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BOARDS specific notecards > pharm 1 liner- star (not blue) > Flashcards

pharm 1 liner- star (not blue) Flashcards

1
Q

non-selective beta blocker that lacks local anesthetic activity, indicated for glaucoma

A

timolol

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2
Q

2 parameters to obtain before initiation of statins

A

LFTs, creatine kinase

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3
Q

class 3 antiarrythmic that exhibits properties of all 4 classes

A

amiodarone

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4
Q

anti epileptic drug used also for pain of neuropathic origin

A

gabapentin

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5
Q

opioid safe for use of analgesia and anesthesia during cardiac surgery

A

fentanyl

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6
Q

prostaglandin analog used as 2nd life for erectile dysfunction

A

alprostadil (PGE1)

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7
Q

life-threatening side effect associated with typical antipsychotic drugs

A

neuroleptic malignant syndrome

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8
Q

synthetic huuman corticotropin used for diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency

A

cosyntropin

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9
Q

first line drug for treatment of type 2 diabetes

A

metformin

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10
Q

side effect of alpha blockers

A

orthostatic hypotension (especially with first dose) and reflex tachycardia

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11
Q

drug of choice for N. gonorrhea

A

ceftriaxone

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12
Q

2 side effects of HMG COA reductase inhibitors

A

rhabdomyolysis and hepatotoxicity

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13
Q

side effects of thiazide diuretics

A

hyperuricemia, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, hyperlipidemia, and hyperglycemia

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14
Q

cheap wide spectrum antibiotic drug of choice for otitis media

A

amoxicillin

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15
Q

active ingredient in tetrahydrocannabinol (THC); side effects include impairment of judgment, altered sense of time, increased appetite, and hallucinations

A

marijuana

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16
Q

an electrolyte that is lost in the urine by acute treatment with loop diuretics but can be retained by thiazides

A

calcium

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17
Q

antidote for opioid toxicity

A

naloxone (IV)

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18
Q

agent used to stimulate uterine contraction and labor, milk letdowns, and control postpartum bleeding

A

oxytocin

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19
Q

antarrtythmic effective in most topics of arrhythmia

A

amiodarone

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20
Q

agent of choice for treatment of hypothyroidism

A

levothyroxine (T4)

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21
Q

5HT-1D/1B agonist used for migraine headaches

A

sumatriptan and -triptans

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22
Q

androgen receptor agonist used to treat hypogonadism and promote secondary sex characteristics

A

testosterone

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23
Q

side effects of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors

A

dry cough, hyperkalemia, angioedema

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24
Q

antineoplastic with G2 phase cell cycle selectivity

A

bleomycin

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25
Q

mechanism of action of sulfonamides

A

inhibit dihydropteroite synthase

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26
Q

side effects of loop diuretics

A

hyperurecemia, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis and ototoxicity

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27
Q

mechanism of a action of sildenafil

A

inhibits phosphodiesterase-5, enhancing effects of nitric oxide-activated increase in cGMP

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28
Q

drug used for MRSA

A

vancomycin

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29
Q

neurological abnormality caused by chronic alcohol use and thiamine deficiency

A

wernicke-korsakoff syndorme

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30
Q

side effects of acetazolamide

A

paresthesias, alkalization of urine, hypokalemia, metabolic acidosis, and encephalopathy in patients with hepatic impairment

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31
Q

anti epileptic drug that can induce CYP450, is teratogenic, and can cause diplopia, ataxia and blood dycrasias; follows first order kinetics of elimination

A

carbamazepine

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32
Q

calcium channel blockers with predominate effect on arteriole dilation

A

nifedipine, amlodipine, nimodipine (dihydropyridines)

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33
Q

drug of choice for herpes and its mechanism of action

A

acyclovir; activated by viral thymidine kinase, inhibits viral DNA replication

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34
Q

anti epileptic drug that can cause fatal hepatotoxicity and neural tube defects

A

valproic acid

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35
Q

mechanism of action of cromolyn

A

prevent mast cell degranulation (by blocking opening of Cl- channels)

