Mistake Deck Flashcards
Root pressure develops due to:
a. passive absorption
b. active absorption
c. increase in transpiration
d. low osmotic potential in soil
b. active absorption
In soil, water available for plants is:
a. gravitational water
b. chemically bound water
c. capillary water
d. hygroscopic water
c. capillary water
Equation for DPD is:
DPD = OP - TP
Water movement between cells is due to:
a. Turgor pressure
b. Water potential
c. Diffusion pressure deficit
d. incipient plasmolysis
c. Diffusion pressure deficit
Stomatal opening is not affected by:
a. temperature
b. light
c. O2 concentration
d. CO2 concentration
c. O2 concentration
A column of water within xylem vessels of tall trees doesn’t break under its weight because of:
a. lignification of xylem vessels
b. positive root pressure
c. dissolved sugars in water
d. tensile strength of water
d. tensile strength of water
Which one gives the most valid and recent explanation for stomatal movement?
a. starch hydrolysis
b. guard cell photosynthesis
c. transpiration
d. potassium influx and efflux
d. potassium influx and efflux
In land plants, the guard cells differ from other epidermal cells in having:
a. cytoskeleton
b. mitochondria
c. endoplasmic reticulum
d. chloroplasts
d. chloroplasts
Stomata of plant open due to:
a. influx of potassium ions
b. efflux of potassium ions
c. influx of hydrogen ions
d. influx of calcium ions
a. influx of potassium ions
Glycolate induces opening of stomata in
a. presence of oxygen
b. low CO2 concentration
c. high CO2
d. CO2 is absent
b. low CO2 concentration
In guard cells, when sugar is converted into starch, the stomatal pore:
a. closes completely
b. opens partially
c. opens fully
d. remains unchanged
a. closes completely
Conversion of starch to organic acids is required for:
a. stomatal opening
b. stomatal closing
c. stomatal formation
d. stomatal activity
a. stomatal opening
In terrestrial habitats, temperature and rainfall conditions are influenced by:
a. water transformations
b. transpiration
c. thermoperiodism
d. translocation
b. transpiration
_______________ instrument is used to determine the rate of transpiration in plants
Potometer
Most widely accepted theory for ascent of sap in trees is:
a. capillarity
b. role of atmospheric pressure
c. pulsating action of living cell
d. transpiration pull and cohesion theory of Dixon and Jolly
d. transpiration pull and cohesion theory of Dixon and Jolly
Phenyl mercuric acetate results in:
a. reduced photosynthesis
b. reduced transpiration
c. reduced respiration
d. killing plants
b. reduced transpiration
Transpiration is least in:
a. good soil moisture
b. high wind velocity
c. dry environment
d. high atmospheric humidity
d. high atmospheric humidity
When water enters in roots due to diffusion, is termed as:
a. osmosis
b. passive absorption
c. endocytosis
d. active absorption
b. passive absorption
A few drops of sap were collected by cutting across a plant stem. The sap was tested chemically. Which of the following test results indicates that it is phloem sap?
a. acidic
b. alkaline
c. low refractive index
d. absence of sugar
b. alkaline
Translocation of organic solutes in sieve tube members is supported by:
a. cytoplasmic streaming
b. root pressure and transpiration pull
c. P-proteins
d. mass flow involving a carrier and ATP
a. cytoplasmic streaming
Death of protoplasm is pre-requisite for a vital function like:
a. transport of sap
b. transport of food
c. absorption of water
d. gaseous exchange
a. transport of sap
Which is essential for the growth of root tip?
Zn, Ca, Fe, Mn
Ca
A few normal seedlings of tomato were kept in a dark room. After a few days, they were found to have become white-coloured like albinos. Which of the following terms will you use to describe them?
Mutated - Embolised - Etiolated - Defoliated
Etiolated
Sulphur is an important nutrient for optimum growth and productivity in ____________ crops
oilseed
Gray spots of oat are caused by deficiency of:
Cu - Zn - Mn - Fe
Mn
Boron in green plants assists in:
a) activation of enzymes
b) acting as enzyme co-factor
c) photosynthesis
d) sugar transport
d) sugar transport
When plants are grown in magnesium deficient but urea rich soil, the symptoms expressed are:
a) yellowish leaves
b) colourless petiole
c) dark green leaves
d) shoot apex die
a) yellowish leaves
Which one of the following elements is almost non-essential for plants?
