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DMD > Oral Diagnosis > Flashcards

Oral Diagnosis Flashcards

1
Q

Correct diagnosis is often a result of

A

Complete and thorough examination

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2
Q

Accurate History primary purpose is

A

To provide basis for determining how the patient’s physical status may be affected by dental therapy

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3
Q

Essential/Most important procedure in diagnosis is the

A

Development of case history

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4
Q

Most important way of obtaining chief complaint

A

Be unhurried / “not to hurry”

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5
Q

most difficult and most common to evaluate chief complaint

A

Odontalgia “tooth ache”

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6
Q

term experienced by a patient

A

Symptoms

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7
Q

term detected by the examiner

A

Sign

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8
Q

1 or more significantly unique sign and symptom that distinguish 1 disease from another

A

Pathognomonic Sign

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9
Q

Butterfly rash

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus / Liver disease.

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10
Q

Bull’s eye lesion, target lesion, iris lesion

A

Erythema Multiforme / Lyme disease

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11
Q

Nikolsky sign

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

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12
Q

Most important factor that determines prognosis - result of treatment

A

Severity

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13
Q

The review of illnesses, injuries, operation & hospitalization from childhood disease to present complaint

A

Past medical History

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14
Q

Normal Blood pressure

A

120/80

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15
Q

normal Pulse rate

A

60-100bpm

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16
Q

normal respiratory rate

A

16-20bpm

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17
Q

the difference of systolic pressure and diastolic pressure is called

A

Pulse Pressure
normal pulse pressure: 30-40mmHg

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18
Q

1st audible sound in stetoscope

A

Korotkoff Sounds

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19
Q

Average age to diagnose ameloblastoma is

A

34 y/o

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20
Q

average age to diagnose tic doloureux

A

30 y/o

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21
Q

Lead poisoning

A

Plumbism

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22
Q

excessively moist skin patient

A

Anxiety

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23
Q

what neurotransmitter is decreased in Parkinson’s disease

A

Dopamine

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24
Q

anti-viral drug that is also used and effective in Parkinson’s disease

A

Amantadine - used for Influenza/flu

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25
Q

a combination of verbal and motor tics

A

Tourette’s Syndrome

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26
Q

Complete inability to speech

A

Aphasia

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27
Q

Broca’s area is located at

A

Frontal lobe of cerebrum

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28
Q

Wernicke’s area is located at

A

Temporal lobe

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29
Q

Broca’s area is responsible for

A

Production of speech

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30
Q

Wernicke’s area is responsible for

A

Comprehension

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31
Q

characterized by partial loss of the ability to produce language or speech

A

Expressive aphasia

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32
Q

The patient cannot understand words or recognize symbols, whether they are auditory, tactile, or visual

A

Receptive aphasia

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33
Q

Combination of Receptive and expressive Aphasia

A

GLOBAL APHASIA

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34
Q

Assessment IPPA

A

Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation

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35
Q

Abdomen Assessment

A

Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation

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36
Q

Radiographic examination is a form of

A

Inspection

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37
Q

Most common site of torus

A

Palatal area

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38
Q

Most commonly used clinical test

A

Percussion test

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39
Q

Most commonly used clinical tool

A

radiograph

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40
Q

how to assess bruit?

A

Auscultation

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41
Q

how to assess a thrill

A

palpation

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42
Q

Px with Diabetes M. has a ____ breath

A

Acetone

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43
Q

Px with liver disease has a ___ breath

A

Mousy

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44
Q

muscles of mastication that elevates the mandible

A

Temporalis, Internal Pterygoid, Masseter

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45
Q

muscle that depress and protrude mandile

A

External Pterygoid

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46
Q

MOM that elevates and retrude the mandible

A

Temporalis

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47
Q

Which of the following does not have cafe au lait spots

A. mcCune Albright syndrome
B. Addison’s disease
C. Von reckling hausens disease / Neurofibromatosis
D. Hypothyroidism
E. Hyperthyroid

A

E. Hyperthyroid

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48
Q

Anesthetic agent that increases the amount of methemogloblin

A

Prilocaine

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49
Q

Prilocaine is contraindicated in patients with?

A

COPD, respi problem.

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50
Q

the percentage of RBC in blood is

A

Hematocrit

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51
Q

O2 carrier

A

Hemoglobin

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52
Q

high amount of RBC is called

A

Polycythemia

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53
Q

Has the increase amount of bilirubin

A

Hemolytic anemia

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54
Q

3mm - 1cm vascularity, “Non blanching” purplish spots due to bleeding vessels near the surface of skin

A

Purpura

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55
Q

<3mm small pinpoint.
ex. Herman’s sign: DHF - Rumpel leede test / capillary fragility / Torniquet test

A

Petechiae

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56
Q

> 1cm “Contusion” larger purpura spots, bleeding underneath.

A

Ecchymosis

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57
Q

Localized collection of blood outside a vessel, Solid swelling of blood clot.

A

Hematoma “Bruise”

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58
Q

Which of the following causes red lesion

A. Purpura
B. Perleche
C. Angular Cheilitis
D. Stomatitis

A

A. Purpura

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59
Q

Circumscribed, flat non-palpable
Up to 1cm

A

Macule
ex. Freckles “ephilis”, Petechiae

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60
Q

Palpable elevated: Solid mass
Approx. 0.5cm

A

Papule

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61
Q

Palpable elevated: Solid mass
0.5 - 2cm

A

Nodule

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62
Q

Palpable elevated: Free Fluid
>0.5cm

A

Bulla
ex. Large Blister

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63
Q

Palpable elevated: Free Fluid
Up to 0.5cm

A

Vesicle
ex. Herpes

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64
Q

Palpable elevated: Free Fluid
Acne

A

Pustule

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65
Q

Monroe’s abscess

A

Psoriasis

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66
Q

most common form of candidiasis

A

Pseudomembranous type

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67
Q

Bird-face

A

Pierre-robin & Treacher collins

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68
Q

Monkey face

A

Marasmus

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69
Q

Lion-like face

A

Leprosy, Paget’s disease

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70
Q

Angel-like face

A

Cherubism

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71
Q

Near vision in called

A

Myopia

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72
Q

Hyperopia

A

Far sighted

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73
Q

Cloudy vision, opacity of lens

A

Cataract

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74
Q

Tunnel vision

A

Glaucoma

75
Q

Pupillary constriction

A

Miosis
PNS

76
Q

Pupillary dilation

A

Mydriasis
SNS

77
Q

what is the syndrome in SNS that has the following sign and symptoms: Miosis, Anhidrosis, Ptosis, Sympathetic disorder

A

Horner’s Syndrome

78
Q

common group of blood vessel that is affected by epistaxis

A

Kiesselbach’s Plexus

79
Q

Superior oblique muscle is innervated by what CN

A

IV (Trochlear Nerve)

80
Q

Lateral Rectus muscle is innervated by CN

A

VI (ABDUCENS NERVE)

81
Q

Inf. Oblique, Sup. Inf. Medial Rectus muscle is innervated by

A

CN III (Occulomotor)

82
Q

Function of oblique musle
Adduct or Abduct?

A

Abduct

83
Q

Function of rectus muscle is Adduct, except:

A

Lateral Rectus muscle

84
Q

Recurrent apthous ulcer located in

A

Non-keratinized

RHU - Keratinized

85
Q

Chancre (syphillis) is a

A

Painless ulcer

Canker - Painful ulcer

86
Q

Differential diagnosis for gardners syndrome and peutz jeghers syndrome: Polyps in jejunum and

A

Melanotic lesion in oral cavity

Gardners: Supernumerary, GI Polyps, Osteoma.

