Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

OD2 (S1&2) > PHARM - Oral Medications and the Eye - Week 6 > Flashcards

PHARM - Oral Medications and the Eye - Week 6 Flashcards

1
Q

What route of drug administration is more likely to cause adverse effects?

A

Oral and injectables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How do topical eye drugs enter the blood stream (3)? Give percentages.

A

Direct absorption across the conjunctival blood vessels (30%)
Draining via naso-lacrimal duct, into nasal cavity, and eventually the gut (70%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What absorption mode can give direct access to the CNS? Is it fast or slow?

A

Cross membranes of the olfactory nerve, is fast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

True or false
All topical eye drops/ointments will be absorbed into the bloodstream.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the double D method for minimising systemic eye drug absorption. Explain why it works briefly.
By how much does this reduce systemic absorption?

A

Dont open eyes for 1-2 mins (minimises conjunctival flow)
Digital puncta occlusion (reduces punctal access)
Reduces [drug] in blood by 65-70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Is it easy for drugs to absorb into the cornea?

A

No, its a challenge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the best formulary for corneal absorption? What is a problem with it?

A

Acetate formulary
While it has rapid absorption, it borders on toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the rule of thumb for eye drop formularies in order of use (3)?
Describe the general effect and duration for each formulary (if applicable).

A

Acetate > alcohol&raquo_space; phosphate
Acetates are more toxic but can be at a lower dose that avoids it, the effect is short lived and may require multiple drops.
Phosphates have a slower absorption with longer duration of non-toxic therapeusis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are 6 classes of drugs that optometrists can prescribe?

A

Allergy
Anti-inflammatory
Analgaesics
Antibiotics
Antivirals
Anti-glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How can ocular lubricants be useful as an anti-allergy agent?

A

They can wash/remove/dilute an antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Can vasoconstrictors be used for mild non-specific hyperaemia?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a good agent to use for mild allergic conjunctivitis?

A

Vasoconstrictors like alpha-adrenergic agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Give an example of an alpha-adrenergic vasoconstrictor.

A

Phenylephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What action do astringents have and what are they useful for?

A

They reduce mucoid discharge in allergic surface disease and is a useful anti-allergy agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the hallmark of allergic eye disease?

A

Itch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Mast cell stabilisers are useful as what?

A

Anti-allergy agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What histamine receptors are anti-histamine eye drops selective for?

A

H1 selective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What histamine receptors are mast cell stabiliser eye drops selective for?

A

H1 selective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does pre-treatment with mast cell stabiliser eye drops result in?

A

Minimises expression of allergic eye disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Are anti-inflammatory agents also anti-allergy?

A

Generally yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do NSAIDs work in the eye (3)? What agent do they act as?

A

Inhibit COX enzymes, decreasing prostaglandin synthesis, and reducing prostaglandin mediated inflammation.
They are anti-inflammatory agents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Corticosteroids inhibit what pathway?

A

Intracellular receptor mediated inhibition of inflammatory cascade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Corticosteroids inhibit the activity of what two cells in the eye?

A

Fibroblast and keratocyte activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

List two examples of antimetabolites and what agents they act as.

A

Calcineurin and T-cell inhibitors
As anti-inflammatory agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is a good rule of thumb on treating eye inflammation?

A

If it is no deeper than the iris, topical therapy should suffice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What should be considered if inflammation is deeper than the iris (4)?

A

Oral, intraocular/sub-conj./sub-Tenon’s injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The use of what drug class will control post-op cystoid macular oedema? Describe why.

A

Topical use of NSAIDs
It inhibits PG production in the anterior eye, rather than the retina, and will reduce overall ocular PG load at the posterior pole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Are steroid complications more or less likely with long duration of use?

A

More likely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Does topical steroid use promote or inhibit microbial activity? How does it affect would healing?

A

Promotes microbial activity
Delays would healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

List 5 ocular related adverse effects that occurs with long-term topical steroid use.

A

Increased IOP - glaucoma
Cystoid macular oedema
Rebound inflammation
Aggravated dry eye
Cataract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How should steroids generally be used?

A

Use them hard to suppress inflammation but only for short terms <4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

List 3 ocular related adverse effects that occurs with long-term periocular steroid use.

A

-as for topical use
Ptosis
Scleral melt and perforation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

List 6 adverse effects that occurs with long-term oral/systemic steroid use.

A

Weight gain
Peptic ulcer
Opsteoporosis
Diabetes
Hypertension
Cushing syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Describe a possible dietary link to inflammation. Comment on essential fatty acids 3 and 6, as well as the Western diet in this context.

A

Cell membranes produce free fatty acids in the presence of PLA2, which is produced in large amounts during inflammation.
n-6 pathway favours pro-inflammatory cytokine production.
n-3 pathway favours anti-inflammatory cytokine production.
The western diet has a high intake of n-6.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What can be used for pain in the case of iritis or uveitis?

A

Cycloplegic agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Is penicillin commonly used in eye care?

A

Rarely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the second line drug for most eye/eyelid infections? Why?

A

Amoxycillin - due to adverse effects

38
Q

List an adverse effect of amoxycillin.

A

Hypersensitivity reaction - mostly skin rash

39
Q

What is the first choice ophthalmic drug for eye care and why?

A

Cephalosporins due to low adverse effects

40
Q

Are cephalosporins bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

A

Bactericidal

41
Q

List two adverse effects of cephalosporins.

A

Allergy/hypersensitivity
Prolonged use can impair blood clotting

42
Q

What is a possible consequence of using cephalosporins?

A

It can destroy GI bacteria that synthesise vitamin K, which is why long term use can impair blood clotting

43
Q

Given its adverse effects, in which individuals are cephalosporins contraindicated?

A

Haemophiliacs

44
Q

List two examples of macrolides. Are they bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

A

Erythromycin
Azithromycin
Are bacteriostatic

45
Q

Are macrolides used in eye care? Explain.

A

Not generally, as they are bacteriostatic
Good anti-infective for chlamydia however

46
Q

What infection are macrolides good for, how do they work (briefly), and what is the alternative if contraindicated?

A

Good for chlamydia
Work by inhibiting protein synthesis by binding 50S
Tetracyclines the alternative

47
Q

What is the most effective tetracycline in eye disease and why is its use limited?

A

Doxycycline - limited due to bacterial resistance

48
Q

How does doxycycline act.

A

Inhibits protein synthesis by binding 30S

49
Q

What tetracycline has the fewest adverse effects?

A

Doxycycline

50
Q

What antibiotic has an effect on meibomian glands and what does it do (2)? How is it used in this context and how long?

A

Doxycycline - alters MG function and tear flims
Used long term (up to 6 months) for dry eye disease

51
Q

What antibiotic has excellent broad spectrum properties and is only reserved for serious corneal infections? What drug class does it call under? Is it bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

A

Ciprofloxacin - bactericidal by inhibiting DNA gyrase

52
Q

What are two corneal adverse effects of ciprofloxacin?

A

Slows corneal healing and promotes perforation

53
Q

What antibiotic drug class is reserved for the more serious eye infections?

A

Fluoroquinolones

54
Q

Briefly explain how guanine analogs work (4) and what they are.

A

They are antivirals.
They are prodrugs that are activated into a monophosphate by viral thymidine kinase
They then undergo phosphorylation to triphosphate by host kinases
It is incorporated into viral DNA, which terminates replication

55
Q

What are guanine analogs activated by and into what form?
What happens it it after that and by what?

A

Viral thymidine kinase to monophosphate form
Phosphorylated to triphosphate by host kinases

56
Q

Why are guanine analogs effective as antivirals?

A

Viruses have fast replication - the effect is large and desirable

57
Q

Why are adverse effects generally minimised when taking guanine analogs?

A

Healthy human cells have slow replication as opposed to viruses, minimising adverse effects

58
Q

What is a common side effect of guanine analogs?

A

Some SPK

59
Q

How can guanine analog side effects be further reduced?

A

Effects on human cells can be reduced by using them for a limited time

60
Q

What are three indications for guanine analog use?

A

Treatment/prevention of herpes simplex virus
Shingles
Chickenpox in immunocompromised individuals

61
Q

How are drugs for herpetic eye infection administered? Can oral be used for acute treatment?

A

As an ointment
Oral not used for acute treatment

62
Q

Give two examples of a guanine analog.
Which has better absorption/bioavailability?

A

Acyclovir and famcyclovir
Famcyclovir has better basorption and bioavailability

63
Q

When treating shingles, within what timeframe of symptom onset must the treatment be started?

A

Within 72h of symptoms manifesting

64
Q

Which has a better safety profile, acyclovir or famcyclovir?

A

Famcyclovir fam

65
Q

Is famcyclovir available in Australia for eye treatment>

A

No fam, just acyclovir

66
Q

Which is more cost effective - oral acyclovir tablets or acyclovir ointment? Explain.

A

Oral therapy is more expensive and not cost effective over ointment - EXCEPT in children

67
Q

Name two ways IOP can be lowered.

A

Decreasing aqueous production
Increasing drainage

68
Q

How can aqueous production be lowered (2)?

A

By targetting adrenergics aB and carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

69
Q

List 6 reasons why children rceive excess dosage (if going by adult doses).

A

Smaller eye
Greater absorption of drugs in children
Immature metabolic pathways
Dose not tailored for children’s mass
Eye dropper volume is too large for children
Smaller blood volume gives greater circulating dose

70
Q

What magnitude does a child’s smaller blood volume increase circulating drug dose?

A

x20

71
Q

What drugs are safe for children >2 years of age (2)?

A

All of them except anti-histamines

72
Q

What glaucoma medications should be avoided in children (2)?

A

Avoid alpha agonists if <2
Avoid beta blockers

73
Q

What are two danger signs with kids?

A

Loss of vision
Fever (red eye)

74
Q

Most childhood red eyes are what?

A

Viral infection

75
Q

What is an intense sudden onset of pain indicative of?

A

FB/abrasion

76
Q

If a child has an abrasion, is patching recommended?

A

No

77
Q

What is a good way to see if anaesthetic has been administered onto a crying child’s eye?

A

Fluorescein/anaesthetic combo - load it onto the crying eye and use fluorescein to check

78
Q

What is recommended for pain in children (in their eye obviously)? If it doesn’t resolve after 24h, what is recommended?

A

Homatropine
If unimproved after 24h, suspect internal FB

79
Q

What should you always consider if a child has pain in their eyes?

A

Internal FB

80
Q

What is a common cause of naso-lacrimal duct obstruction in children?

A

Age related imperforate membrane at distal end

81
Q

What should not be missed concerning a naso-lacrimal duct dysfunction?
What is it, and what is the recommended action (3)? Are antibiotics given?
What if it hasnt resolved after 13 months?

A

Red, purulent discharge from the duct
Indicates dacryoadenitis
Needs parental reassurance of 90% remittance by 1 year
Lid hygiene, heat/massage
No antibiotics are given
Probe or refer if unresolved after 13 months

82
Q

What is advised for insect bites?

A

Anti-histamines

83
Q

Are antibiotics used for children with conjunctivitis? What is the best therapy? Why is this so (2)?

A

Yesd
Best therapy is delayed antibiotic (3 day)
Produces less drug resistance and allows the body to heal

84
Q

True or false
All eye drops will cross the placenta and have the potential to harm to foetus.

A

True

85
Q

Are all anti-infectives safe to use in pregnancy and lactation?

A

Yes

86
Q

Are NSAIDs a concern for pregnant women?

A

Short term low dose - no

87
Q

Are steroids safe to use in pregnancy?

A

Category A is safe

88
Q

What can be said of glaucoma and anti-glaucoma drugs in pregnant women by trimester?

A

IOP usually decreases in the 2nd and 3rd trimesters due to hormonal effects
Initial high IOP is acceptable

89
Q

Are dilating drops safe to use in pregnant women?

A

Yesd

90
Q

True or false
All drugs secrete into breast milk with potential for side effects.

A

True

91
Q

If a mother is taking b-blockers while lactating, what must be done?

A

Child’s pulse must be monitored for bradycardia

OD2 (S1&2) (174 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions