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1
Q

What are selection techniques often referred to as?

A

Predictors

Predictors are methods used to evaluate candidates for job performance.

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2
Q

Name three common predictors used in organizations.

A
  • Interviews
  • General mental ability tests
  • Personality tests

Other predictors include integrity tests, work samples, assessment centers, and biographical information.

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3
Q

What distinguishes structured interviews from unstructured interviews?

A

Structured interviews ask all interviewees the same questions derived from job analysis

Unstructured interviews allow interviewers to ask any questions and may not standardize across candidates.

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4
Q

Which type of interview has been found to have the same average validity coefficient as unstructured interviews?

A

Structured interviews

Recent studies show both types have an average validity coefficient of .58.

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5
Q

What is the best predictor of job performance according to recent findings?

A

General mental ability tests

These tests have been found to be the most valid predictors, followed by structured and unstructured interviews.

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6
Q

What assumption do behavioral interviews rely on?

A

Past behavior is the best predictor of future behavior

Behavioral interviews focus on candidates’ past job-related situations.

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7
Q

What do situational interviews focus on?

A

Hypothetical future situations

Situational interviews ask candidates how they would respond to scenarios they may face in the job.

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8
Q

True or False: Behavioral interviews have consistently been found to be the better predictors of job performance over situational interviews.

A

False

Recent meta-analyses indicate that situational questions may be more valid predictors than behavioral questions.

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9
Q

Fill in the blank: When behavioral and situational interview questions are assessed under the same conditions, _____ questions are more valid predictors of job performance.

A

situational

This suggests that intentions may be more predictive of future behaviors than past behaviors.

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10
Q

What are integrity tests used for?

A

To predict whether an applicant is likely to engage in counterproductive behaviors

Integrity tests assess the likelihood of dishonesty and theft among applicants.

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11
Q

What are the two basic types of integrity tests?

A
  • Overt integrity tests
  • Personality-based integrity tests

Overt tests ask directly about dishonesty, while personality-based tests assess traits linked to counterproductive behaviors.

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12
Q

Do integrity tests have an adverse impact on racial/ethnic minorities?

A

No

Integrity tests do not seem to disadvantage racial/ethnic minorities.

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13
Q

Which type of integrity test is a better predictor of counterproductive behaviors?

A

Overt integrity tests

Overt integrity tests directly inquire about dishonesty and theft.

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14
Q

Which type of integrity test is a better predictor of job performance?

A

Personality-based integrity tests

These tests assess personality traits linked to job performance.

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15
Q

What was the rank of integrity tests in terms of validity among selection methods according to Schmidt, Oh, and Shaffer’s meta-analysis?

A

Fourth most valid method

This ranking follows general mental ability tests, interviews, and job knowledge tests.

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16
Q

What combination of tests produced the greatest gain in validity?

A

General mental ability test combined with an integrity test

This combination yields the highest incremental validity.

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17
Q

What do work samples require applicants to do?

A

Perform on-the-job tasks or activities in realistic conditions

Work samples simulate actual job tasks to evaluate applicant performance.

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18
Q

How did Schmidt and Hunter’s meta-analysis (1998) compare the validity of work samples to general mental ability tests?

A

Work samples had a slightly higher validity coefficient

This indicates work samples were initially seen as more valid than general mental ability tests.

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19
Q

What trend was noted in the more recent meta-analysis by Schmidt, Oh, & Shaffer (2016) regarding work samples?

A

Lower validity coefficient compared to general mental ability tests

The decline in validity may be due to the broader application of work samples beyond manual skilled jobs.

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20
Q

What are trainability work sample tests useful for?

A

Determining if inexperienced applicants are likely to benefit from training

These tests assess both training and evaluation for novice applicants.

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21
Q

What is a realistic job preview (RJP)?

A

Informing job applicants about the positive and negative aspects of the job

RJPs aim to set realistic job expectations to reduce turnover.

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22
Q

What are assessment centers primarily used for?

A

To evaluate candidates for managerial-level jobs

Assessment centers utilize multiple raters and methods to assess performance.

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23
Q

What methods are commonly used in assessment centers?

A
  • Personality tests
  • Ability tests
  • Structured interviews
  • Simulations (work samples)

These methods provide a comprehensive evaluation of candidates.

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24
Q

What is the purpose of the in-basket exercise in assessment centers?

A

To assess decision-making skills

Participants respond to memos, phone messages, and other communications similar to on-the-job situations.

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25
Q

What does the leaderless group discussion evaluate?

A

The leadership potential of participants

A small group works together to solve a job-related problem without an assigned leader.

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26
Q

What is a biodata form?

A

A measure of biographical information chosen for predicting job performance

Also known as biographical information blank (BIB).

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27
Q

What types of information does biodata typically include?