87
Q

DOC for Systemic candidiasis

A

Amphotericin B or Azoles

88
Q

most common site of torus

A

Palatine

89
Q

Stent is used before the removal of torus, stent is

A
90
Q

most common periodontal disease

A

Gingivitis

91
Q

pathognomonic sign of gingivitis

A

Bleeding on probing

92
Q

epithelium of gingivitis that is 1st affected

A

COL

93
Q

Floss is until

A

below the contact point

94
Q

incharge of remission and exacerbation of ANUG

A

Stress

95
Q

TX for ANUG

A

1st Debridement
and
Antibiotic

96
Q

Inflammation of tongue

A

Glossitis

97
Q

Papilla of tongue most commonly affected

A

Filiform papilla

98
Q

Benign migratory glossitis is also known as

A

Geographic tongue

99
Q

varicose veins under tongue

A

Caviar Tongue

100
Q

Burning tongue sensation

A

Glossodynia

101
Q

Bad taste is known as

A

Cacogeusia

102
Q

Altered taste is known as

A

Dysgeusia

103
Q

Pharyngitis is caused by what microorganism

A

Streptococcus Pyogenes

104
Q

Aschoff bodies is found in

A

Rheumatic Heart Disease

104
Q

2 disease that can lead after pharyngitis

A

Rheumatic Heart Disease, Acute Glomerulonephritis

105
Q

most common cause of odynophagia “painful swallowing” :

A

Sore throat

106
Q

circular motion, upright position, proximal to distal, slightly flexed forward (side of assessment) is a assessment for?

A

Lymphnodes

107
Q

lymph nodes that is commonly affected with German Measles “Rubella”

A

Mastoid “post auricular” Lymph nodes

108
Q

Reed-sternberg cell is seen in

A

Hodgkin’s Lympohoma

109
Q

Burkitt’s lymphoma is caused by microorganism

A

Epstein Barr Virus -
Moth eaten appearance
: Acute osteomyelitis
: Chondrosarcoma
: EWINGS Sarcoma

110
Q

difficulty in breathing

A

Dyspnea

111
Q

most common sign of heart failure

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

112
Q

Increased rate and or depth of breathing leading to decrease in CO2

A

Hyperventilation

113
Q

decrease in vitamin D in children causes pigeon chest

A

Ricketts

114
Q

normal blood pressure

A

120/80 mmHg (pre-hypertensive state)

Stage 1: 140-159/90-99
Stage 2: 160-179/>100-109
Hypertension Crisis: >180/>110

115
Q

Acute endocarditis is caused by what MO

A

Staphylococcus Aureus
- IV Drugs
- Tricuspid valve

116
Q

Subacute endocarditis is caused by what MO

A

Streptoc. Viridans
- Dental Procedure
- Mitral Valve

117
Q

Location of tricuspid valve

A

Between the right atrium and right ventricle

118
Q

number of Lobes in right lung?

A

3

119
Q

DOC for patent ductus arteriosus

A

Indomethacin

120
Q

DOC for angina pectoris

A

Sublingual admin. Nitroglycerin

121
Q

Most common cause of myocardial infarction

A

Atherosclerosis

122
Q

Most common cause of death of Myocardial infarction

A

Arrhythmia

123
Q

Blood in urine

A

Hematuria

124
Q

Severe protein deficiency

A

Kwashiorkor
“Edematous Malnutrition”

125
Q

most abundant protein in the body

A

Collagen

126
Q

Most abundant protein in the blood

A

Albumin
-Maintain colloid osmotic pressure

127
Q

Generalized edema

A

Anasarca

128
Q

most common opportunistic fungal infection

A

Candida Albicans

129
Q

Systemic candidiasis DOC

A

Amphotericin B

130
Q

White lesion cannot be rubbed off

A

Leukoplakia

131
Q

Fungal infection pathogenic are type _ Hypersensitivity

A

4
- Tb, Contact dermatitis

132
Q

Most common cancer in oral cavity

A

Squamous cell carcinoma
- common in lateral, ventral, post. 1/3

133
Q

Most common type of lichen planus

A

Whickham Striae
- “Lace-like pattern”

134
Q

Negri bodies is seen in

A

Rabies

135
Q

Sulfur granules is seen in

A

Actinomycosis

136
Q

Aschoff bodies

A

Rheumatic heart fever

137
Q

Generalized opacity with red dots, associated with nicotine

A

Nicotinic Stomatitis

138
Q

Red lesion that do not blanch off

A

Eryhtroplakia

139
Q

Red lesion that blanches off, vascular lesion

A

Hemangioma

140
Q

Rendu osler weber syndrome is also known as

A

Hereditary Hemorrhagic Telengiectasia

141
Q

Bull’s eye lesion, target lesion, iris lesion/

A

Erythema Multiforme

142
Q

Majot type of Erythema Multiforme

A

Steven johnson syndrome

143
Q

related to vitmain b2 (Riboflavin) deficiency, candidiasis, Vertical dimension is low

A

Angular Cheilitis

144
Q

Lower lip, color blue, associated with trauma, affected minor salivary gland

A

Mucocele

145
Q

from Floor of the mouth, color blue, trauma, Major salivary gland affected
“Frog’s belly”

A

Ranula

146
Q

most abundant component of amalgam alloy

A

Silver

147
Q

Silver toxicity

A

Argyria (Ag)

148
Q

Lead toxicity
(most resistant to the ionizing radiation)

A

Plumbism (Pb)

149
Q

Mercury toxicity

A

Acrodynia

150
Q

cause of hairy tongue is a elongated what papilla of tongue?

A

Filiform

151
Q

most abundant blood cells

A

red blood cells

152
Q

Oxygen carrier

A

Hemoglobin

153
Q

Percentage of rbc in the blood

A

Hematocrit

154
Q

Increase in platelet, a disease in which your bone marrow makes too many platelets.

A

Thrombocythemia

155
Q

Normal hemoglobin

A

14-17gm/100ml

156
Q

normal hematocrit

A

45-50ml/DL

157
Q

most commonly used method for bleeding time

A

Template Method
3-6 mins

158
Q

test to measure presence of adequate platelet function for screening PT’s in blood disease,

A

Bleeding time

159
Q

prothrombin time is a measure of extrinsic pathway of clotting factors

A

1 P”f”ibrinogen
2 Prothrombin
7 Proconvertin
10 Stuart prower

160
Q

Partial prothrombin time is a measure of intrinsic pathway of clotting factors

A

8 Anti-hemophilia A
9 Anti-hemophilia B
11 Anti-hemophilia C
12 Hageman factor

161
Q

normal fasting blood sugar

A

80-120mg/DL
8-12hrs

162
Q

most commonly used test for kidney function

A

Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)
Creatinine clearance

163
Q

Most specific test for kidney function test

A

Inulin clearance

164
Q

Aspartate aminotransferase

Serum Glutamic Oxoloacetic Transaminase

A

Serum Glutamic Oxoloacetic Transaminase

165
Q

Alanine Aminotransferase

Serum Glutamic Pyruvic Transaminase

A

Serum Glutamic Pyruvic Transaminase

166
Q

Normal blood pH

A

Boards: 7.4

7.35-7.45

167
Q

Bence jones protein is seen in urine in what disease

A

Multiple Myeloma

168
Q

Forecast wether patient will get well or not

A

Prognosis

169
Q

Most important factor in determining prognosis

A

Severity

170
Q

Analgesic for Pregnant

A

Paracetamol

171
Q

Safest antibiotic for pregnant

A

Penicillin - Erythromycin - Cephalosporin

172
Q

MC cause of drug allergies

A

Penicilin

173
Q

MO Drug induced bacteria

A

Clostridium Difficile
from Clindamycin

174
Q

Most common error in blood pressure

A

Wrong cuff size

smaller cuff =Increase BP
Larger cuff=Decrease BP

175
Q

PX with recently cardiovascular surgery, how long delay of treatment

A

6 months

176
Q

Cardiovascular Patient/Medically compromised
epinephrine of:

A

0.04mg or 2 carpules of 1:100,000 EPI

Healthy: 0.20mg or max. of 11 carpules

177
Q

Highest risk for Infective endocarditis

A

Prosthetic heart valves placement

178
Q

Pulse site for infants

A

Brachial Pulse

179
Q

Pulse site for adults

A

Carotid pulse

180
Q

1st maneuver to open airway

A

Head tilt, chin lift

181
Q

Most commonly injured organ in CPR

A

Liver

182
Q

COMPRESSION FOR ADULT AND INFANT

A

30:2 for 20x

183
Q

MCL, ACL, Meniscus is a medical triad called

A

Unhappy Triad

  • Anterior cruciate lig.
  • Medial Collateral Lig
  • Meniscus

DMD (23 decks)

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