Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Prokaryotic Cell is?

A

Bacteria

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2
Q

Major Characteristic of Prokaryotic & Eukaryotic Cell

A

Prokaryotic has No Membrane
Eukaryotic has True Nucleus

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3
Q

Determines the Degree of Pathogenecity, protection of microorganisms against phagocytosis

A

GLYCOCALYX

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4
Q

Prokaryotic means of cell division/reproduction

A

Binary Fission

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5
Q

Eukaryotic cell division

A

Mitosis

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6
Q

Meiosis happens only in?

A

Sex Cell/Gametes

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7
Q

Prokaryotic Cell ribosome component

A

70s (50s, 30s)

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8
Q

Protein synthesis/factories of the cell

A

Ribosome/Polyribosome

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9
Q

Antibiotic that attacks 30s unit

A

Tetracycline (Trentacycline)
Aminoglycoside (Trentaminoglycoside)

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10
Q

Tetracycline is contraindicated in Pregnant patient for

A

6 months and until 9 yrs of age

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11
Q

Tetracycline affects the developmental stage of tooth in

A

Appositional Stage:
dentinogenesis and amelogenesis

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12
Q

Tetracycline is used for

A

Localized Aggressive Periodontitis
- High concentration in plasma, GCF.

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13
Q

Anti-TB drug that causes Ototoxicity, sense of hearing, CN VIII.

A

Streptomycin (Major group of Aminoglycoside)
- AminoOTO, AminoNEPHRO

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14
Q

Antibiotic that attacks 50s

A

Lincosamide: Clindamycin (300mg or 600mg)
Macrolides: Erythromycin
Others: CHLORAMPHENICOL

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15
Q

Chloramphenicol is DOC for

A

Typhoid Fever

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16
Q

Bone Marrow Suppression
Aplastic Anemia
Gray Baby Syndrome
- is an adverse effect of?

A

Ano ang BAG mo?
CHLORAMPHENICOL

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17
Q

Function of bone marrow?

A

Hematopoiesis “Blood cell formation”