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36
Q

synthetic ergot derivatie that can produce perceptual hallucinations and used as an illicit drug; may cause paranoia

A

LSD (lysergic acid diethyl amide)

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37
Q

life threatening cardiac event that prolong QT leads to

A

torsades de pointes

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38
Q

1st generation antihistamine that is highly sedating

A

diphenhydramine

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39
Q

2 main actions of acetaminophen

A

antipyretic and analgesic activity

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40
Q

three nonbenzodiazepine hypnotics that lack suppressive effect on REM and are preferred over benzodiazepines for treatment of insomnia

A

zolpidem, zaleplon, eszopiclone

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41
Q

time it takes for amount of drug to fall to half of its value, constant in first order kinetics

A

half life

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42
Q

DMARDs are slow acting drugs for this indication

A

rheumatic disease

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43
Q

side effect of stall

A

prolongs QT interval

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44
Q

intermediate acting insulin with variable pharmacokinetics; use is mostly replaced by long-acting insulin

A

neutral protamine hagedorn (NPH) insulin

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45
Q

side effects of calcium channel blockers

A

constipation, peripheral edema, cardiac depression, AV block

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46
Q

mechanism of action of fluroquinolones

A

inhibit DNA gyrate (topoisomerase II) and topoisomerase IV

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47
Q

side effects more commonly associated with high potency typical antipsychotic drugs

A

dystonia, akathisia, bradykinesia, tardive dyskinesia (extrapyramidal symptoms)

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48
Q

antidote for organophosphate/anticholinesterase poisoning

A

atropine, pralidoxime (2-PAM)

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49
Q

class of drugs that may cause cross sensitivity with thiazide diuretics

A

sulfonamides

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50
Q

drug of choice for absence seizures

A

ethosuximide

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51
Q

vitamin K dependent anti-coagulant with zero-order kinetics of elimination

A

warfarin (PT)

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52
Q

meningitis prophylaxis in exposed patients

A

rifampin

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53
Q

angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors are contraindicated in

A

pregnancy, hyperkalemia

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54
Q

H2 antagonist that causes the most interactions with other drugs

A

cimetidine

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55
Q

antidote for heparin toxicity

A

protamine sulfate

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56
Q

agent used for megaloblastic anemia (but does not refer neurologic symptoms) and decrease neural tube defects during pregnancy

A

folic acid

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57
Q

mechanism of action utilizes intracellular receptors

A

steroid and hormones

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58
Q

inhibits monoamine oxidase type B, used as a monotherpay for early or mild Parkinsons disease or adjunct to improve motor function in patients with fluctuations in clinical response

A

selegiline

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59
Q

most serious side effect of metformin

A

lactic acidosis

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60
Q

inhibitor of lipooxygenase

A

zileuton

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61
Q

drug of choice for RSV

A

ribavirin

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62
Q

prostaglandin analog used in pediatrics to maintain potency of ductus arteriosis

A

alprostadil (PGE1)

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63
Q

antidepressant that inhibits serotonin reuptake but also antagonizes 5HT-2 receptors; causes priapism

A

trazodone

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64
Q

used in treatment of muscarinic symptoms in organophosphate overdose

A

atropine

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65
Q

alpha 1a-selective blocker used for benign prostatic hyperplasia

A

tamsulosin

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66
Q

may be used intranasally to decreases bone resorption

A

calcitonin (salmon prep)

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67
Q

toxicity of cholinergic

A

DUMBELSS (diarrhea, urination, mitosis, bronchoconstriction, excitation of skeletal muscle and CNS, lacrimation, salivation, sweating)

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68
Q

produce mydriasis and cycloplegia

A

atropine, anti-muscarinics

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69
Q

antimuscarinic for the treatment of motion sickness

A

scopolamine

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70
Q

5HT-3 antagonist used for prevention of chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting

A

ondansetron and -setrons

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71
Q

treatments available for nicotine addiction

A

patch, gum, lozenge, bupropion, varenicline

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72
Q

limiting side effect of class 1a and 3 antiarrythmics

A

prolongs QT interval

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73
Q

inactivated by angiotensin converting enzyme, contributes to dry cough and angioedema

A

bradykinin

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74
Q

side effect of procainamide

A

systemic lupus-like syndrome

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75
Q

prostaglandin 2 alpha analog used to increase aqueous humor outflow

A

latanoprost

76
Q

antidepressant that non-selectively inhibits neuronal reuptake; less likely to cause sedation, autonomic, cardiovascular or sexual dysfunction; also used for smoking cessation

A

bupropion

77
Q

opioid that can be given PO, IV, IM and intrathecal to relieve anxiety associated with pulmonary edema

A

morphine

78
Q

diuretic used as prophylactic for mountain sickness and glaucoma

A

acetazolamide

79
Q

mechanism of action of opioids on analgesia

A

activate mu receptors to 1. close presynaptic calcium channels to inhibit neurotransmitter release; 2. open postsynaptic potassium channels to hyper polarize cell emmbrane

80
Q

quadruple therapy for treatment of tuberculosis

A

rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol

81
Q

mechanism of action of class 1 antiarrythmics

A

sodium channel blockers

82
Q

agent used for pernicious anemia

A

cyanocobalamin (vitamine B12)

83
Q

three main classes of CNS depressant drugs of abuse

A

alcohol, opioid, barbiturate/benzodiazepine

84
Q

first line drug for classic bipolar disorder with euphoric mania

A

lithium

85
Q

alpha 1 agonist toxicity

A

hypertension

86
Q

atypical antipsychotic that can produce potentially fatal agranulocytosis and increase incidence of seizures

A

clozapine

87
Q

beta blockers effect on the heart in abtianginal therapy

A

reduce heart rate, blood pressure, contractility, and increase end-diastolic volume

88
Q

induces of CYP450

A

rifampin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine, phenytoin, St Johns wort

89
Q

moderate opioid agonist

A

codeine, hydrocodone, and oxycodone

90
Q

diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure

A

mannitol

91
Q

this class of drugs inhibit angiotensin-converting enzyme

A

ACE inhibitors

92
Q

2 date rape drugs that work through enhancement of GABA receptors in the brain

A

flunitrazepam, GHB

93
Q

carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used to decrease aqueous humor production

A

acetazolamide

94
Q

inhibitors of CYP450

A

macrocodes, ketoconazole, ritonavir, cimetidine, grapefruit juice, quinidine, amiodarone

95
Q

methyldoa is contraindicated in

A

geriatrics due to its CNS (depression) effects

96
Q

specific side effect of heparin

A

heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)

97
Q

antimuscarinic that treats parkinsonism and extrapyramidal disease

A

benztropine

98
Q

mechanism of action of statins

A

inhibits HMG COA reductase

99
Q

side effects of lithium

A

tremor, hypothyroidism, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, fetal cardiac defects

100
Q

alpha 2 agonist used in pregnant women with hypertension

A

methyldopa

101
Q

drug of choice for giardia, entamoeba, pseudomembranous colitis (C. diff) and trichomonad

A

metronidazole

102
Q

calcium channel blockers with predominant effect on the heart

A

verapamil, diltiazem (non-dihydropyridines)

103
Q

anemia caused by trimethoprim

A

megaloblastic anemia

104
Q

this agent has greater affinity for muscarinic receptors and used for postoperative and neurogenic ileum and urianry retention

A

bethanechol

105
Q

mechanism of action utilizes transmembrane receptors that have intrinsic enzymatic activity