A
  • Education
  • Work history
  • Family history
  • Health history
  • Interests
  • Social relationships

Items are empirically derived and may be presented in a multiple-choice format.

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28
Q

How has biodata been shown to predict job performance?

A

It has been found to be a good predictor for a variety of jobs, including unskilled and managerial/executive-level jobs

Reference: Schmidt, Oh, & Shaffer, 2016.

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29
Q

What is a disadvantage of biodata measures?

A

Some items may lack face validity

Applicants might view these items as irrelevant or an invasion of privacy.

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30
Q

True or False: Biodata items are always perceived as relevant to job performance by applicants.

A

False

Some applicants may refuse to answer items they consider irrelevant.

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31
Q

What are the two types of methods for combining information obtained from multiple predictors?

A

Compensatory and noncompensatory methods

Compensatory methods allow high scores on some predictors to offset low scores on others, while noncompensatory methods do not.

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32
Q

What is a compensatory method in the context of selection techniques?

A

A method where a high score on one or more predictors can compensate for a low score on another predictor

Examples include clinical prediction and multiple regression.

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33
Q

What is clinical prediction in the context of hiring decisions?

A

A method relying on the subjective judgment of decision makers regarding job requirements

It is susceptible to biases and errors, making it less accurate than statistical methods.

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34
Q

What is a major disadvantage of clinical prediction?

A

It is susceptible to biases and errors

Studies have confirmed that statistical methods are more accurate for predicting job performance.

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35
Q

What is multiple regression in selection techniques?

A

A statistical method for combining scores, where each predictor is weighted based on its correlations

The weighted scores are combined to estimate a criterion score.

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36
Q

What are noncompensatory methods in selection techniques?

A

Methods where a low score on one predictor cannot be compensated for by a high score on another predictor

Examples include multiple cutoff and multiple hurdles.

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37
Q

What is the multiple cutoff method?

A

A method where all predictors are administered to all applicants, and each must score above a cutoff to be considered

This ensures that all predictors are evaluated.

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38
Q

What is the multiple hurdles method?

A

A method where predictors are administered in a prespecified order and each must meet the cutoff to proceed

It is preferable when it is too costly to administer all predictors to all applicants.

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39
Q

When is the multiple hurdles method preferable to multiple cutoff?

A

When it would be too costly to administer all of the predictors to all applicants

This method allows for a more efficient selection process.

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40
Q

Can multiple cutoff and multiple hurdles be combined with multiple regression?

A

Yes, they can be combined by using multiple regression to predict the criterion scores of applicants who score above the cutoff

This allows for a more refined selection process.

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41
Q

What must be evaluated before using a new selection technique for hiring decisions?

A

Adequate reliability and validity, increase decision-making accuracy, no adverse impact, adequate utility

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42
Q

Define reliability in the context of predictors.

A

The degree to which a predictor is free from measurement error and provides consistent scores

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43
Q

What does a reliability coefficient indicate?

A

Ranges from 0 to 1.0; closer to 1.0 indicates less measurement error and greater consistency

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44
Q

What is validity in the context of predictors?

A

The extent to which a predictor measures what it was designed to measure

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45
Q

List the three main types of validity.

A
  • Content validity
  • Construct validity
  • Criterion-related validity
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46
Q

What does content validity assess?

A

The extent to which a predictor adequately samples the knowledge or skills it’s intended to measure

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47
Q

How can content validity be ensured?

A

By basing it on job analysis results and having subject matter experts review the content

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48
Q

What does construct validity measure?

A

The extent to which a predictor measures the hypothetical trait it was designed to measure

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49
Q

How is construct validity assessed?

A

By correlating scores on the predictor with scores on valid measures of the same, similar, and different constructs

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50
Q

What does criterion-related validity evaluate?

A

The degree to which scores on the predictor correlate with scores on the criterion

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51
Q

What is the range of the criterion-related validity coefficient?

A

From -1.0 to +1.0; closer to 0 indicates lower criterion-related validity

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52
Q

Define incremental validity.

A

The increase in decision-making accuracy by adding a new selection technique to the existing selection procedure

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53
Q

Under what conditions is a predictor likely to increase decision-making accuracy?

A

When its criterion-related validity coefficient is large

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54
Q

What is the selection ratio?

A

The percent of job applicants the company plans to hire, calculated by dividing the number of hires by total applicants

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55
Q

What does a low selection ratio indicate?

A

More applicants to choose from; for example, a selection ratio of .10 means one of ten applicants will be hired

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56
Q

Define base rate in the context of selection procedures.

A

The percent of employees hired using the current selection procedure who are considered successful

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57
Q

What base rate is associated with the greatest increase in decision-making accuracy?

A

A moderate base rate, around .50

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58
Q

What are the Taylor-Russell tables used for?

A

To estimate a predictor’s incremental validity for various combinations of criterion-related validity coefficients, base rates, and selection ratios

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59
Q

Fill in the blank: A predictor’s criterion-related validity coefficient of .30, a base rate of .50, and a selection ratio of .10 indicates that _______ of hired employees will be successful.

A

71%

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60
Q

What is the increase in successful employees when the new predictor is added with the given conditions?

A

21% increase in successful employees

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61
Q

What is adverse impact?

A

A type of unfair discrimination where a personnel selection method negatively affects protected group members compared to majority group members

Also referred to as disparate impact.

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62
Q

What are the Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures?

A

Guidelines adopted in 1978 by the EEOC to address adverse impact in employee selection.

These guidelines include interpretations and clarifications from 1979.

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63
Q

Define test unfairness.

A

Occurs when one group consistently scores lower on a selection test without corresponding differences in job performance.

For example, women may score lower on tests despite similar job performance ratings as men.

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64
Q

What is differential validity?

A

When a selection test has significantly different validity coefficients for different groups.

For instance, a test might have a validity coefficient of .70 for men and .20 for women.

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65
Q

What is the 80% rule?

A

A method to determine adverse impact where the hiring rate for a protected group is less than 80% of the majority group’s hiring rate.

Example: If White applicants have a 70% hiring rate, African-American applicants must have at least 56%.

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66
Q

What options does an employer have when a selection test shows adverse impact?

A
  1. Replace the procedure
  2. Modify the procedure
  3. Demonstrate no alternative exists and that the procedure is job-related

Job-relatedness can be established through validity, business necessity, or bona fide occupational qualification.

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67
Q

What is job-relatedness in employment procedures?

A

Established by showing the procedure is valid, a business necessity, or a bona fide occupational qualification.

Validity can be criterion-related, content, or construct.

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68
Q

What is a bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ)?

A

A qualification necessary for normal business operations, applicable to gender, age, religion, and national origin, but not race.

For example, a religious school may require faculty to be members of its denomination.

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69
Q

What is utility analysis?

A

A method for evaluating the economic return on investment of human resource interventions like staffing and training.

Commonly cited formula: Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser formula.

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70
Q

List the factors considered in the Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser formula.

A
  • Number of individuals hired
  • Test’s validity coefficient
  • Standard deviation of job performance in dollars
  • Cost of testing
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71
Q

What is the first step in developing a training program?

A

Needs analysis

Needs analysis is also known as needs assessment and is used to identify training needs.

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72
Q

What are the four analyses included in a needs analysis?

A
  • Organizational analysis
  • Task (job) analysis
  • Person analysis
  • Demographic analysis
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73
Q

What is the focus of an organizational analysis?

A

Identifying organizational goals and determining if employee performance problems are due to a lack of training or other factors

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74
Q

What does a task (job) analysis identify?

A

The tasks required to perform the job and the KSAOs needed for each task

KSAOs stand for Knowledge, Skills, Abilities, and Other characteristics.

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75
Q

What is the purpose of a person analysis?

A

To identify which employees have deficiencies that require training

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76
Q

What does a demographic analysis identify?

A

The training needs of specific groups of workers, such as older versus younger workers

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77
Q

What are the two main categories of training methods?

A
  • On-the-job methods
  • Off-the-job methods
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78
Q

What is an example of an on-the-job training method?

A
  • Apprenticeships
  • Internships
  • Coaching
  • Mentoring
  • Job rotation
  • Cross-training
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79
Q

What is job rotation?

A

Having the trainee rotate through a predetermined set of jobs within the organization

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80
Q

What is cross-training?

A

Teaching employees how to perform essential tasks performed by other employees

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81
Q

What are two advantages of on-the-job training?

A
  • Usually less costly than off-the-job training
  • Alleviates problems related to transfer of training
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82
Q

What are major disadvantages of on-the-job training?

A
  • Potential for errors
  • Safety problems
  • Slowdown or disruption of productivity
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83
Q

What defines off-the-job training?

A

Training that takes place at a site away from the actual worksite

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84
Q

What are some methods included in off-the-job training?

A
  • Classroom lectures
  • Technology-based training
  • Behavior modeling
  • Simulation training
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85
Q

What is behavior modeling based on?

A

Bandura’s social learning theory

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86
Q

What is simulation training useful for?

A

When on-the-job training would be too costly or dangerous

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87
Q

What is vestibule training?

A

A type of simulation training using actual machinery or equipment

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88
Q

What are advantages of off-the-job training?

A
  • Greater control over the training environment
  • Allows a large number of employees to be trained simultaneously
  • Permits the use of multiple training methods
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89
Q

What are disadvantages of off-the-job training?

A
  • May cost more than on-the-job training
  • May not provide adequate transfer of training
90
Q

What is the primary difference between mentoring and coaching?

A

Mentoring focuses on professional development and personal growth, while coaching focuses on performance and achieving organizational goals.

Mentoring involves a relationship between a mentor and a mentee, whereas coaching is a structured process aimed at enhancing performance.

91
Q

Define mentoring.

A

A relationship where a mentor provides support and guidance to a less experienced mentee for professional development.

Mentoring involves career and psychosocial functions.

92
Q

What are the two functions of mentoring according to Ragins & Kram (2007)?

A
  1. Career functions
  2. Psychosocial functions

Career functions prepare mentees for advancement, while psychosocial functions promote personal and professional growth.

93
Q

What are the key activities involved in coaching?

A
  1. Coaching analysis
  2. Coaching discussions

Coaching analysis identifies performance conditions, while coaching discussions aim to enhance employee performance.

94
Q

How does coaching differ from mentoring in terms of structure?

A

Coaching is more formal and structured with regular meetings and specific tasks, while mentoring is generally less structured.

Coaching has measurable goals and is typically time-bound.

95
Q

What is overlearning?

A

Learning or practicing beyond the point of mastery, resulting in automaticity.

Automaticity allows tasks to be performed with little conscious effort.

96
Q

What is the principle of identical elements?

A

The principle that greater similarity between training and work situations leads to better transfer of training.

Identical elements encompass both physical and psychological fidelity.

97
Q

What is the effect of stimulus variability on transfer of training?

A

Transfer of training is maximized when a variety of stimuli are used during training.

This includes using multiple examples and practicing in various conditions.

98
Q

Fill in the blank: Whole-task training involves teaching _______.

A

an entire task at once.

In contrast, part-task training divides the task into subtasks.

99
Q

True or False: Overtraining refers to learning beyond mastery.

A

False.

Overtraining refers to negative symptoms from excessive athletic training, not learning.

100
Q

What factors affect learning according to Landy & Conte (2016)?

A
  1. Distributed vs. Massed Practice
  2. Whole-Task vs. Part-Task Training
  3. Overlearning

Each factor influences how trainees acquire and retain information.

101
Q

What is the role of support in transfer of training?

A

Support affects the use of newly acquired skills and knowledge on-the-job.

Organizations can create a transfer climate that emphasizes training importance.

102
Q

What is the focus of executive coaching?

A

Enhancing an executive’s leadership skills and achieving organizational goals.

Executive coaching is a specific type of coaching.

103
Q

What is the best practice for task training based on task characteristics?

A

Whole-task training is more effective for highly organized tasks with interrelated subtasks.

Part-task training is better for tasks that can be easily divided.

104
Q

Who coined the terms ‘formative’ and ‘summative’ in training program evaluation?

A

Scriven (1967)

Scriven’s terminology is foundational in the field of evaluation.

105
Q

What is the purpose of formative evaluation?

A

To assist with the development and improvement of a program.

Formative evaluation focuses on enhancing the program as it is being developed.

106
Q

What is the purpose of summative evaluation?

A

To determine whether program outcomes met the program’s goals.

Summative evaluation assesses the effectiveness of the completed program.

107
Q

List the components of formative evaluation.

A
  • Needs assessment
  • Evaluability assessment
  • Structured evaluation
  • Implementation evaluation
  • Process evaluation

Each component serves a specific role in evaluating the program’s development.

108
Q

What is the first component of summative evaluation?

A

Outcome evaluation

This component assesses if the program achieved its stated goals.

109
Q

What does impact evaluation identify in summative evaluation?

A

Intended and unintended effects of the program on the organization.

Impact evaluation helps understand the broader implications of the program.

110
Q

What are the four types of evaluation in the Dessinger-Moseley model?

A
  • Formative evaluation
  • Summative evaluation
  • Confirmative evaluation
  • Meta-evaluation

This model expands upon Scriven’s dichotomy by adding confirmative and meta-evaluation.

111
Q

What is confirmative evaluation?

A

Evaluation conducted at a later time to evaluate the long-term effects of training.

Confirmative evaluation assesses the sustainability of training outcomes.

112
Q

What is the purpose of meta-evaluation?

A

To assess the reliability and validity of formative, summative, and confirmative evaluations.

Meta-evaluation ensures the quality of the evaluation process itself.

113
Q

What are the four levels of training program evaluation according to Kirkpatrick?

A
  • Reaction criteria
  • Learning criteria
  • Behavior criteria
  • Results criteria

These levels provide a framework for assessing different aspects of training effectiveness.

114
Q

What do reaction criteria assess in Kirkpatrick’s model?

A

Trainees’ impressions of the training.

Reaction criteria focus on immediate feedback from participants.

115
Q

What do learning criteria evaluate in Kirkpatrick’s model?

A

How well trainees acquired the information and skills presented during training.

Learning criteria measure knowledge and skill acquisition.

116
Q

What do behavior criteria evaluate in Kirkpatrick’s model?

A

The degree to which trainees’ job performance improved as a result of training.

Behavior criteria link training to actual job performance changes.

117
Q

What do results criteria assess in Kirkpatrick’s model?

A

Effects of training on ROI, customer satisfaction, and other organizational outcomes.

Results criteria provide a broader organizational perspective on training effectiveness.

118
Q

True or False: Results criteria are considered to be the easiest to assess.

A

False

Results criteria are difficult to assess due to the challenge of isolating training effects from other factors.

119
Q

What are the five stages of Super’s Life-Space, Life-Span Career Theory?

A
  1. Growth (birth to 14)
  2. Exploration (15 to 24)
  3. Establishment (25 to 44)
  4. Maintenance (45 to 64)
  5. Disengagement (65+)
120
Q

What does ‘career maturity’ refer to in Super’s theory?

A

A person’s ability to successfully complete the tasks of his or her stage.

121
Q

Define ‘life-space’ as used in Super’s theory.

A

The various life roles a person assumes at different times and in different contexts.

122
Q

According to Super, what influences a person’s self-concept?

A

Interactions between internal (personal) factors and external (situational) factors.

123
Q

What are the six personality and work environment types in Holland’s Theory?

A
  1. Realistic
  2. Investigative
  3. Artistic
  4. Social
  5. Enterprising
  6. Conventional
124
Q

What does Holland propose is crucial for job satisfaction and productivity?

A

A high degree of congruence (‘goodness-of-fit’) between a person’s personality and the work environment.

125
Q

What is ‘vocational identity’ according to Holland?

A

The clear and stable picture of one’s goals, interests, and talents.

126
Q

In Dawis and Lofquist’s Theory of Work Adjustment, what are the two primary factors predicting job tenure?

A
  1. Satisfaction
  2. Satisfactoriness
127
Q

What does satisfaction refer to in Dawis and Lofquist’s theory?

A

The employee’s satisfaction with the job, affected by the match between needs and job reinforcers.

128
Q

What is the initial phase of Tiedeman’s Career Decision-Making Model?

A

The initial anticipation phase, which includes exploration, crystallization, choice, and clarification stages.

129
Q

What are the two phases of Tiedeman’s Career Decision-Making Model?

A
  1. Initial anticipation phase
  2. Implementation phase
130
Q

Krumboltz identifies how many factors that contribute to career decisions?

A

Four factors

131
Q

List the four factors identified by Krumboltz that contribute to career decisions.

A
  1. Genetic endowment and special abilities
  2. Environmental conditions and events
  3. Instrumental and associative learning experiences
  4. Task approach skills
132
Q

What are ‘self-observation generalizations’ according to Krumboltz?

A

Beliefs about one’s own attitudes, values, interests, and skills.

133
Q

What is the primary focus of Driver and Brousseau’s Career Concept Model?

A

Distinguishing between four career concepts based on motives, direction of movement, and frequency of change.

134
Q

What defines a linear career concept?

A

Motivated by power and achievement, involving upward movement with infrequent career changes.

135
Q

Fill in the blank: People with a _______ career concept are motivated by job security and expertise.

A

[expert]

136
Q

What is a characteristic of the spiral career concept?

A

Motivated by personal growth and creativity, involving lateral movements across similar occupations.

137
Q

True or False: The transitory career concept involves infrequent lateral movements across different occupations.

A

False

138
Q

What do Driver and Brousseau recommend for organizations in response to changing business conditions?

A

Adopt a pluralistic approach that provides opportunities for diverse career experiences.

139
Q

What does Taylor’s Scientific Management propose to maximize organizational efficiency?

A

Managers must:
* Use scientific methods to identify the best way to do a job
* Ensure workers are scientifically selected and trained
* Have an equal division of labor
* Cooperate with workers to ensure work consistency with scientific principles

Taylor believed workers are primarily motivated by economic gain and advocated linking financial incentives to productivity.

140
Q

What are the essential elements of Weber’s Bureaucracy?

A

The essential elements include:
* Division of labor
* Well-defined hierarchy of authority
* Formal rules and procedures
* Employment decisions based on competence and merit
* Written records of decisions and actions
* Separation of ownership and management

Weber described bureaucracy as an impersonal and rational way to ensure orderly and efficient operations.

141
Q

What effect did Mayo discover during his research at the Hawthorne Plant?

A

Mayo discovered the Hawthorne effect, where productivity increased due to the attention workers received as research participants, regardless of physical work condition changes.

He concluded that social factors were more important than physical conditions for work motivation and productivity.

142
Q

What are the main beliefs of Theory X supervisors according to McGregor?

A

Theory X supervisors believe that subordinates are:
* Inherently lazy
* Dislike responsibility
* Resist change
* Concerned only about themselves

They feel they must be directive and controlling to ensure workers meet organizational goals.

143
Q

What are the main beliefs of Theory Y supervisors according to McGregor?

A

Theory Y supervisors believe that subordinates:
* Enjoy work
* Are self-directed and internally motivated
* Seek responsibility

They aim to provide conditions that allow subordinates to fulfill their own goals while achieving organizational goals.

144
Q

According to Katz and Kahn’s Open-System Theory, what characteristics do organizations share with other open systems?

A

Organizations share characteristics such as:
* Cycles of events
* Maintaining homeostasis
* Avoiding negative entropy
* Functioning according to equifinality and multifinality

Equifinality means achieving the same outcome in multiple ways, while multifinality means achieving dissimilar outcomes from the same initial conditions.

145
Q

What are the input-throughput-output cycles in Katz and Kahn’s Open-System Theory?

A

The cycles include:
* Inputs: materials, information, and other resources
* Throughputs: transformation of resources into products, services, and information
* Outputs: sending out products, services, and information

Consequences of outputs, like profits and customer feedback, are then reintroduced as inputs.

146
Q

Fill in the blank: According to Taylor, workers are motivated primarily by a desire for _______.

A

[economic gain]

147
Q

True or False: Mayo’s research concluded that physical work conditions were the primary factor affecting worker productivity.

A

False

Mayo concluded that social factors were more important than physical work conditions.

148
Q

What is the role of a supervisor according to Theory Y?

A

To provide subordinates with conditions that allow them to fulfill their own goals by achieving organizational goals

McGregor believed Theory Y produces the best outcomes for employees and organizations.

149
Q

What is organizational change?

A

A process, a goal, or both

Organizational development (OD) is a toolbox of various methods for affecting that change.

150
Q

What are the three stages of Lewin’s model of planned change?

A
  1. Unfreezing 2. Changing 3. Refreezing

Lewin’s model remains influential in understanding organizational change.

151
Q

What occurs during the Unfreezing stage?

A

Identifying and reducing forces maintaining the undesirable status quo and increasing forces that disrupt it

This stage is crucial for preparing the organization for change.

152
Q

What is the focus of the Changing stage in Lewin’s model?

A

Implementing desired changes to move the organization to a new state of equilibrium

This stage is about making the actual changes needed.

153
Q

What happens in the Refreezing stage?

A

Integrating the desired change into organizational values and traditions to stabilize the new state

This prevents regression to the prior undesirable state.

154
Q

What are the four phases of Cummings and Worley’s general model of planned change?

A
  1. Entering and contracting 2. Diagnosing 3. Planning and implementing 4. Evaluating and institutionalizing

This model incorporates concepts from Lewin’s model and others.

155
Q

What occurs during the entering and contracting phase?

A

Identifying primary problems, relevant members, and selecting an OD practitioner

Establishes a collaborative relationship with organization members.

156
Q

What is the purpose of the diagnosing phase?

A

Collecting and analyzing diagnostic information and providing feedback about problems

This occurs at the organization, group, and individual levels.

157
Q

What does the planning and implementing phase include?

A

Addressing readiness to change, creating a vision, designing interventions, and formulating an action plan

Managing transition and sustaining momentum are also critical.

158
Q

What is evaluated in the evaluating and institutionalizing phase?

A

The implementation and results of OD interventions

This phase also involves deciding whether changes should be continued, modified, or suspended.

159
Q

What are the three phases of survey feedback in organizational development?

A
  1. Collect data
  2. Provide feedback
  3. Develop an action plan

Survey feedback is overseen by an OD consultant and involves obtaining employees’ attitudes, opinions, and perceptions.

160
Q

What does data collection in survey feedback involve?

A

Having employees complete surveys to obtain information on their attitudes, opinions, and perceptions related to work conditions, supervision, company policies, and other issues.

The information helps identify strengths and weaknesses within the organization.

161
Q

What is the focus of process consultation?

A

Communication, decision-making, problem-solving, interpersonal relationships, and other organizational processes contributing to performance problems.

The process consultant helps organizations learn to diagnose and resolve their own problems.

162
Q

What are self-managed work teams (SMWTs)?

A

Groups of employees with total responsibility and control over their own work, including budgeting, task assignments, methods for completing tasks, and performance appraisal.

SMWTs do not have a supervisor and leadership roles may change based on expertise.

163
Q

What do technostructural interventions aim to change?

A

An organization’s technology or structure to improve work methods, work content, employee relationships, and reduce costs.

Examples include business process reengineering, job enrichment, and alternative work schedules.

164
Q

What is business process reengineering (BPR)?

A

A method to increase organizational efficiency by radically redesigning core processes.

This approach was notably discussed by Hammer & Champy in 1993.

165
Q

Define job enrichment.

A

Designing a job to provide opportunities for responsibility, challenge, and advancement, enhancing worker satisfaction and motivation.

This concept was originally described by Herzberg in 1966.

166
Q

What is a compressed workweek?

A

A work schedule that reduces the number of workdays by increasing hours worked each day, e.g., 10 hours a day for four days.

Research shows it positively affects job satisfaction but has unclear effects on absenteeism.

167
Q

What does flextime require from employees?

A

Employees must work a total number of hours each day during a core time but have flexibility in starting and ending times.

Studies indicate flextime strongly reduces absenteeism.

168
Q

What are the main characteristics of Total Quality Management (TQM)?

A
  • Continuous improvement
  • Top management commitment to quality
  • Employee involvement
  • Focus on customer satisfaction
  • Data-driven decision-making

TQM emphasizes incremental changes to all processes.

169
Q

What are quality circles (QCs)?

A

Small groups of employees who meet regularly to identify and discuss problems related to quality and productivity.

They provide management with recommendations for resolving identified issues.

170
Q

What is benchmarking?

A

A continuous process of measuring products, services, and practices against major competitors or industry leaders to identify improvement areas.

Its purpose is to enhance organizational processes and productivity.

171
Q

Define Six Sigma.

A

An approach to quality management that trains employees in statistical analysis, project management, and problem-solving methods to reduce product defect rates.

This method is discussed by Landy & Conte in 2016.

172
Q

What does Appreciative Inquiry involve?

A

Identifying the unique and best aspects of the organization and generating ideas to build on them.

It combines elements of social constructionism and positive psychology.

173
Q

What are the four phases of the 4D cycle in Appreciative Inquiry?

A
  • Discovery (appreciate ‘what is’)
  • Dream (envision ‘what could be’)
  • Design (determine ‘what should be’)
  • Delivery/Destiny (sustain ‘what will be’)

This cycle was detailed by Ludema, Cooperrider, & Barrett in 2006.

174
Q

What is the primary purpose of a program logic model?

A

To provide stakeholders with a road map describing the sequence of related events connecting the need for the planned program with the program’s desired results

W. K. Kellogg Foundation, 2004, p.3

175
Q

What are inputs in a program logic model?

A

The human, financial, organizational, and community resources needed to support the program

Examples include managers, consultants, data sources, funding sources

176
Q

Define activities in the context of a program logic model.

A

The processes and actions needed to produce the program’s outputs

Examples include developing training materials and conducting training sessions

177
Q

What are outputs in a program logic model?

A

The direct, tangible results or products of program activities

Examples include predicted level of employee satisfaction and number of students participating in the program

178
Q

What are outcomes in a program logic model?

A

The short-, intermediate-, and long-term changes or benefits expected from the program’s activities and outputs

Examples include changes in knowledge and skills of managerial candidates and reduction in students’ risk for substance abuse

179
Q

True or False: Program theory and program logic model are always used interchangeably.

A

False

Some authors distinguish between them, with program theory related to assumptions and program logic model as a tool for describing those assumptions

180
Q

Who typically constructs a program logic model?

A

A team of people involved in the program’s development, implementation, and/or evaluation

This construction happens during the planning stage of the program

181
Q

What format do program logic models most often take?

A

A flow chart that includes components connected by arrows representing causal relationships

These components illustrate the flow from inputs to outcomes

182
Q

Fill in the blank: A logic model can include a statement of the program’s _______ or the problem being addressed.

A

[goals]

This is typically the initial component of a more complex logic model

183
Q

What is an example of a program that might use a logic model?

A

Employee wellness program, management training program, substance abuse prevention program for high school students

These are examples of various types of programs that can utilize logic models

184
Q

According to McLaughlin and Jordan (2004), how is program theory defined?

A

As assumptions about resources and activities and how these lead to realizing intended outcomes

This definition highlights the conceptual framework behind program development

185
Q

What is a more complex version of a logic model expected to include?

A

A statement describing the expected long-term impact of the program on the organization or community

This adds depth to the evaluation of the program’s effectiveness

186
Q

What is the correlation coefficient between leader intelligence and leader effectiveness according to Judge, Colbert, and Ilies (2004)?

A

.27

This indicates a low to moderate correlation.

187
Q

Which Big Five personality traits have the largest correlation coefficients with leader effectiveness?

A
  • Extraversion: .31
  • Conscientiousness: .28

These correlations were found in the meta-analysis by Judge, Bono, Ilies, and Gerehardt (2002).

188
Q

What are the two independent dimensions of leader behavior identified by research at Ohio State University?

A
  • Initiating structure
  • Consideration

Initiating structure is task-oriented, while consideration is person-oriented.

189
Q

How does a high level of consideration affect subordinate satisfaction and motivation?

A

It is more strongly associated with satisfaction and motivation

This finding was supported by the meta-analysis by Judge, Piccolo, & Ilies (2004).

190
Q

Do male and female leaders differ significantly in terms of their effectiveness ratings?

A

No, they are not rated differently

This conclusion is supported by the studies conducted by Paustian-Underdahl, Walker, & Woehr (2014).

191
Q

In which types of settings are female leaders perceived to be more effective?

A

Social service agencies and other traditionally ‘feminine’ settings

This was noted in research by Eagly, Karau, & Makhijani (1995).

192
Q

What leadership style are female leaders more likely to adopt compared to male leaders?

A

Participative (democratic) style

Male leaders are more likely to adopt a directive (autocratic) style (Eagly & Johnson, 1990).

193
Q

What are the five bases of social power identified by French and Raven (1958)?

A
  • Reward power
  • Coercive power
  • Legitimate power
  • Expert power
  • Referent power

These bases influence how leaders can affect their subordinates.

194
Q

Which bases of power are most likely to elicit compliance from subordinates?

A
  • Reward power
  • Legitimate power

These bases are effective in gaining compliance according to Yukl (2002).

195
Q

Fill in the blank: Leaders with _____ power have control over punishments.

A

coercive power

This refers to the ability to influence through fear of punishment.

196
Q

True or False: Male leaders are more likely to engage in management-by-exception.

A

True

This behavior is characteristic of transactional leadership.

197
Q

What is the relationship between initiating structure and overall performance?

A

It is more strongly associated with leader, group, and organization performance

This was highlighted in the findings by Judge, Piccolo, & Ilies (2004).

198
Q

What leadership style is female leaders more likely to have compared to male leaders according to Eagly, Johannesen-Schmidt, & van Engen (2003)?

A

Transformational leadership style

Female leaders also provide employees with contingency rewards characteristic of transactional leadership.

199
Q

What is Fiedler’s Contingency Model based on?

A

The assumption that the most effective leadership style depends on the favorableness of the situation.

200
Q

How does Fiedler determine a leader’s orientation?

A

Using the Least Preferred Coworker (LPC) scale.

201
Q

What characterizes low LPC leaders?

A

They are task-oriented and describe their least preferred coworker in negative terms.

202
Q

What characterizes high LPC leaders?

A

They are person-oriented and describe their least preferred coworker in positive terms.

203
Q

What are the three factors that affect the favorableness of a situation in Fiedler’s model?

A
  • Leader-member relations
  • Task structure
  • Position power
204
Q

In which situations are low LPC leaders most effective?

A

Very unfavorable and very favorable situations.

205
Q

In which situation are high LPC leaders most effective?

A

Moderately favorable situations.

206
Q

What does Situational Leadership Theory propose?

A

The optimal leadership style depends on a subordinate’s job maturity.

207
Q

What are the four leadership styles in Situational Leadership Theory?

A
  • Telling
  • Selling
  • Participating
  • Delegating
208
Q

What type of leader is best for subordinates who are low in both willingness and ability?

A

A telling leader.

209
Q

What is the primary role of effective leaders in Path-Goal Theory?

A

To act as facilitators who help subordinates achieve their own goals.

210
Q

What are the four leadership styles in Path-Goal Theory?

A
  • Directive
  • Achievement-oriented
  • Supportive
  • Participative
211
Q

When is the directive style most effective in Path-Goal Theory?

A

When subordinates are dogmatic or authoritarian and the task is ambiguous and complex.

212
Q

What does the Vroom-Yetton-Jago Contingency Model view leadership as?

A

A decision-making process.

213
Q

What does the original version of the Vroom-Yetton-Jago model provide?

A

A decision tree to help leaders determine the optimal leadership strategy.

214
Q

What are the five strategies in the Vroom-Yetton-Jago model?

A
  • Highly autocratic (make the decision alone)
  • Highly democratic (let group members make the decision)
215
Q

What is the basis of Leader-Member Exchange Theory?

A

The quality of interactions between the leader and the subordinate.

216
Q

What distinguishes in-group members from out-group members in Leader-Member Exchange Theory?

A

In-group members receive more attention and support from the leader.

217
Q

What are the four characteristics of transformational leadership?

A
  • Idealized influence
  • Inspirational motivation
  • Intellectual stimulation
  • Individualized consideration
218
Q

What defines transactional leadership?

A

The use of contingent rewards and management-by-exception.

219
Q

What is active management-by-exception?

A

When leaders closely monitor behaviors and take immediate action to correct mistakes.

220
Q

What is passive management-by-exception?

A

When leaders do not closely monitor behaviors and intervene only after serious mistakes.

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