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DMD > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Prokaryotic Cell is?

A

Bacteria

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2
Q

Major Characteristic of Prokaryotic & Eukaryotic Cell

A

Prokaryotic has No Membrane
Eukaryotic has True Nucleus

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3
Q

Determines the Degree of Pathogenecity, protection of microorganisms against phagocytosis

A

GLYCOCALYX

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4
Q

Prokaryotic means of cell division/reproduction

A

Binary Fission

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5
Q

Eukaryotic cell division

A

Mitosis

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6
Q

Meiosis happens only in?

A

Sex Cell/Gametes

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7
Q

Prokaryotic Cell ribosome component

A

70s (50s, 30s)

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8
Q

Protein synthesis/factories of the cell

A

Ribosome/Polyribosome

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9
Q

Antibiotic that attacks 30s unit

A

Tetracycline (Trentacycline)
Aminoglycoside (Trentaminoglycoside)

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10
Q

Tetracycline is contraindicated in Pregnant patient for

A

6 months and until 9 yrs of age

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11
Q

Tetracycline affects the developmental stage of tooth in

A

Appositional Stage:
dentinogenesis and amelogenesis

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12
Q

Tetracycline is used for

A

Localized Aggressive Periodontitis
- High concentration in plasma, GCF.

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13
Q

Anti-TB drug that causes Ototoxicity, sense of hearing, CN VIII.

A

Streptomycin (Major group of Aminoglycoside)
- AminoOTO, AminoNEPHRO

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14
Q

Antibiotic that attacks 50s

A

Lincosamide: Clindamycin (300mg or 600mg)
Macrolides: Erythromycin
Others: CHLORAMPHENICOL

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15
Q

Chloramphenicol is DOC for

A

Typhoid Fever

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16
Q

Bone Marrow Suppression
Aplastic Anemia
Gray Baby Syndrome
- is an adverse effect of?

A

Ano ang BAG mo?
CHLORAMPHENICOL

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17
Q

Function of bone marrow?

A

Hematopoiesis “Blood cell formation”

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18
Q

Low blood cells

A

Pancytopenia

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19
Q

Function of FIMBRIAE

A

Attachment
-Adherence for Colonization

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20
Q

Function of PILI

A

DNA Transfer
1-2 pili per cell

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21
Q

Function of Flagella

A

Locomotion/Movement

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22
Q

Microorganism has no flagella is called

A

Atrichous

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23
Q

MO has one Flagella

A

Monotrichous

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24
Q

MO has one flagella with each pole

A

Amphitrichous

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25
Q

MO has multiple flagella in 1 pole

A

Lopotrichous

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26
Q

MO has multiple flagella in each pole

A

Amphilopotrichous

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27
Q

MO has flagella in entire periphery/surrounding/around the organism

A

Peritrichous

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28
Q

if the movement of microorganism is clockwise the movement of endoflagella is?

A

Counterclockwise
-The movement of endoflagella is opposite to the movement of your microorganism

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29
Q

What is the movement of flagella in Eukaryotic cell

A

WAVELIKE movement

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30
Q

What is the movement of flagella in Prokaryotic cell

A

ROTATION

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31
Q

The Rotation of Flagella is Powered by:

A

Proton Current

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32
Q

Flagella is Governed by:

A

Chemotactic Response

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33
Q

Microorganisms that has Glycocalyx/Capsule

A

Streptococcus Pneumoniae
Hemophilus Influenzae
Neisseria specie (Gonorrhea)

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34
Q

Thick Cell wall, lipoteichoic acid

A

GRAM POSITIVE

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35
Q

Thin cell wall, outer membrane: Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

A

Gram Negative

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36
Q

eNdotoxin can be found in what microorganism?

A

gram Negative only

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37
Q

Exotoxin can be found in?

A

Both positive and gram negative microorganism

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38
Q

Semipermeable phospholipid bilayer

A

Plasma/Cell Membrane

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39
Q

Capable of mutation;self replication, extrachromosomal genetic element

A

Plasmid

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40
Q

ATP Production

A

Powerhouse of the cell/Mitochondria

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41
Q

Bacterial Mitochondria

A

Mesosome

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42
Q

Microorganism that causes Syphillis

A

Treponema Pallidum
-Spirochete

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43
Q

No increase in number of living bacterial cells but increase in cell size

A

Lag Phase

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44
Q

Exponential increase in number of living bacterial cells

A

Log Phase

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45
Q

Phase where Target of Medications/Antibiotics

A

Log Phase

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46
Q

Plateau in number of living bacterial cells, Spore formation, rate of cell division and death roughly equal

A

Stationary Phase

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47
Q

Microorganism with SPORES

A

Bacillus
Clostridium
Fungi

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48
Q

Exponential decrease in number of living bacterial cells

A

Death or Exponential Phase

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49
Q

Most common type of microorganisms physical requirements temperature

A

Mesophiles (25-40’c)

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50
Q

pH, most bacteria grow best in

A

6.5 - 7.5

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51
Q

Normal Blood pH

A

7.35 - 7.45

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52
Q

Microorganisms Actinomyces, Bacteroides, Clostridium is known for

A

Obligate Anaerobes

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53
Q

carbon requirements came from inorganic materials is

A

Autotroph

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54
Q

carbon requirements came from complex organic substances

A

Heterotroph

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55
Q

Energy source came from LIGHT

A

Photoautotrophs

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56
Q

Energy source came from CHEMICAL REACTION

A

Chemoautotrophs

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57
Q

Microorganisms Chlamydia, Rickettsia, VIRUS is known as

A

Obligate Intracellular
-cannot survive outside host cells

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58
Q

Primary Stain/Agent

A

Crystal Violet

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59
Q

Counterstain/Secondary Agent

A

Safranin

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60
Q

Decolorizing Agent

A

Alcohol/Acetone

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61
Q

Mordant

A

Iodine

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62
Q

Treponema Pallidum is the microorganism that causes

A

SYPHILLIS

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63
Q

Sexually transmitted infection/disease

A

Syphillis

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64
Q

Most invasive treponema

A

Pallidum

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65
Q

Least invasive treponema

A

Carateum

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66
Q

1st stage adult syphillis, Painless ulcer

A

Chancre

*Canker Sore “Apthous Ulcer” - Painful ulcer

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67
Q

3rd stage, Tabes dorsalis is known as

A

“Neurosyphilis”

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68
Q

2nd stage syphillis, wart-like lesion.

A

Condyloma Lata
Mucous Patches

*Condyloma Acuminata “Warts” - HPV

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69
Q

Nodular Ulcer in Tongue & Palate

A

GUMMA

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70
Q

DOC for Syphillis

A

Penicillin

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71
Q

Diagnostic test for Syphilis

A

FTABS “Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption” - antibody for syphilis

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72
Q

Microscope used for syphilis

A

Darkfield microscope

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73
Q

Hutchinson’s Triad
Hutchinson’s teeth, Interstitial Keratitis, Deafness, is seen in

A

Congenital Syphilis

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74
Q

Carried by arthropods affecting endothelium

A

Rickettsia

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75
Q

Endemic Typhus

A

Rickettsia TYPHI

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76
Q

Epidemic Typhus

A

Rickettsia Prowazekii

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77
Q

Known as smallest bacteria it causes “walking pneumonia”

A

MYCOPLASMA Pneumoniae

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78
Q

Most common sexually transmitted disease

A

CHLAMYDIA

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79
Q

DOC for Chlamydia

A

Doxycycline - Not for Pregnant Px (Tetracycline Group)
Azithromycin

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80
Q

TB of the Bone/Spine

A

Pott’s Disease!

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81
Q

TB of the SKIN

A

Lupus Vulgaris!

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82
Q

TB of the Lymph Nodes

A

Scrofula!

