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Professional Issues Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four conditions for a client to succeed in a malpractice claim against a psychologist?

A
  • Professional relationship established
  • Dereliction or breach of duty
  • Client suffered injury or harm
  • Breach was direct or proximate cause of harm

According to Gable (1983), these conditions must be met for a malpractice claim to be valid.

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2
Q

What must be true for a client to obtain monetary compensation in a malpractice claim?

A

The harm or injury must be measurable in economic terms.

This is a critical aspect for claims regarding psychological malpractice.

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3
Q

What is the first step in responding to a subpoena according to APA’s Committee on Legal Issues?

A

Determine if the subpoena is legally valid.

Subpoenas may be invalid if improperly served.

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4
Q

If a subpoena is valid, what is the next step after determining its validity?

A

A formal response is required, and the psychologist should contact the client to discuss implications.

This ensures the client’s interests are considered before proceeding.

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5
Q

What should a psychologist do if the client does not authorize the release of information requested by a subpoena?

A

Contact the party who issued the subpoena to negotiate.

This may involve seeking a withdrawal or limitation of the request.

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6
Q

What is the definition of insanity in a legal context?

A

A defendant is considered ‘not guilty by reason of insanity’ if they failed to appreciate certain actions were wrong due to a mental disease or defect.

Definitions may vary by jurisdiction, and this is a key element in criminal cases.

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7
Q

What percentage of criminal cases in the U.S. utilize the insanity defense?

A

1%.

Among those, it is successful about 25% of the time (Bartol & Bartol, 2019).

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8
Q

What does competency to stand trial refer to?

A

A defendant’s current mental status and ability to understand the charges and cooperate with their attorneys.

This is a critical factor in criminal legal proceedings.

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9
Q

What methods are commonly used to evaluate competency to stand trial?

A
  • Clinical interview
  • Mental status exam
  • Psychological tests (e.g., MMPI-2, WAIS-IV)
  • Review of collateral information
  • Competency specific tests

These methods help assess the defendant’s understanding and cooperation.

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10
Q

In civil proceedings, what do evaluations of civil competencies generally focus on?

A

An individual’s ability to understand relevant information for making everyday decisions.

This includes making a will, entering contracts, and making medical decisions.

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11
Q

What is the difference between a fact witness and an expert witness?

A

Fact witnesses testify on what they observed, while expert witnesses offer opinions based on specialized knowledge.

Fact witnesses cannot provide opinions or address hypothetical situations.

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12
Q

What are the limitations of a fact witness in legal proceedings?

A

They cannot offer opinions, address issues outside personal knowledge, or respond to hypotheticals.

Fact witnesses must also have client authorization or a court order to disclose confidential information.

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13
Q

What qualifications must a psychologist meet to be considered an expert witness?

A

They must possess superior knowledge due to education or specialized experience.

This allows them to provide informed opinions on complex subjects.

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14
Q

True or False: An expert witness can only testify about events they personally observed.

A

False.

Expert witnesses can provide opinions on hypothetical situations.

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15
Q

What is the primary function of a psychological autopsy?

A

To clarify deaths that were equivocal with regard to the manner of death

Coined by Shneidman in 1994.

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16
Q

What are the two types of psychological autopsy distinguished by La Fon in 1999?

A
  • Equivocal death psychological autopsy (EDPA)
  • Suicide psychological autopsy (SPA)
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17
Q

What does Equivocal Death Psychological Autopsy (EDPA) aim to determine?

A

The manner of a person’s death as suicide, accident, homicide, natural cause, or undetermined.

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18
Q

What is the purpose of a Suicide Psychological Autopsy (SPA)?

A

To identify the psychosocial factors that contributed to a person’s suicide.

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19
Q

List some forensic purposes of conducting an SPA.

A
  • Resolving questions related to insurance claims
  • Contested wills
  • Malpractice claims
  • Worker’s compensation
  • Other legal issues
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20
Q

What research benefits do SPAs provide?

A

They help identify suicide risk factors and methods of prevention.

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21
Q

How do SPAs assist family members of the deceased?

A

They provide information that helps understand the deceased’s state of mind and facilitates the grieving process.

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22
Q

Who typically conducts psychological autopsies?

A

Psychologists, psychiatrists, and other mental health professionals trained in forensic psychology or death investigation.

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23
Q

What types of information are collected during a psychological autopsy?

A
  • Crime scene information
  • Medical and police records
  • Records left by the deceased
  • Interviews with family, friends, and co-workers
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24
Q

What are the primary criticisms of psychological autopsy?

A
  • Lack of standardized procedures
  • Limited empirical evidence for reliability and validity
  • Potential for incomplete, inconsistent, or biased information
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25
Q

True or False: A psychological autopsy is widely accepted as expert testimony in criminal cases.

A

False

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26
Q

What is a key tool for identifying risk factors associated with suicide?

A

Psychological autopsy

Despite its limitations, it remains important for this purpose.

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27
Q

What does ‘gender’ refer to according to the APA guidelines?

A

Social identity (e.g., cisgender, transgender, gender non-conforming).

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28
Q

Fill in the blank: Use _______ as singular pronouns when gender is irrelevant to the context.

A

they, them, their

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29
Q

What term should be used instead of ‘homosexual’ or ‘homosexuality’?

A

Specific, identity-first terms (e.g., lesbian women, bisexual people).

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30
Q

For individuals aged 12 years and younger, what terms should be used?

A
  • Child
  • Boy
  • Girl
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31
Q

What is the recommended term for individuals aged 65 and older?

A

Older adult

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32
Q

What language should be avoided when referring to individuals with disabilities?

A

Negative and condescending language

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33
Q

What is person-first language?

A

Language that emphasizes the individual first, such as ‘person in a wheelchair’ or ‘adolescent with autism spectrum disorder.’

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34
Q

According to APA guidelines, how should racial and ethnic groups be treated in writing?

A

Capitalize their names (e.g., Blacks, Whites, African Americans).

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35
Q

What is the appropriate term for people of African origin?

A
  • African American
  • Black
  • Specify region or nation of origin (e.g., Nigerian, Haitian)
36
Q

What terms should be used for people of Asian ancestry?

A
  • Asian (from Asia)
  • Asian American or Asian Canadian (from the U.S. or Canada)
  • Specify region or nation of origin (e.g., Japanese)
37
Q

What should be the preferred term for individuals identifying as Hispanic?

A

The term preferred by the individual or population (e.g., Latinx).

38
Q

What terms should be used for indigenous people?

A

The names they call themselves (e.g., Native American, Hawaiian Native).

39
Q

What is the preferred terminology for people of Middle East or North African origin?

A

Middle Eastern and North African (MENA) or specify the nation of origin.

40
Q

What has become a source of stress for many psychologists?

A

Unfavorable online reviews on websites like Yelp

41
Q

What does Chamberlin (2014) note regarding negative online reviews?

A

It’s often not possible to get negative reviews deleted unless they violate terms of service

42
Q

What is likely to violate ethical responsibilities when responding to negative reviews?

A

Responding directly to negative reviews on a website

43
Q

What does HIPAA’s privacy rule relate to in the context of online reviews?

A

It relates to the confidentiality of patient information

44
Q

What does Chamberlin (2014) recommend to reduce the effects of negative reviews?

A

Establishing a positive online presence

45
Q

What are examples of establishing a positive online presence?

A

Posting patient-satisfaction ratings or positive evaluations from colleagues and supervisors

46
Q

What might several negative reviews suggest about a psychologist?

A

That consultation may be useful to determine if changes are needed in practice

47
Q

What is telepsychology also known as?

A

Teletherapy and telehealth

48
Q

How does the APA define telepsychology?

A

Provision of psychological services using telecommunication technologies

49
Q

What are examples of telecommunication technologies used in telepsychology?

A
  • Telephone
  • Mobile devices
  • Interactive videoconferencing
  • E-mail
  • Chat
  • Text
  • Internet
50
Q

What does interjurisdictional practice refer to?

A

Providing telepsychology services across jurisdictions

51
Q

What must psychologists determine before providing telepsychology services across jurisdictions?

A

The legal requirements for telepsychology in the jurisdictions where they and the client are located

52
Q

What varies in jurisdictions that are not part of PSYPACT?

A

Laws governing interjurisdictional practice

53
Q

What laws must psychologists be familiar with when providing telepsychology?

A
  • Child and elder abuse reporting
  • Duty to warn or protect
  • Civil commitment
54
Q

What should telepsychology practitioners do regarding advertising their services?

A

Advertise only to individuals they are legally authorized to provide services to

55
Q

What is PSYPACT?

A

The ASPPB’s Psychology Interjurisdictional Compact

56
Q

What does PSYPACT allow psychologists to do?

A

Provide professional services to clients in other compact states without being licensed in those states

57
Q

What must psychologists obtain to practice telepsychology in compact states?

A

An E.Passport from the ASPPB and an Authority to Practice Interjurisdictional Telepsychology (APIT)

58
Q

What is the limit on providing face-to-face services under PSYPACT?

A

Up to 30 days per calendar year

59
Q

What does accreditation refer to?

A

The process of formal evaluation of an educational program against defined standards

60
Q

What are the three types of accreditation in the United States?

A
  • National
  • Regional
  • Specialized
61
Q

What is specialized accreditation also known as?

A

Program accreditation

62
Q

What does the APA Commission on Accreditation (APA-CoA) primarily accredit?

A
  • Doctoral programs in clinical psychology
  • Doctoral internships
  • Postdoctoral residencies
63
Q

What is the primary purpose of APA accreditation?

A

To assure the public that a program meets professional and scientific standards

64
Q

What does accreditation aim to protect?

A

The interests of students and benefit the public

65
Q

What are the Journal Article Reporting Standards (JARS)?

A

Guidelines developed by the APA for reporting quantitative, qualitative, and mixed methods research

JARS were influenced by the CONSORT standards for randomized control trials.

66
Q

What types of research are covered by JARS?

A
  • Quantitative research
  • Qualitative research
  • Mixed methods research
  • Experimental and nonexperimental research
  • Replication studies
  • Structural equation modeling studies
  • Meta-analyses
67
Q

What information should be included in a meta-analysis abstract according to JARS?

A
  • Study objectives
  • Eligibility criteria for inclusion
  • Statistical methods used
  • Results (primary outcomes, effect sizes, confidence intervals)
  • Conclusions
68
Q

What are the primary professional/ethical guidelines for clinical supervision?

A

Guidelines provided by ASPPB, APA, and CPA

These guidelines aim to ensure accountability and protect the welfare of clients.

69
Q

What are the paramount goals of supervision according to the ASPPB’s guidelines?

A
  • Protection of the public
  • Accountability to the public
  • Protection of the supervisee
  • Professional development of the supervisee
  • Readiness assessment for autonomous practice
70
Q

What are the ethical competencies essential for supervisors?

A

Values and skills for delegating clients, monitoring supervisee’s clients, and professional development

Supervisors must provide constructive criticism based on their observations.

71
Q

What must supervisors inform supervisees about regarding confidentiality?

A

Limits of confidentiality and the supervisee’s clients must be informed of the supervisee’s trainee status

72
Q

What is a primary supervisor?

A

A psychologist licensed at the doctoral level with ultimate responsibility for supervisee services

The primary supervisor ensures quality of supervised experiences.

73
Q

What is a delegated supervisor?

A

A licensed health practitioner to whom the primary supervisor delegates certain supervisory responsibilities

74
Q

How long must supervision records be maintained according to ASPPB guidelines?

A

Until the supervisee obtains a license or for at least 7 years after supervision terminates, whichever is greater

75
Q

What is the maximum percentage of supervision that can be conducted via telepsychology?

A

No more than 50% of a supervisee’s supervision

76
Q

What does the APA’s (2014) Guidelines for Clinical Supervision in Health Service Psychology emphasize?

A

Competency-based supervision that informs learning strategies and evaluation procedures

77
Q

What are the seven domains addressed in the APA’s guidelines?

A
  • Supervisor competence
  • Diversity
  • Supervisory relationship
  • Professionalism
  • Assessment/evaluation/feedback
  • Problems of professional competence
  • Ethical, legal, and regulatory considerations
78
Q

What are the four principles outlined in the CPA’s Ethical Guidelines for Supervision?

A
  • Respect for the dignity of persons
  • Responsible caring
  • Integrity in relationships
  • Responsibility to society
79
Q

What are the three categories of clinical supervision models?

A
  • Psychotherapy-based
  • Developmental
  • Process-based
80
Q

What is the focus of person-centered supervision?

A

The relationship between supervisor and supervisee, emphasizing empathy and unconditional positive regard

81
Q

What does cognitive-behavioral supervision include?

A
  • Check-in
  • Building a bridge to the last session
  • Setting and working through an agenda
  • Summarizing
  • Assigning homework
  • Getting feedback
82
Q

What assumption do developmental supervision models make about supervisees?

A

Supervisees progress through stages as they develop their clinical skills and require different supervisory responses

83
Q

What are the three levels of supervisee development in the integrated developmental model?

A
  • Level 1: Self-focused, high motivation, dependent
  • Level 2: Client-focused, fluctuating motivation, some independence
  • Level 3: Client-focused, consistent motivation, independent
84
Q

What does Bernard’s discrimination model distinguish between?

A
  • Focus areas: intervention skills, conceptualization skills, personalization skills
  • Supervisor roles: educator, counselor, consultant
85
Q

What is an example of an intervention skills problem in supervision?

A

A supervisee wanting to use exposure therapy but lacking the necessary skills, requiring the supervisor to take on the educator role

86
Q

What is the focus of process-based supervision models?

A

Descriptions of component roles, tasks, and processes within supervision

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