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1
Q

The Nagas ultramafics are predominantly serpentinites and harzburgites while the Surop ultramafics are composed mainly of serpentinized harzburgite, dunite with lherzolite and podiform chromitite exhibiting tectonic fabric. These two ultramafic bodies are associated with the:

A

Pujada Ophiolite

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2
Q

Agno Batholith, the former name of the Central Cordillera Diorite Complex, was introduced by:

A

Fernandez and Pulanco

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3
Q

Which ridge defines the eastern limit of the Shikoku Basin?

A

Izu-Bonin Ridge

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4
Q

Plutonium 239 is an artificially created radioactive isotope that has a half-life of 24,400 years. After 48,800 years, how much would be left of any sample of Plutonium 239?

A

¼ of the original amount

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5
Q

One of the earliest works presenting a comprehensive description of the Philippine Fault was by __________, who outlined its regional trace, described its sense of displacement and presented evidence on its activity.

A

Allen (1962)

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6
Q

In an oceanic – continental subduction environment, sediments and rocks debris together with the original parent materials from the subducting slabs are subjected to different temperature and pressure conditions. In a low pressure – high temperature settings, what metamorphic facies occur in this particular event with minerals zoisite and clinozoisite?

A

Epidote – Amphibole facies

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7
Q

This type of metamorphism is often closely associated with the emplacement of magma. changes induced in rocks by extremely high temperatures at low pressures. It is typically an effect noted in contact metamorphic aureoles immediately adjacent to very hot, usually basic, high-level intrusions, and in xenoliths.

A

Pyrometamorphism

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8
Q

occurs when hot, chemically active, mineral laden waters interact with a surrounding preexisting rock (called the country rock) takes place at low pressures and relatively low temperature, as the phase diagram shows.

A

Hydrothermal Metamorphism

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9
Q

The Chicxulub impact crater on the Yucatán Peninsula in Mexico is one of the largest found on Earth and is believed to be a major factor in the extinction of the dinosaurs The crater measures _______________ across.

A

180 km

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10
Q

According to PAG-ASA’s Tropical Cyclone Intensity Scale, how strong are the sustained winds of super typhoons?

A

> 185 km/h

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11
Q

an area on a fault that is stuck or locked. In the Earth, tectonic earthquakes are caused by slip along a fault plane, where two rock bodies are in rigid contact. Locked sections of faults, causing fault segmentations Fault behaving with creep motion Section of fault radiating uncommon seismic energy

A

asperity

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12
Q

Which of the following is an aulacogen of the Afar Triangle?

A

East African Rift

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13
Q

How long is the ground rupture produced by the Digdig fault during the 1990 Luzon Earthquake?

A

125 km

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14
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the trend between Calcite Compensation Depth (CCD) and Aragonite Compensation Depth (ACD)?

A

ACD is shallower than CCD

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15
Q

Physical juxtaposition of contrasting magma compositions with little or no chemical homogenization.

A

Magma Mingling

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16
Q

tiny pockets of magma that get trapped in the crystals of growing igneous rocks. Traditionally, volcano scientists study melt inclusions because they give us a snapshot of the conditions which drove explosive eruptions.

A

Magma Inclusion

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17
Q

Forms where the angle of subduction of the downgoing slab is steep and the rate of subduction is greater than the rate of plate convergence. Rifting occurs in the region of the volcanic arc where the crust is hotter and weaker.

A

Backarc Basin

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18
Q

The Minilog Formation has the index fossil _________ exposed in Palawan.

A

Neoschwagerina sp.

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19
Q

The comet that made impact on the planet Jupiter in the 1990s

A

Shoemaker-Levy

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20
Q

part of the ph stratig

A

antique basin
iloilo arc
ancient negros range

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21
Q

Dinalungan Diorite Complex is formerly known as?

A

Coastal Batholith

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22
Q

Strong, cold air masses moving down mountain slopes or off the edges of ice masses. Sounding almost like acrobatic winds, katabatic winds do bear a resemblance to tumbling, since they are essentially winds that flow downhill. Also known as fall winds, usually caused by gravity pulling higher density air downslope to lower density air

A

Katabatic Winds

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23
Q

prevailing winds from the west toward the east in the middle latitudes between 30 and 60 degrees latitude. They originate from the high-pressure areas in the horse latitudes and trend towards the poles and steer extratropical cyclones in this general manner.