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83
Q

What kind of necrosis caused by Mycobacterium Tubercolosis

A

CASEOUS Necrosis! (Cheese-like)

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84
Q

what kind of inflammation TB

A

GRANULOMATOUS Inflammation

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85
Q

Definitive/Specific test for TB

A

Direct Sputum Smear Microscopy

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86
Q

DOTS meaning

A

Directly Observed Treatment Shortcourse

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87
Q

DOC for TB

A

Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol
Streptomycin

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88
Q

Adverse effect of Rifampicin

A

Red-Orange Secretion

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89
Q

Adverse effect of Isoniazid

A

PerIpheral neurItIs

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90
Q

Adv. Effect of Pyrazinamide

A

hyPYRuricemia

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91
Q

Adv. effect of ethambutol

A

Optic Neuritis

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92
Q

Adv. effect of Streptomycin

A

Ototoxicity

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93
Q

Mycobaterium Leprae is also known as?

A

“Hansen’s Disease”
leprosy, ketong.

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94
Q

Multiple, Lumpy abscess with board like swelling and a central soft spot “LUMPY JAW”, Histologic study: SULFUR GRANULES

A

Actinomycosis - “Actinomyces Israelli”

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95
Q

most commonly found in skin, normal flora of the skin

A

Staphylococcus Aureus

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96
Q

most common cause of nosocomial infection in surgical wound (hospital acquired)

A

Staphylococcus Aureus

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97
Q

Acute endocarditis, Osteomyelitis is caused by what microorganism

A

Staphylococcus Aureus

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98
Q

Streptococcus Viridans, causes what disease

A

Subacute Endocarditis

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99
Q

microorganism that causes dental caries

A

Streptococcus Mutans

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100
Q

1st colonizer of ORAL CAVITY

A

Streptococcus Saliva-rius

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101
Q

Streptococcus Sanguis is seen in

A

Plaque

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102
Q

Scarlet fever/Scarlatina is caused by what microorganism

A

Streptococcus Pyogenes

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103
Q

Infection of uterus after giving birth/ Uterine Infection

A

PUERPERAL Fever

104
Q

Aschoff bodies is seen in

A

Rheumatic Fever

105
Q

2 sequelae after pharyngitis

A

Rheumatic Fever
Acute Glomerulonephritis

106
Q

Porphyromonas Gingivalis causes

A

Generalized Aggressive Periodontitis

PG=GaP

107
Q

Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans causes

A

Localied Aggressive Periodontitis

AA=LaP

108
Q

Shigella causes

A

Bacillary Dysentery

109
Q

Salmonella causes

A

Typhoid Fever

110
Q

Microorganism that causes peptic ulcer

A

Helicobacter Pylori

111
Q

Treponema that causes Periodontitis

A

T. Denticola

112
Q

Most common microorganism that causes UTI

A

E. Coli

113
Q

Inflammation of meninges which is the covering of brain and spinal cord is called?

A

Meningitis

114
Q

MicroOrganism meningitis in Neonates

A

E. Coli

114
Q

MO meningitis in child, infants

A

Hemophilus Influenzae

115
Q

MO meningitis in young adults

A

Neisseria Meningitidis

116
Q

MO meningitis in Elderly

A

Streptococcus Pneumoniae

117
Q

Crede’s prophylaxis is given to a px with Opthalmia neonatorum caused by N. gonorrhea. What is the component of crede’s prophylaxis

A. Silver Nitrite
B. Silver Nitrate
C. Sodium Nitrate
D. Sodium Nitrite

A

B. SILVER NITRATE

118
Q

Plasmodium a Protozoa that causes Malaria which attacks red blood cells is carried by

A

Anopheles Mosquito

119
Q

Dengue Virus causes Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever which is carried by Aedis Aegypti and attacks what cell?

A

Platelets

120
Q

Most common strain of Plasmodium/Malaria

A

VIVAX

121
Q

Most fatal strain of Plasmodium/Malaria

A

FALCIFARUM

122
Q

DOC for Malaria

A

Quinine

123
Q

Entamoeba Histolytica causes

A

Amoebiasis

124
Q

DOC for
Amoebiasis
Giardiasis
Trichomoniasis

A

Metronidazole

125
Q

Strawberry cervix is commonly seen in female, caused by:

A

Trichomonas Vaginalis

126
Q

HIV attacks what cell

A

CD4

127
Q

All DNA virus are double stranded except?

A

Parvo Virus

128
Q

All DNA virus induce latency except

A

Adenovirus

129
Q

Primary gingivostomatitis is a manifestation of

A

HSV-1

130
Q

HSV-1 hides in

A

Trigeminal Ganglion

131
Q

HSV-2 hides in

A

Sacral Ganglion

132
Q

Diagnostic test for HSV-1

A

Tzanck Smear

133
Q

Varicella Zoster Virus hides in

A

Dorsal root ganglion

134
Q

type of rash/Manifestation of chicken pox

A

Vesiculopapular Rash

135
Q

Recurrence of VZV

A

Shingles

136
Q

Recurrence of HSV-1

A

Herpes Labialis “Cold Sore”

137
Q

Facial Paralysis, Ear Rash, affects CN 7 & 8, common in adult, blistering, painful, reddish rash on ears and mouth.

A

Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

138
Q

Heterophil antibodies is seen in what disease? common in teenagers.

A

Infectious Mononucleosis “Kissing Disease”

139
Q

Test used to check for heterophil antibodies

A

Paul-Bunnel Test

140
Q

Non-Hodgkins is
Histologic study: Starry Sky appearance.
Xray: Moth eatan appearance.

A

Burkitt’s Lymphoma

141
Q

Moth eaten is seen in

A

Acute Osteomyelitis
Burkitt’s Lymphoma
Chondrosarcoma
EWING’S SARCOMA

142
Q

White lesion which cannot be rubbed off

A

Leukoplakia

143
Q

White lesion which can be rubbed off

A

CANdidiasis

144
Q

most common cancer in nasopharynx

A

Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma

145
Q

Infectious mononucleosis, Burkitt’s lymphoma, oral hairy leukoplakia, nasopharyngeal carcinoma is seen in what virus?

A

Epstein-Barr Virus

146
Q

Type of rash of Measles

A

Maculopapular Rash

147
Q

Baby measles, sixth disease is

A

Roseola Infantum

148
Q

Most common cancer associated with AIDS, affects blood vessel.
diagnostic histopath: Spindle cells
Lesion: Patches to plaques to nodules

A

Kaposi’s Sarcoma/KSHV

149
Q

most common discoloration of lesion of patient with Kaposi sarcoma

A

Purple

150
Q

smallest double stranded DNA virus

A

Hepadna / Hepa B

151
Q

Reverse Transcriptase RNA:

A

HIV

152
Q

Reverse transcriptase DNA:

A

Hepa B

153
Q

Pink-eye/Conjunctivitis “Sore eyes”, Pneumonia, Pharyngitis is seen in what virus

A

Adenovirus

154
Q

Smallest DNA Virus, infects RBC precursor in Bone marrow

A

Parvovirus

155
Q

HPV type 1,2 is seen in

A

Skin/Cutaneous

156
Q

HPV types 6,11 is the

A

Anogenital Warts “Cauliflower-Like”
“Condyloma acuminata”

157
Q

Largest and most complex DNA virus

A

Poxvirus

158
Q

Distinctive feature of Monkeypox virus

A

Lymphadenopathy

159
Q

Poliomyelitis affects the ___ horn of spinal cord

A

Anterior

Sensory - Posterior
Anterior - MOTOR

160
Q

Ulceration only in the posterior part of the oral cavity, soft palate & oropharynx

A

Herpangina

161
Q

Most common cause of common cold

A

Rhinovirus

162
Q

most common cause of viral jaundice

A

Hepatitis A

163
Q

Hepatitis A & E transmission:

A

Feco-oral (tAE)

164
Q

Most common cause of gastroenteritis in children

A

Rotavirus

165
Q

German Measles is

A

Rubella

166
Q

Forsheimer spots is seen in

A

German measles / Rubivirus

167
Q

Virus that causes FLU

A

Influenza Virus / Orthomyxo Virus

168
Q

Bullet shaped virus, affects central nervous system, histology: Negri Bodies

A

Rhabdovirus, Rabies.

169
Q

Also known as endemic parotitis

A

Mumps

170
Q

measles vaccine should be given:

A

9 months

171
Q

Enanthem of measles:
affects the mucous membrane.

A

Koplik’s Spots

172
Q

Exanthem of measles:

A

Maculopapular Rash

173
Q

Rubeola is also known as?

A

Measles

174
Q

Transmission of Covid-19

A

Droplet Transmission

175
Q

Indoor transmission of Sarscov2

A

Aerosol

176
Q

Most common sign of Covid19

A

Fever

177
Q

Social Distancing
Feet:
Meter:

A

6ft
1 meter

178
Q

Most effective drug in severe covid before intubation

A

Remdesivir
(Veklury)

179
Q

the terminal stage of HIV

A

AIDS

180
Q

earliest antigen detection in hiv, major capsid protein of hiv

A

P24

181
Q

hallmark of HIV

A

Reverse transcriptase

182
Q

PCR meaning (antibody detection)

A

Polymerase Chain Reaction

183
Q

ELISA

A

Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay

184
Q

Confirmatory test of HIV

A

Western Blot

185
Q

HAART (decrease viral load of HIV)

A

Highly Active Anti-Retroviral Therapy

186
Q

Post-Transfusion Hepatitis is also known as

A

Hepatitis C

187
Q

most common cause of encephalitis

A

Virus

188
Q

Herman’s sign (Petechial Rash) can be assess by

A

Tourniquet Test / Rumpel-Leede Test / Capillary Fragility

189
Q

Decrease in the amount of platelet

A

Thrombocytopenia

190
Q

state of complete physical, mental and social well-being, not merely the absence of disease

A

HEALTH

191
Q

True or False: not all inflammation has infection, but all infection has inflammation

A

True

192
Q

Most common opportunistic fungal infection

A

Candida Albicans

193
Q

Close contact, droplet is a type/mode of transmission of

A

Direct Contact

194
Q

Vector (insects), vehicle (water, food, fomites - inannimate objects), airborne is a type/mode of transmission of

A

Indirect Contact

195
Q

Abnormal state when infection alters body functions resulting in reduction of capacities or shortening of normal life span

A

Disease

196
Q

Endemic Fluorosis

A

Agno, Pangasinan & Bacoor, Cavite

197
Q

Distribution of Disease:
Occasionally

A

Sporadic

198
Q

Distribution of Disease:
Constantly Present

A

Endemic

199
Q

Distribution of Disease:
Acquired by many in short span of time

A

Epidemic

200
Q

Distribution of Disease:
Worldwide

A

Pandemic

201
Q

Exposure to MO until the appearance of first sign & symptoms - Stage of replication

A

Incubation

202
Q

General, non specific sign and symptom

A

Prodromal

203
Q

Pronounced specific sign and symptom

A

Acute

204
Q

Appearance of 2ndary infection, successful defense of immune system

A

Decline

205
Q

Recovery period of disease

A

Convalescence

206
Q

Breakdown of living tissue by the action of microorganisms accompanied by inflammation.

A

Sepsis

207
Q

Best, Most Practical, economical, dependable method of sterilization

A

Autoclave

208
Q

most widely used antiseptic

A

Alcohol

209
Q

Most efficient, reliable, biologically monitored method of sterilization

A

Heat

210
Q

Moist heat =

A

121c - 15psi - 15-20mins

211
Q

Most commonly used gas

A

Ethylene Oxide Gas

212
Q

Ethylene oxide gas is used for

A

Sterilization

213
Q

autoclave follows the steam under pressure, what is the material recommended in the community

A

Pressure cooker

214
Q

Gold standard for mouthwashes

A

Chlorhexidine

215
Q

Cumulative effect in repeated dose

A

Phenol

216
Q

1st vaccine given to new born

A

Bacillus Calmette Guerin (BCG) - Right Deltoid (intradermal)
Hepa B - Vastus Lateralis (Intramuscular)

217
Q

Process by which vaccines are introduced into the body before infection sets in

A

IMMUNIZATION

218
Q

Measles vaccine is given to infant in __ months

A

9

219
Q

Ability of the body to destroy pathogens

A

Immunity

220
Q

Source of electron

A

Tungsten Filament

221
Q

Objectives 4x, 10x, 40x, 100x forms

A

Primary Image

222
Q

Eyepiece / Ocular lens forms

A

Secondary Image

223
Q

what type of hypersensitivity reaction stimulates fungal infection

A

Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction, same as TB

224
Q

Most common systemic fungal infection

A

Histoplasma Capsulatum - “Histoplasmosis” : TB LIKE SYMPTOMS

225
Q

DOC for Histoplamosis

A

Amphotericin B

226
Q

Most common opportunistic fungal infection cause by candida albicans, white lesion can be rubbed off.

A

Candidiasis

227
Q

Most common type of candida albicans

A

Pseudomembranous type

228
Q

DOC for candidiasis

A

Nystatin

229
Q

DOC for systemic candidiasis

A

Amphotericin B

230
Q

Angular cheilitis related to candidiasis is called

A

Perleche

231
Q

Angular Cheilitis has a deficiency in vitamin

A

B2 (Riboflavin)

232
Q

Decrease in Vertical Dimension is related in what fungal infection

A

Angular Cheilitis

233
Q

Aspergillus Fumigatus has a presence of

A

Aflatoxin

234
Q

Microorganism does not cause latent infection

A

Polio, Herpes Simplex

235
Q

Candida Albicans occcurs as

A

both yeast and mycelial form

236
Q

drugs that is likely to aid in treating or preventing influenza in high risk subjects during epidemics?

A

Amantadine

237
Q

not a characteristic of Streptococcus pyogenes?

A

Gram negative

238
Q

In aerobic respiration, the terminal electron acceptor is

A

Oxygen

239
Q

Persons vaccinated against hepatitis B who have developed immunity are also immune to the

A

Hepatitis D

240
Q

Viruses that attack bacteria are called

A

Bacteriophage

241
Q

The most toxic exotoxin is

A

Botulinum toxin

242
Q

viruses has not been associated with human cancer?

A

Varicella-Zoster Virus

243
Q

Following are considered eukaryotes except?

Fungi
Archaea
Humans
Protozoa

A

Archaea

244
Q

Moist heat kills microorganisms by

A

Denaturation of protein

245
Q

conditions that is most likely to be associated with a heterophile agglutination titer greater than 1:128?

A

Infectious mononucleosis

246
Q

The most common infection in AIDS is

A

Pneumocystis Carinii

247
Q

The bacteria which can ferment mannitol anaerobically is

A

Staphylococcus Aureus

248
Q

Clostridium is distinguished from Bacillus primarily in that the former is

A

Anaerobic

249
Q

The rationale of using antibiotics in the treatment of scarlet fever is the prevention of complications such as

A

Glumerulonephritis

250
Q

bacteria lack a cell wall and are therefore resistant to penicillin?

A

Mycoplasma

251
Q

Rancidity in spoiled foods is due to

A

Lipolytic Organisms

252
Q

not a characteristic of exotoxins?

A

Heat stable

253
Q

Maxillary sinusitis of odontogenic origin is

Mixed
Aerobic
Fungal
Anaerobic

A

Mixed

254
Q

What keeps the kidney, ureter, bladder, and upper urethra sterile?

A

Flow of urine

DMD (24 decks)

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