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18
Q

Low blood cells

A

Pancytopenia

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19
Q

Function of FIMBRIAE

A

Attachment
-Adherence for Colonization

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20
Q

Function of PILI

A

DNA Transfer
1-2 pili per cell

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21
Q

Function of Flagella

A

Locomotion/Movement

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22
Q

Microorganism has no flagella is called

A

Atrichous

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23
Q

MO has one Flagella

A

Monotrichous

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24
Q

MO has one flagella with each pole

A

Amphitrichous

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25
MO has multiple flagella in 1 pole
Lopotrichous
26
MO has multiple flagella in each pole
Amphilopotrichous
27
MO has flagella in entire periphery/surrounding/around the organism
Peritrichous
28
if the movement of microorganism is clockwise the movement of endoflagella is?
Counterclockwise -The movement of endoflagella is opposite to the movement of your microorganism
29
What is the movement of flagella in Eukaryotic cell
WAVELIKE movement
30
What is the movement of flagella in Prokaryotic cell
ROTATION
31
The Rotation of Flagella is Powered by:
Proton Current
32
Flagella is Governed by:
Chemotactic Response
33
Microorganisms that has Glycocalyx/Capsule
Streptococcus Pneumoniae Hemophilus Influenzae Neisseria specie (Gonorrhea)
34
Thick Cell wall, lipoteichoic acid
GRAM POSITIVE
35
Thin cell wall, outer membrane: Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
Gram Negative
36
eNdotoxin can be found in what microorganism?
gram Negative only
37
Exotoxin can be found in?
Both positive and gram negative microorganism
38
Semipermeable phospholipid bilayer
Plasma/Cell Membrane
39
Capable of mutation;self replication, extrachromosomal genetic element
Plasmid
40
ATP Production
Powerhouse of the cell/Mitochondria
41
Bacterial Mitochondria
Mesosome
42
Microorganism that causes Syphillis
Treponema Pallidum -Spirochete
43
No increase in number of living bacterial cells but increase in cell size
Lag Phase
44
Exponential increase in number of living bacterial cells
Log Phase
45
Phase where Target of Medications/Antibiotics
Log Phase
46
Plateau in number of living bacterial cells, Spore formation, rate of cell division and death roughly equal
Stationary Phase
47
Microorganism with SPORES
Bacillus Clostridium Fungi
48
Exponential decrease in number of living bacterial cells
Death or Exponential Phase
49
Most common type of microorganisms physical requirements temperature
Mesophiles (25-40'c)
50
pH, most bacteria grow best in
6.5 - 7.5
51
Normal Blood pH
7.35 - 7.45
52
Microorganisms Actinomyces, Bacteroides, Clostridium is known for
Obligate Anaerobes
53
carbon requirements came from inorganic materials is
Autotroph
54
carbon requirements came from complex organic substances
Heterotroph
55
Energy source came from LIGHT
Photoautotrophs
56
Energy source came from CHEMICAL REACTION
Chemoautotrophs
57
Microorganisms Chlamydia, Rickettsia, VIRUS is known as
Obligate Intracellular -cannot survive outside host cells
58
Primary Stain/Agent
Crystal Violet
59
Counterstain/Secondary Agent
Safranin
60
Decolorizing Agent
Alcohol/Acetone
61
Mordant
Iodine
62
Treponema Pallidum is the microorganism that causes
SYPHILLIS
63
Sexually transmitted infection/disease
Syphillis
64
Most invasive treponema
Pallidum
65
Least invasive treponema
Carateum
66
1st stage adult syphillis, Painless ulcer
Chancre *Canker Sore "Apthous Ulcer" - Painful ulcer
67
3rd stage, Tabes dorsalis is known as
"Neurosyphilis"
68
2nd stage syphillis, wart-like lesion.
Condyloma Lata Mucous Patches *Condyloma Acuminata "Warts" - HPV
69
Nodular Ulcer in Tongue & Palate
GUMMA
70
DOC for Syphillis
Penicillin
71
Diagnostic test for Syphilis
FTABS "Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption" - antibody for syphilis
72
Microscope used for syphilis
Darkfield microscope
73
Hutchinson's Triad Hutchinson's teeth, Interstitial Keratitis, Deafness, is seen in
Congenital Syphilis
74
Carried by arthropods affecting endothelium
Rickettsia
75
Endemic Typhus
Rickettsia TYPHI
76
Epidemic Typhus
Rickettsia Prowazekii
77
Known as smallest bacteria it causes "walking pneumonia"
MYCOPLASMA Pneumoniae
78
Most common sexually transmitted disease
CHLAMYDIA
79
DOC for Chlamydia
Doxycycline - Not for Pregnant Px (Tetracycline Group) Azithromycin
80
TB of the Bone/Spine
Pott's Disease!
81
TB of the SKIN
Lupus Vulgaris!
82
TB of the Lymph Nodes
Scrofula!
83
What kind of necrosis caused by Mycobacterium Tubercolosis
CASEOUS Necrosis! (Cheese-like)
84
what kind of inflammation TB
GRANULOMATOUS Inflammation
85
Definitive/Specific test for TB
Direct Sputum Smear Microscopy
86
DOTS meaning
Directly Observed Treatment Shortcourse
87
DOC for TB
Rifampicin Isoniazid Pyrazinamide Ethambutol Streptomycin
88
Adverse effect of Rifampicin
Red-Orange Secretion
89
Adverse effect of Isoniazid
PerIpheral neurItIs
90
Adv. Effect of Pyrazinamide
hyPYRuricemia
91
Adv. effect of ethambutol
Optic Neuritis
92
Adv. effect of Streptomycin
Ototoxicity
93
Mycobaterium Leprae is also known as?
"Hansen's Disease" leprosy, ketong.
94
Multiple, Lumpy abscess with board like swelling and a central soft spot "LUMPY JAW", Histologic study: SULFUR GRANULES
Actinomycosis - "Actinomyces Israelli"
95
most commonly found in skin, normal flora of the skin
Staphylococcus Aureus
96
most common cause of nosocomial infection in surgical wound (hospital acquired)
Staphylococcus Aureus
97
Acute endocarditis, Osteomyelitis is caused by what microorganism
Staphylococcus Aureus
98
Streptococcus Viridans, causes what disease
Subacute Endocarditis
99
microorganism that causes dental caries
Streptococcus Mutans
100
1st colonizer of ORAL CAVITY
Streptococcus Saliva-rius
101
Streptococcus Sanguis is seen in
Plaque
102
Scarlet fever/Scarlatina is caused by what microorganism
Streptococcus Pyogenes
103
Infection of uterus after giving birth/ Uterine Infection
PUERPERAL Fever
104
Aschoff bodies is seen in
Rheumatic Fever
105
2 sequelae after pharyngitis
Rheumatic Fever Acute Glomerulonephritis
106
Porphyromonas Gingivalis causes
Generalized Aggressive Periodontitis PG=GaP
107
Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans causes
Localied Aggressive Periodontitis AA=LaP
108
Shigella causes
Bacillary Dysentery
109
Salmonella causes
Typhoid Fever
110
Microorganism that causes peptic ulcer
Helicobacter Pylori
111
Treponema that causes Periodontitis
T. Denticola
112
Most common microorganism that causes UTI
E. Coli
113
Inflammation of meninges which is the covering of brain and spinal cord is called?
Meningitis
114
MicroOrganism meningitis in Neonates
E. Coli
114
MO meningitis in child, infants
Hemophilus Influenzae
115
MO meningitis in young adults
Neisseria Meningitidis
116
MO meningitis in Elderly
Streptococcus Pneumoniae
117
Crede's prophylaxis is given to a px with Opthalmia neonatorum caused by N. gonorrhea. What is the component of crede's prophylaxis A. Silver Nitrite B. Silver Nitrate C. Sodium Nitrate D. Sodium Nitrite
B. SILVER NITRATE
118
Plasmodium a Protozoa that causes Malaria which attacks red blood cells is carried by
Anopheles Mosquito
119
Dengue Virus causes Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever which is carried by Aedis Aegypti and attacks what cell?
Platelets
120
Most common strain of Plasmodium/Malaria
VIVAX
121
Most fatal strain of Plasmodium/Malaria
FALCIFARUM
122
DOC for Malaria
Quinine
123
Entamoeba Histolytica causes
Amoebiasis
124
DOC for Amoebiasis Giardiasis Trichomoniasis
Metronidazole
125
Strawberry cervix is commonly seen in female, caused by:
Trichomonas Vaginalis
126
HIV attacks what cell
CD4
127
All DNA virus are double stranded except?
Parvo Virus
128
All DNA virus induce latency except
Adenovirus
129
Primary gingivostomatitis is a manifestation of
HSV-1
130
HSV-1 hides in
Trigeminal Ganglion
131
HSV-2 hides in
Sacral Ganglion
132
Diagnostic test for HSV-1
Tzanck Smear
133
Varicella Zoster Virus hides in
Dorsal root ganglion
134
type of rash/Manifestation of chicken pox
Vesiculopapular Rash
135
Recurrence of VZV
Shingles
136
Recurrence of HSV-1
Herpes Labialis "Cold Sore"
137
Facial Paralysis, Ear Rash, affects CN 7 & 8, common in adult, blistering, painful, reddish rash on ears and mouth.
Ramsay Hunt Syndrome
138
Heterophil antibodies is seen in what disease? common in teenagers.
Infectious Mononucleosis "Kissing Disease"
139
Test used to check for heterophil antibodies
Paul-Bunnel Test
140
Non-Hodgkins is Histologic study: Starry Sky appearance. Xray: Moth eatan appearance.
Burkitt's Lymphoma
141
Moth eaten is seen in
Acute Osteomyelitis Burkitt's Lymphoma Chondrosarcoma EWING'S SARCOMA
142
White lesion which cannot be rubbed off
Leukoplakia
143
White lesion which can be rubbed off
CANdidiasis
144
most common cancer in nasopharynx
Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma
145
Infectious mononucleosis, Burkitt's lymphoma, oral hairy leukoplakia, nasopharyngeal carcinoma is seen in what virus?
Epstein-Barr Virus
146
Type of rash of Measles
Maculopapular Rash
147
Baby measles, sixth disease is
Roseola Infantum
148
Most common cancer associated with AIDS, affects blood vessel. diagnostic histopath: Spindle cells Lesion: Patches to plaques to nodules
Kaposi's Sarcoma/KSHV
149
most common discoloration of lesion of patient with Kaposi sarcoma
Purple
150
smallest double stranded DNA virus
Hepadna / Hepa B
151
Reverse Transcriptase RNA:
HIV
152
Reverse transcriptase DNA:
Hepa B
153
Pink-eye/Conjunctivitis "Sore eyes", Pneumonia, Pharyngitis is seen in what virus
Adenovirus
154
Smallest DNA Virus, infects RBC precursor in Bone marrow
Parvovirus
155
HPV type 1,2 is seen in
Skin/Cutaneous
156
HPV types 6,11 is the
Anogenital Warts "Cauliflower-Like" "Condyloma acuminata"
157
Largest and most complex DNA virus
Poxvirus
158
Distinctive feature of Monkeypox virus
Lymphadenopathy
159
Poliomyelitis affects the ___ horn of spinal cord
Anterior Sensory - Posterior Anterior - MOTOR
160
Ulceration only in the posterior part of the oral cavity, soft palate & oropharynx
Herpangina
161
Most common cause of common cold
Rhinovirus
162
most common cause of viral jaundice
Hepatitis A
163
Hepatitis A & E transmission:
Feco-oral (tAE)
164
Most common cause of gastroenteritis in children
Rotavirus
165
German Measles is
Rubella
166
Forsheimer spots is seen in
German measles / Rubivirus
167
Virus that causes FLU
Influenza Virus / Orthomyxo Virus
168
Bullet shaped virus, affects central nervous system, histology: Negri Bodies
Rhabdovirus, Rabies.
169
Also known as endemic parotitis
Mumps
170
measles vaccine should be given:
9 months
171
Enanthem of measles: affects the mucous membrane.
Koplik's Spots
172
Exanthem of measles:
Maculopapular Rash
173
Rubeola is also known as?
Measles
174
Transmission of Covid-19
Droplet Transmission
175
Indoor transmission of Sarscov2
Aerosol
176
Most common sign of Covid19
Fever
177
Social Distancing Feet: Meter:
6ft 1 meter
178
Most effective drug in severe covid before intubation
Remdesivir (Veklury)
179
the terminal stage of HIV
AIDS
180
earliest antigen detection in hiv, major capsid protein of hiv
P24
181
hallmark of HIV
Reverse transcriptase
182
PCR meaning (antibody detection)
Polymerase Chain Reaction
183
ELISA
Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay
184
Confirmatory test of HIV
Western Blot
185
HAART (decrease viral load of HIV)
Highly Active Anti-Retroviral Therapy
186
Post-Transfusion Hepatitis is also known as
Hepatitis C
187
most common cause of encephalitis
Virus
188
Herman's sign (Petechial Rash) can be assess by
Tourniquet Test / Rumpel-Leede Test / Capillary Fragility
189
Decrease in the amount of platelet
Thrombocytopenia
190
state of complete physical, mental and social well-being, not merely the absence of disease
HEALTH
191
True or False: not all inflammation has infection, but all infection has inflammation
True
192
Most common opportunistic fungal infection
Candida Albicans
193
Close contact, droplet is a type/mode of transmission of
Direct Contact
194
Vector (insects), vehicle (water, food, fomites - inannimate objects), airborne is a type/mode of transmission of
Indirect Contact
195
Abnormal state when infection alters body functions resulting in reduction of capacities or shortening of normal life span
Disease
196
Endemic Fluorosis
Agno, Pangasinan & Bacoor, Cavite
197
Distribution of Disease: Occasionally
Sporadic
198
Distribution of Disease: Constantly Present
Endemic
199
Distribution of Disease: Acquired by many in short span of time
Epidemic
200
Distribution of Disease: Worldwide
Pandemic
201
Exposure to MO until the appearance of first sign & symptoms - Stage of replication
Incubation
202
General, non specific sign and symptom
Prodromal
203
Pronounced specific sign and symptom
Acute
204
Appearance of 2ndary infection, successful defense of immune system
Decline
205
Recovery period of disease
Convalescence
206
Breakdown of living tissue by the action of microorganisms accompanied by inflammation.
Sepsis
207
Best, Most Practical, economical, dependable method of sterilization
Autoclave
208
most widely used antiseptic
Alcohol
209
Most efficient, reliable, biologically monitored method of sterilization
Heat
210
Moist heat =
121c - 15psi - 15-20mins
211
Most commonly used gas
Ethylene Oxide Gas
212
Ethylene oxide gas is used for
Sterilization
213
autoclave follows the steam under pressure, what is the material recommended in the community
Pressure cooker
214
Gold standard for mouthwashes
Chlorhexidine
215
Cumulative effect in repeated dose
Phenol
216
1st vaccine given to new born
Bacillus Calmette Guerin (BCG) - Right Deltoid (intradermal) Hepa B - Vastus Lateralis (Intramuscular)
217
Process by which vaccines are introduced into the body before infection sets in
IMMUNIZATION
218
Measles vaccine is given to infant in __ months
9
219
Ability of the body to destroy pathogens
Immunity
220
Source of electron
Tungsten Filament
221
Objectives 4x, 10x, 40x, 100x forms
Primary Image
222
Eyepiece / Ocular lens forms
Secondary Image
223
what type of hypersensitivity reaction stimulates fungal infection
Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction, same as TB
224
Most common systemic fungal infection
Histoplasma Capsulatum - "Histoplasmosis" : TB LIKE SYMPTOMS
225
DOC for Histoplamosis
Amphotericin B
226
Most common opportunistic fungal infection cause by candida albicans, white lesion can be rubbed off.
Candidiasis
227
Most common type of candida albicans
Pseudomembranous type
228
DOC for candidiasis
Nystatin
229
DOC for systemic candidiasis
Amphotericin B
230
Angular cheilitis related to candidiasis is called
Perleche
231
Angular Cheilitis has a deficiency in vitamin
B2 (Riboflavin)
232
Decrease in Vertical Dimension is related in what fungal infection
Angular Cheilitis
233
Aspergillus Fumigatus has a presence of
Aflatoxin
234
Microorganism does not cause latent infection
Polio, Herpes Simplex
235
Candida Albicans occcurs as
both yeast and mycelial form
236
drugs that is likely to aid in treating or preventing influenza in high risk subjects during epidemics?
Amantadine
237
not a characteristic of Streptococcus pyogenes?
Gram negative
238
In aerobic respiration, the terminal electron acceptor is
Oxygen
239
Persons vaccinated against hepatitis B who have developed immunity are also immune to the
Hepatitis D
240
Viruses that attack bacteria are called
Bacteriophage
241
The most toxic exotoxin is
Botulinum toxin
242
viruses has not been associated with human cancer?
Varicella-Zoster Virus
243
Following are considered eukaryotes except? Fungi Archaea Humans Protozoa
Archaea
244
Moist heat kills microorganisms by
Denaturation of protein
245
conditions that is most likely to be associated with a heterophile agglutination titer greater than 1:128?
Infectious mononucleosis
246
The most common infection in AIDS is
Pneumocystis Carinii
247
The bacteria which can ferment mannitol anaerobically is
Staphylococcus Aureus
248
Clostridium is distinguished from Bacillus primarily in that the former is
Anaerobic
249
The rationale of using antibiotics in the treatment of scarlet fever is the prevention of complications such as
Glumerulonephritis
250
bacteria lack a cell wall and are therefore resistant to penicillin?
Mycoplasma
251
Rancidity in spoiled foods is due to
Lipolytic Organisms
252
not a characteristic of exotoxins?
Heat stable
253
Maxillary sinusitis of odontogenic origin is Mixed Aerobic Fungal Anaerobic
Mixed
254
What keeps the kidney, ureter, bladder, and upper urethra sterile?
Flow of urine