A

Prevailing Westerlies

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24
Q

also called upslope wind, local air current that blows up a hill or mountain slope facing the Sun. During the day, the Sun heats such a slope (and the air over it) faster than it does the adjacent atmosphere over a valley or a plain at the same altitude.

A

Anabatic Winds

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25
Q

dry, cold prevailing winds that blow from the east. They emanate from the polar highs, areas of high pressure around the North and South Poles flow to low-pressure areas in sub-polar regions.

A

Polar Easterlies

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26
Q

A fold with an interlimb angle between 70° to 120°

A

Open

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27
Q

Thickness of the outer core as measured in miles

A

1410

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28
Q

How long does it take for the synodic month cycle to happen?

A

29.5 days

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29
Q

Reidel Shears indicate an overall what motion?

A

Right lateral

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30
Q

Thermoremanent magnetism is a development in several igneous rocks wherein the magnetic minerals will be parallel aligned to:

A

The earth’s magnetic field at the time the rock first solidified

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31
Q

Synonym of “cognate xenolith”, these are pieces of older rock within the intrusion genetically related to the intrusion A rock fragment that has become enveloped in a larger rock of a similar type, during the latter’s development and hardening.

A

Autolith

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32
Q

A rock fragment that has become enveloped in a larger rock of a similar type, during the latter’s development and hardening. can be any type of rock and sometimes the changes in texture and mineralogy are so dramatic that is difficult to distinguish what the protolith was.

A

protolith

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33
Q

On 43 Ma, this Plate undergone a 50-degree clockwise major kinematic organization with respect to hotspots:

A

Pacific

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34
Q

A microstructure usually attributed with faults which form a steep angularity with the slip direction. The spaces represent cavity where minerals like carbonates and silicates may form as in-fills.

A

Step

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35
Q

fracture surfaces in rocks that are polished and/or coated with secondary mineral growths and that commonly bear a linear structure. The usual inference is that they are shear fractures.

A

Slickenline

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36
Q

There are three active collision zones in the Philippines. The Mindoro-Panay collision zone is characterized as:

A

arc-continent

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37
Q

ph stratig groupings

A

south china sea basin
sulu sea basin
celebes sea basin

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38
Q

When spreading centers develop on a continent, the final stage is

A

Mid-oceanic Ridge

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39
Q

Which of the following is an Equal Angle stereonet? This is used mainly in mineralogy for crystal projections

A

Wulff

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40
Q

It is the largest basin in the Philippine Sea Plate, occupying about 50% of the plate’s area

A

West Philippine Basin

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41
Q

complete ophiolite sequence

A

Isabela
Pujada
Southern Palawan

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42
Q

These are sediment packages of genetically related beds representing a single minor transgression event followed by sediment progradation. a set of relatively conformable, genetically interrelated rock strata or stratal set that is bounded by marine flooding surfaces and their correlatable interfaces

A

Parasequences

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43
Q

as the packaging of rocks bounded by discontinuities within a time-stratigraphic framework (NACSN, 1983). These bounding discontinuities can include unconformities, ravinement surfaces, flooding surfaces, and omission surfaces

A

Allostratigraphic Units

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44
Q

This is a geologic feature of thrust faulting terranes, which result in outlier exposure. It is a remnant produced by the erosion of hanging wall transported for kilometers from its original distance. Often, they are nearly horizontal translated strata overlying autochthonous strata.

A

Klippe

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45
Q

a large sheetlike body of rock that has been moved more than 2 km (1.2 mi) or 5 km (3.1 mi) above a thrust fault from its original position. form in compressional tectonic settings like continental collision zones or on the overriding plate in active subduction zones.

A

Nappes

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46
Q

as an area where older rocks are found to be surrounded by younger rocks.

A

inlier geology

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47
Q

What type of fault produced the 2013 Bohol Earthquake?

A

Reverse

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48
Q

One of the sites where ammonite fossils were discovered in the Philippines include the Silungan ng Higante (Giant’s Haven) in San Andres, Catanduanes. These fossils from Catanduanes are estimated to be at _______ years old

A

100.5 to 125 million

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49
Q

Also called artesian aquifer, this aquifer holds water under pressure by a layer above it that does not allow water to pass through.

A

Confined Aquifer

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50
Q

In tectonics, this refers to something formed elsewhere than its present location.

A

Allochthonous

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51
Q

Element/s with an affinity for silicate phases.

A

Lithophile

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52
Q

Which of the following is an Equal Area stereonet? This is mostly used in structural geology for the statistical analysis of spatial data.

A

Schmidt

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53
Q

The largest system of canyons and rifts in the solar system which runs about 1⁄4 of Mars.

A

Valles Marineris

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54
Q

This is a sequence of conglomerates, sandstones and shales, in places with limestone lenses and interbeds of volcanic flows and tuffs, unconformably overlying the Pugo Formation

A

Zigzag Formation

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55
Q

It is the amplitude of the largest peak acceleration recorded on an accelerogram at a site during a particular earthquake.

A

Peak ground acceleration

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56
Q

Φ range values for gravel-sized sediment particles.

A

-1 to -12

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57
Q

Which of the following is likely to be an end product of the weathering of a typical granite?

A

Quartz and Kaolinite

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58
Q

The boundary between Earth’s boundary and outer space roposed conventional boundary between Earth’s atmosphere and outer space set by the international record-keeping body FAI

A

Karman Line

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59
Q

What term is used to describe the lowest layer in a thermally stratified lake or reservoir, characterized by colder, denser water, a constant temperature, and no mixing?

A

Hypolimnion

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60
Q

What is the epilimnion and hypolimnion?

A

These layers are referred to as the epilimnion (warm surface waters) and hypolimnion (cold bottom waters) which are separated by the metalimnion, or thermocline layer, a stratum of rapidly changing temperature.

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61
Q

The middle layer in a thermally stratified lake or reservoir. In this layer there is a rapid decrease in temperature with depth. Also called thermocline.

A

Metalimnion

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62
Q

The lower, dense stratum of a meromictic lake (one with permanently stratified layers) that does not mix with the waters above. [

A

Monimolimnion

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63
Q

s a lake which has layers of water that do not intermix. In ordinary, holomictic lakes, at least once each year, there is a physical mixing of the surface and the deep waters.

A

meromictic lakes?

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64
Q

A line joining points of equal time intervals or ages is known as an

A

Isochron

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65
Q

a line on a map that shows a meteorologist what the pressure is at the surface of the earth. They are lines that connect equal points of pressure.

A

isobar geology

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66
Q

A contour that connects points of equal thickness.

A

Isopachgeology

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67
Q

The product of collision between the Eurasian Plate and the Philippine Sea Plate

A

Philippine Mobile Belt

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68
Q

The formation of new channel across an inner bend sediment deposit of floodplain peninsula enclosed by a meander loop that typically results in gradual closure of the abandoned channel by vegetation. to allow the rapid transport of items from the upper floors to a central location on one of the lower floors or basement.

A

Chute

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69
Q

a standing wave oscillating in a body of water. This animation shows a standing wave (black) depicted as a sum of two propagating waves traveling in opposite directions (blue and red).

A

Seiches

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70
Q

When basalt undergoes partial melting, what kind of rock generally forms from the resulting magma?

A

Andesite

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71
Q

Which stream order could be classified as a “headwater” stream

A

1st Order

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72
Q

This man is credited of the modern usage for the term “facies” as referred to in stratigraphy.

A

Amanz Gressly

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73
Q

Orthosilicates, or silicates with the isolated tetrahedra structure, includes the following minerals

A

olivine
monticellite
humite

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74
Q

Beryl, a common ring silicate, crystallizes in what crystal system

A

Hexagonal

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75
Q

Schorl, Dravite, and Elbaite, are varieties of which mineral?

A

Tourmaline

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76
Q

Which of the following minerals exhibits a distinctive “bow-tie” structure and anomalous optical properties?

A

Prehnite

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77
Q

It was first described in 1827 by Ernst Friedrich Glocke for an occurrence in Moravia in the Czech Republic; the name is derived from the Greek “stilpnos” (“shining”), and “melanos” (“black”), alluding to its appearance. is a common mineral in low-grade metagreywackes and blueschist-facies rocks, as well as in metamorphosed iron formations.

A

Stilpnomelane

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78
Q

Some coloured minerals change color between two ‘extremes’ when the microscope stage is rotated. These two extremes in color are seen how many times during a complete (360°) rotation?

A

twice

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79
Q

Anisotropic minerals go into extinction how many times during the complete 360 degrees rotation?

A

four times

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80
Q

White light entering a mineral section is split into the colors of the spectrum. This phenomenon is called: the separation of light into colours, an effect more properly called angular dispersion

A

dispersion

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81
Q

The weight of a small quartz fragment is 4.265 grams in air; in water it is 1.609 grams. What is its specific gravity?

A

2.65

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82
Q

A common twinning law of quartz where the c-axis of two crystals meet at an angle giving a V-shaped twin

A

Japanese Twin Law

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83
Q

two intergrown crystals, one rotated 180o from the other about the [001] axis. the most common type of twinning in orthoclase, and is thus very diagnostic of orthoclase when it occurs. a pair of individual crystals, separated by a single line, in thin section

A

Carlsbad Twin Law

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84
Q

The law governing a twinning observed in the hexagonal system commonly shown by quartz in which two righthand or two lefthand crystals interpenetrate after one has revolved 180 degrees about the twinning axis.

A

Dauphine Twin Law

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85
Q

A type of twin found in quartz in which the two crystalline individuals are of opposite kinds, one being right-handed, the other left-handed, twinned across the {1120} plane, with a face of the trigonal prism of the second order as twinning plane.

A

Brazil Twin Law

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86
Q

The cation:anion radius ratio is calculated as 0.315. What is the coordination number of the atomic packing?

A

4

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87
Q

How many three-fold rotation axes does a crystal class 432 have?

A

four

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88
Q

The second symbol in the crystal class 4mm refers to

A

two mirror planes along the a1 and a2 directions

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89
Q

The face intercepts of a crystal face are ∞a, ∞b, 1c. What is the Miller Index of this face?

A

(001)

90
Q

In the stereographic projection, the outer circle of the net is known as:

A

primitive

91
Q

How many possible unique arrangements of symmetry elements in two dimensions are possible?

A

17

92
Q

Out of the 14 Bravais Lattices, how many are primitive?

A

6

93
Q

What is the hardness of plagioclase?

A

6

94
Q

The members of the plagioclase series are defined based on anorthite content. What is the range of the anorthite content of labradorite?

A

50-70

95
Q

What is the chemical formula of grossular?

A

Ca3Al2(SiO4)3

96
Q

he common members of the spinel group are

A

spinel, chromite, magnetite

97
Q

Elements with atomic numbers 90 through 103 and valence electrons in 5f orbitals are known as:

A

Actinides

98
Q

The twin law {010} which results in a polysynthetic twinning in plagioclase is known as: lagioclase (NaAlSi3O8 - CaAl2Si2O8) very commonly shows albite polysynthetic twinning. The twin law - {010} indicates that the twining occurs perpendicular to the b crystallographic axis

A

Albite Law

99
Q

has [010] as the twin axis. As stated above, occurs as the result of monoclinic orthoclase or sanidine transforming to microcline (all have the same chemical formula - KAlSi3O8)

A

pericline twinning

99
Q

forms a contact twin commonly observed in the mineral orthoclase. This twinning is very diagnostic of orthoclase when it occurs.

A

Manebach Law

100
Q

Which of the following twin laws CANNOT be observed in minerals under a monoclinic system?

A

Brazil Law

101
Q

What is anatexis?

A

Partial melting of preexisting rock, generally associated with high-grade metamorphism.

102
Q

One of the common forms of the cubic system of crystal class 432 characterized by 24 identical faces.

A

Gyroid

103
Q

an irregular dodecahedron composed of identical irregular pentagons. The name “pyritohedron” derives from that fact that a common crystal form in pyrite has this shape. An isometric closed crystal form of 12 faces, each an irregular pentagon. It is named after pyrite,

A

Pyritohedron

104
Q

A solid with forty-eight equal triangular faces. sometric crystal having 48 equal triangular faces.

A

Hexoctahedron

105
Q

a 12-faced solid belonging to the tetartohedral group of the isometric system and having faces corresponding to one fourth of those of the hexoctahedron

A

tetartoid

106
Q

An element that tends to concentrate in silicates rather than in metals or sulfides.

A

Lithophile

107
Q

gas loving

A

atmophile

108
Q

Pauling’s fifth rule is also known as

A

Principle of parsimony

109
Q

What are the five Pauling’s rules and what is the meaning of that rules?

A

First rule: the radius ratio rule. 2 Second rule: the electrostatic valence rule. 3 Third rule: sharing of polyhedron corners, edges and faces. 4 Fourth rule: crystals containing different cations. 5 Fifth rule: the rule of parsimony.

110
Q

What is the chemical formula of monazite?

A

(Ce,La,Th)PO4

111
Q

Which of the following minerals can be scratched by a fingernail?

A

Stibnite

112
Q

The following are Goldschmidt’s rules of the ionic radius and charge

A

Ions of similar radii (± 15%) and the same charge will enter into a crystal in amounts proportional to their concentration in the liquid.
When two ions with the same charge compete for a lattice site, the ion of smaller radius will be preferentially incorporated into the growing crystal.

When two ions of the same radius (± 15%) compete for a lattice site, the ion with the higher charge will be preferentially incorporated into a growing crystal.

113
Q

These are minerals with the same chemical formulae and the same structural sub-units, which are stacked in different ways.

A

polytypes

114
Q

a high-symmetry structure type that can be viewed as an idealized version of a lower-symmetry structure. It was introduced by Helen Megaw in relation to perovskites, where it is still mostly used.

A

aristotypes

115
Q

His work led to the development of the concept of the unit cell as the integral part of the crystal structure.

A

Hauy

116
Q

If the microscope does not possess a Bertrand lens, what should be removed in order to examine interference figures?

A

eyepiece

116
Q

Which of the following is a silicate containing REEs?

A

allanite

117
Q

Amblygonite is a:

A

lithium aluminum phosphate

118
Q

Graphite is also known as

A

plumbago

119
Q

Graphic texture is indicative of

A

Eutectic crystallization

120
Q

Silica-rich viscous magmas often produce

A

Strato-volcano

121
Q

Which one of the following minerals is correctly matched with its optical property?

A

Pyroxene – Nearly orthogonal cleavage

122
Q

Using the phase rule, the maximum number of phases in a 3 (three) component geological system having 1 (one) degree of freedom is:

A

4

123
Q

A-type granites are associated with:

A

Subduction zone

124
Q

Talc is formed from the alteration of olivine by:

A

Hydration

125
Q

Texture having intergrowth of pyroxene and plagioclase is called

A

Ophitic

126
Q

Which of the following methods is best suited to date the marine carbonates up to the last 30,000 yr BP?

A

Radiocarbon dating

127
Q

Tectosilicates represent sharing of:

A

All oxygen ions for joining with adjacent units

128
Q

Fibrolite is:

A

Has composition Al2SiO5

129
Q

Which one of the following minerals is commonly used for determination of vibration direction of the polarizer in a petrological microscope?

A

Tourmaline

130
Q

Two minerals P and Q, were studied under the microscope. Mineral P is characterized by two orthogonal cleavages. Mineral Q has more than one set of cleavage, but these are NOT at right angles, Q also changes relief on rotation of the stage. Identify P and Q from the following alternatives:

A

P-hornblende, Q-calcite

131
Q

Which one of the following represents a closed form?

A

Dihexagonal pyramid

132
Q

Decay of which one of the following isotopes can be used for dating Archean rocks?

A

Sm-147

133
Q

(also known as radiocarbon dating) to estimate the age of certain objects. Traditional radiocarbon dating is applied to organic remains between 500 and 50,000 years old and exploits the fact that trace amounts of radioactive carbon are found in the natural environment

A

C-14

134
Q

particularly useful for determining the ages of relatively recent lacustrine and coastal marine sediments and so has been applied increasingly to studies concerned with the impact of human activity on the aquatic environment (e.g., measuring the accumulation rates of pollutants in sediments).

A

Pb-210

135
Q

Which of the following elements is present in 4 and 6 coordination with O?

A

Al3+

136
Q

A greisen deposit exposes what part of the granitic body?

A

Uppermost

137
Q

Early stages of diagenesis in carbonate rocks show:

A

Rim cement

138
Q

consist of calcite rhomb mosaics that line and fill pores and intraskeletal chambers. The size of calcite rhombs commonly increases towards the center of void spaces. They are common in meteoric and burial environments where they may overlie earlier fibrous and bladed cements.

A

Drusy cement

139
Q

s a deformation mechanism where solid material in the presence of its solution fluid responds to applied non-hydrostatic stresses by dissolution in the zone of largest normal stress (pitted pebble, stylolite, cleavage), mass transfer in the fluid phase and deposition in the zone of smallest norma

A

Pressure solution

140
Q

The principal section of a uniaxial mineral contains:

A

Optic axis and ordinary ray

141
Q

This assemblage is characteristic of low to medium grade low-P series metamorphism of pelites:

A

Cordierite+biotite+muscovite+quartz

142
Q

A glide plane involves:

A

Reflection + translation

143
Q

The spinifex texture with long spines of olivine is associated with:

A

Komatiite

144
Q

Leucite is comparatively silica poor than microcline. Its chemical formula is:

A

KAlSi2O6

145
Q

Bone coal refers to

A

Very impure coal containing high ash content

146
Q

. What is the chief component of the alloy pewter?

A

Tin

147
Q

Total number of lattice points in a 3D primitive cell is:

A

1

148
Q

Which of the following silica minerals is a characteristic of high pressure in excess of 20 Kbar?

A

Coesite

149
Q

The maximum total term for an Exploration Permit for nonmetallic minerals is:

A

4 years

150
Q

Natural gas with a relatively high content of hydrogen sulfide is known as

A

Sour gas

151
Q

Natural gas or landfill gas can be termed ‘sweet gas’ if it contains only trace quantities of H2S and CO2. in its pure form is non-corrosive, requires little refining, and we can transport and market it safely.

A

Sweet gas

152
Q

Natural gas that contains more than 4 ppmv of hydrogen sulphide (H2S) is commonly referred to as “. This is because the odour of hydrogen sulphide gas in air at very low concentrations is similar to that of rotten eggs. Significant quantities of natural gas resources around the world are known to contain H2S

A

sour gas

153
Q

The Philippine Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) System is under Presidential Decree No. ______ which was ratified on June 11, 1978

A

1586

154
Q

A major group of hydrocarbons with a general formula of CnH2n.

A

Naphthenes

155
Q

hydrocarbons, organic compounds that consist exclusively of the elements carbon and hydrogen – without which life would not be possible on Earth. The main aromatics are benzene, toluene and the xylenes; they are used as starting materials for a wide range of consumer products.

A

Aromatics

156
Q

organic compounds with a ring structure that contains in the cycle at least one carbon atom and at least one other element, such as N, O, or S. The most common cycles contain five or six atoms, with the stability of these rings being higher than that of three, four, seven, or larger rings.

A

Heterocompounds

157
Q

What is the difference between paraffins and naphthenes?

A

The key difference between paraffinic and naphthenic is that paraffinic substances contain alkanes while naphthenic substances contain cyclic aliphatic hydrocarbons. The term paraffinic refers to substances containing paraffin compounds, whereas the term naphthenic refers to the substances containing naphthene.

158
Q

Cycloalkanes are monocyclic alkanes consisting of carbon and hydrogen atoms bonded with single bonds in a molecular structure containing a single ring.

A

Paraffins

159
Q

On what year did the Marcopper mining disaster occur?

A

1996

160
Q

In a gravity survey, correction due to topography is known as:

A

bouguer

161
Q

deleterious minerals in concreting aggregate

A

Coal
Mica
Smectite

162
Q

It is the most widely mined skarn deposit in the world.

A

Fe skarn

163
Q

If you want to show on a map even the smaller details or features of a certain area, which of the following scales will you use?

A

1:5,000

164
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of vector data over raster data?

A

provides precise locational information of points

165
Q

The Late Oligocene – Early Miocene alkaline intrusive complexes in Northern Luzon are associated with alkaline-hosted mineralization. Which of these gold deposits are not alkaline-hosted?

A

Didipio Cu-Au

166
Q

ithophiles are elements that remain or close to the surface. They combine readily with oxygen, forming compounds that do not sink into the core. Which of the following is not a lithophile element?

A

Zn

167
Q

What is the collective name for the organic material that is insoluble in organic solvents, water, or oxidizing acids, and if exposed to sufficient time and temperature these large molecules will crack into smaller molecules, mostly petroleum?

A

kerogen

168
Q

sticky, black, highly viscous liquid or semi-solid form of petroleum.

A

bitumen

169
Q

A fuel consisting of a blend of ethanol and unleaded gasoline, especially a blend of 10 percent ethanol and 90 percent gasoline. The ethanol is obtained by the fermentation and subsequent distillation of sugar cane, maize, or potatoes.

A

gasohol

170
Q

A type of biostratigraphic sampling method which can be performed at regular distance intervals and/or targeted to different lithologies. As a rule, each lithology should be sampled at several locations to determine if there are any lateral, as well as vertical, variations in fossil abundance.

A

spot sampling

171
Q

In engineering geology, Atterberg limits are usually used to measure the _____ of soils.

A

Plasticity

172
Q

This rule states that even atomic-numbered elements are more abundant than odd atomic-numbered elements.

A

Oddo – Harkins Rule

173
Q

In contour maps the 5th line is heavier. What do you call this?

A

Index Contour

174
Q

A thin section of an ore mineral shows the following properties under the reflected light microscope:

A

sphalerite

175
Q

It is an alteration that is associated with carbonatite-hosted deposits and is characterized by the development of nepheline and aegerine.

A

Fenitization

176
Q

involves the introduction into the rock of boron: hence the process is also known as boron metasomatism. Tourmaline is also a common detrital mineral in sediments derived from the erosion of granites and similar rocks.

A

What is Tourmalinization?
The formation of metasomatic tourmaline,

177
Q

A process of hydrothermal alteration in which feldspar and muscovite are converted to an aggregate of quartz, topaz, tourmaline, and lepidolite (i.e., greisen) by the action of water vapor containing fluorine.

A

Greisenization

178
Q

to convert into a zeolite. 2. : to fill (as the openings in a rock) with zeolites. 3. : to treat in a process using zeolite.

A

Zeolitization

179
Q

Bauxite is the only ore from which aluminum is extracted. It is not a mineral but an aggregate. Which among these is not one of the chief aggregates of bauxite?

A

Ilmenite

180
Q

Engineering rock fall control which does not affect the process of rock detachment, but rather focuses on containing and intercepting falling and sliding debris.

A

Passive Control

181
Q

A “Deepwater Contract” refers to a service contract at least 85% of the total contract area is in water depths beyond ___ meters.

A

200

182
Q

An unconventional petroleum reservoir that requires massive hydraulic fracturing and directional drilling to produce the well because of the impermeable nature of reservoir rocks.

A

Tight gas

183
Q

an unconventional form of natural gas found in coal deposits or coal seams. It is a primary clean energy source of natural gas. The development and utilization of CBM is of great social and economic benefit.

A

Coal bed methane

184
Q

tar sands, crude bitumen, or bituminous sands, are a type of unconventional petroleum deposit. Oil sands are either loose sands or partially consolidated sandstone containing a naturally occurring mixture of sand, clay, and water, soaked with bitumen, a dense and extremely viscous form of petroleum naturally occurring mixture of sand, clay or other minerals, water and bitumen, which is a heavy and extremely viscous oil. It must be processed before it can be used by refineries to produce fuels such as gasoline and diesel.

A

Oil sands

185
Q

Breccias; diatremes; residual vuggy quartz; stratabound disseminated; massive sulfide; veins and stockworks; veins generally late

Second description: Multiple stage veins of fine concordant and discordant layered mineral assemblages and breccias, comb and crustiform textures; sheeted veins; vein stockworks and breccias; fault intersections; disseminated

Third description: Multistage veins and associated breccias with coarse layers and comb and crustiform textures; disseminated; diatremes

A

high-sulfidation (first desc.), low-sulfidation (second desc.), intermediate-sulfidation (third desc.)

186
Q

Which of the following statements is true for the term “Hundred Year Flood”:

A

Flood that has one in one hundred chance to occur in a year
Flood has greater magnitude than a 50-year flood

187
Q

Importance of convolution, deconvolution, and correlation to geophysical data processing:

A

Quantitatively describe how a waveform is affected by a filter

188
Q

Which of the following estimation methods considers the directional trends of the deposits?

A

kriging

189
Q

The range in a variogram shows the separation distance greater than which the samples are dependent on each other.

A

false

190
Q

It is the industry jargon for the disparity between what the geologist or the mining engineer estimates as the grade of the ores sent to the processing plant versus the grade that the plant engineers claim they received based on sampling from the mill feed.

A

Mine Call Factor

191
Q

It is a graph or a plot of one-half of the average squared differences between pairs of samples separated by increasing distances.

A

variogram

192
Q

. No vertical exaggeration (zero) of a cross-section means that the vertical scale is ____ the horizontal scale.

A

the same as

193
Q

Which underground mining method is most effective in extracting ore in narrow veins?

A

cut-and-fill stoping

194
Q

a surface mining technique that extracts minerals from an open pit in the ground. Open-pit mining is the most common method used throughout the world for mineral mining and does not require extractive methods or tunnels.

A

open pitting

195
Q

a bulk underground mining method, which allows large low-grade deposits to be mined underground. This method involves undermining the orebody to make it collapse under its own weight into a series of chambers from which the ore extracted.

A

block caving

196
Q

The process undertaken by public authorities to identify, evaluate and decide on different options for the use of land, including consideration of long-term economic, social, and environmental objectives and the implications for different communities and interest groups.

A

Land Use Planning

197
Q

What are “dirty carbonates”?

A

carbonates that contain huge amounts of mud

198
Q

The highest point of the hydrocarbon trap is known as ___________

A

Crest

199
Q

Petroleum generation stage where crude oil and natural gas are formed.

A

Catagenesis

200
Q

a phase in the formation of petroleum and natural gas during which the temperature rises above 150 °C and may exceed 200 °C, causing destruction of kerogen and release of gas (mainly methane); at the higher temperatures petroleum is destroyed, leaving only natural gas.

A

metagenesis

201
Q

e attainment of sexual maturity by an organism still in its larval or juvenile stage and a secondary result of never experiencing later developmental stages. Organisms that are progenetic never achieve the adult form experienced by their evolutionary ancestors.

A

Progenesis petroleum

202
Q

This is the ratio of the summation of resisting forces to the summation of driving forces. Calculation of this value is essential in slope stability analyses and the design of open pit mining areas.

A

Factor of Safety

203
Q

the ratio of the change in the width per unit width of a material, to the change in its length per unit length, as a result of strain.

A

Poisson’s Ratio

204
Q

Which of the following is not an impurity in coal deposits?

A

carbon content

205
Q

This originates from the degradation of macerals during coalification. It is granular with rounded grains.

A

Micrinite

206
Q

often with crenulated surfaces), and resinite (ovoid and sometimes translucent masses of resin). The liptinites may fluoresce (i.e., luminesce because of absorption of radiation) under ultraviolet light, but with increasing rank their optical properties approach those of the vitrinites, and the two groups become indistinguishable

A

Resinite

207
Q

A maceral of coal within the vitrinite group, consisting of homogeneous jellified and precipitated plant material, lacking cell structure and of middle-range reflectance under normal reflected-light microscopy.

A

Collinite geology

208
Q

a component of some types of kerogen alongside amorphous organic matter. Alginite consists of organic-walled marine microfossils, distinct from inorganic (silica)-walled microfossils that comprise diatomaceous earth.[ a complex soil aggregate of algae based biomass fossil, clay turned volcanic ash and calcium carbonate. This material contains a complete spectrum of minerals, biological, macro- and micro-organisms helping to turn lands fertile again in regions where soil has been severely degraded in the past.

A

Alginite

209
Q

It is a green garnet mineral due to Cr- impurities in its crystal lattice

A

Uvarovite

210
Q

In what part of the ophiolite suite does chromite ore occur?

A

Dunite and Peridotite

211
Q

The most commonly utilized scheme for classifying organic matter in sediments based on the relative abundance of elemental C, O, and H plotted graphically as H/C and O/C ratio.

A

Van Krevelen Diagram

212
Q

Which of the following types of epithermal systems is most affected by meteoric water?

A

low-sulphidation

213
Q

What type of VMS deposit is found in Hixbar Mine?

A

Besshi

214
Q

_____ are often considered the most primitive meteorites and are thought to be representative of the initial material from which the solar system was also derived.

A

Carbonaceous chondrites

215
Q

You are driving a horizontal adit at the 700-meter level to reach a vertically dipping vein whose outcrop appears at a 900-meter elevation. The slope between the portal and the outcrop is about 30 degrees. You are advancing at 10 meters per day. How long will it take you to hit the vein?

A

35 days

216
Q

Which of the following data formats would most likely represent a file exported from AutoDesk-AutoCAD?

A

.dxf

217
Q

Tremolite and Actinolite are two very similar minerals that form a series with each other and essentially share the same chemical formula. Tremolite has a greater presence of magnesium over iron, whereas Actinolite has a greater presence of iron over magnesium. most common in contact and regionally metamorphosed calcareous sediments. They are also found in metamorphosed mafic and ultramafic rocks and in blueschists. Tremolite and actinolite are also common alteration product of pyroxenes and hornblende known as uralite.

A variety of actinolite, nephrite, is one of the two minerals called jade. Nephrite is more abundant than jadeite and has few color varieties, ranging only from creamy white to green.

A

Actinolite - Ca2(Mg,Fe2+)5Si8O222

218
Q
A

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