Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

the EPPPi pen > growth and lifespan > Flashcards

growth and lifespan Flashcards

1
Q

genotype

A

genetic makeup; language of dominant and recessive traits that inform an organism’s phenotype.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

phenotype

A

observed characteristics; combination of genotype and environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Bronfrenbrenner’s ecological models

A

a model that addresses the interconnected environments that all impact a child’s development. consists of the micro, meso, exo, macro, and chrono systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

microsystem

A

the system most immediate to the child.
e.g. their family or classroom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

mesosystem

A

the interactions between the child’s different environments.
e.g. the relationship between a child’s home and their school.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

exosystem

A

environments that indirectly impact the child’s life.
e.g. a parent’s workplace.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

macrosystem

A

the broader cultural context a child lives in.
e.g. cultural practices or governmental shifts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

chronosystem

A

monumental events that occur within a child’s lifespan that can positively or negatively impact how they develop.
e.g. the birth of a sibling or the death of a parent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Rutter’s indicators of adversity

A

six family risk factors; the more risk factors, the greater likelihood of negative outcomes.
1. severe marital discord
2. low SES
3. overcrowding/large family
4. paternal criminality
5. maternal psychopathology
6. out-of-home care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Werner and Smith

A

longitudinal study on resiliency factors in children born with prenatal stress. found that the 3 biggest factors of resiliency were:
1. a stable relationship with a caregiver
2. fewer stressor following birth
3. easy temperament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

critical period

A

a predetermined, unyielding period of time in which some sort of milestone is expected in biological maturation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

sensitive period

A

longer in duration and more flexible than a critical period in which a developmental milestone is expected to be achieved.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does the nature-nurture controversy refer to?

A

Disagreements about the relative roles of genetic and environmental influences on development

Most developmental psychologists agree that both factors play a role, but their emphasis varies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the three main mechanisms of inheritance?

A
  • Single gene-pair inheritance
  • Sex-linked inheritance
  • Polygenic inheritance

Each mechanism explains how characteristics are influenced by genetic factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is single gene-pair inheritance?

A

Occurs when a characteristic is influenced by a single pair of genes

This can involve two recessive genes or one recessive and one dominant gene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is sex-linked inheritance?

A

Occurs when a characteristic is influenced by a gene on one of the sex chromosomes, most often the X chromosome

This type of inheritance can result in sex-specific traits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is polygenic inheritance?

A

Occurs when a characteristic is influenced by multiple genes

Most characteristics, such as height and intelligence, are polygenic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define heritability estimates.

A

Indicate the extent to which variability in phenotype in a given population is attributable to differences in genotype

Phenotype refers to observed characteristics; genotype refers to genetic inheritance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does a heritability estimate of .80 for height indicate?

A

80% of variability in height in the population is due to genetic factors

The remaining 20% is attributed to environmental factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does socioeconomic status (SES) affect intelligence heritability estimates?

A
  • About .10 for young children from low-SES families
  • About .70 for young children from high-SES families

This indicates that environmental factors can significantly influence heritability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What have adoption studies shown regarding intelligence and SES?

A

Adopted children from low-SES families raised in high-SES families have higher IQ scores than their siblings who remained in low-SES environments

This suggests that enriched environments and educational opportunities impact intelligence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What were the average IQ scores found in Capron and Duyme’s (1989) study?

A
  • High-SES born and adopted: 120
  • Low-SES born and adopted by high-SES: 107
  • High-SES born and adopted by low-SES: 104
  • Low-SES born and adopted: 92

This study illustrates the impact of SES on IQ across different family environments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a critical period in the context of environmental impact on development?

A

A limited period of time when exposure to certain environmental events is necessary for development to occur.

Critical periods are essential for certain developmental milestones and if missed, may lead to permanent deficits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How does a sensitive period differ from a critical period?

A

A sensitive period is usually longer than a critical period and is optimal (but not necessary) for certain environmental events to occur.

Sensitive periods allow for development to occur but are not strictly limited in time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is Bronfenbrenner’s ecological theory?

A

A theory that describes development as involving interactions between a person and their environment, distinguishing between five environmental systems.

This theory emphasizes the importance of multiple environmental layers affecting development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does the microsystem include?

A

The child’s immediate environment, including relationships with parents, siblings, friends, and others at home, school, and church.

The microsystem represents the most direct influences on a child’s development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the mesosystem?

A

It refers to interactions between elements of the child’s microsystem, such as family relationships affecting school interactions.

The mesosystem highlights the connections between different microsystems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What elements are included in the exosystem?

A

Elements that affect the child’s immediate environment, including parents’ workplaces, extended family, and community health services.

The exosystem includes influences that are not directly experienced by the child but still impact their development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Define the macrosystem.

A

The social and cultural environment, including cultural practices, economic conditions, and political ideologies.

The macrosystem encompasses broader societal factors that influence development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the chronosystem?

A

Environmental events that occur over a person’s lifespan and impact development and circumstances, such as parental divorce or natural disasters.

The chronosystem considers the timing and duration of life events and their effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is fetal programming?

A

The theory that environmental events in utero during sensitive windows of development can have permanent and long-lasting effects.

Fetal programming emphasizes the importance of prenatal conditions on long-term health.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Who is associated with the fetal origins hypothesis?

A

Barker and colleagues, who found links between prenatal undernutrition and increased risk for coronary heart disease and type 2 diabetes in adulthood.

Barker’s research laid the foundation for understanding how prenatal conditions affect lifelong health.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What adaptations occur due to undernutrition during prenatal development?

A

Adaptations that sustain a fetus’s development in utero but permanently change the structure and function of organ systems.

These adaptations may predispose the offspring to future health problems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

True or False: Prenatal exposure to environmental factors has been linked to increased risk for certain health disorders.

A

True.

Research indicates that various prenatal exposures can lead to both physical and mental health issues later in life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is one mechanism that explains the link between maternal stress in utero and future health risks?

A

Prenatal programming of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis.

The HPA axis is involved in stress response and can influence cardiovascular, metabolic, and mental health outcomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the average heritability estimate for intelligence?

A

0.50

This estimate varies with age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How does the heritability estimate for intelligence change with age?

A
  • About 0.20 for infants
  • About 0.40 for children and adolescents
  • 0.60 to 0.80 for early and middle adulthood
  • 0.60 for adults over 80 years of age

These estimates indicate an increasing genetic influence with age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What type of studies confirm the influence of genetics on intelligence?

A
  • Twin studies
  • Family studies
  • Adoption studies

These studies show that genetic factors significantly affect intelligence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What do adoption studies reveal about the correlation of IQ scores?

A

Children’s IQ scores correlate more with biological parents than adoptive parents.

This correlation increases as adopted children age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the concept of active genotype-environment correlation?

A

Niche-picking, where individuals seek experiences that fit their genetic predispositions.

This explains the increasing influence of genetics on intelligence over the lifespan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How do shared environmental factors influence intelligence across the lifespan?

A
  • Large influence in early childhood
  • Decreases during adolescence and early adulthood
  • Stabilizes at a low level in middle and late adulthood

Non-shared factors maintain a relatively low influence throughout the lifespan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the correlation coefficient for identical twins reared together?

A

0.85

This indicates a strong genetic influence on IQ.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What correlation coefficient is observed for fraternal twins reared together?

A

0.58

This is lower than that of identical twins, indicating less genetic similarity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Define behavioral genetics.

A

The study of how genetic variation affects psychological traits, including cognitive abilities and personality.

Behavioral genetics often uses data from twin, adoption, and twin-adoption studies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the purpose of twin studies in behavioral genetics?

A

To compare correlation coefficients of traits between monozygotic and dizygotic twins.

A significant difference supports the influence of genetics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What assumption underlies twin studies?

A

The equal environment assumption, which posits that monozygotic and dizygotic twins have similar environments.

This assumption has been challenged by evidence of differing treatment by parents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Why are adoption studies considered more powerful than twin studies?

A

They do not rely on the equal environment assumption.

This allows for clearer distinctions between genetic and environmental influences.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What do twin-adoption studies combine?

A

The strengths of twin studies and adoption studies.

They compare traits of monozygotic twins reared together and apart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does a similar correlation coefficient for twins reared together and apart suggest?

A

Genetics has a greater impact on the trait than environmental factors.

A substantial difference indicates strong environmental influences.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is genotype-environment correlation?

A

A person’s genetic make-up affects their characteristics directly and indirectly by influencing their environments

Proposed by Scarr and colleagues, it includes passive, evocative, and active correlations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the three types of genotype-environment correlations?

A
  • Passive genotype-environment correlation
  • Evocative genotype-environment correlation
  • Active genotype-environment correlation

These correlations describe how genetic predispositions interact with environmental factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is passive genotype-environment correlation?

A

Occurs when children inherit genes that predispose them to certain characteristics and are exposed to supportive environments provided by their parents

Example: Sociable children of sociable parents who provide social opportunities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Define evocative genotype-environment correlation.

A

A child’s genetic make-up evokes reactions from others that reinforce their genetic traits

Example: A sociable child encourages social responses from others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is active genotype-environment correlation?

A

Also known as niche-picking, it occurs when children actively seek experiences that fit their genetic predispositions

Example: Sociable children seeking social interactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How does the importance of genotype-environment correlations change over time?

A

Passive and evocative types are most important in infancy and early childhood, while active type becomes more important as children gain independence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is reaction range?

A

The range of possible outcomes for certain traits influenced by genetic make-up and environmental factors

Example: A child with a mild intellectual disability may have better outcomes in a rich environment than one with a severe disability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What does canalization refer to?

A

The tendency for genetic make-up to restrict developmental outcomes regardless of environmental circumstances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is Dynamic Systems Theory (DST)?

A

A theory that emphasizes the interaction of biology, environment, self-control, social interactions, and cognitive representation in development

Advocates include Thelen and colleagues, who studied motor skill development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are rhythmic stereotypies in the context of DST?

A

Simple repetitive behaviors that precede the emergence of voluntary complex behaviors

Examples include kicking and reaching that lead to crawling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How do individual characteristics affect motor milestone development?

A

Motor milestones emerge in sequence but develop variably based on infant characteristics, environmental factors, and the infant’s goals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is epigenetics?

A

The study of changes in organisms caused by modifications in gene expression rather than changes in the genetic code

Epigenetic mechanisms can alter phenotype without changing genotype.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is DNA methylation?

A

The addition of a methyl group to DNA that prevents certain genes from being expressed

It is one of the best-understood epigenetic mechanisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What environmental factors can cause epigenetic changes?

A
  • Diet
  • Environmental pollutants
  • Child abuse

These factors can modify gene expression and lead to phenotypic changes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Can epigenetic changes be passed down to future generations?

A

Yes, certain epigenetic changes can be inherited by descendants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are the three periods of prenatal development?

A
  1. Germinal period
  2. Embryonic period
  3. Fetal period
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the germinal period?

A

Extends from conception to the end of the second week when the zygote implants on the uterine wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What happens if there is exposure to teratogens during the germinal period?

A

Has an ‘all-or-none’ effect; significant damage prevents implantation, while little or no effect allows implantation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the embryonic period?

A

Extends from the third through the eighth weeks, during which major organs and structures are forming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Why is the embryonic period critical regarding teratogen exposure?

A

Exposure is most likely to cause major defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the fetal period?

A

Begins when major organs have formed and extends from weeks 9 through birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are the effects of teratogens during the fetal period?

A

Most likely to cause minor defects or abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the age of viability?

A

The earliest age at which a premature baby can survive outside the womb, occurring between 22 and 26 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the three trimesters of pregnancy?

A
  1. First trimester (weeks 1-13)
  2. Second trimester (weeks 14-27)
  3. Third trimester (week 28-birth)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are chromosomal abnormalities?

A

Include chromosomal deletions, extra chromosomes, and missing chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is Prader-Willi syndrome caused by?

A

A deletion on the paternal chromosome 15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are common symptoms of Prader-Willi syndrome?

A

Narrow forehead, almond-shaped eyes, short stature, hypotonia, global developmental delays, hyperphagia, obesity, hypogonadism, intellectual disabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is Angelman syndrome usually caused by?

A

A deletion on the maternal chromosome 15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

List symptoms of Angelman syndrome.

A
  • Microcephaly
  • Wide jaw and pointed chin
  • Severe developmental delays
  • Communication and intellectual disabilities
  • Hyperactivity
  • Ataxia
  • Seizures
  • Hand-flapping
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is Cri-du-chat syndrome caused by?

A

A deletion on chromosome 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are symptoms of Cri-du-chat syndrome?

A
  • High-pitched cry
  • Intellectual disability
  • Developmental delays
  • Microcephaly
  • Low birth weight
  • Weak muscle tone
  • Characteristic facial features
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What causes Klinefelter syndrome?

A

Presence of two or more X chromosomes in addition to a single Y chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are symptoms of Klinefelter syndrome?

A
  • Incomplete development of secondary sex characteristics
  • Gynecomastia
  • Low testosterone
  • Long arms and legs
  • Taller than normal
  • Learning disabilities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What causes Turner syndrome?

A

Partial or complete deletion of one of the X chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

List symptoms of Turner syndrome.

A
  • No development of secondary sex characteristics
  • Infertility
  • Short stature
  • Stubby fingers
  • Drooping eyelids
  • Web-like neck
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is Rett syndrome?

A

An X-linked dominant disorder usually caused by mutations in the MECP2 gene, almost exclusively affecting females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are the characteristic symptoms of Rett syndrome?

A
  • Slowed head and brain growth
  • Loss of speech and motor skills
  • Abnormal hand movements
  • Sleep disturbances
  • Breathing abnormalities
  • Seizures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is Down syndrome classified as?

A

An autosomal disorder due to an abnormality on a chromosome that is not a sex chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are the three types of Down syndrome?

A
  1. Trisomy 21
  2. Mosaic trisomy 21
  3. Translocation trisomy 21
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the most common type of Down syndrome?

A

Trisomy 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What causes trisomy 21?

A

Presence of an extra 21 chromosome in all cells of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What are common symptoms of Down syndrome?

A
  • Intellectual disability
  • Hypotonia
  • Short stocky build
  • Wide face
  • Thick tongue
  • Almond-shaped eyes
  • Developmental delays
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What factors increase the risk of having a baby with trisomy 21?

A

Older maternal age, especially after 30 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the cause of translocation trisomy 21?

A

Can be due to an error during cell division or inherited from a parent carrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What are genetic disorders caused by?

A

One or more abnormal genes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What type of genetic disorder is Huntington’s disease?

A

Autosomal dominant disorder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the inheritance probability of Huntington’s disease if one parent has it?

A

50% chance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is the inheritance probability of Huntington’s disease if both parents have it?

A

75% chance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What type of genetic disorder is Phenylketonuria (PKU)?

A

Autosomal recessive disorder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What must happen for a child to inherit PKU?

A

Inherits the PKU gene from both parents.

100
Q

What is the chance of children having PKU if both parents are carriers?

A

25% chance.

101
Q

What amino acid is inadequately metabolized in PKU?

A

Phenylalanine.

102
Q

What is the recommended treatment for PKU?

A

A diet low in phenylalanine.

103
Q

What are some symptoms of untreated PKU?

A
  • Intellectual disability
  • Hyperactivity
  • Seizures
  • Eczema
  • Musty body odor
  • Hypopigmentation
  • Stunted growth
104
Q

What are teratogens?

A

Drugs, diseases, and environmental hazards that cause developmental defects.

105
Q

What factors influence the effects of teratogen exposure?

A
  • Type of teratogen
  • Amount of exposure
  • Time during prenatal development
106
Q

During which weeks is the likelihood of structural damage from teratogens highest?

A

From the third to the eighth week after conception.

107
Q

What disorder can result from prenatal exposure to alcohol?

A

Fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD).

108
Q

What is the most severe disorder under FASD?

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS).

109
Q

What are some symptoms of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS)?

A
  • Small eye openings
  • Thin upper lip
  • impaired physical growth
  • CNS dysfunction
  • Problems with organs
  • Hearing and vision impairments
110
Q

What does Partial Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (pFAS) share with FAS?

A

The same central nervous system dysfunction.

111
Q

What characterizes Alcohol-Related Neurodevelopmental Disorder (ARND)?

A

CNS dysfunction without prominent facial anomalies.

112
Q

What does Alcohol-Related Birth Defects (ARBD) involve?

A

Heart, kidney, vision, and other physical defects.

113
Q

When is prenatal exposure to alcohol most harmful?

A

During the embryonic period (weeks 3 through 8).

114
Q

What effects can prenatal exposure to cocaine have?

A
  • Spontaneous abortion
  • Premature birth
  • Low birth weight
115
Q

What behavioral issues are common in cocaine-exposed infants?

A
  • Irritability
  • Overreactive to stimuli
  • Difficult to calm and feed
116
Q

What problems may children face in school if exposed to cocaine prenatally?

A
  • Motor problems
  • Attention issues
  • Memory problems
  • Behavioral problems
117
Q

What risk factors may influence the consequences of prenatal cocaine exposure?

A
  • Amount and potency of cocaine
  • Exposure to poverty
  • Insensitive caregiving
118
Q

What percentage of its adult weight is a newborn’s brain at birth?

A

25%

119
Q

By what age is a child’s brain approximately 80% of its adult weight?

A

Two years old

120
Q

What is synaptogenesis?

A

The creation of new synapses

121
Q

What process involves the covering of axons in a fatty substance?

A

Myelination

122
Q

At what age does synaptogenesis peak?

A

Two to three years of age

123
Q

What is synaptic pruning?

A

The loss of unused synapses

124
Q

When does the prefrontal cortex reach maturity?

A

Late teens or early to mid-20s

125
Q

At what age does brain weight and volume begin to decrease?

A

Around 30 years of age

126
Q

Which lobes experience the greatest decrease in size with aging?

A

Frontal lobes and parietal lobes

127
Q

What is neurogenesis?

A

The production of new neurons

128
Q

What is the least developed sense at birth?

A

Vision

129
Q

At birth, how far can newborns see compared to normal adults?

A

20 feet what normal adults see at 400 to 600 feet

130
Q

By what age do infants’ visual acuity become similar to that of normal adults?

A

7 or 8 months

131
Q

What type of stimuli do newborns prefer to look at?

A

Patterned stimuli

132
Q

What do infants prefer to look at between one to two months of age?

A

Faces of their mothers and caregivers

133
Q

What are the three types of depth information relied upon for depth perception?

A
  • Kinetic cues
  • Binocular cues
  • Pictorial cues
134
Q

At what age do infants begin to use kinetic cues for depth perception?

A

Three or four weeks of age

135
Q

What changes occur in vision by about 40 years of age?

A

Presbyopia

136
Q

What causes presbyopia?

A

Hardening of the lens of the eye

137
Q

Name one age-related change in vision during middle adulthood.

A
  • Decreased sensitivity to low levels of illumination
  • Slower dark adaptation
  • Increased sensitivity to glare
  • Reduced ability to discriminate between colors
  • Decreased depth perception
138
Q

At what age do newborns’ sensitivity to high-frequency sounds come close to adult levels?

A

By six months of age.

139
Q

What do infants prefer shortly after birth?

A

The voice of their mothers over the voice of a stranger and other sounds.

140
Q

What auditory ability do infants exhibit in the first few days after birth?

A

Auditory localization.

141
Q

When does the ability to localize sounds decrease in infants?

A

Between two and four months of age.

142
Q

When does sound localization improve to nearly adult levels?

A

By about 12 months of age.

143
Q

At what age does hearing start to decline for most adults?

A

About 40 years of age.

144
Q

What is presbycusis?

A

Decreased sensitivity to high-frequency sounds due to aging.

145
Q

Which sounds become difficult to understand due to presbycusis?

A

Women’s and young children’s voices, fricative consonants, and certain non-human sounds.

146
Q

What can exacerbate the effects of presbycusis?

A

Background noise.

147
Q

What is the relationship between age-related hearing loss and neurocognitive disorders?

A

Severity of hearing loss is related to the risk for developing Alzheimer’s disease and other disorders.

148
Q

Which sense is the first to develop in utero?

A

Touch.

149
Q

How do newborns respond to touch on their cheeks?

A

They turn their heads in the direction of the touch.

150
Q

How do newborn male infants respond to pain during circumcision without anesthetic?

A

They cry intensely.

151
Q

What effect does early exposure to painful experiences have on future pain responses?

A

It affects future responses to pain.

152
Q

What did Taddio et al. (1997) find about infants who received no anesthesia during circumcision?

A

They responded more intensely to later vaccinations.

153
Q

How does early exposure to pain affect full-term vs. preterm infants?

A

It heightens responsivity for full-term but dampens it for preterm infants.

154
Q

What is Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)?

A

The unexpected death of an infant under 1 year of age that remains unexplained.

155
Q

What brain abnormalities are associated with SIDS?

A

Serotonin abnormalities in the medulla.

156
Q

List some factors that increase the risk for SIDS.

A
  • Male gender
  • African American or Native American race
  • 6 months of age or younger
  • Premature birth
  • Low birth weight
  • Poor prenatal care
  • Maternal substance use during pregnancy
  • Exposure to cigarette smoke
  • Unsafe sleep practices.
157
Q

List factors that reduce the risk for SIDS.

A
  • Sleeping on the back
  • Breastfeeding
  • Keeping the crib bare
  • Avoiding overheating
  • Sharing a room without bed-sharing
  • Offering a pacifier.
158
Q

What gross motor milestone occurs at 1-3 months?

A

Chin and then chest up in prone position, props on forearms in prone position, rolls to side

These are early developmental movements indicating strength and coordination.

159
Q

At what age do children typically sit with trunk support?

A

4-6 months

Sitting with support is an important milestone indicating core strength development.

160
Q

What is a key gross motor milestone for 7-9 months?

A

Sits without support steadily

This milestone reflects significant progress in balance and stability.

161
Q

Fill in the blank: At 10-12 months, children begin to _______.

A

Creep well

Creeping is a precursor to crawling and walking.

162
Q

What milestone is reached by children at 13-15 months?

A

Walks well, stoops to pick up toy

This indicates improved coordination and mobility.

163
Q

What gross motor skill is achieved at 16-18 months?

A

Runs well

Running is a major developmental step indicating increased strength and coordination.

164
Q

At what age do children typically kick a ball?

A

19-30 months

Kicking a ball demonstrates improved leg coordination and control.

165
Q

What is a milestone for children aged 31-36 months?

A

Balances on one foot for 3 seconds

This skill reflects balance and stability development.

166
Q

True or False: A 4-year-old can hop on one foot two or three times.

A

True

Hopping indicates coordination and strength.

167
Q

Fill in the blank: At 5 years old, children can walk down stairs with _______.

A

Alternating feet and without holding rail

This milestone shows advanced coordination and balance.

168
Q

What does the adolescent growth spurt refer to?

A

The rapid increase in height and weight that marks the beginning of adolescence.

169
Q

At what ages does the adolescent growth spurt typically begin for girls and boys?

A

Girls: 10 or 11 years; Boys: 12 or 13 years.

170
Q

When does the adolescent growth spurt reach its peak velocity?

A

About two years after it starts.

171
Q

How long does the adolescent growth spurt last?

A

Three to four years.

172
Q

What is puberty in relation to the growth spurt?

A

Puberty (sexual maturation) begins before or at about the same time as the growth spurt.

173
Q

True or False: Early onset puberty in boys is associated with higher levels of self-esteem.

A

True.

174
Q

List some positive consequences associated with early onset puberty in boys.

A
  • Higher levels of self-esteem
  • Greater popularity with peers
  • Better athletic skills
175
Q

What negative behaviors are linked to early onset puberty in boys?

A
  • Higher levels of alcohol use
  • Antisocial behavior
  • Precocious sexual behavior
176
Q

What are some negative consequences of early onset puberty in girls?

A
  • Lower levels of self-esteem
  • Poorer academic achievement
  • Higher risk for precocious sexual behavior
  • Higher rates of substance use, depression, anxiety, eating disorders, and disruptive behavior disorders
177
Q

What predictors of early onset puberty in girls were identified by Ellis and Garber (2000)?

A
  • Maternal mood disorder
  • Absence of biological father
  • Presence of stepfather or maternal boyfriend
  • Discordant family relationships
178
Q

What percentage of youth aged 12 to 17 reported drinking alcohol in the past month according to the National Survey of Drug Use and Health (2018)?

A

9.0%.

179
Q

What percentage of youth reported using illicit drugs in the past month according to the National Survey of Drug Use and Health (2018)?

A

8.0%.

180
Q

Fill in the blank: The limbic system develops earlier than the _______.

A

prefrontal cortex.

181
Q

What is the role of the prefrontal cortex in brain development?

A

Involved in planning, decision-making, and impulse control.

182
Q

What factors are considered risk factors for adolescent substance abuse?

A
  • Exposure to stressful life events
  • Parental substance abuse
  • Weak parent-child relationship
  • Affiliation with deviant/substance-involved peers
  • Mental health problems
  • Favorable attitudes toward drug use
  • Poor social skills
  • Academic failures
183
Q

What factors are considered protective factors against adolescent substance abuse?

A
  • Parental disapproval of substance use
  • Supportive parenting
  • Age-appropriate parental monitoring
  • Academic success
  • Involvement in extracurricular activities
  • Positive peer influences
  • Good self-control
  • Religiosity
184
Q

True or False: Adolescents are likely to make decisions based on rational thinking due to brain development.

A

False.

185
Q

What impact does early drug use have on the risk of developing a substance use disorder?

A

Individuals who began using drugs in early adolescence are at greater risk for a substance use disorder.

186
Q

What is chronic sleep deprivation commonly linked to during adolescence?

A

Increased risk for depression, anxiety, substance use, impaired concentration, memory, information processing, and increased physical symptoms like headaches and stomachaches.

187
Q

What combination of factors contributes to adolescent sleep deprivation?

A

Biological, societal, and psychosocial factors.

188
Q

What is the main biological factor causing sleep deprivation in adolescents?

A

Delayed sleep onset due to changes in melatonin secretion during puberty.

189
Q

What societal factor limits the available time for sleep in adolescents?

A

Early starting time for school.

190
Q

What are some psychosocial factors contributing to adolescent sleep deprivation?

A

Greater autonomy over bedtimes, increased academic pressures, excessive screen time.

191
Q

Which two factors have strong research support as contributors to adolescent sleep deprivation?

A

Early school start time and excessive screen time.

192
Q

How does excessive screen time affect adolescent sleep?

A

It can exacerbate delayed sleep onset by suppressing melatonin production.

193
Q

What has contemporary research focused on regarding sexual orientation?

A

Biological factors.

194
Q

What have studies found about monozygotic twins and sexual orientation?

A

Monozygotic twins are more likely than dizygotic twins to have the same sexual orientation.

195
Q

How does the impact of genetics on sexual orientation differ between genders?

A

It is stronger for males than for females.

196
Q

What is the fraternal birth order effect in relation to sexual orientation?

A

The likelihood that a boy will be gay increases for each older brother born to the same mother.

197
Q

What hypothesis explains the fraternal birth order effect?

A

The maternal immune hypothesis.

198
Q

What does sexual fluidity refer to?

A

Changes in a person’s sexual attractions and/or behaviors over time and in different situations.

199
Q

Is sexual fluidity the same as bisexuality?

A

No, sexual fluidity is transient and situation dependent, while bisexuality involves a stable pattern of attraction to both genders.

200
Q

In which gender is sexual fluidity somewhat more common?

A

Women.

201
Q

What is temperament?

A

Genetically based but also environmentally influenced tendencies to respond in predictable ways to events that serve as the building blocks of personality

Sigelman & Rider, 2015, p. 336

202
Q

How stable is temperament over time?

A

Generally low to moderate stability, becoming more stable after three years of age

Roberts & DelVecchio, 2000

203
Q

What are the nine dimensions used by Thomas and Chess to describe temperament?

A

Activity level, distractibility, adaptability, intensity of reaction, and others

They conceptualized temperament through these dimensions.

204
Q

What are the three groups of children identified by Thomas and Chess?

A
  • Easy children
  • Slow-to-warm-up children
  • Difficult children
205
Q

Describe the characteristics of Easy children.

A

Positive mood, adapt easily to new people and situations, tolerate frustration, regular feeding and sleeping routines.

206
Q

Describe the characteristics of Slow-to-warm-up children.

A

Mildly negative mood, take time to adapt to new people and situations, low levels of activity, moderately regular feeding and sleeping routines.

207
Q

Describe the characteristics of Difficult children.

A

Negative mood, cry frequently, respond negatively to new people and situations, very active, irregular feeding and sleeping routines.

208
Q

What is the goodness-of-fit model proposed by Thomas and Chess?

A

A child’s behavioral and emotional outcomes are affected by the match between the child’s temperament and the demands of the social environment.

209
Q

How can infants with a difficult temperament become more adaptable?

A

If their parents provide a stable environment and allow slow responses to new experiences.

210
Q

What does Rothbart describe as temperament?

A

Constitutional differences in reactivity and self-regulation influenced by heredity, maturation, and experience

Rothbart & Derryberry, 1981, p. 37

211
Q

What is reactivity according to Rothbart?

A

Responsivity of biological processes determined by latency, duration, and intensity of responses to stimuli.

212
Q

What are the two factors of reactivity identified by Rothbart?

A
  • Surgency/extraversion
  • Negative affectivity
213
Q

Define surgency/extraversion.

A

Characterized by high activity level, intense pleasure seeking, and low shyness.

214
Q

Define negative affectivity.

A

Characterized by mood instability and tendencies to be sad, fearful, and irritable.

215
Q

What does self-regulation refer to in Rothbart’s model?

A

Processes that facilitate, maintain, and inhibit reactivity.

216
Q

What is effortful control?

A

The ability to inhibit a dominant response to perform a subdominant response

Rothbart, 2011, p. 57

217
Q

What did Kagan focus on in his research?

A

The temperamental characteristic of behavioral inhibition (BI).

218
Q

How is behavioral inhibition (BI) characterized?

A

Tendency to respond to unfamiliar people and situations with negative affect and withdrawal.

219
Q

What has longitudinal research shown about continuity in BI?

A

Evidence of both continuity and discontinuity, with greater continuity in individuals with high levels of BI.

220
Q

What risks are associated with high levels of behavioral inhibition?

A
  • Increased risk for anxiety
  • Depression
  • Poorer social functioning
221
Q

What correlation exists between parents of children with BI and anxiety disorders?

A

Parents had higher rates of childhood anxiety disorders and continuing anxiety disorders in adulthood

Svihra & Katzman, 2004; Tang et al., 2020

222
Q

What are the five stages of Freud’s psychosexual development?

A
  1. Oral
  2. Anal
  3. Phallic
  4. Latency
  5. Genital

Each stage focuses on a different area of the body and impacts personality development.

223
Q

What is fixation in Freud’s theory?

A

A condition resulting from excessive gratification or frustration of a child’s impulses during a psychosexual stage, affecting later outcomes.

For example, fixation at the oral stage may lead to thumb-sucking or smoking in adulthood.

224
Q

What does Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development emphasize?

A

Social and cultural influences on personality development throughout the lifespan.

It consists of eight stages, each involving a different psychosocial conflict.

225
Q

What are the eight stages of Erikson’s psychosocial development?

A
  1. Trust vs. Mistrust
  2. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
  3. Initiative vs. Guilt
  4. Industry vs. Inferiority
  5. Identity vs. Role Confusion
  6. Intimacy vs. Isolation
  7. Generativity vs. Stagnation
  8. Integrity vs. Despair

Each stage has associated virtues that indicate successful resolution.

226
Q

What are Baumrind’s four parenting styles?

A
  1. Authoritative
  2. Authoritarian
  3. Permissive
  4. Uninvolved

Each style is characterized by different levels of demandingness and responsiveness.

227
Q

What characterizes authoritative parenting?

A

High demandingness and high responsiveness; establishes rules but respects children’s opinions.

Children tend to be self-confident, independent, and cooperative.

228
Q

True or False: Authoritarian parents are low in both demandingness and responsiveness.

A

False

Authoritarian parents are high in demandingness and low in responsiveness.

229
Q

What are the outcomes for children of permissive parents?

A

Self-centered, immature, rebellious, poor impulse control, low social skills, and low academic achievement.

They are also at increased risk for bullying and being victims of bullying.

230
Q

What are the characteristics of uninvolved parenting?

A

Low in both demandingness and responsiveness; uninvolved in children’s lives and unaware of their needs.

Children often have the worst outcomes, including low self-esteem and self-control.

231
Q

What is rank-order stability in personality development?

A

Indicates the relative positions of several personality traits over time.

It reflects how individuals maintain their relative standing in personality traits throughout their lives.

232
Q

What are the predictable mean-level changes in personality traits during adulthood?

A
  • Neuroticism decreases
  • Extraversion remains stable or decreases slightly
  • Openness to experience remains stable or decreases slightly
  • Agreeableness increases
  • Conscientiousness increases

These changes reflect shifts in personality traits as people age.

233
Q

What is self-awareness?

A

The capacity to realize that one is a distinct individual, separate from others.

It is a crucial first step in identity development.

234
Q

What does the mirror self-recognition test assess?

A

Self-awareness in babies and toddlers.

Children pass the test by touching their own noses or cheeks when they see their reflection.

235
Q

At what age do most children pass the mirror self-recognition test?

A

18 to 24 months.

Children with developmental delays may pass at a later age.

236
Q

What are the stages of self-understanding during childhood?

A
  1. Early childhood: Gender and age
  2. Middle childhood: Personality traits and social comparisons
  3. Adolescence: Abstract qualities and values

Self-descriptions evolve as children grow.

237
Q

What are the three stages of Kohlberg’s cognitive developmental theory of gender identity?

A
  1. Gender identity
  2. Gender stability
  3. Gender constancy

These stages outline how children understand their own and others’ gender.

238
Q

How does social cognitive theory explain gender identity development?

A

Through observation, imitation, and differential reinforcement of gender-appropriate behaviors.

Children learn gender roles by watching others and receiving rewards for conforming.

239
Q

What is Bem’s gender schema theory?

A

Children organize gender-typed experiences into schemas that guide their behavior and perceptions.

By age 3, children often have established schemas for toys.

240
Q

What does Egan and Perry’s multidimensional model identify as components of gender identity?

A
  • Membership knowledge
  • Gender typicality
  • Gender contentedness
  • Felt pressure
  • Intergroup bias

These components relate to an individual’s adjustment and self-esteem.

241
Q

What is psychological androgyny according to Bem?

A

The integration of both masculine and feminine traits in an individual.

Androgynous individuals are better at adapting their behavior to situations.

242
Q

What are the four identity statuses in Marcia’s model?

A
  • Identity diffusion
  • Identity foreclosure
  • Identity moratorium
  • Identity achievement

These statuses represent different combinations of identity crisis and commitment.

243
Q

What is identity foreclosure?

A

A strong commitment to a particular identity as a result of accepting the values, goals, and preferences of parents or authority figures.

This concept suggests that individuals may not explore other identities before committing to one.

244
Q

What characterizes identity moratorium?

A

Experiencing an identity crisis but not yet committing to an identity.

This stage involves exploration without commitment.

245
Q

What defines identity achievement?

A

Having experienced an identity crisis and developed a strong commitment to a specific identity.

This stage reflects a resolution of the identity crisis.

246
Q

According to Marcia’s model, how does identity formation vary?

A

It occurs at different rates for different aspects of identity, such as:
* Occupational choice
* Political ideology
* Religious beliefs

This indicates that identity development is not uniform across all areas of life.

247
Q

True or False: Individuals may recycle through identity moratorium and achievement during adulthood.

A

True

This suggests that identity formation is a dynamic process rather than a linear one.

the EPPPi pen (30 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions