

acute symptoms

225
Q

Pulsatile current is characterized by

A

non-continuous flow of direct or alternating current

226
Q

Small electrodes exhibit increased current…..
increased ….. and decreased current…

A

density
impedance
flow

227
Q

Likelihood of burn using ionto can be decreased by…

A

increasing size of cathode relative to anode

NPTE (54 decks)

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