A

insulin, EGF, TGFbeta, PDGF, ANP

106
Q

antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity

A

flumazenil

107
Q

drug of choice for myoclonic seizures that may also be used for absence seizures

A

valproic acid

108
Q

mechanism of action of class 3 antiarrythmics

A

potassium channel blockers

109
Q

prostaglandins that cause abortions

A

prostaglandin E1 (misoprostol), PGE2, and PGF2alpha

110
Q

side effects of phenytoin

A

gingival hyperplasia, nystagmus, diplopia and ataxia

111
Q

indications for thrombolytics

A

pulmonary embolism, severe deep vein thrombosis

112
Q

anti-bacterials that cause hemolysis in G6PD-deficient patients

A

sulfonamides

113
Q

site of action of thiazide diuretics

A

early distal consulted tubule

114
Q

antimuscarinic that causes bronchodilation in asthma and COPD

A

ipratropium, tiotropium

115
Q

drug of choice for partial seizures

A

carbamazepine

116
Q

common endocrine side effects of all typical antipsychotic drugs

A

hyperprolactinemia, galactorrhea,

117
Q

its ability to vasoconstrictor and increased BP makes it useful as local decongestant and for the therapy of spinal shock (temporary maintenance of blood pressure)

A

alpha 1 agonists

118
Q

agent used for anemias (especially with renal failure)

A

erythropoietin

119
Q

three 2nd generation antihistamines

A

fexofenadine, loratadine, and cetirizine

120
Q

common side effect of rifampin

A

orange urine discoloration

121
Q

diuretic used to treat primary aldosteronism

A

spironolactone, eplerenone

122
Q

antidote for tissue plasminogen activator (t-Pa), streptokinase

A

aminocaproic acid

123
Q

NSAID that may be used for closure of patent ductus arteriosus

A

indomethacin

124
Q

how grapefruit juice increases statin effect

A

inhibit CYP450 3A4

125
Q

selective alpha 1 blocker used for hypertension, benign prostatic hyperplasia, may cause first dose orthostatic hypotension

A

prazosin, terazosin, doxasozin

126
Q

max physiologic effect a drug is able produce

A

efficacy

127
Q

antidote used for warfarin toxicity

A

vitamin K1 and fresh frozen plasma

128
Q

anti-retroviral class that causes drug interactions by causing inhibition of CYP enzymes

A

protease inhibitors

129
Q

tolerance to all effects of opioid agonists can develop except

A

mitosis, constipation

130
Q

5HT-1A receptor partial agonist indicated for generalized anxiety disorder due to longer onset of action, is less effective for acute anxiety

A

buspirone

131
Q

propylthiouracil (PTU) mechanism of action

A

inhibits thyroid peroxidase

132
Q

most common side effects of quinidine that limits its use

A

cinchonism

133
Q

side effects of amiodarone

A

thyroid dysfunction, corneal deposits, liver damage and pulmonary fibrosis

134
Q

drug of choice for generalized tonic-clonic seizures

A

carbamazepine, phenytoin, valproic acid

135
Q

sweating, dilated pupils, piloerection, and flu-like symptoms are symptoms of withdrawal from this class of drugs

A

opioid

136
Q

mechanism of action of thrombolytics

A

lyse thrombi by catalyzing the formation of plasmin which cleaves fibrin

137
Q

respiratory and CNS depression, pinpoint pupils, seizures, and needle track marks are symptoms of this intoxication

A

opioid

138
Q

nitrosureas that spontaneously form active intermediates that cross-link DNA; can cross blood brain barrier and is indicated for brain tumors

A

carmustine, -mustines

139
Q

drug of choice for influenza A and B

A

oseltamivir or zanamivir

140
Q

mechanism of action involves indirection reduction of liver triglyceride synthesis

A

niacin, vibrates

141
Q

3 beta blockers that decrease aqueous production

A

timolol (nonselective), betaxolol (selective), carteolol (nonselective)

142
Q

drug of choice for treatment of acute status epileptics

A

diazepam, loreazepam

143
Q

vibrates increase activity of

A

lipoprotein lipase

144
Q

side effects of beta blockers

A

bradycardia, AV block, impotence, dyslipidemia, exacerbation of COPD

145
Q

mechanism of action of vancomycin

A

binds D-Ala-D-Ala on murein monomers and prevent polymerization of the murrain monomers

146
Q

drug of choice for treatment of mild to moderate pseudomembranous colitis

A

metronidazole

147
Q

side effect of hydralazine

A

lupus-like syndrome

148
Q

enzyme that is induced through chronic exposure to alcohol, may contribute to tolerance

A

microsomal ethanol oxidizing system (MEOS)

149
Q

thioamide less likely to cross placenta, inhibits peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 in high doses and indicated for pregnant women in 1st trimester

A

propylthiouracil (PTU)

150
Q

primary mechanism of action of typical antipsychotics

A

inhibits D2 receptor

151
Q

captopril and enalapril (-PRIL ending) are

A

ACE inhibitors

152
Q

antidote acetaminophen poisoning

A

N-acetylcysteine

153
Q

1st line for rheumatoid arthritis for most patients

A

low dose methotrexate

154
Q

carbonic anhydrase inbitior

A

acetazolamide

155
Q

hyper stabilizes microtubule polymer and prevents microtubule breakdown

A

paclitaxel, -taxels

156
Q

site of action of loop diuretics

A

thick ascending limb

157
Q

mechanism of action of losartan and valsartan

A

block AT1 receptors

158
Q

mechanism of action of benzodiazepines

A

increase frequency of GABA-mediated chloride ion channel (GABAA) opening

159
Q

side effect of spironolactone

A

gynecomastia, hyperkalemia, impotence

160
Q

side effects of corticosteroids

A

iatrogenic bushings syndrome, hyperglycemia, impaired wound healing, osteoporosis, peptic ulcers, myopathy, adrenal suppression ( > 2 week treatment)

161
Q

primary mechanism of action of atypical antipsychotics

A

inhibit 5-HT2 receptors

162
Q

DNA intercalating agent with minimal myelosuppresion that induces formation of free radicals; dose-limiting side effects include pulmonary fibrosis, and mucocutaneous reactions

A

bleomycin

163
Q

inhibits peripheral DOPA decarboxylase, reduces peripheral side effects of dopamine precursor and enhances its delivery to the brain

A

carbidopa

164
Q

mechanism of action of organic nitrates

A

requires enzymatic release of NO, relaxes vascular smooth muscle of veins

165
Q

antihistamine that is indicated for allergies, motion sickness, and insomnia

A

diphenhydramine

166
Q

antidote for methotrexate toxicity

A

leucovorin

167
Q

2 anti-neoplastic that require dose-reucction in patients who are taking allopurinol

A

azathioprine, 6-mercaptopurine

168
Q

reason fluroquinolones are contraindicated in children and pregnancy

A

cartilage damage

169
Q

side effect of aspirin

A

GI bleeding

170
Q

precursor of dopamine that can cross the blood brain barrier and used to alleviate motor dysfunction in parkinson disease

A

levodopa

171
Q

drug of choice for management of acute ventricular tachycardia

A

amiodarone

172
Q

MAO and effect of nitric oxide

A

stimulates cGMP, leads to vascular smooth muscle relaxation

173
Q

distribution of histamine receptors H1, H2, and H3

A

smooth muscle and mast cells; stomach, heart and mast cells; nerve endings and CNS

174
Q

side effects of niacin

A

cutaneous flush

175
Q

side effect of acetaminophen

A

hepatotoxicity

176
Q

common side effects of low potency typical antipsychotic drugs

A

dry mouth (anticholinergic), sedation (antihistamine), hypotension (alpha1 block)

177
Q

anti epileptic drug used as first line for trigeminal neuralgia

A

carbamazepine

178
Q

technique used to diagnose perianal itching, and drug used to treat it

A

scotch tape technique and mebendazole (albendazole)

179
Q

selective beta 1 receptor blockers useful for treating cardiac conditions in patients with asthma

A

acebutolol, betaxolol, esmolol, atenolol, metoprolol (A BEAM)

180
Q

antidiuretic hormone analog used for central diabetes insidious and nocturnal enuresis

A

desmopression

181
Q

mechanism ofaction of barbiturates

A

increase duration of GABAA chloride channel opening

182
Q

produces dissociated anesthesia but has significant analgesic activity

A

ketamine

183
Q

mechanism of action of amiloride

A

inhibit epithelial sodium channels in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting duct

184
Q

heparin (PTT) increases activity of

A

antithrombin 3

185
Q

opioid available trans-dermally

A

fentanyl

BOARDS specific notecards (42 decks)

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