Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

the EPPPi pen > I can open a document. Save it. Save AS. > Flashcards

I can open a document. Save it. Save AS. Flashcards

1
Q

What are selection techniques often referred to as?

A

Predictors

Predictors are methods used to evaluate candidates for job performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name three common predictors used in organizations.

A
  • Interviews
  • General mental ability tests
  • Personality tests

Other predictors include integrity tests, work samples, assessment centers, and biographical information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What distinguishes structured interviews from unstructured interviews?

A

Structured interviews ask all interviewees the same questions derived from job analysis

Unstructured interviews allow interviewers to ask any questions and may not standardize across candidates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which type of interview has been found to have the same average validity coefficient as unstructured interviews?

A

Structured interviews

Recent studies show both types have an average validity coefficient of .58.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the best predictor of job performance according to recent findings?

A

General mental ability tests

These tests have been found to be the most valid predictors, followed by structured and unstructured interviews.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What assumption do behavioral interviews rely on?

A

Past behavior is the best predictor of future behavior

Behavioral interviews focus on candidates’ past job-related situations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What do situational interviews focus on?

A

Hypothetical future situations

Situational interviews ask candidates how they would respond to scenarios they may face in the job.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

True or False: Behavioral interviews have consistently been found to be the better predictors of job performance over situational interviews.

A

False

Recent meta-analyses indicate that situational questions may be more valid predictors than behavioral questions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Fill in the blank: When behavioral and situational interview questions are assessed under the same conditions, _____ questions are more valid predictors of job performance.

A

situational

This suggests that intentions may be more predictive of future behaviors than past behaviors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are integrity tests used for?

A

To predict whether an applicant is likely to engage in counterproductive behaviors

Integrity tests assess the likelihood of dishonesty and theft among applicants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the two basic types of integrity tests?

A
  • Overt integrity tests
  • Personality-based integrity tests

Overt tests ask directly about dishonesty, while personality-based tests assess traits linked to counterproductive behaviors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Do integrity tests have an adverse impact on racial/ethnic minorities?

A

No

Integrity tests do not seem to disadvantage racial/ethnic minorities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which type of integrity test is a better predictor of counterproductive behaviors?

A

Overt integrity tests

Overt integrity tests directly inquire about dishonesty and theft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which type of integrity test is a better predictor of job performance?

A

Personality-based integrity tests

These tests assess personality traits linked to job performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What was the rank of integrity tests in terms of validity among selection methods according to Schmidt, Oh, and Shaffer’s meta-analysis?

A

Fourth most valid method

This ranking follows general mental ability tests, interviews, and job knowledge tests.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What combination of tests produced the greatest gain in validity?

A

General mental ability test combined with an integrity test

This combination yields the highest incremental validity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What do work samples require applicants to do?

A

Perform on-the-job tasks or activities in realistic conditions

Work samples simulate actual job tasks to evaluate applicant performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How did Schmidt and Hunter’s meta-analysis (1998) compare the validity of work samples to general mental ability tests?

A

Work samples had a slightly higher validity coefficient

This indicates work samples were initially seen as more valid than general mental ability tests.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What trend was noted in the more recent meta-analysis by Schmidt, Oh, & Shaffer (2016) regarding work samples?

A

Lower validity coefficient compared to general mental ability tests

The decline in validity may be due to the broader application of work samples beyond manual skilled jobs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are trainability work sample tests useful for?

A

Determining if inexperienced applicants are likely to benefit from training

These tests assess both training and evaluation for novice applicants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a realistic job preview (RJP)?

A

Informing job applicants about the positive and negative aspects of the job

RJPs aim to set realistic job expectations to reduce turnover.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are assessment centers primarily used for?

A

To evaluate candidates for managerial-level jobs

Assessment centers utilize multiple raters and methods to assess performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What methods are commonly used in assessment centers?

A
  • Personality tests
  • Ability tests
  • Structured interviews
  • Simulations (work samples)

These methods provide a comprehensive evaluation of candidates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the purpose of the in-basket exercise in assessment centers?

A

To assess decision-making skills

Participants respond to memos, phone messages, and other communications similar to on-the-job situations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does the leaderless group discussion evaluate?

A

The leadership potential of participants

A small group works together to solve a job-related problem without an assigned leader.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is a biodata form?

A

A measure of biographical information chosen for predicting job performance

Also known as biographical information blank (BIB).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What types of information does biodata typically include?

A
  • Education
  • Work history
  • Family history
  • Health history
  • Interests
  • Social relationships

Items are empirically derived and may be presented in a multiple-choice format.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How has biodata been shown to predict job performance?

A

It has been found to be a good predictor for a variety of jobs, including unskilled and managerial/executive-level jobs

Reference: Schmidt, Oh, & Shaffer, 2016.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a disadvantage of biodata measures?

A

Some items may lack face validity

Applicants might view these items as irrelevant or an invasion of privacy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

True or False: Biodata items are always perceived as relevant to job performance by applicants.

A

False

Some applicants may refuse to answer items they consider irrelevant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the two types of methods for combining information obtained from multiple predictors?

A

Compensatory and noncompensatory methods

Compensatory methods allow high scores on some predictors to offset low scores on others, while noncompensatory methods do not.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is a compensatory method in the context of selection techniques?

A

A method where a high score on one or more predictors can compensate for a low score on another predictor

Examples include clinical prediction and multiple regression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is clinical prediction in the context of hiring decisions?

A

A method relying on the subjective judgment of decision makers regarding job requirements

It is susceptible to biases and errors, making it less accurate than statistical methods.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is a major disadvantage of clinical prediction?

A

It is susceptible to biases and errors

Studies have confirmed that statistical methods are more accurate for predicting job performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is multiple regression in selection techniques?

A

A statistical method for combining scores, where each predictor is weighted based on its correlations

The weighted scores are combined to estimate a criterion score.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are noncompensatory methods in selection techniques?

A

Methods where a low score on one predictor cannot be compensated for by a high score on another predictor

Examples include multiple cutoff and multiple hurdles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the multiple cutoff method?

A

A method where all predictors are administered to all applicants, and each must score above a cutoff to be considered

This ensures that all predictors are evaluated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the multiple hurdles method?

A

A method where predictors are administered in a prespecified order and each must meet the cutoff to proceed

It is preferable when it is too costly to administer all predictors to all applicants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When is the multiple hurdles method preferable to multiple cutoff?

A

When it would be too costly to administer all of the predictors to all applicants

This method allows for a more efficient selection process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Can multiple cutoff and multiple hurdles be combined with multiple regression?

A

Yes, they can be combined by using multiple regression to predict the criterion scores of applicants who score above the cutoff

This allows for a more refined selection process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What must be evaluated before using a new selection technique for hiring decisions?

A

Adequate reliability and validity, increase decision-making accuracy, no adverse impact, adequate utility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Define reliability in the context of predictors.

A

The degree to which a predictor is free from measurement error and provides consistent scores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What does a reliability coefficient indicate?

A

Ranges from 0 to 1.0; closer to 1.0 indicates less measurement error and greater consistency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is validity in the context of predictors?

A

The extent to which a predictor measures what it was designed to measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

List the three main types of validity.

A
  • Content validity
  • Construct validity
  • Criterion-related validity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What does content validity assess?

A

The extent to which a predictor adequately samples the knowledge or skills it’s intended to measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How can content validity be ensured?

A

By basing it on job analysis results and having subject matter experts review the content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What does construct validity measure?

A

The extent to which a predictor measures the hypothetical trait it was designed to measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How is construct validity assessed?

A

By correlating scores on the predictor with scores on valid measures of the same, similar, and different constructs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What does criterion-related validity evaluate?

A

The degree to which scores on the predictor correlate with scores on the criterion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the range of the criterion-related validity coefficient?

A

From -1.0 to +1.0; closer to 0 indicates lower criterion-related validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Define incremental validity.

A

The increase in decision-making accuracy by adding a new selection technique to the existing selection procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Under what conditions is a predictor likely to increase decision-making accuracy?

A

When its criterion-related validity coefficient is large

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the selection ratio?

A

The percent of job applicants the company plans to hire, calculated by dividing the number of hires by total applicants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does a low selection ratio indicate?

A

More applicants to choose from; for example, a selection ratio of .10 means one of ten applicants will be hired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Define base rate in the context of selection procedures.

A

The percent of employees hired using the current selection procedure who are considered successful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What base rate is associated with the greatest increase in decision-making accuracy?

A

A moderate base rate, around .50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the Taylor-Russell tables used for?

A

To estimate a predictor’s incremental validity for various combinations of criterion-related validity coefficients, base rates, and selection ratios

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Fill in the blank: A predictor’s criterion-related validity coefficient of .30, a base rate of .50, and a selection ratio of .10 indicates that _______ of hired employees will be successful.

A

71%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the increase in successful employees when the new predictor is added with the given conditions?

A

21% increase in successful employees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is adverse impact?

A

A type of unfair discrimination where a personnel selection method negatively affects protected group members compared to majority group members

Also referred to as disparate impact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures?

A

Guidelines adopted in 1978 by the EEOC to address adverse impact in employee selection.

These guidelines include interpretations and clarifications from 1979.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Define test unfairness.

A

Occurs when one group consistently scores lower on a selection test without corresponding differences in job performance.

For example, women may score lower on tests despite similar job performance ratings as men.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is differential validity?

A

When a selection test has significantly different validity coefficients for different groups.

For instance, a test might have a validity coefficient of .70 for men and .20 for women.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the 80% rule?

A

A method to determine adverse impact where the hiring rate for a protected group is less than 80% of the majority group’s hiring rate.

Example: If White applicants have a 70% hiring rate, African-American applicants must have at least 56%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What options does an employer have when a selection test shows adverse impact?

A
  1. Replace the procedure
  2. Modify the procedure
  3. Demonstrate no alternative exists and that the procedure is job-related

Job-relatedness can be established through validity, business necessity, or bona fide occupational qualification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is job-relatedness in employment procedures?

A

Established by showing the procedure is valid, a business necessity, or a bona fide occupational qualification.

Validity can be criterion-related, content, or construct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is a bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ)?

A

A qualification necessary for normal business operations, applicable to gender, age, religion, and national origin, but not race.

For example, a religious school may require faculty to be members of its denomination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is utility analysis?

A

A method for evaluating the economic return on investment of human resource interventions like staffing and training.

Commonly cited formula: Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser formula.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

List the factors considered in the Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser formula.

A
  • Number of individuals hired
  • Test’s validity coefficient
  • Standard deviation of job performance in dollars
  • Cost of testing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the first step in developing a training program?

A

Needs analysis

Needs analysis is also known as needs assessment and is used to identify training needs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are the four analyses included in a needs analysis?

A
  • Organizational analysis
  • Task (job) analysis
  • Person analysis
  • Demographic analysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the focus of an organizational analysis?

A

Identifying organizational goals and determining if employee performance problems are due to a lack of training or other factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What does a task (job) analysis identify?

A

The tasks required to perform the job and the KSAOs needed for each task

KSAOs stand for Knowledge, Skills, Abilities, and Other characteristics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the purpose of a person analysis?

A

To identify which employees have deficiencies that require training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What does a demographic analysis identify?

A

The training needs of specific groups of workers, such as older versus younger workers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are the two main categories of training methods?

A
  • On-the-job methods
  • Off-the-job methods
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is an example of an on-the-job training method?

A
  • Apprenticeships
  • Internships
  • Coaching
  • Mentoring
  • Job rotation
  • Cross-training
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is job rotation?

A

Having the trainee rotate through a predetermined set of jobs within the organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is cross-training?

A

Teaching employees how to perform essential tasks performed by other employees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are two advantages of on-the-job training?

A
  • Usually less costly than off-the-job training
  • Alleviates problems related to transfer of training
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are major disadvantages of on-the-job training?

A
  • Potential for errors
  • Safety problems
  • Slowdown or disruption of productivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What defines off-the-job training?

A

Training that takes place at a site away from the actual worksite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are some methods included in off-the-job training?

A
  • Classroom lectures
  • Technology-based training
  • Behavior modeling
  • Simulation training
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is behavior modeling based on?

A

Bandura’s social learning theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is simulation training useful for?

A

When on-the-job training would be too costly or dangerous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is vestibule training?

A

A type of simulation training using actual machinery or equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are advantages of off-the-job training?

A
  • Greater control over the training environment
  • Allows a large number of employees to be trained simultaneously
  • Permits the use of multiple training methods
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are disadvantages of off-the-job training?

A
  • May cost more than on-the-job training
  • May not provide adequate transfer of training
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the primary difference between mentoring and coaching?

A

Mentoring focuses on professional development and personal growth, while coaching focuses on performance and achieving organizational goals.

Mentoring involves a relationship between a mentor and a mentee, whereas coaching is a structured process aimed at enhancing performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Define mentoring.

A

A relationship where a mentor provides support and guidance to a less experienced mentee for professional development.

Mentoring involves career and psychosocial functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What are the two functions of mentoring according to Ragins & Kram (2007)?

A
  1. Career functions
  2. Psychosocial functions

Career functions prepare mentees for advancement, while psychosocial functions promote personal and professional growth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are the key activities involved in coaching?

A
  1. Coaching analysis
  2. Coaching discussions

Coaching analysis identifies performance conditions, while coaching discussions aim to enhance employee performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

How does coaching differ from mentoring in terms of structure?

A

Coaching is more formal and structured with regular meetings and specific tasks, while mentoring is generally less structured.

Coaching has measurable goals and is typically time-bound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is overlearning?

A

Learning or practicing beyond the point of mastery, resulting in automaticity.

Automaticity allows tasks to be performed with little conscious effort.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the principle of identical elements?

A

The principle that greater similarity between training and work situations leads to better transfer of training.

Identical elements encompass both physical and psychological fidelity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is the effect of stimulus variability on transfer of training?

A

Transfer of training is maximized when a variety of stimuli are used during training.

This includes using multiple examples and practicing in various conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Fill in the blank: Whole-task training involves teaching _______.

A

an entire task at once.

In contrast, part-task training divides the task into subtasks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

True or False: Overtraining refers to learning beyond mastery.

A

False.

Overtraining refers to negative symptoms from excessive athletic training, not learning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What factors affect learning according to Landy & Conte (2016)?

A
  1. Distributed vs. Massed Practice
  2. Whole-Task vs. Part-Task Training
  3. Overlearning

Each factor influences how trainees acquire and retain information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is the role of support in transfer of training?

A

Support affects the use of newly acquired skills and knowledge on-the-job.

Organizations can create a transfer climate that emphasizes training importance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is the focus of executive coaching?

A

Enhancing an executive’s leadership skills and achieving organizational goals.

Executive coaching is a specific type of coaching.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is the best practice for task training based on task characteristics?

A

Whole-task training is more effective for highly organized tasks with interrelated subtasks.

Part-task training is better for tasks that can be easily divided.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Who coined the terms ‘formative’ and ‘summative’ in training program evaluation?

A

Scriven (1967)

Scriven’s terminology is foundational in the field of evaluation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is the purpose of formative evaluation?

A

To assist with the development and improvement of a program.

Formative evaluation focuses on enhancing the program as it is being developed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is the purpose of summative evaluation?

A

To determine whether program outcomes met the program’s goals.

Summative evaluation assesses the effectiveness of the completed program.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

List the components of formative evaluation.

A
  • Needs assessment
  • Evaluability assessment
  • Structured evaluation
  • Implementation evaluation
  • Process evaluation

Each component serves a specific role in evaluating the program’s development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is the first component of summative evaluation?

A

Outcome evaluation

This component assesses if the program achieved its stated goals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What does impact evaluation identify in summative evaluation?

A

Intended and unintended effects of the program on the organization.

Impact evaluation helps understand the broader implications of the program.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What are the four types of evaluation in the Dessinger-Moseley model?

A
  • Formative evaluation
  • Summative evaluation
  • Confirmative evaluation
  • Meta-evaluation

This model expands upon Scriven’s dichotomy by adding confirmative and meta-evaluation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What is confirmative evaluation?

A

Evaluation conducted at a later time to evaluate the long-term effects of training.

Confirmative evaluation assesses the sustainability of training outcomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is the purpose of meta-evaluation?

A

To assess the reliability and validity of formative, summative, and confirmative evaluations.

Meta-evaluation ensures the quality of the evaluation process itself.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What are the four levels of training program evaluation according to Kirkpatrick?

A
  • Reaction criteria
  • Learning criteria
  • Behavior criteria
  • Results criteria

These levels provide a framework for assessing different aspects of training effectiveness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What do reaction criteria assess in Kirkpatrick’s model?

A

Trainees’ impressions of the training.

Reaction criteria focus on immediate feedback from participants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What do learning criteria evaluate in Kirkpatrick’s model?

A

How well trainees acquired the information and skills presented during training.

Learning criteria measure knowledge and skill acquisition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What do behavior criteria evaluate in Kirkpatrick’s model?

A

The degree to which trainees’ job performance improved as a result of training.

Behavior criteria link training to actual job performance changes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What do results criteria assess in Kirkpatrick’s model?

A

Effects of training on ROI, customer satisfaction, and other organizational outcomes.

Results criteria provide a broader organizational perspective on training effectiveness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

True or False: Results criteria are considered to be the easiest to assess.

A

False

Results criteria are difficult to assess due to the challenge of isolating training effects from other factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What are the five stages of Super’s Life-Space, Life-Span Career Theory?

A
  1. Growth (birth to 14)
  2. Exploration (15 to 24)
  3. Establishment (25 to 44)
  4. Maintenance (45 to 64)
  5. Disengagement (65+)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What does ‘career maturity’ refer to in Super’s theory?

A

A person’s ability to successfully complete the tasks of his or her stage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Define ‘life-space’ as used in Super’s theory.

A

The various life roles a person assumes at different times and in different contexts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

According to Super, what influences a person’s self-concept?

A

Interactions between internal (personal) factors and external (situational) factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What are the six personality and work environment types in Holland’s Theory?

A
  1. Realistic
  2. Investigative
  3. Artistic
  4. Social
  5. Enterprising
  6. Conventional
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What does Holland propose is crucial for job satisfaction and productivity?

A

A high degree of congruence (‘goodness-of-fit’) between a person’s personality and the work environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What is ‘vocational identity’ according to Holland?

A

The clear and stable picture of one’s goals, interests, and talents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

In Dawis and Lofquist’s Theory of Work Adjustment, what are the two primary factors predicting job tenure?

A
  1. Satisfaction
  2. Satisfactoriness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What does satisfaction refer to in Dawis and Lofquist’s theory?

A

The employee’s satisfaction with the job, affected by the match between needs and job reinforcers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What is the initial phase of Tiedeman’s Career Decision-Making Model?

A

The initial anticipation phase, which includes exploration, crystallization, choice, and clarification stages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What are the two phases of Tiedeman’s Career Decision-Making Model?

A
  1. Initial anticipation phase
  2. Implementation phase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Krumboltz identifies how many factors that contribute to career decisions?

A

Four factors

131
Q

List the four factors identified by Krumboltz that contribute to career decisions.

A
  1. Genetic endowment and special abilities
  2. Environmental conditions and events
  3. Instrumental and associative learning experiences
  4. Task approach skills
132
Q

What are ‘self-observation generalizations’ according to Krumboltz?

A

Beliefs about one’s own attitudes, values, interests, and skills.

133
Q

What is the primary focus of Driver and Brousseau’s Career Concept Model?

A

Distinguishing between four career concepts based on motives, direction of movement, and frequency of change.

134
Q

What defines a linear career concept?

A

Motivated by power and achievement, involving upward movement with infrequent career changes.

135
Q

Fill in the blank: People with a _______ career concept are motivated by job security and expertise.

A

[expert]

136
Q

What is a characteristic of the spiral career concept?

A

Motivated by personal growth and creativity, involving lateral movements across similar occupations.

137
Q

True or False: The transitory career concept involves infrequent lateral movements across different occupations.

A

False

138
Q

What do Driver and Brousseau recommend for organizations in response to changing business conditions?

A

Adopt a pluralistic approach that provides opportunities for diverse career experiences.

139
Q

What does Taylor’s Scientific Management propose to maximize organizational efficiency?

A

Managers must:
* Use scientific methods to identify the best way to do a job
* Ensure workers are scientifically selected and trained
* Have an equal division of labor
* Cooperate with workers to ensure work consistency with scientific principles

Taylor believed workers are primarily motivated by economic gain and advocated linking financial incentives to productivity.

140
Q

What are the essential elements of Weber’s Bureaucracy?

A

The essential elements include:
* Division of labor
* Well-defined hierarchy of authority
* Formal rules and procedures
* Employment decisions based on competence and merit
* Written records of decisions and actions
* Separation of ownership and management

Weber described bureaucracy as an impersonal and rational way to ensure orderly and efficient operations.

141
Q

What effect did Mayo discover during his research at the Hawthorne Plant?

A

Mayo discovered the Hawthorne effect, where productivity increased due to the attention workers received as research participants, regardless of physical work condition changes.

He concluded that social factors were more important than physical conditions for work motivation and productivity.

142
Q

What are the main beliefs of Theory X supervisors according to McGregor?

A

Theory X supervisors believe that subordinates are:
* Inherently lazy
* Dislike responsibility
* Resist change
* Concerned only about themselves

They feel they must be directive and controlling to ensure workers meet organizational goals.

143
Q

What are the main beliefs of Theory Y supervisors according to McGregor?

A

Theory Y supervisors believe that subordinates:
* Enjoy work
* Are self-directed and internally motivated
* Seek responsibility

They aim to provide conditions that allow subordinates to fulfill their own goals while achieving organizational goals.

144
Q

According to Katz and Kahn’s Open-System Theory, what characteristics do organizations share with other open systems?

A

Organizations share characteristics such as:
* Cycles of events
* Maintaining homeostasis
* Avoiding negative entropy
* Functioning according to equifinality and multifinality

Equifinality means achieving the same outcome in multiple ways, while multifinality means achieving dissimilar outcomes from the same initial conditions.

145
Q

What are the input-throughput-output cycles in Katz and Kahn’s Open-System Theory?

A

The cycles include:
* Inputs: materials, information, and other resources
* Throughputs: transformation of resources into products, services, and information
* Outputs: sending out products, services, and information

Consequences of outputs, like profits and customer feedback, are then reintroduced as inputs.

146
Q

Fill in the blank: According to Taylor, workers are motivated primarily by a desire for _______.

A

[economic gain]

147
Q

True or False: Mayo’s research concluded that physical work conditions were the primary factor affecting worker productivity.

A

False

Mayo concluded that social factors were more important than physical work conditions.

148
Q

What is the role of a supervisor according to Theory Y?

A

To provide subordinates with conditions that allow them to fulfill their own goals by achieving organizational goals

McGregor believed Theory Y produces the best outcomes for employees and organizations.

149
Q

What is organizational change?

A

A process, a goal, or both

Organizational development (OD) is a toolbox of various methods for affecting that change.

150
Q

What are the three stages of Lewin’s model of planned change?

A
  1. Unfreezing 2. Changing 3. Refreezing

Lewin’s model remains influential in understanding organizational change.

151
Q

What occurs during the Unfreezing stage?

A

Identifying and reducing forces maintaining the undesirable status quo and increasing forces that disrupt it

This stage is crucial for preparing the organization for change.

152
Q

What is the focus of the Changing stage in Lewin’s model?

A

Implementing desired changes to move the organization to a new state of equilibrium

This stage is about making the actual changes needed.

153
Q

What happens in the Refreezing stage?

A

Integrating the desired change into organizational values and traditions to stabilize the new state

This prevents regression to the prior undesirable state.

154
Q

What are the four phases of Cummings and Worley’s general model of planned change?

A
  1. Entering and contracting 2. Diagnosing 3. Planning and implementing 4. Evaluating and institutionalizing

This model incorporates concepts from Lewin’s model and others.

155
Q

What occurs during the entering and contracting phase?

A

Identifying primary problems, relevant members, and selecting an OD practitioner

Establishes a collaborative relationship with organization members.

156
Q

What is the purpose of the diagnosing phase?

A

Collecting and analyzing diagnostic information and providing feedback about problems

This occurs at the organization, group, and individual levels.

157
Q

What does the planning and implementing phase include?

A

Addressing readiness to change, creating a vision, designing interventions, and formulating an action plan

Managing transition and sustaining momentum are also critical.

158
Q

What is evaluated in the evaluating and institutionalizing phase?

A

The implementation and results of OD interventions

This phase also involves deciding whether changes should be continued, modified, or suspended.

159
Q

What are the three phases of survey feedback in organizational development?

A
  1. Collect data
  2. Provide feedback
  3. Develop an action plan

Survey feedback is overseen by an OD consultant and involves obtaining employees’ attitudes, opinions, and perceptions.

160
Q

What does data collection in survey feedback involve?

A

Having employees complete surveys to obtain information on their attitudes, opinions, and perceptions related to work conditions, supervision, company policies, and other issues.

The information helps identify strengths and weaknesses within the organization.

161
Q

What is the focus of process consultation?

A

Communication, decision-making, problem-solving, interpersonal relationships, and other organizational processes contributing to performance problems.

The process consultant helps organizations learn to diagnose and resolve their own problems.

162
Q

What are self-managed work teams (SMWTs)?

A

Groups of employees with total responsibility and control over their own work, including budgeting, task assignments, methods for completing tasks, and performance appraisal.

SMWTs do not have a supervisor and leadership roles may change based on expertise.

163
Q

What do technostructural interventions aim to change?

A

An organization’s technology or structure to improve work methods, work content, employee relationships, and reduce costs.

Examples include business process reengineering, job enrichment, and alternative work schedules.

164
Q

What is business process reengineering (BPR)?

A

A method to increase organizational efficiency by radically redesigning core processes.

This approach was notably discussed by Hammer & Champy in 1993.

165
Q

Define job enrichment.

A

Designing a job to provide opportunities for responsibility, challenge, and advancement, enhancing worker satisfaction and motivation.

This concept was originally described by Herzberg in 1966.

166
Q

What is a compressed workweek?

A

A work schedule that reduces the number of workdays by increasing hours worked each day, e.g., 10 hours a day for four days.

Research shows it positively affects job satisfaction but has unclear effects on absenteeism.

167
Q

What does flextime require from employees?

A

Employees must work a total number of hours each day during a core time but have flexibility in starting and ending times.

Studies indicate flextime strongly reduces absenteeism.

168
Q

What are the main characteristics of Total Quality Management (TQM)?

A
  • Continuous improvement
  • Top management commitment to quality
  • Employee involvement
  • Focus on customer satisfaction
  • Data-driven decision-making

TQM emphasizes incremental changes to all processes.

169
Q

What are quality circles (QCs)?

A

Small groups of employees who meet regularly to identify and discuss problems related to quality and productivity.

They provide management with recommendations for resolving identified issues.

170
Q

What is benchmarking?

A

A continuous process of measuring products, services, and practices against major competitors or industry leaders to identify improvement areas.

Its purpose is to enhance organizational processes and productivity.

171
Q

Define Six Sigma.

A

An approach to quality management that trains employees in statistical analysis, project management, and problem-solving methods to reduce product defect rates.

This method is discussed by Landy & Conte in 2016.

172
Q

What does Appreciative Inquiry involve?

A

Identifying the unique and best aspects of the organization and generating ideas to build on them.

It combines elements of social constructionism and positive psychology.

173
Q

What are the four phases of the 4D cycle in Appreciative Inquiry?

A
  • Discovery (appreciate ‘what is’)
  • Dream (envision ‘what could be’)
  • Design (determine ‘what should be’)
  • Delivery/Destiny (sustain ‘what will be’)

This cycle was detailed by Ludema, Cooperrider, & Barrett in 2006.

174
Q

What is the primary purpose of a program logic model?

A

To provide stakeholders with a road map describing the sequence of related events connecting the need for the planned program with the program’s desired results

W. K. Kellogg Foundation, 2004, p.3

175
Q

What are inputs in a program logic model?

A

The human, financial, organizational, and community resources needed to support the program

Examples include managers, consultants, data sources, funding sources

176
Q

Define activities in the context of a program logic model.

A

The processes and actions needed to produce the program’s outputs

Examples include developing training materials and conducting training sessions

177
Q

What are outputs in a program logic model?

A

The direct, tangible results or products of program activities

Examples include predicted level of employee satisfaction and number of students participating in the program

178
Q

What are outcomes in a program logic model?

A

The short-, intermediate-, and long-term changes or benefits expected from the program’s activities and outputs

Examples include changes in knowledge and skills of managerial candidates and reduction in students’ risk for substance abuse

179
Q

True or False: Program theory and program logic model are always used interchangeably.

A

False

Some authors distinguish between them, with program theory related to assumptions and program logic model as a tool for describing those assumptions

180
Q

Who typically constructs a program logic model?

A

A team of people involved in the program’s development, implementation, and/or evaluation

This construction happens during the planning stage of the program

181
Q

What format do program logic models most often take?

A

A flow chart that includes components connected by arrows representing causal relationships

These components illustrate the flow from inputs to outcomes

182
Q

Fill in the blank: A logic model can include a statement of the program’s _______ or the problem being addressed.

A

[goals]

This is typically the initial component of a more complex logic model

183
Q

What is an example of a program that might use a logic model?

A

Employee wellness program, management training program, substance abuse prevention program for high school students

These are examples of various types of programs that can utilize logic models

184
Q

According to McLaughlin and Jordan (2004), how is program theory defined?

A

As assumptions about resources and activities and how these lead to realizing intended outcomes

This definition highlights the conceptual framework behind program development

185
Q

What is a more complex version of a logic model expected to include?

A

A statement describing the expected long-term impact of the program on the organization or community

This adds depth to the evaluation of the program’s effectiveness

186
Q

What is the correlation coefficient between leader intelligence and leader effectiveness according to Judge, Colbert, and Ilies (2004)?

A

.27

This indicates a low to moderate correlation.

187
Q

Which Big Five personality traits have the largest correlation coefficients with leader effectiveness?

A
  • Extraversion: .31
  • Conscientiousness: .28

These correlations were found in the meta-analysis by Judge, Bono, Ilies, and Gerehardt (2002).

188
Q

What are the two independent dimensions of leader behavior identified by research at Ohio State University?

A
  • Initiating structure
  • Consideration

Initiating structure is task-oriented, while consideration is person-oriented.

189
Q

How does a high level of consideration affect subordinate satisfaction and motivation?

A

It is more strongly associated with satisfaction and motivation

This finding was supported by the meta-analysis by Judge, Piccolo, & Ilies (2004).

190
Q

Do male and female leaders differ significantly in terms of their effectiveness ratings?

A

No, they are not rated differently

This conclusion is supported by the studies conducted by Paustian-Underdahl, Walker, & Woehr (2014).

191
Q

In which types of settings are female leaders perceived to be more effective?

A

Social service agencies and other traditionally ‘feminine’ settings

This was noted in research by Eagly, Karau, & Makhijani (1995).

192
Q

What leadership style are female leaders more likely to adopt compared to male leaders?

A

Participative (democratic) style

Male leaders are more likely to adopt a directive (autocratic) style (Eagly & Johnson, 1990).

193
Q

What are the five bases of social power identified by French and Raven (1958)?

A
  • Reward power
  • Coercive power
  • Legitimate power
  • Expert power
  • Referent power

These bases influence how leaders can affect their subordinates.

194
Q

Which bases of power are most likely to elicit compliance from subordinates?

A
  • Reward power
  • Legitimate power

These bases are effective in gaining compliance according to Yukl (2002).

195
Q

Fill in the blank: Leaders with _____ power have control over punishments.

A

coercive power

This refers to the ability to influence through fear of punishment.

196
Q

True or False: Male leaders are more likely to engage in management-by-exception.

A

True

This behavior is characteristic of transactional leadership.

197
Q

What is the relationship between initiating structure and overall performance?

A

It is more strongly associated with leader, group, and organization performance

This was highlighted in the findings by Judge, Piccolo, & Ilies (2004).

198
Q

What leadership style is female leaders more likely to have compared to male leaders according to Eagly, Johannesen-Schmidt, & van Engen (2003)?

A

Transformational leadership style

Female leaders also provide employees with contingency rewards characteristic of transactional leadership.

199
Q

What is Fiedler’s Contingency Model based on?

A

The assumption that the most effective leadership style depends on the favorableness of the situation.

200
Q

How does Fiedler determine a leader’s orientation?

A

Using the Least Preferred Coworker (LPC) scale.

201
Q

What characterizes low LPC leaders?

A

They are task-oriented and describe their least preferred coworker in negative terms.

202
Q

What characterizes high LPC leaders?

A

They are person-oriented and describe their least preferred coworker in positive terms.

203
Q

What are the three factors that affect the favorableness of a situation in Fiedler’s model?

A
  • Leader-member relations
  • Task structure
  • Position power
204
Q

In which situations are low LPC leaders most effective?

A

Very unfavorable and very favorable situations.

205
Q

In which situation are high LPC leaders most effective?

A

Moderately favorable situations.

206
Q

What does Situational Leadership Theory propose?

A

The optimal leadership style depends on a subordinate’s job maturity.

207
Q

What are the four leadership styles in Situational Leadership Theory?

A
  • Telling
  • Selling
  • Participating
  • Delegating
208
Q

What type of leader is best for subordinates who are low in both willingness and ability?

A

A telling leader.

209
Q

What is the primary role of effective leaders in Path-Goal Theory?

A

To act as facilitators who help subordinates achieve their own goals.

210
Q

What are the four leadership styles in Path-Goal Theory?

A
  • Directive
  • Achievement-oriented
  • Supportive
  • Participative
211
Q

When is the directive style most effective in Path-Goal Theory?

A

When subordinates are dogmatic or authoritarian and the task is ambiguous and complex.

212
Q

What does the Vroom-Yetton-Jago Contingency Model view leadership as?

A

A decision-making process.

213
Q

What does the original version of the Vroom-Yetton-Jago model provide?

A

A decision tree to help leaders determine the optimal leadership strategy.

214
Q

What are the five strategies in the Vroom-Yetton-Jago model?

A
  • Highly autocratic (make the decision alone)
  • Highly democratic (let group members make the decision)
215
Q

What is the basis of Leader-Member Exchange Theory?

A

The quality of interactions between the leader and the subordinate.

216
Q

What distinguishes in-group members from out-group members in Leader-Member Exchange Theory?

A

In-group members receive more attention and support from the leader.

217
Q

What are the four characteristics of transformational leadership?

A
  • Idealized influence
  • Inspirational motivation
  • Intellectual stimulation
  • Individualized consideration
218
Q

What defines transactional leadership?

A

The use of contingent rewards and management-by-exception.

219
Q

What is active management-by-exception?

A

When leaders closely monitor behaviors and take immediate action to correct mistakes.

220
Q

What is passive management-by-exception?

A

When leaders do not closely monitor behaviors and intervene only after serious mistakes.

221
Q

What are programmed decisions?

A

Repetitive and routine decisions governed by rules, policies, and procedures, often made by lower-level personnel

Examples include decisions related to hiring, ordering, and billing.

222
Q

What are nonprogrammed decisions?

A

Non-repetitive and complex decisions requiring unique or creative solutions, relying on the decision-maker’s judgment

Examples include developing new products or responding to legal issues.

223
Q

What is the rational model of decision-making?

A

A model assuming decision-makers choose the optimal alternative after objectively evaluating all possible options

Also known as the classical model and the rational-economic model.

224
Q

What does the bounded rationality model propose?

A

Rational decision-making is limited by factors like time restrictions and cognitive abilities, leading to ‘satisficing’

Proposed by Simon in 1957.

225
Q

What characterizes the organizational process model?

A

Decisions made by individuals or groups constrained by routines and standard operating procedures, often involving incremental choices

Developed by Cyert & March in 1963.

226
Q

What is groupthink?

A

A phenomenon where a cohesive in-group’s desire for unanimity overrides realistic appraisal of alternatives

Defined by Janis in 1982.

227
Q

What factors increase the risk of groupthink?

A

High cohesiveness, strong directive leadership, isolation from outside opinions, and time pressure

Symptoms include illusions of invulnerability and self-censorship.

228
Q

What is group polarization?

A

The tendency of groups to make more extreme decisions than individual members would alone

Can lead to more risky or more cautious decisions.

229
Q

When do groups tend to outperform individuals in decision-making?

A

When the task is complex and group members have complementary skills

Groups may struggle with poorly structured tasks requiring high creativity.

230
Q

What strategies can leaders use to reduce the risk of groupthink?

A

Remaining neutral, encouraging expression of opinions, appointing a devil’s advocate, and seeking outside opinions

These strategies help to foster a more open discussion.

231
Q

True or False: Group decisions are always better than individual decisions.

A

False

The effectiveness of group vs. individual decisions depends on task nature and situation.

232
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ model recognizes that rational decision-making is limited by various factors.

A

[bounded rationality model]

233
Q

What are symptoms of groupthink as described by Janis?

A
  • Illusions of invulnerability
  • Collective rationalization
  • Excessive stereotyping
  • Self-censorship
  • Presence of mindguards

These symptoms can hinder effective decision-making.

234
Q

What is a risky shift in the context of group polarization?

A

The tendency of groups to make more risky decisions than individuals would make alone

This is part of the broader concept of group polarization.

235
Q

What is Hull’s drive-reduction theory based on?

A

The assumption that humans are motivated to maintain a state of equilibrium (homeostasis)

Hull proposed that an unfulfilled innate physiological need causes an uncomfortable state of disequilibrium, driving behaviors to restore equilibrium.

236
Q

What are the limitations of drive-reduction theory?

A

Does not explain drives unrelated to physiological needs or behaviors when no physiological need is present

Examples include the drive to seek power or eating in the absence of hunger.

237
Q

What does McClelland’s Acquired Needs Theory focus on?

A

The impact of acquired psychological needs shaped by early experiences

It distinguishes between three needs: achievement, power, and affiliation.

238
Q

What motivates individuals with a high need for achievement?

A

Desire for success in accomplishing goals, preference for moderate difficulty tasks, and desire for feedback

They prefer personal responsibility and do not delegate tasks.

239
Q

List the five basic needs in Maslow’s Need Hierarchy Theory.

A
  • Physiological
  • Safety
  • Social
  • Esteem
  • Self-actualization

These needs emerge in a hierarchical order from most basic to most complex.

240
Q

What is the strongest motivator according to Maslow’s theory?

A

The lowest unfulfilled need in the hierarchy

Once satisfied, it ceases to motivate behavior.

241
Q

What are hygiene factors in Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory?

A
  • Pay
  • Benefits
  • Working conditions

These factors fulfill lower-order needs and do not contribute to satisfaction or motivation when adequate.

242
Q

What are motivator factors in Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory?

A
  • Opportunities for responsibility
  • Challenge
  • Advancement

These factors fulfill higher-order needs and contribute to both satisfaction and motivation.

243
Q

What does the Job Characteristics Model propose?

A

Jobs vary in five core characteristics affecting three critical psychological states

The characteristics are skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy, and feedback.

244
Q

What are the three critical psychological states in the Job Characteristics Model?

A
  • Meaningfulness of work
  • Responsibility for outcomes
  • Knowledge of results

These states positively affect motivation, satisfaction, and performance.

245
Q

What does Equity Theory attribute a worker’s level of motivation to?

A

Social comparisons of input and outcome ratios

Workers compare their contributions and rewards to those of others in similar jobs.

246
Q

What is overpayment inequity?

A

When a worker perceives their input-outcome ratio to be less than that of others

Motivates the worker to increase work quality or quantity.

247
Q

What is underpayment inequity?

A

When a worker perceives their input-outcome ratio to be greater than that of others

Motivates the worker to decrease work quality or quantity or seek better outcomes.

248
Q

What are the three factors in Expectancy Theory?

A
  • Expectancy
  • Instrumentality
  • Valence

A worker’s motivation is high only when all three factors are positive.

249
Q

What is the main assumption of Goal-Setting Theory?

A

The worker’s acceptance of and commitment to goals is the most important contributor to motivation

Goals should be specific and moderately difficult for maximum commitment.

250
Q

Fill in the blank: Participation in goal-setting is not necessary for goal commitment except in _______.

A

certain circumstances

Participation increases commitment particularly for workers with a high need for achievement.

251
Q

What is job enrichment according to Herzberg’s theory?

A

A method of designing jobs to provide motivator factors

It tends to have the most positive outcomes for younger, well-educated workers with a high need for achievement.

252
Q

True or False: Job enlargement involves adding new tasks to a job.

A

True

It alleviates boredom but does not significantly affect satisfaction and motivation.

253
Q

What is the effect of group goals in goal-setting theory?

A

Group goals result in better performance than individual goals under high interdependence

Group goals alone can be as effective as group goals plus individual goals.

254
Q

What are the two job attitudes that have been extensively studied?

A

Job satisfaction and organizational commitment

255
Q

What factors contribute to the stability of job satisfaction over time?

A
  • Self-esteem
  • Affective disposition
  • Genetic predisposition
256
Q

How is self-esteem related to job satisfaction?

A

Higher levels of self-esteem are associated with higher levels of both job satisfaction and life satisfaction

257
Q

What is affective disposition?

A

The tendency to respond to a variety of situations in a similarly favorable or unfavorable way

258
Q

What did Arvey et al. (1989) find regarding genetic factors in job satisfaction?

A

About 30% of observed variability in job satisfaction scores is attributable to genetic factors

259
Q

What are the three types of organizational justice?

A
  • Distributive justice
  • Procedural justice
  • Interactional justice
260
Q

Define distributive justice

A

The fairness of the distribution of resources and other outcomes

261
Q

Define procedural justice

A

The fairness of the procedures used to determine outcomes

262
Q

Define interactional justice

A

The fairness of the way that outcomes are communicated to workers

263
Q

What are the two subtypes of interactional justice?

A
  • Interpersonal
  • Informational
264
Q

How is job satisfaction related to psychological and physical health?

A

Job satisfaction has been linked to longevity and psychological and physical health

265
Q

What did Iaffaldano and Muchinsky (1985) find regarding job satisfaction and performance?

A

The average correlation coefficient for job satisfaction and performance was .17

266
Q

What was Judge et al.’s (2001) critique of Iaffaldano and Muchinsky’s study?

A

They argued that the methodology was flawed and produced a coefficient of .30

267
Q

What are the three main types of organizational commitment?

A
  • Affective commitment
  • Continuance commitment
  • Normative commitment
268
Q

What is affective commitment?

A

The extent of an employee’s emotional attachment to the organization

269
Q

What is continuance commitment?

A

The extent to which an employee believes he or she must stay with the organization for financial reasons or lack of alternative opportunities

270
Q

What is normative commitment?

A

The extent to which an employee is loyal to the organization and feels obligated to stay with it

271
Q

What is the definition of stress?

A

Any force that pushes a psychological or physical function beyond its range of stability, producing a strain within the individual

272
Q

What are the three stages of the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)?

A
  • Alarm reaction
  • Resistance
  • Exhaustion
273
Q

What occurs during the alarm reaction stage of GAS?

A

The hypothalamus secretes CRH, activating the sympathetic nervous system and stimulating hormone release

274
Q

What happens in the resistance stage of GAS?

A

Some physiological functions return to normal while cortisol circulates at elevated levels

275
Q

What occurs during the exhaustion stage of GAS?

A

The pituitary and adrenal glands lose the ability to maintain elevated hormone levels, leading to breakdown of physiological processes

276
Q

What are some consequences of prolonged exposure to stress?

A
  • Suppression of the immune system
  • Increased blood pressure
  • Elevated risk for headaches, indigestion, insomnia
277
Q

How can chronically elevated levels of cortisol affect memory?

A

It can damage cells in the hippocampus, impairing the ability to form new long-term memories

278
Q

What are the sources of work-related stress?

A

Lack of control, work-family conflict, downsizing

These sources can significantly impact employee well-being and job satisfaction.

279
Q

How does a lack of control over work-related factors affect stress levels?

A

Linked to higher stress levels, psychological and physical symptoms, poorer job outcomes

Spector’s (1986) meta-analysis found low perceived control relates to job dissatisfaction and health problems.

280
Q

What is work-family conflict?

A

Conflict between roles at work and in personal life

Defined by Landy & Conte (2016) as a major source of stress.

281
Q

What outcomes are associated with high levels of work-family conflict?

A

Lower job and life satisfaction

Kossek & Ozeki (1998) found that employees with high conflict report less satisfaction.

282
Q

How do men and women compare in terms of work-family conflict according to Schockley et al. (2017)?

A

Reported similar levels of work-family conflict

Gender differences were small and context-dependent.

283
Q

What is downsizing in the workplace?

A

Planned elimination of jobs to maximize efficiency and reduce labor costs

Affects both those who lose jobs and those who remain.

284
Q

What is survivor syndrome in the context of downsizing?

A

Characterized by reduced job satisfaction, anxiety, depression, and guilt

Survivors feel a sense of unfairness and loss of control.

285
Q

What are the core characteristics of job burnout according to Maslach et al.?

A

Exhaustion, depersonalization, sense of inefficacy

Defined in multiple studies (Maslach, Jackson, & Leiter, 1996; Maslach et al., 2001).

286
Q

What is an early sign of job burnout?

A

Increase in time and effort without productivity gain

Often accompanied by irritability and negativity.

287
Q

What factors increase the risk of job burnout?

A

Mismatch between the individual and work environment aspects:
* Workload
* Control
* Reward
* Community
* Fairness
* Values

Proposed by Maslach, Schaufeli, and Leiter (2001).

288
Q

What individual characteristics are linked to resistance to stress?

A

Hardiness, organization-based self-esteem (OBSE), Type A behavior

Each characteristic influences stress resilience differently.

289
Q

What is hardiness as a personality trait?

A

Increases resistance to stress; characterized by control, commitment, and challenge perception

Identified by Kobasa (1982) as beneficial for health.

290
Q

What does organization-based self-esteem (OBSE) refer to?

A

Employees’ perceptions of their value as organization members

Linked to job satisfaction and stress responses.

291
Q

How does Type A behavior pattern relate to stress?

A

Associated with increased susceptibility to stress effects

Characterized by time urgency, competitiveness, and hostility.

292
Q

Which characteristic of Type A behavior is most linked to heart disease?

A

Hostility

Evidence suggests hostility is a significant risk factor (Krantz & McCeney, 2002; Newman et al., 2011).

293
Q

What is the purpose of job analysis?

A

To identify how a job is performed, the conditions under which it is performed, and the personal requirements it takes to perform the job.

Job analysis serves functions such as writing job descriptions, developing performance measures, determining training needs, and job design decisions.

294
Q

What are the methods of obtaining information for job analysis?

A
  • Observing employees
  • Interviewing employees and supervisors
  • Surveys and questionnaires
  • Electronic performance monitoring

These methods help gather comprehensive data about job performance and requirements.

295
Q

What is a work-oriented job analysis?

A

It focuses on the tasks that must be accomplished to achieve desired job outcomes.

Task analysis is a work-oriented approach that involves developing a comprehensive list of job tasks.

296
Q

What is a worker-oriented job analysis?

A

It focuses on the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics (KSAOs) required to accomplish job tasks.

The Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) is an example of a worker-oriented job analysis tool.

297
Q

What is competency modeling?

A

A worker-oriented approach that focuses on core competencies required to perform jobs within an organization, linked to its values, goals, and strategies.

Examples of core competencies include professional integrity and staying current with technological advances.

298
Q

What functions does competency modeling serve in organizations?

A
  • Identifying job selection measures
  • Determining content of training programs
  • Identifying future job requirements

Competency modeling helps align employee capabilities with organizational needs.

299
Q

What is the primary purpose of job evaluation?

A

To facilitate decisions related to compensation.

Job evaluation helps establish comparable worth among jobs that require similar skills and responsibilities.

300
Q

What is comparable worth?

A

The principle that workers performing jobs requiring the same skills and responsibilities should be paid the same.

This principle has been primarily applied to address the gender gap in wages.

301
Q

What is the point system in job evaluation?

A

A method that assigns points to a job’s compensable factors to determine its monetary value.

Compensable factors include effort, skill, responsibility, and working conditions.

302
Q

What are criterion measures in performance assessment?

A

Measures of job performance that provide feedback and evaluate employee performance for decisions about raises and promotions.

These measures are crucial for employee development and organizational effectiveness.

303
Q

What are the two categories of performance appraisal measures?

A
  • Objective measures
  • Subjective measures

Objective measures provide quantitative data, while subjective measures involve performance ratings.

304
Q

What are objective measures in performance appraisal?

A

Quantitative information such as productivity and the number of errors, accidents, and absences.

While valuable, they may not provide complete performance information.

305
Q

What are subjective measures in performance appraisal?

A

Performance ratings that assess aspects of performance not captured by objective measures.

They consider situational factors but can be influenced by rater biases.

306
Q

True or False: Subjective measures are the most commonly used performance measures in organizations.

A

True

Subjective measures provide nuanced insights into employee performance.

307
Q

What are the two types of subjective rating scales?

A

Relative and absolute rating scales

Relative rating scales compare employees to each other, while absolute rating scales evaluate employees independently of others.

308
Q

What does the paired comparison technique involve?

A

Comparing each employee to all other employees in pairs on job performance dimensions

This method helps alleviate biases like central tendency, leniency, and strictness.

309
Q

What is a disadvantage of the paired comparison technique?

A

It can be very time-consuming when rating many employees

This method requires extensive comparisons, which may not be practical for large groups.

310
Q

Describe the forced distribution method.

A

Requires assigning a certain percentage of employees to prespecified performance categories

Examples of categories include poor, below average, average, above average, and excellent.

311
Q

What is a disadvantage of the forced distribution method?

A

Provides inaccurate information when employee performance does not match prespecified categories

This can occur when all employees perform at an average or above average level.

312
Q

What does the critical incident technique (CIT) focus on?

A

Identifying employee behaviors associated with exceptionally poor and good performance

CIT relies on observations and interviews to gather critical incidents.

313
Q

What is a disadvantage of the critical incident technique?

A

It can be time-consuming to develop and focuses on extreme behaviors

CIT is also job-specific, requiring new incidents for different roles.

314
Q

How does a graphic rating scale work?

A

Raters rate performance on several dimensions using a Likert-type scale

Ratings typically range from 1 (poor performance) to 5 (excellent performance).

315
Q

What is a disadvantage of graphic rating scales?

A

They are vulnerable to rater biases

This can lead to inaccuracies in performance evaluations.

316
Q

What characterizes behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS)?

A

Each point on the scale is anchored with descriptions of specific behaviors

BARS are developed with input from job incumbents and supervisors.

317
Q

What is the ultimate criterion in performance measurement?

A

An ideal measure assessing all important contributors to job performance

It contrasts with the actual criterion, which is what is measured in practice.

318
Q

What is criterion deficiency?

A

Aspects of performance not assessed by the criterion

For example, a test that omits important job-related knowledge can be deficient.

319
Q

What is criterion contamination?

A

When the criterion measure is affected by factors unrelated to job performance

This can include biases such as a supervisor’s knowledge of an employee’s background.

320
Q

What is the halo error?

A

When a rater’s rating on one dimension affects ratings on others

This can be positive or negative depending on the rater’s perception.

321
Q

What is the contrast error?

A

When a rater’s ratings are influenced by the performance of a previously evaluated employee

This can lead to unfair comparisons and skewed ratings.

322
Q

What is the similarity bias?

A

When raters give higher ratings to ratees they perceive as similar to themselves

This bias can affect the objectivity of performance evaluations.

323
Q

What methods can help reduce rater biases?

A
  • Using relative rating scales
  • Anchoring points on absolute scales with specific job behaviors
  • Providing adequate rater training

Frame-of-reference training is particularly effective in enhancing accuracy.

324
Q

True or False: The central tendency bias occurs when raters give all employees above-average ratings.

A

False

The central tendency bias occurs when raters give average ratings regardless of actual performance.

the EPPPi pen (37 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions