Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

DMD > Oral Pathology > Flashcards

Oral Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Primary & permanent teeth absence

A

Complete true anodontia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

most posterior missing tooth, congenitally missing teeth.

A

Partial Anodontia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Absence of teeth more than 6

A

Oligodontia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Only few teeth are absent or less than 6

A

Hypodontia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

disease that has defect in Lamin A

A

Progeria Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

most common supernumerary tooth (hyperdontia)

A

Mesiodens

Paramolar - Faciolingual location of maxillary posteriors
Distomolars - 4th molars (Distally in 3rd molar)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

disease that has an absence or hypoplasia of clavicle, impacted supernumerary teeth.

A

Cleidocranial Dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Portwine stain along the distribution of CN V

A

Sturge-weber syndrome / “Encephalotrigeminal angiomatosis”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

most common microdontia tooth

A

Max. 3rd molar
- heart shaped occlusal
- no distolingual cusp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Trigone or the Primary cusp triangle are:

A

Mesiolingual Cusp
Mesiobuccal Cusp
Distobuccal Cusp

  • no DistoLingual cusp
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Mandibular 3rd molar can be larger than normal called?

A

Macrodontia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Joining of 2 developing tooth germs

A

Fusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Attempt to make 2 teeth from single enamel organ

A

Gemination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Complete separation of 1 tooth bud

A

Twinning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Fusion in the cementum area

A

Concrescence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

thickest part of cementum

A

Apical 3rd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

thinnest part of cementum

A

cervical 3rd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Dilaceration a curving or angulation of tooth roots is caused by

A

Trauma of tooth during development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Dilaceration is most common in

A

Max. Pre molars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Dens invaginatus / tooth-within-a-tooth is also called

A

Dens-In-Dente
- most common in max. lateral incisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Dens evaginatus a anomalous tubercle/cusp located in the center of the occlusal surface, it is also called

A

Leong’s Premolar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Elongated crowns or apically displaced furcations resulting in pulp chambers with increased apico-occlusal height

A

Taurodontism “bulls teeth”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Enamel pearl is an extra enamel formation located at the

A

Bifurcation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Enamel pearl is a high risk for

A

Perio pocket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Extra cusp usually in lingual of anterior teeth, most common in max. lateral incisor

A

Talon’s cusp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Extra cusp on buccal surface of molars

A

Doak’s Cusp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Cusp of carabelli is located at

A

MesioLingual Cusp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

optimum level of fluoride

A

0.7-1.2ppm

> = Fluorosis
mottled enamel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

location of Endemic fluorosis in the Philippines

A

Agno, Pangasinan
Bacoor, cavite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

High fluoride content

A

Fish (salmon…) , Tea, Cabbage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Tea that has high fluoride content

A

Tsaang Gubat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Syphilis is caused by

A

Treponema Pallidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

DOC for syphilis

A

Penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Microscope used for syphilis

A

Darkfield microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Tetracycline is contraindicated px who is pregnant for

A

6 months - 8-9yr old child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

hypoplastic or hypocalcified permanent tooth enamel or caused by abscessed primary tooth or trauma by primary tooth is called

A

Turner’s teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

management of the Primary tooth when it is intruded

A

Observe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

management of Intruded primary tooth affecting the permanent tooth bud

A

Extraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Amelogenesis imperfecta is a defect of?

Mesoderm or Ectoderm?

A

Ectoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Dentinogenesis Imperfecta is a defect of?

Mesoderm or Ectoderm?

A

Mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Hard but thin -> pin-point pits.
Normal quality, Poor quantity

A

Hypoplasia/Hypoplastic Amelogenesis Imperfecta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Soft, brittle -> removed by prophylaxis
Normal Quantity, poor quality
Associated by rubella/german measles

A

Hypocalcification AI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

most common classification of dentinogenesis imperfecta with no bone involvement

A

Type 2 (Shield’s classification)
Type 1 (Revised shield’s classification)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Obliterates the pulp chamber

A

Dentinogenesis Imperfecta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

abnormal root dentin most common type that is rootless.

A

Radicular Dentinal Dysplasia (type 1)

Type 2 Coronal = Thistle tube appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Short lingual frenum, attachment near the tongue tip

A

Ankyloglossia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

a surgical procedure used to treat tongue tie / lingual frenum.

A

Frenotomy / ankylotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

surgical procedure removal of labial frenum

A

Frenectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

“scrotal tongue” fissure are site of plaque growth

A

Fissured tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

papilla of tongue, most commonly affected. most abundant, high metabolic activity but no taste buds.

A

FILIFORM PAPILLAE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Starts the tongue development

A

Tuberculum Impar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Tongue development starts at

A

4th week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Dekeratinization and desquamation of filiform papilla changes in location from 1 to another appears red and slightly tender

A

Geographic tongue “Benign migratory glossitis/ Wandering rash”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

DOC for grand mal seizure

A

Phenytoin / Dilantin “Diphenylhydantoin”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Most common type of seizure

A

Grand mal seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Tx for gingival hyperplasia

A

Gingivectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Drugs that causes gingival hyperplasia

A

Phenytoin
Nifedipine (anti-hypersensitive)
Cyclosporine (immunosuppressant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

anomalies in buccal mucosa, ectopic sebaceous glands, yellow in color, common in teenagers.

A

Fordyce granules/Spots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

“Pink tooth of mummery”
Resorption of dentin at pulpal walls, Root canal defect is called?

What is the treatment?
What cells are present?

A

Internal Resorption
RCT
Odontoclast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Periodontal defect, resorption of external surface of root.

A

External Resorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

loss of tooth structure from non-bacterial chemical process

A

EROSION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Loss of tooth structure @cervical area caused by tensile & compressive forces during tooth flexure

A

ABFRACTION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

thinnest part of enamel

A

Cervical area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Pathologic wearing of tooth
ex. excessive toothbrushing

A

Abrasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Physiologic wearing of tooth
tooth to tooth contact

A

Attrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Thickest part of enamel

A

Incisal or occlusal 3rd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

most common site of torus

A

Palate / “Torus palatinus”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Torus lingual surface of mandible

A

Torus Mandibularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

multiple/single bony excresences

A

Exostoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

TX for torus

A

Double Y-Flap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Red, raspberry like, hyperplastic granulation tissue, bleeds easily, common in female and located at interdental papilla

A

Pyogenic Granuloma
tx: Excision
“Pyo” = Pus
but no pus in pyogenic granuloma

Pregnant: “Epulis Gravidarum”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Denture should be replaced every

A

5-7 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Painless fold of hyperplastic tissue
due to ill-fitting denture
commonly in the mandibular mucobuccal fold

A

Inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia / Flabby / Epulis fissurantum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Papillary projection appearing as cobblestone/granular
due to ill-fitting denture
commonly hard palate
caused by Candida

A

Palatal Papillary Hyperplasia
“Papillomatosis”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

White lesion can be rubbed/scraped off

A

Candidiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

White lesion that cannot be rubbed off

A

Leukoplakia
-needs biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Most common cancer in oral cavity

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

78
Q

“Cheek biting”
areas traumatized due to friction/rubbing

A

Frictional Hyperkeratosis

79
Q

palatine salivary gland is located at

A

Posterior and lateral part of palate

80
Q

autosomal dominant mutation in keratin 4 & 13 causing bilateral spongy, rough surface usually at the buccal mucosa

A

White sponge nevus “Cannon’s Disease”

81
Q

Disappears at “STRETCH TEST”
edema of spinous cells, usually along occlusal line in PM & M region at buccal mucoa.

A

LEUKOEDEMA

82
Q

Wickham Striae, lace like pattern, white lesion cannot be rubbed off, in buccal mucosa

A

Lichen Planus

83
Q

most common complaint of patient

A

Pain - “Dolor”

84
Q

2nd most common complain of patient

A

Swelling - “Tumor”

85
Q

3 fascial spaces that are affected in Ludwig’s angina

A

Submental
Sublingual
Submandibular

86
Q

what is the most definitive sign of a masticator space infection

A

TRISMUS
- internal pterygoid muscle

87
Q

Changes of antibiotic is indicated when the antibiotic is not effective within __ hrs

A

48-72 hrs

88
Q

acute, rapid, septic, indurated inflammatory process of all fascial space of mandible on both sides of FOM
Clinical Appearance: Elevated tongue, dyspnea, Dysphagia

A

Ludwig’s Angina

89
Q

Maxillary canine infection, travels to cranial base affecting CN 3,4, 5(1), 6.

A

Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis

90
Q

Major difference of acute and chronic

A

chronic, pain is not that common
Acute, pain is present.

91
Q

Acute, generalized, large, diffuse border, doughy to indurated, aerobic microorganism

A

Cellulitis

92
Q

Chronic, localized, small, well circumscribed border, fluctuant, anaerobic microorganism.

A

Abscess

93
Q

Inflammatory response primary caused by infection affecting the bone marrow

A

Osteomyelitis

94
Q

Longest bone in the body

A

Femur

95
Q

the body of long bone is covered by or the outermost body of long bone:

A

Periosteum

96
Q

Periosteum is connected to your bone by what fiber?

A

Sharpey’s Fiber

97
Q

Microorganism caused by Osteomyelitis of the Jaw

A

Streptococcus Viridans

98
Q

Brodie’s abscess is seen in

A

Osteomyelitis

Old bone: Sequestrum
New bone: iNvolucrum

99
Q

Bone marrow infection with periosteitis, common in children. most common caused by dental caries, chronic osteomyelitis is also known as

A

Garre’s Osteomylelitis

100
Q

Most common complication of wound healing process of exo after 3-5 days.

A

Alveolar osteitis / Dry Socket

101
Q

Major component of clot

A

FIBRIN

102
Q

Sialolithiasis is most common in what gland

A

SUBMANDIBULAR GLAND

103
Q

most common cause of sialadenitis

A

Sialolithiasis

104
Q

what is the duct of subMandibular gland

A

Wharton’s duct

105
Q

Stensen’s duct is in what gland?

A

Parotid Gland

106
Q

Bartholin’s duct is in what gland?

A

Sublingual Gland

107
Q

Duct of rivinus is seen in

A

Sublingual gland

108
Q

Increase in salivation is called

A

Sialorrhea

109
Q

Asymptomatic enlargement of salivary gland

A

Sialosis

110
Q

Related to vascular insufficiency & glands infarction, most common in male, self limiting, most chief complaint: palate feels falling out. Most common in Palatal salivary glands.

A

Necrotizing Sialometaplasia
-no treatment

111
Q

most common TUMOR appears in what gland

A

Parotid gland

112
Q

Painless swelling of the parotid gland, lower pole of parotid gland.

A

Warthin’s tumor “Adenolymphoma/Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum”

113
Q

Most common benign tumor of salivary gland, most common salivary gland tumor, most common parotid gland tumor. most common salivary gland neoplasm.

A

PLEOMORPHIC ADENOMA

Major: Parotid
Minor: Palate

114
Q

True or False: Prostate and Breast cancer is a adenocarcinoma?

A

True
- Mammary gland & prostate gland.

115
Q

Most common malignant tumor of minor salivary glands

A

Adenoid cystic carcinoma

116
Q

Most common malignant tumor of major salivary gland

A

Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma

117
Q

Most aggressive tumor of salivary gland

A

Salivary duct carcinoma

118
Q

tumor is most common in what salivary gland

A

Parotid gland

119
Q

stones, inflammation is common in what salivary gland

A

Submandibular Gland

120
Q

Contact dermatitis/contact allergy a type of eczema is a form of type __ hypersensitivity reaction

A

Type 4

121
Q

Fungal infection, TB is what type of hypersensitivity reaction

A

Type 4

122
Q

Hypersensitivity reaction of Allergy

A

Type 1

123
Q

Aphthous ulcer is also known as

A

Recurrent Aphthous Stomatitis/Ulcer
- non keratinized mucosa
- canker sore: painful ulcer

124
Q

Sutton’s disease is a form of

A

Ulceration / Ulcerative disease
“Periadenitis mucosa necrotica reurrens”

125
Q

Triad:
Keratoconjunctivitis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Xerostomia
most common in female

A

Sjogren’s Syndrome

126
Q

Behcet’s syndrome
painful ulceration in genitalia and oral cavity, most common in male. What part of ulceration affects in genitalia of males

A

Epididymis

127
Q

Most common type of traumatic disturbance

A

Internal Derangement

128
Q

most common form of internal derangement

A

Anterior Displacement

129
Q

Most commonly dislocation of articular disc/TMJ

A

Antero-medial

+ Post.
Capsule: Loose, thin.

130
Q

Most common cause of ankylosis

A

Trauma

131
Q

Most common form of trauma/ankylosis in TMJ

A

Fracture of Condyle

132
Q

Largest muscle of mastication

A

Temporalis

133
Q

Fusion of coronoid process and temporalis, coronoid hyperplasia is a ____ ankylosis

A

Extracapsular

134
Q

What part of the mandible will fracture if there is a sudden contraction of temporalis muscle

A

Coronoid Process

135
Q

What muscle of mastication commonly causes muscle pain/fatigue

A

Lateral Pterygoid muscle

136
Q

Wear and tear, most common degenerative disease, common in elderly, pain at night, asymmetrical.

A

Osteoarthritis

137
Q

autoimmune, common in female, pain in the morning, symmetrical.

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

138
Q

an epithelial-lined cavity

A

Cyst

139
Q

Rest of malassez came from

A

Degeneration of HERS

140
Q

Most common odontogenic cyst

A

Radicular Cyst
- apex of root
- round/pear shape, uniocular
- inflammatory process
- Liquefaction necrosis

141
Q

Radicular cyst is almost/always associated with

A

Non-vital pulp

142
Q

Incomplete removal of cyst during extraction or residue.

A

Residual Cyst

143
Q

Epithelium surrounding crown

A

Reduced enamel epithelium

144
Q

Cyst around the crown of an impacted/unerupted CEJ Area.
Most aggressive, most destructive.

A

Dentigerous Cyst

145
Q

Ameloblastoma came from what cyst

A

Dentigerous Cyst

146
Q

bluish, alveolar edema, associated with an erupting primary teeth

A

Eruption Cyst

147
Q

came from degeneration of dental lamina

A

Rest of Serres

148
Q

has a High recurrence, presence of active epithelial lining and satellite/ daughter cyst. associated with nevoid basal cell carcinoma

A

Odontogenic Keratocyst

149
Q

a developmental cystic process, appears “tear-drop” shape unilocular beside or adjacent to root of tooth. Vital tooth.

A

LaTEARal Periodontal Cyst
“Lateral”

150
Q

Grape-like / multilocular of lateral periodontal cyst is called

A

Botryoid Odontogenic Cyst

151
Q

Degeneration of tooth bud before the formation of enamel and dentin matrix as replacement of Missing/Supernumerary tooth, prior to calcification , cystic degeneration of tooth bud

A

Primordial Cyst

152
Q

Odontogenic Epithelial remnants within gingiva or mandible/maxilla.
Cyst that has Ghost Cell keratinization, associated with odontoma.

A

Calcifying odontogenic Cyst

153
Q

cyst of newborn located at palatine raphe, keratin.

A

Epstein Pearl

154
Q

cyst of newborn located between soft and hard palate, mucous gland.

A

Bohn’s Nodule

155
Q

bluish soft lesion
affects major salivary gland
caused by trauma
located at lower lip

A

Mucocele

156
Q

bluish soft lesion
affects minor salivary gland
caused by trauma
also called frog belly
located at floor of the mouth

A

Ranula

157
Q

Most common non-odontogenic cyst, seen in between CI, heart shaped.

A

Nasopalatine duct cyst “Incisive canal cyst”

158
Q

cyst between maxillary lateral incisor and canine, appears pear-shaped.

A

Globulomaxillary Cyst

159
Q

primary dentition space located between maxillary lateral and canine

A

Primate Space

160
Q

bone cystic formation located at median palatine raphe.

A

Median Palatal cyst.

161
Q

bone cystic formation between mandibular central incisor

A

Median alveolar/mandibular cyst

162
Q

located at the ala of the nose - upper lip, soft tissue, cystic formation that has no radiographic appearance

A

Nasolabial cyst “nasoalveolar cyst”

163
Q

most common developmental cyst of the neck at neck midline both or one side

A

Thyroglossal Duct Cyst
- common symptom: Mouth hemorrhage

164
Q

congenital cyst, anterior to sternocleidomastoid muscle at lateral neck area, unfused branchial cleft 2, 3, 4.
causes compression, dyspnea, dysphagia

A

Branchial Cleft cyst

165
Q

Pseudocyst located inferior border of the mandible contains submandibular gland located below mandibular canal, bone defect.

A

Static Bone cyst

166
Q

Pseudocyst “blood soaked sponge” contains blood with fibroblasts and macrophages line the sinusoidal-blod-filled spaces

A

Aneurysmal Bone Cyst

167
Q

Empty cystic cavity with dome-like projections/scalloped margin without root resorption, common site mandibular posterior.

A

Traumatic Bone

168
Q

Most common epithelial odontogenic tumor

A

Ameloblastoma

169
Q

Concentric rings with clear space “Liesegang Rings”

A

Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor /
Pindborg tumor

170
Q

Xray appearance of pindborg tumor

A

Driven-snow appearance

171
Q

Adenomatoid OT and Squamous OT is common in

A

Maxillary anteriors

172
Q

Most common site of metastasis

A

Lungs

173
Q

Snow flake calcification is seen in

A

Adenomatoid OT

174
Q

appearance in radiograph of a small ameloblastoma

A

Honey-combed appearance

175
Q

appearance of a large ameloblastoma in radiograph

A

Soap-bubble appearance

176
Q

a ameloblastoma that is located in long bones is

A

Adamantinoma

177
Q

Benign =

A

Expansion

178
Q

Standard treatment for ameloblastoma

A

Segmental resection with 1 cm of bone

179
Q

Mesenchymal tumors resembles

A

Pulp

180
Q

Epithelial tumors resembles

A

Enamel

181
Q

Most common mesenchymal odontogenic tumor, histologic study: stellate cells.
xray: multilocular honey-combed appearance.

A

Myxofibroma / Odontogenic myxoma

182
Q

tumor at Apical of erupted tooth causes root resorption with fibrous connective tissue “cementoid or dentinoid”

A

Odontogenic Fibroma

183
Q

MC epithelial OT

A

Ameloblastoma

184
Q

MC Mesenchymal OT

A

Myxofibroma

185
Q

MC Odontogenic tumor

A

Odontoma

186
Q

also known as true cementoma
bone expansion but slow swelling with little pain
very common in mandi posterior. 1st molar

A

Benign Cementoblastoma

187
Q

MC odontogenic cyst

A

Radicular Cyst

188
Q

MC non-odontogenic Cyst

A

nasopalatine duct cyst

189
Q

MC developmental cyst of the neck

A

Thyroglossal duct cyst

190
Q

mixed tumors with multiple tooth-like structures, common in max ant.

A

Compound Odontoma

191
Q

Most common odontogenic tumors:
can be answered

A

Odontoma, Ameloblastoma, Myxofibroma.

DMD (24 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions