coal Flashcards

1
Q

stage in coal production when the mined coal is processed into a range of clean,
graded, and uniform coal products that are suitable for the commercial market

A

Coal preparation

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2
Q

other term for Coal preparation

A

(beneficiation)

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3
Q

collected
from the coal streams to power plants on a regular basis not only for determination of
heat balance but also to document compliance with air pollution emission regulations

A

operating samples

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4
Q

coal handling system,
crushing is limited to a top size of

A

6 or 4 mm

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5
Q

devices most commonly used for
crushing are the

A

rotary breaker, the roll crusher, and the hammer mill.

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6
Q

e typical sizes of individual field samples vary from

A

3 to 15 kg.

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7
Q

he purest form of probability sampling and each member
of the population has an equal and known chance of being selected and bias is minimized

A

Random sampling

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8
Q

s often used instead of random sampling and, depending
on the material to be sampled, can be as good as the random sampling method

A

Systematic sampling

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9
Q

commonly used probability method that is superior to random
sampling because it reduces sampling error and is used to select a sufficient number of samples from, say, each level of the coal pile – sufficient refers to a sample
size large enough for us to be reasonably confident that the stratum represents the
population

A

Stratified sampling

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10
Q

typically used in exploratory research
where only an approximation of the data will suffice

A

convenience sampling

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11
Q

common
method of sampling and the sample is assumed to be repetitive without and foundation
for this belief and the confidence that the chosen sample is truly representative of the
coal pile is low

A

Judgment sampling

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12
Q

similar to stratified sampling and then convenience
sampling or judgment sampling is used to select the required number of samples
from each stratum.

A

Quota sampling

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13
Q

a method used when the desired sample
characteristic is rare and does introduce bias because the technique itself reduces the
likelihood that the sample will represent a good cross section from the population.

A

Snowball sampling

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14
Q

sample that represents a quantity, or lot, of coal and is
composed of a number of increments on which neither reduction nor division has been
performed
The recommended maximum quantity of coal to be represented by one gross sample is 10,000 tons

A

gross sample of coal

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15
Q

statistical term defined as the mean square
of errors;

A

Variance

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16
Q

square root of the variance is more generally known as the

A

standard
deviation or the standard error of sampling

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17
Q

function of the size of increments collected and the
number of increments included in a gross sample, improving as both are increased,
subject only to the constraint that increment size not be small enough to cause selective rejection of the largest particles present

A

precision of sampling

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18
Q

) For raw,
dirty, or poorly cleaned coal, the minimum number of increments is

A

35.

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19
Q

reserved for the collection
of sample increments from a free-falling stream of coal as opposed to the collection of increments from a motionless (stopped) conveyor belt

A

Stream sampling and flow sampling

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20
Q

only the coal near the top surface has the potential to be
included in the sample thereby violating the basic tenet of obtaining a representative
sample. increments must not be collected predominantly from
any given location relative to the dimensions of the rail car.

A

car-top sampling

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21
Q

consists of one or more pipes, arranged like the spokes of a
wheel. Openings located at the tips collect the sample as the device is rotated through
coal on a moving belt.

A

spoon sampler

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22
Q

used as a sampling device for penetrating a stationary
mass of coal and withdrawing material from its interior

A

auger drill

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23
Q

that includes all other coals, including
unknown coals

A

B

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23
Q

includes coals that have been cleaned in all sizes and allows smaller weight laboratory
samples to be retained

A

A

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24
Q

a process by which mineral matter is removed from coal using any
one of several washing processes to leave the coal as near mineral-free as is required
by the buyer or by legislation.

A

coal washing

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25
Q

present in intimate association
with the pure coal substance itself and originated from inorganic material essential
to the growth of the vegetable matter from which the coal was originally formed.

A

, intrinsic mineral
matter a

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26
Q

purely adventitious, is derived
from the roof and floor of the coal seam and from any non-coal or inorganic material
that may be associated with the seam itself.

A

extrinsic mineral matterq

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27
Q

consisting of a Henry tube, is suitable for moderately small graded
coals

A

hand jig,

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28
Q

o indicate the reliability of a measurement, or an observation but it is, more specifically, a measure of the closeness of agreement between
an experimental result and the true value.
expressed inversely in terms of the standard deviation or variance and includes any systematic error or bias

A

accuracy

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29
Q

determined by means of cooperative test programs. B

A

precision

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30
Q

srepresents the occurrence of a systematic error (systematic
errors) that is (are) of practical importance

A

bias

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31
Q

pathfinder of gold

A

As, Mo, Ag, Sn, Sb, Te, W, Bi, Ni, and Cu

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32
Q

K-T boundary

A

65.5 Ma

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33
Q

> 100 ka
feldspars, biotite,
sericite, clays, muscovite, phlogopite,
glauconite, alunite,
amphibole, whole
rocks (e.g. basalts),
volcanic glass
to obtain metamorphic or
crystallization ages

A

[40K-40Ar]
[40K-40Ca]

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34
Q

> 10 ka
n improved variation of
the K-Ar method requiring neutron irradiation
of materials in a nuclear
best method for elucidating thermal histories

A

[40K-40Ar]

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35
Q

overcomes limitations
of the K-Ar method by
using

A

laser ablation and
stepheating techniques

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36
Q

> 50 Ma
K-feldspar, plagioclase, biotite,
sericite, phlogopite,
muscovite, hornblende, whole rocks
must use an isochron
method to derive a

A

87Rb-87Sr

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37
Q

> 100 Ma
garnet, pyroxene,
mafic and ultramafic rocks (e.g.
basalts)

A

[
147Sm-143Nd]

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38
Q

> 60 Ma
sulphide minerals,
black shales, mafic
and ultramafic rocks
– useful for studying ore
formation and magma
genesis

A

187Re- 187Os]

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39
Q

> 5-10
Ma
zircon, titanite,
monazite, rutile,
baddeleyite,
xenotime, apatite
allanite, (U,Th)
oxides
zircon, titanite,
monazite, rutile,
baddeleyite,
xenotime, apatite
allanite, (U,Th)
oxides

A

[
235U-207Pb]
[
238U-206Pb]

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40
Q

> 5-10
Ma
zircon, monazite

A

[232Th-208Pb]

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41
Q

> 100 ka
zircon, apatite,
titanite
Ages and/or rates of shallow, low-T (50-200°C) crustal
processes (e.g. neotectonics,
geomorphology)

A

[232Th-208Pb]
[235U-207Pb]
[238U-206Pb]

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42
Q

< 1Ma coral, carbonates,
clastic sediments,
volcanic rocks
To date sedimentary and
igneous rocks, volcanic processes, sedimentation rates,
magma chamber evolution

A

U-Th Series
Disequilibriumk

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43
Q

date low-temperature thermal histories
of rocks, rates of
uplift or subsidence
(typically processes
with T < 250°C)
Based on the
atomic-scale damage 238U
atoms. The higher
the track density, the
older the crystal
Apatite, glass, zircon,
titanite, mica, garnet

A

Fission Track Dating

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44
Q

To date surficial
processes such as
landform formation,
length of exposure,
groundwater, erosion
rates, weathering,
ocean sediments
Based on the production (due to excitation by cosmic rays)
of rare nuclides in
rocks or other materials that are exposed
on the surface of the
earth
Any rock, quartz,
feldspar, organic
material (14C), meteorite

A

Cosmogenic Exposure
Dating (3He, 14C,
36Cl, 10Be, 26Al)

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45
Q

To date sediments,
volcanic rocks, or
archaeological samples which are typically < 50-800 ka
Based on measuring the amount of
excited electrons
in a crystal held in
metastable states
due to interactions
of ionizing radiation

quartz, alkali feldspar,
carbonates, zircon,
ceramics, glass,
bone, shells

A

Thermoluminescence

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46
Q

o date sediments,
volcanic rocks, or
archaeological samples which are typically < 50-800 k visible or
near-infrared light is
used to release the
rock’s luminescence.

A

Optically Stimulated
Luminescence

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47
Q

date sediments,
volcanic rocks,
or archaeological
samples which are
typically Pleistocene
in age or younger
measures the
amount of metastable electrons in a
crystal that has been
exposed to ionizing
radiation. Based on
the absorption of
microwave radiation by the trapped
electrons in a strong
magnetic field.
Calcite, bones, shells,
quartz, corals, volcanic rocks

A

Electron Spin
Resonance

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48
Q

conodonts
graptolites

A

ORDOVICIAN

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49
Q

nautiloid cephalopods
trilobites
gastropods

A

SILURIAN

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50
Q

conodonts
goniatites
brachiopods
gastropods
spores

A

DEVONIAN

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51
Q

foraminifers
goniatites
conodonts

A

MISSISSIPPIAN

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52
Q

fusulinids
conodonts
goniatites
radiolarians

A

PENNSYLVANIAN

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53
Q

fusulinids
conodonts
goniatites
radiolarians

A

PERMIAN

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54
Q

mollusks
conodonts

A

TRIASSIC

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55
Q

mollusks
radiolarians

A

JURASSIC

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56
Q

foraminifers
nannofossils
spore-pollen
radiolarians

A

CRETACEOUS

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57
Q

mollusks
foraminifers
ostracodes
spore-pollen
siliceous microfossils
radiolarians

A

TERTIARY

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58
Q

a conformal cylindrical map projection that was originally created to display accurate compass bearings for sea travel.

A

mercator projection

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59
Q

similar to Mercator except that the cylinder touches the sphere or ellipsoid along a meridian instead of the equator flips the cylinder 90 degrees

A

transverse mercator projection

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60
Q

flattens the sphere 60 times by shifting the cylinder central meridian 6° for each zone.

A

UTM projection

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61
Q

sed for countries that span along a longitudinal extent. “many cones,” and it is created by lining up an infinite number of cones along the central meridian. This affects the shape of the meridians.

A

polyconic projection

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62
Q

All the meridians are equally spaced straight lines converging to a common point, which is the nearest pole to the standard parallels. The parallels are represented as circular arcs centered on the pole. Their spacing increases away from the standard parallels.

A

lambert conformal conic

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63
Q

e topographic relief and the presence or absence of
contour lines does not hinder geologic interpretation.

A

small-scale
maps or in areas

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64
Q

describes a line as heading north or south, and deflected some number of degrees toward the east or west. A bearing, therefore, will always have an angle less than 90°.

A

bearing

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65
Q

a model of global mean sea level that is used to measure precise surface elevations.

A

geoid

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66
Q

ANNUAL EVAPORATION AND PRECIPITATION of oceans

A

297 334

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67
Q

ANNUAL EVAPORATION AND PRECIPITATION of land

A

99 62

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68
Q

lateral changes in
rock types or configurations
of subsurface structures,
location of faults, and depth
to magnetic bedrock in deep
alluvial-filled basins. Also can
be used for detection/mapping of buried drums at

A

Magnetometry (MAG)

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69
Q

y sending pulses of high
frequency electromagnetic waves into the ground from a transmitter antenna
located on the surface.
plotted in a
distance-versus-time display

A

Ground Penetrating Radar (GPR)

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70
Q

alternating current in the EM transmitter coil creates
a magnetic field which induces electrical current loops within the ground; the
current loops, in turn, create a secondary magnetic field

A

Electromagnetic Induction (EM)

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71
Q

e depth to the ground water table or to
perched water tables, water quality, leakage from dams or tailings ponds, corrosion potential of soils,
A voltage difference measured
across a second electrode
pair provides the necessary
information to calculate the
apparent earth resistivity
(the inverse of apparent

A

Electrical Resistivity Surveys

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72
Q

approximated by matching the data curve to theoretical
curves.

A

True resistivity

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73
Q

primary
gamma emitting materials are

A

potassium-40, uranium, and thorium

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74
Q

y involves measuring the bulk resistance between a surface electrode and the
downhole probe.

A

Single-point resistance

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75
Q

simply a record of the changes in hole diameter with depth. The
probe has three mechanical arms which are opened at the bottom of the well,
where they expand to the diameter of the borehole

A

Caliper Logging

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76
Q

Temperature Logging:

A

1 degree Fahrenheit per 100 feet of depth.

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77
Q

Determination of lithology, stratigraphic correlation, effective porosity, true
resistivity, water level, salinity, extent
of clay content, location of metals having very high conductivities (galena,
chalcopyrite, etc.); permeability, grain
size, extent of fluid saturation

A

Electrical
Resistivity
(ER)

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78
Q

Determination of lithology, stratigraphic correlation, extent of clay content,
permeability

A

Self-Potential
(SP)

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79
Q

Mineral exploration

A

lectro-magnetic (EM)

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80
Q

Determination of lithography, proportion of shales, stratigraphic correlation, detection of radioactive minerals,
delineation of non-radioactive materials

A

Radioactive
Gamma
(natural
gamma)

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81
Q

determination of lithology via a photoelectric measurement,
bulk density, total porosity, cavities,
location of water table, extent of
cement in borehole, construction
within existing borehole, (e.g., locates
casing and perforations)

A

GammaGamma
(formation
density logs)

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82
Q

Detector measures quantity of neutrons; determination of lithology
porosity, hydrogen content, water
level, moisture content, gas-bearing
zones

A

Neutron

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83
Q

Determination of heat flow, flow direction of fluids and gas (both vertically
and horizontally), abnormal radioactivity, zones of oxidation or reduction

A

Thermal

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84
Q

Seismic velocity (compressional wave)
seismic interpretation, generally, useful for correlation, total porosity, bulk
density, extent of bonding of cement
in casing, overpressured (abnormally
high fluid pressures) zones, permeability, secondary permeability. Newer
generation tools measure compressional, shear, and stonely waves.
Stonely waves are thought to be
inversely proportional to permeability.
Sonic are very valuable for identifying
potential gas zones through a phenomenon known as “cycle skipping”,
lithology, and desaturated zones
Sonic (acoustic)

A

Elastic-Wave
Propagation

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85
Q

Determination of density, porosity

A

Gravimetric

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86
Q

Determination of lithology, stratigraphic correlation, location of fractures,
extent of cement in borehole, casing
corrosion and borehole breakout, if
run in combination with a navigation
package
Diameter of borehole

A

Caliper

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87
Q

A measurement of
DC potential in the
borehole
Used to determine Rw and lithology,
and as an indicator of permeability
One of the first logging measurements

A

SP –
Spontaneous
Potential

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88
Q

Shallow measurements of resistivity that investigate the
resisitivity of the mudcake and the invaded zone. These tools are shallow measuring devices

A

Microresistivity

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89
Q

These tools are
generally symmetric resistivity devices with
one transmitter and pairs of receiver coils.
They typically have several depths of measurements that include 10, 20, 30, 60, 90
and 120 inches as determined by 50 percent
of the integrated radial factors and vertical
resolution capabilities to 1 foot. They are also
corrected for depth and speed by z-axis accelerometers.

A

Array Induction Tools

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90
Q

These tools respond to the water content in the formation
and investigate roughly 8, 12 and 17 centimeters into the formation mainly in
the invaded or flushed zone. They are very good tools for identifying the difference of heavy oil and fresh water and are excellent thin-bed devi

A

Dielectric Tools

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91
Q

NMR tools take a look at the fluids.
Protons are introduced to a magnetic field
and then an alternating current. From this
measurement porosity is calculated along
with moveable fluids and permeability

A

Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR)
Tools

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92
Q

Two methods are used widely
in the petroleum industry to image formations. One is a sonic measurement that uses
a rotating transducer and the other is a
pad-type device that makes electrical measurements using several buttons. The tools
also contain a directional package for hole
deviation and azimuth measurements. These
tools are used to determine hole rugosity,
borehole breakout, fracture orientation, fracture identification, formation bed dip and bed thickness. The sonic type of imaging device is also used in cased holes for casing integrity and bonding.

A

Imaging

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93
Q

Samples of the formation are taken with sidewall coring guns
that generally take a one-inch by two-inch sample of the rock at various depths
using percussion cores that are injected into the formation by use of explosive
gun powder. These samples are then analyzed for porosity, permeability, lithology and more.
For harder, denser formations, a rotary sidewall coring tool is used that actually
drills through the formation with a small diamond-bit drill to obtain a sample

A

Sidewall Cores –

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94
Q

– Allows the measurement of formation pressure
at different depths and the mobility of fluids in the reservoir; it is used to obtain
samples of formation fluids and to determine pressure gradients. These tools
help identify oil, water and gas contacts in the reservoir. These tools can also be
adapted to run in cased wellbores by shooting a hole in the casing and cement
to connect with the formation

A

Wireline Formation Testing

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95
Q

These tools are used
after frac operations to identify where radioactive-tagged proppant is placed in the formation. A
spectral gamma ray tool is used to make this measurement. This method can also be used for acid
stimulation jobs and cement jobs.

A

TracerScan™ Surveys

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96
Q

Cement bond tools use sound
attenuation to determine bonding of cement to the
casing. It is important to have zonal isolation in oil
wells to keep from producing unwanted water. The
acoustic scanning tools used today for advanced
cement bonding also make a measurement of casing integrity by measuring inside diameter and
thickness of the steel casing

A

Cement Bond Logs

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97
Q

a two-dimensional stress system two perpendicular directions exist for which
the shear stress (τ) is zero. These directions are called

A

principal directions

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98
Q

one
set of layers or laminae are truncated
by overlying layers,
concave side of cross-bedding generally points toward the original upper
side.

A

Cross-bedding

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99
Q

symmetrical ripple
marks, the crests (tops) are sharper
than the troughs.

A

Ripple marks

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100
Q

Small, wave or tonguelike penetrations of a coarse clastic
material from above into a finer clastic
material below along minor surface
irregularities on a bedding plane.
possibly triggered by earthquakes.
develop along a contact of sand (now sandstone) overlying a clay (now
shale), but are rarely (if ever?) formed at the contact of clay overlying sand.

A

.Sole marks

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101
Q

Develop on the underside
of bedding units in sandstones and
siltstones. Characterized by a steep or
blunt bulbous or beaked up-current
end from which the structure flattens or flares out in the down-current
direction and merges with the bedding
plane. It is formed by the filling of a
flute

A

Flute casts

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102
Q

n the upright
section of folded rocks, the fracture
cleavage is generally steeper than the
bedding (a), but when the beds are
overturned the reverse is true

A

Fracture cleavage

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103
Q

Shelly invertebrates with intact living cavities, such as articulated brachiopods or gastropods, sometimes fill partially with sediment after
death. The unfilled part of the chamber later fills with calcite or other cement
and indicates the original top of the bed. This phenomenon is especially useful
in carbonate strata which typically lack other types of facing indicators.

A

Geopetal fabric

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104
Q

Shells of Invertebrate organisms or other solid objects lying with their
longer axes in the plane of stratification may be encrusted by bryozoans on the
upper side

A

Bryozoa

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105
Q

Sea urchins when found in large numbers are commonly oriented
with flat ventral (oral) side down and convex dorsal side up.

A

Echinoids.

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106
Q

Fold where the crest and
trough flare out at the AP. Broad hing
and limbs that converge away from the
hinge.

A

Fan fold

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107
Q

A fold with planar limbs
and a sharp angular hinge. A fracture
may separate the skeme from the rest
of the bed.

A

Kink folds

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108
Q

During the folding there
has been no “flowage,” even in
soft, incompetent beds. Fold has an
inter-limb angle between 70 and 120
degrees.

A

Open fold

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109
Q

During the folding there has been “flowage,” and the
incompetent beds thicken and thin.
Fold has an inter-limb angle between
30 and 70 degrees

A

Closed (tight) fold

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110
Q

Individual beds in these folds thicken
at their hinge and thin on their limbs.

A

Similar fold

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111
Q

A fold in which the thickness of all layers is consistent, resulting in individual folds that increase or
decrease in size upwards and downwards

A

Concentric (parallel or competent) fold

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112
Q

A fold that varies
noticeably in profile form in the various layers though which it pass

A

Disharmonic fold

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113
Q

A pattern of fold in which there is
thickening at the synclinal troughs and
thinning at the anticlinal crests. It is
formed by differential compaction on
an uneven basement surface

A

Supratenuous (compaction) fold:

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114
Q

A flexure
fold in which the mechanism of folding is slip along bedding planes or
along surfaces of foliation. There is
no change in thickness of individual
strata, and the resulting folds are parallel.

A

Flexural-slip folding

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115
Q

A fold model of
which the mechanism is shearing or
slipping along closely spaced planes
parallel to the fold’s axial surface. The
resultant structure is a similar fold

A

Shear (slip) folds:

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116
Q

A fold composed of relatively plastic rocks that have flowed
towards the synclinal trough. In this
type of deformation, there are no
apparent surfaces of slip. They occur
at great depth and usually in softer,
incompetent beds such as shale or
limestone

A

Flow folds

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117
Q

An uplift or anticilnal structure, either circular or elliptical in
outline, in which the rocks dip gently
away in all directions

A

Domes:

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118
Q

A low area (synclinal structure) in the crust in which sediments
have accumulated and the beds dip
radially toward a central point.

A

Basins

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119
Q

one that does not rupture at the surface. It is “buried” under the uppermost layers of rock in the crust

A

blind thrust fault

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120
Q

striae perpendicular to the strike
line).

A

90º

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121
Q

horizontal
striae)

A

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122
Q

striae) represent mechanical striations that develop during faulting.
give the direction of slip on fault
planes. They are oriented by their pitch: the
angle between the strike line (a horizontal line
on the fault plane) and the striae

A

Slickenlines

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123
Q

found oriented at high angles to
the striae, and can be used to deduce the sense
of movement along a fault plane

result
from small fractures that develop at a high angle
to the direction of slip
along a fault plane
can be mineralized
represent cavities
where fluids can accumulate and minerals such as
quartz and calcite can form.

A

Steps

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124
Q

crushed and ground-up rock produced by friction
between the two sides when a fault moves.

A

fault gouge,

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125
Q

angle measured eastward or westward from
either north or south, whichever is closer

A

bearing

126
Q

can deflect a needle 6° or more

A

battery-powered calculato

127
Q

are used mainly in mineralogy for crystal projections,
and for some structural geology uses.

A

Equal Angle Wulff

128
Q

nets are used in structural geology, for the statistical
analysis of spatial data

A

Equal Area (Schmidt)

129
Q
A
130
Q

are of similar appearance with luecite but this mineral tends to be free growing in cavities rathern tahn being embedded in rock matrix

A

analcime

131
Q

holohyaline?

A

glass

132
Q

Small grains of one mineral are irregularly scattered without common orientation in a typically anhedral larger crystal of another mineral.

A

Poikilitic

133
Q

: Some of the grains in the rock are euhedral

A

Hypidiomorphic:

134
Q

Most of the grains in the rock are anhedral

A

Allotriomorphic

135
Q

Most of the grains in the rock are euhedra

A

Idiomorphic

136
Q

form by mechanical friction during movement of lava
and breakage of cool brittle outer margins, or gravity crumbling of spines and
domes.

A

Autoclastic fragments

137
Q

lithic clasts and minerals (usually silicates) released by ordinary
weathering processes from pre-existing consolidated rocks. Volcanic epiclasts
are clasts of volcanic composition derived from erosion of volcanoes or ancient
volcanic terrane with no volcanic edifice

A

Epiclasts

138
Q

Nearly molten bombs, usually basaltic, that readily weld upon impact
to form agglutinate.

A

Spatter

139
Q

Lapillus-size particles formed by concentric accretion of
ash.

A

Accretionary lapilli. L

140
Q

Particles (crystal, lithic, vitric) derived from new magma

A

Essential (juvenile).

141
Q

Particles derived from earlier eruptions at same volcanic
center

A

Accessory (cognate)

142
Q

Particles of any origin or composition from rocks through which
the vent penetrates

A

Accidental

143
Q

Basaltic, highly fluid lavas of low gas content, which produce effusive lava flows and some pyroclastic debris

A

Hawaiian

144
Q

Phreatoplinian eruptions are characterized by large
wet eruptions. They are an order of magnitude larger than surtseyan
eruptions.

A

Phreatoplinian

145
Q

Widely dispersed sheets of pumice and ash are derived
from high eruption columns that result from high-velocity voluminous
gas-rich eruptions

A

Plinian

146
Q

Discrete explosions separated by periods of less than
a second to several hours. They give rise to ash columns and abundant ballistic debris. Ejecta consist of bombs, scoriaceous lapilli and
ash.

A

Strombolian -

147
Q

Surtseyan eruptions are caused by explosive watermagma interactions. Surtseyan eruptions produce characteristic
“rooster tail” ejections of ash and clasts. The tephra is fine grained
and deposited as base surge or air fall deposits.

A

Surtseyan

148
Q

s are from hydrovolcanic processes.
Highly explosive, short-lived eruptions that produce black, ash- and
steam-laden eruption columns

A

Vulcanian eruption

148
Q

associated with large composite volcanoes.

A

Intermediate composition

149
Q

associated with cinder cones and extensive lava
flows.

A

Mafic composition

150
Q

y becomes slightly more silicic away from source due
to eolian fractionation

A

Bulk composition

151
Q

The SiO2 content of glass shards may range

A

10 percent within a single layer.

152
Q

zeolites and are commonly known as bentonite

A

(tonstein in Europe).

153
Q

when was VEI proposed?

A

1982

154
Q

VEI of non explosive example is the kilauea 1983

A

0

155
Q

hawaiian/strombolian

A

VEI 1 mono inyo craters

156
Q

strombolian/vulcanian

A

vei 2 mt st helens

157
Q

vulcanian/plinian sakurajima

A

3

158
Q

vulcanian/plinian mt pinatubo

A

4 pero dapat 6!

159
Q

plinian/ulta plinian krakatau

A

5

160
Q

plinian/ultra plinian tambora

A

6

161
Q

ultra plinian long valley caldera

A

7

162
Q

ultra plinian 8

A

yellowstone caldera

163
Q

may be transported and deposited with other shapes and eventually
become abraded to more nearly spherical forms. Excellent examples of highly
spherical tourmalines and zircons can be found in the Carmel Formation of
southeastern Utah.

A

, prismoidal (rod-shaped) mineral grains, such as those of tourmaline
or zircon,

164
Q

have greater surface
area per unit volume than other shapes, they tend to be imbricated on sediment
floors, an arrangement which effectively streamlines the particles and makes
them relatively stable with respect to current action

A

discoidal shapes

165
Q

have less surface area
per unit volume than discs, but tend to roll rather easily with their long axes
essentially perpendicular to currents

A

Rods

166
Q

s have less surface area than other
shapes and roll easily on plain surfaces

A

Spheres

167
Q

monomineralic accessory grains

A

amphibole, sphene and magnetite

168
Q

Well-sorted, grains seen with hand lens

A

Siltstone

169
Q

Well-sorted, appears smooth or waxy.

A

Claystone:

170
Q

Mixture of silt and clay with blocky or spheroidal fracture

A

Mudstone

171
Q

Siltstone (silty shale) or claystone (clay shale) with prominent
bedding cleavage (fissility).

A

Shale

172
Q

Highly-indurated (generally recrystallized) claystones or siltstones that break in to hard, angular fragments.

A

Argillite:

173
Q

Coarser than 2 mm grains

A

Calcirudite

174
Q

Grain size between 2 and 0.0625 mm

A

Calcarenite

175
Q

Finer than 0.0625 mm grains

A

Calcilutite (or micrite)

176
Q

: Calcarenite or calcirudite with no micrite matrix.

A

Grainstone

177
Q

: Calcarenite or calcirudite with sparce micrite matrix and
clast-supported.

A

Packstone

178
Q

Micrite-supported mixture containing more than 10%
of sand-sized or coarser clasts

A

Wackestone

179
Q

Micrite with less than 10% of coarse clasts.

A

Lime Mudstone

180
Q

Diagenetic texture, can be described by degree of grain
growth.

A

Crystalline

181
Q

Composed mainly of skeletons or sessile organisms.

A

Biogenic

182
Q

Consists mainly of microcrystalline or cryptocrystalline apatite
in the form of bones, pellets, nodules, oolites, coprolites, and finely
divided grains

A

Phosphorite

183
Q

Not strongly compacted or crystallized.

A

Siliceous Lutites

184
Q

Friable brown coal. Cracks markedly on drying, includes
recognizable woody or leafy plant remains

A

Lignite- Carbonaceous and Kerogen-rich Rocks

185
Q

Black to dark brown somewhat friable coal, weakly
jointed perpendicular to bedding.

A

Sub-bituminous Coal

186
Q

Black to dark brown hard coal, commonly laminated by dull
and brightly reflective layers. Strongly jointed perpendicularly to bedding.

A

Bituminous Coal

187
Q

Black, hard, typically massive coal with semi-metallic luster.
Conchoidal fracture.

A

Anthracite:

188
Q

> 2mm component supported

A

rudstone

189
Q

banded hornblende-plagioclase rock

A

gneiss or an amphibolite.

190
Q

grains approximately equidimensional with straight or
smoothly curving grain boundaries and approximately polygonal
shapes. Platy and linear grains are oriented randomly or so subordinate
that foliation is not developed

A

Granoblastic:

191
Q

fine-grained mosaic of equidimensional grains without preferred
orientation. Commonly recognized in field by unsual toughness and ring to
hammer blow.

A

Hornfelsic

192
Q

fabric produced
by mechanical crushing
and characterized by
granular, fragmentary,
deformed, or strained
mineral grains

A

Cataclastic

193
Q

very fine-grained cataclastic rock, often clay-rich.

A

Gouge

194
Q

dark gray or black, dense, glassy or extremely finegrained rock that typically occurs in irregularly branching vein

A

Pseudotachylite:

195
Q

quartz-rich metamorphic rock.

A

Quartzite

196
Q

crossite (Na-amphibole) bearing metamorphic
rock.

A

Blueschist:

197
Q

omphacite (Na-pyroxene)-garnet metamorphic rock

A

Eclogite

198
Q

Ca-zeolite +
chlorite +
albite +
quartz

A

Zeolite

199
Q

orthopyroxene + plagioclas

A

Granulite
clinopyroxene,
hornblende,
garnet

200
Q

glaucophane/
crossite +
lawsonite/
epidote

A

Blueschist
garnet, albite,
aragonite,
phengite,
paragonite,
chloritoid

201
Q

omphacite
+ garnet +
rutile

A

Eclogite

202
Q

Soils with subsurface horizons of silicate clay accumulation
and moderate to high base saturation. Found in humid
climates and with forest or prairie vegetation. Formative
element:

A

Alfisols

203
Q

Soils formed in volcanic ash. Formative element: and

A

Andisols

204
Q

Soils with very dry moisture regimes, little organic matter,
and some diagnostic features. Pale, dry, and loose. Arid to
semi-arid environments. Formative element:

A

Aridisols

205
Q

Soils with little or no morphological development. This is
due to youth, dryness or cold, inertness of parent materials,
or other factors that prevent soil horizon development.
Formative element

A

Entisols

206
Q

Soils consisting largely of organic matter. These soils
represent nonoxidizing, or water-saturated conditions, such
as the peat and muck in former bogs and ponds. Formative
element:

A

Histosols

206
Q

Soils with some diagnostic horizon or horizons, poorly
expressed. A horizon is usually pale or dark gray, B horizon
often red and biotrubated. Formative element:

A

Inceptisols

207
Q

Soils with thick, dark surface horizons, moderate to high in
organic matter, with a high base status. Characteristic of
grasslands. Formative element:

A

Mollisols

208
Q

Soils with few weatherable minerals, very low supplies of
bases, and poorly expressed horizons. Commonly red to
yellow or gray. Found in humid tropical to subtropical
climates. Formative element:

A

Oxisols

209
Q

Soils with subsurface horizons of amorphous accumulations
or of cementation with iron oxides. Moist sandy soil with
pale gray, loose top horizon. Forest vegetation. Formative
element:

A

Spodosols

210
Q

Soils with subsurface horizons of silicate clay accumulation
and low to very low base saturation. Develop under hard
wood forests in warm, moist climates south of glacial drift.
Typically old, thick soils. Formative element

A

Ultisols

211
Q

Soils moderate to high in clay and with a high shrink/swell
capacity. Dark soil with cracks often found due to seasonal
drying. Slickenlined fractures from expansion and
contraction. Formative element

A

Vertisols

212
Q

standard is a system for classifying
soils for engineering purposes based on laboratory determination of particle-size
characteristics, liquid limit, and plasticity index

A

The USCS (United Soil Classification System)

213
Q

one of the most powerful tools available for interpretation of tectonic regimes
because they furnish the only evidence of the geometry and sense of modern
deformation at seismic depths; they also serve to correlate that deformation
with exposed structural elements

A

Fault-plane solutions (also known as focal mechanisms)

214
Q

s derived from
the resolved radiation pattern by showing compressional quadrants in solid or
dark color and dilatational quadrants as blank

A

“beachball”

215
Q

he alkali metals - soft light metals; most strongly electropositive,
highly reactive

A

Group 1 (1A)

216
Q

the alkaline-earth metals - harder, heavier metals; strongly electropositive; reactive; easily form oxides, hydroxides, carbonates, sulfates, etc.

A

Group 2 (IIA)

217
Q

he halogen group - nonmetallic; most strongly electronegative; highly reactive

A

Group 17 (VIIA)

218
Q

the noble gases - chemically inert; form very few compounds

A

Group 18 (VIIIA)

219
Q

the transition metals - each of these
groups, which constitute the central portions of the long periods of the table,
has one of eight rather complex sets of chemical properties

A

Groups 3-11 (IB through VIIB and VIII)

220
Q

referred to as rare earths or rare earth metals

A

lanthanides

221
Q

adioactive elements sometimes referred to as the uranium
metals. The transuranium man-made elements are included.

A

actinides

222
Q

Elements with intermediate properties are generally referred to as metalloids. Included are

A

boron, silicon, germanium, arsenic, antimony, and tellurium
from groups 13, 14, 15, and 16

223
Q

Plagioclase 39
K-feldspar 12
Quartz 12
Pyroxenes 11
Micas 5
Amphiboles 5
Clay minerals & chlorites 4.6

A

Olivines 3
Calcite & aragonite 1.5
Dolomite 0.5
Magnetite 1.5
Others (e.g., garnets, kyanite, and apatite) 4.9

224
Q

Diagenesis temp

A

150

225
Q

GreenschistFacies

A

310

226
Q

AmphiboliteFacies

A

470

227
Q

The lowest part of the Unsaturated Zone in which the water
in pores is under pressure less than atmospheric but the pores are fully saturated; this water rises against the pull of gravity due to surface tension at the
air-water interface and attraction between the liquid and solid phases.

A

Capillary Fringe:

228
Q

A unit of permeability equal to 9.87 x 10-13 m2, or for water of normal
density and viscosity, a hydraulic conductivity of approximately 10-5 m/s.

A

Darcy

229
Q

The difference between the static water level (water table or
potentiometric surface), and pumping water level in a well.

A

Drawdown (s):

230
Q

he percent of total volume of rock or soil that consists of interconnected pores spaces, as used in describing groundwater flow
and contaminant transport.

A

Effective porosity (ne):

231
Q

The proportionality constant in Darcy’s law – a
measure of a porous medium’s ability to transmit water; K incorporates properties of both the medium and the fluid

A

Hydraulic Conductivity (K):

232
Q

A measure of the potential energy of groundwater, it is
the level to which water in a well or piezometer will rise if unimpeded. Total
hydraulic head is the sum of two primary components, Elevation Head and
Pressure Head. The third component, Velocity Head is generally negligible in
groundwater.

A

Hydraulic Head (h):

233
Q

A formation, part of a formation, or group of formations with sufficiently similar hydrologic characteristics to allow grouping for
descriptive purposes

A

Hydrostratigraphic Unit:

234
Q

A proportionality constant that measures a porous medium’s ability to transmit a fluid; it is a function of the medium’s physical properties. Permeability, sometimes called “intrinsic permeability” is dependent solely on properties of the porous medium, and is related to the Hydraulic Conductivity
(K) by the dynamic viscosity (µ) and density of the fluid (ρ).

A

Permeability (k):

235
Q

Unconfined groundwater separated from an underlying zone of groundwater by an unsaturated zone; usually occurs atop lenses of
clay or other low-permeability material.

A

Perched Groundwater

236
Q

A surface constructed from measurements of head
at individual wells or piezometers that defines the level to which water will rise
within a single aquifer

A

Potentiometric Surface:

237
Q

The yield of a well per unit of drawdown (s), typically
expressed in units of gallons per minute per foot (gpm/ft)

A

Specific Capacity

238
Q

: The volume of water that remains in a porous material after complete drainage under the influence of gravity. The sum of (Sr) and
the Specific Yield (Sy) is equal to the total porosity (n)

A

Specific Retention (Sr):

239
Q

The volume of water that drains under the influence of
gravity from a porous material. It is equal to the ratio between the volume of
drained water and the total volume of the material.

A

Specific Yield (Sy):

240
Q

The level to which water rises in a well or unconfined
aquifer when the level is not influenced by water withdrawal (pumping).

A

Static Water Level:

241
Q

The volume of water that a permeable unit releases from or
takes into storage per unit surface area per unit change in head. In unconfined
aquifers, it is equal to Specific Yield (Sy). The Storativity of a confined aquifer
is the product of (Ss) and the aquifer thickness (b).

A

Storativity (S):

242
Q

A measure of the amount of water that can be transmitted horizontally through a unit width by the full saturated thickness of an aquifer. T is equal to the product of hydraulic conductivity (K) and saturated aquifer
thickness (b).

A

Transmissivity

243
Q

An aquifer that is only partly filled with water and in
which the upper surface of the saturated zone is free to rise and fall; also called
a Water-Table aquifer.

A

Unconfined Aquifer

244
Q

The underground zone in which soil/sediment/rock porosity is filled partly with air and partly with water; also known as the vadose zone

A

Unsaturated Zone

245
Q

The ratio of theoretical drawdrawn (drawdown in the aquifer
at the radius of the well) to observed drawdown inside a pumping well.

A

Well Efficiency

246
Q

The volume of water per unit of time discharged from a well by
pumping or free flow. It is commonly reported as a pumping rate (Q) in gallons
per minute (gpm).

A

Well Yield

247
Q

The top of the zone of saturation – the level at which the atmospheric pressure is equal to the hydraulic pressure; in unconfined aquifers, the
water table is represented by the measured water level.

A

Water Table

248
Q

incorporates characteristics of the porous medium (permeability (k)) and the fluid.

A

hydraulic conductivity K

249
Q

is the volume change of water into/out of a
formation with unit change in head

A

Specific Storage (Ss)

250
Q

(S; dimensionless storage coefficient),

A

Storativity

251
Q

also referred to as “drainable porosity” or the “effective porosity”

A

(Specific yield

252
Q

Anthracite coal, short ton

A

4.38 crude oil

253
Q

a constellation of 24 operational satellites called NAVSTAR –satellites complete one revolution every 12 hours in an orbit approximately 20,200
km above the Earth. The system was developed and continues to be operated
by the United States Department of Defens
based on satellite ranging
for tracking movements of people and things, mapping, and calculating
precise timing (using the atomic clocks on the satellites)

A

Global Positioning System (GPS)

254
Q

NAVSTAR

A

– NAVigation Satellite Timing And Ranging

255
Q

use of trigonometry to position a point using the distances calculated from
the satellites

A

Trilateration

256
Q

This system utilizes two
receivers, a fixed reference station and a rover unit at the field site.
The reference station is set up over a known fixed location where
the timing errors due to atmospheric conditions are converted into a
“differential correction” for data acquired by the rover unit. The corrections may be real-time via U.S. Coast Guard navigational beacons
(requires GPS equipment with appropriate receiver) or post-processed
with online access. The rover unit must be within ~300 miles of a reference station.

A

Professional grade
Mapping - Differential GPS (DGPS):

257
Q

Survey
receivers increase accuracy to ~1 cm or less by using measurements
based on the carrier frequency for the pseudo random code. This carrier frequency is higher than the pseudo-random code used by DGPS,
allowing greater accuracy.

A

Surveying - Real Time Kinematic (RTK) Carrier Phase:

258
Q

an accuracy of ~10-meters and are
relatively inexpensive. Some models can even receive real time differential correction signals. For projects where accuracy is not as essential, this is a cost-effective GPS option

A
  • Recreational grade
259
Q

Commonly used datum definitions are

A

North
American Datum 1927 (NAD27), North American Datum 1983 (NAD83),
and World Geodetic System 1984 (WGS84)

260
Q

Commonly used projections include

A

State
Plane and Universal Transverse Mercator (UTM).

261
Q

value should be less than 6 number representing the
relationship between the error in user position and the error in satellite
position.

A

e Position Dilution of Precision (PDOP

262
Q

10^24

A

yotta

263
Q

10^21

A

zeta

264
Q

10^18

A

exa

265
Q

10^15

A

peta

266
Q

10^12

A

tera

267
Q

10^9

A

giga

268
Q

10^6

A

mega

269
Q

10^3

A

kilo

270
Q

10^2

A

hecto

271
Q

10

A

deka

272
Q

10^-1

A

deci

273
Q

10^-2

A

centi

274
Q

10^-3

A

milli

275
Q

10^-6

A

micro

276
Q

10^-9

A

nano

277
Q

10^-12

A

pico

278
Q

10^-15

A

femto

279
Q

10^-18

A

atto

280
Q

10^-21

A

zepto

281
Q

10^-24

A

yocto

282
Q

electromagnetic

A

gamma rays
xrays
uv rays
visible light
infared
microwaves
radiowaves

283
Q

Megascopically indistinguishable from polished and some
varnished surfaces. Polished surfaces are marked by extremely fine scratches
formed by surface abrasion whereas burnished surfaces result from more nearly
random removal of multi-molecular sized pieces to form a nearly flat surface.

A

Burnished surface

284
Q

One of a series of small, closely spaced, short curved scars or
cracks made by vibratory chipping of a firm but brittle rock surface by rock fragments carried in, for example, the base of a glacier. Each mark is roughly transverse to the direction of ice movement, and usually convex toward the direction
from which the ice moved.

A

Chattermark

285
Q

A crescentic mark in the form of a groove or channel with
a somewhat rounded bottom; it is formed by the removal of rock material from
between two fractures; it is concave toward the direction from which the ice
moved (i.e., its “horns” point in the direction of ice movement).

A

Crescentic gouge

286
Q

A thin dark shiny film or coating, composed of iron oxide
commonly accompanied by traces of manganese oxide and silica, formed on
the surfaces of pebbles, boulders, and other rock fragments in, for example,
desert regions after long exposure. It is believed to be caused by exudation of
mineralized solutions from within and deposition by evaporation on the surface.
A similar appearance produced by wind abrasion is known as desert polish. Syn:
desert patina; desert lacquer; desert crust; desert rind; varnish.

A

Desert varnish

287
Q

A doubly pointed ventifact, having three curved faces intersecting
in three sharp edges; resembles the shape of a Brazil nut.

A

Dreikanter

288
Q

The luster of a mineral or rock surface that diffuses rather than
reflects light, even though the surface may appear smooth (c.f. frosted surface,
matte surface).

A

Dull luster

289
Q

A ventifact having only one face or a single sharp edge; it implies a
steady, unchanging wind direction.

A

Einkanter

290
Q

A naturally corroded surface of a mineral or rock with the crystal or
structural pattern enhanced for observation because of differences in relief.

A

Etched

291
Q

A nearly plane surface produced on a rock fragment by abrasion, as by
wind sandblasting, by the grinding action of a glacier, or by a stream that differentially removes material from the upstream side of a boulder or pebb

A

Facet

292
Q

A lusterless ground-glass-like surface on rounded mineral
grains, especially of quartz. It may result from innumerable impacts of other
grains during wind action, from chemical action, or from deposition of many microscopic crystals, for example, of fine silica secondarily deposited on quartz
grains (c.f. matted surface).

A

Frosted surface

293
Q

A low area between two ridges; a linear depression of which the
length greatly exceeds the width. A groove is larger than a striation.

A

Groove

294
Q

An evenly roughened surface (c.f. frosted surface).

A

Matte(d) surface

295
Q

A crescentic scar produced on a hard, dense rock (e.g.,
chert or quartzite) by a sharp blow, as by the violent collision of one pebble on
another. It may be indicative of high-velocity flow.

A

Percussion mark -

296
Q

Marked concavities not related to the composition or texture
of the rock on which they appear. The depressions range in size from minute
pits caused by dust particles to those that are a few centimeters across and a
few centimeters deep.

A

Pitted surface

297
Q
  • Characterized by high luster and strong reflected light. It
    may be produced by various agents, e.g., desert varnish or abrasion by glacial
    flour (c.f. burnished surface).
A

Polished surface

298
Q

Parallel scratches, striae, or grooves on a bedrock surface
caused by the abrasion action of rock fragments transported by, for example, a
moving glacier.

A

Scored surface

299
Q
  • See groove, scored surface, and striated surface.
A

Scratch

300
Q

Surface marked by fine lines or scratches, generally parallel
or subparallel to each other. Can be caused by glaciers, streams, or faulting.

A

Striated surface

301
Q

The appearance of a surface in reflected light, generally
described by its quality and/or intensity. For example, metallic versus nonmetallic and bright versus du

A

Surface luster

302
Q

the decimal fractional length change per degree C.
Thermal stress by heating can produce microfractures in rock because of mineral anisotropy, usually an irreversible effec

A

Thermal expansion
A 70-bar increase in stress in a
granodiorite surface was caused by a 25°C temperature increase by solar heating. Freezing ice, at -10°C, fully constrained, would exert 1 kb tensile str

303
Q

(bed moisture, equilibrium moisture, capacity moisture) is
assumed to be the water held within the pore system and capillaries of coal and is
not to be identified with residual moisture

A

Inherent moisture

304
Q

e (free moisture) is, as the
term implies, water held on the surface of the coal

A

Surface moisture

305
Q

he moisture
determined as the loss in weight in an air atmosphere under rigidly controlled
conditions of temperature, time, and air flow d is the sum of the
inherent moisture and free moisture and is the sum of the air-dry loss and residual
moisture

A

Total moisture

306
Q

the loss in weight resulting from the partial drying
of coal,

A

Air-dry loss moisture

307
Q

s that remaining in the sample after determining the
air-dry loss moisture.

A

residual moisture

308
Q

equal to the total moisture or
is the sum of the inherent and free moisture present in the coal at the time of the
analysis.

A

As-received moisture

309
Q

produced from the thermal decomposition of
organic constituents of coal.

A

Decomposition moisture

310
Q

s the water that is
incorporated into the crystal lattices of the clay and inorganic minerals in coal

A

Water of hydration of mineral matter

311
Q
A