Zn - Na - Ca - Mo
Na
Which one is an essential mineral, not constituent of any enzyme but stimulates the activity of many enzymes?
Zn - Mn - K - Mg
K
Passive absorption of minerals depends on:
a) temperature
b) temperature and metabolic inhibitor
c) metabolic inhibitor
d) humidity
a) temperature
The product(s) of reaction catalysed by nitrogenase in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are:
a) ammonia alone
b) nitrate alone
c) ammonia and oxygen
d) ammonia and hydrogen
d) ammonia and hydrogen
Nitrifying bacteria
a) oxidise ammonia to nitrates
b) convert free nitrogen to nitrogen compounds
c) convert proteins into ammonia
d) reduce nitrates to free nitrogen
a) oxidise ammonia to nitrates
If by radiation all nitrogenase enzymes are inactivated, then there will be no:
a) fixation of nitrogen in legumes
b) fixation of atmospheric nitrogen
c) conversion from nitrate to nitrite in legumes
d) conversion from ammonium to nitrate in soil
a) fixation of nitrogen in legumes
What is true for cyanobacteria?
a) oxygenic with nitrogenase
b) oxygenic without nitrogenase
c) non oxygenic with nitrogenase
d) non oxygenic without nitrogenase
a) oxygenic with nitrogenase
Enzyme first used for nitrogen fixation:
a) nitrogenase
b) nitroreductase
c) transferase
d. transaminase
a) nitrogenase
Which of the following is free-living aerobic non-photosynthetic nitrogen-fixing bacteria?
a) Nostoc
b) Azospirillum
c) Rhizobium
d) Azotobacter
d) Azotobacter
A non-photosynthetic aerobic nitrogen-fixing soil bacterium is:
a) Rhizobium
b) Clostridium
c) Azotobacter
d) Klebsiella
c) Azotobacter
What is the role of NAD+ in cellular respiration?
a. It functions as an enzyme
b. It functions as an electron carrier
c. It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis
d. It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration
b. It functions as an electron carrier
c. It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis
In which of the following processes CO2 is not released?
a. Aerobic respiration in plants
b. Aerobic respiration in animals
c. Alcoholic fermentation
d. Lactate fermentation
d. Lactate fermentation
The energy-releasing metabolic process in which substrate is oxidised without an external electron acceptor is called:
a. glycolysis
b. fermentation
c. aerobic respiration
d. photorespiration
b. fermentation
In alcohol fermentation:
a. triose phosphate is the electron donor while acetaldehyde is the electron acceptor
b. triose phosphate is the electron donor while pyruvic acid is the electron acceptor
c. there is no electron donor
d. oxygen is the electron acceptor
a. triose phosphate is the electron donor while acetaldehyde is the electron acceptor
The correct sequence of electron acceptor in ATP synthesis is:
a. Cyt. b, c, a3, a
b. Cyt. c, b, a, a3
c. Cyt. a, a, b, c
d. Cyt. b, c, a, a3
d. Cyt. b, c, a, a3
Terminal cytochrome of respiratory chain which donates electrons to oxygen is:
a. Cyt b
b. Cyt c
c. Cyt a1
d. Cyt a3
d. Cyt a3
Net gain of ATP molecules during aerobic respiration is:
a) 40 molecules
b) 48 molecules
c) 36 molecules
d) 38 molecules
c) 36 molecules
When one molecule of ATP is disintegrated, what amount of energy is liberated?
7 kcal
Out of 38 ATP molecules produced per glucose, 32 ATP molecules are formed from NADH/FADH2 in
a) respiratory chain
b) Kreb’s cycle
c) oxidative decarbolyxation
d) EMP
respiratory chain
Out of 36 ATP molecules produced per glucose molecule during respiration:
a. 2 are produced outside glycolysis and 34 during respiratory chain
b. 2 are produced outside mitochondria and 34 inside mitochondria
c. 2 during glycolysis and 34 during Krebs’ cycle
d. all are formed inside mitochondria
b. 2 are produced outside mitochondria and 34 inside mitochondria
EMP can produce a total of:
a) 6 ATP
b) 8 ATP
c) 24 ATP
d) 38 ATP
b) 8 ATP
Plants, but not animals, can convert fatty acids to sugars by a series of reactions called:
a) photosynthesis
b) Kreb’s cycle
c) glycolysis
d) glyoxylate cycle
d) glyoxylate cycle
Apparatus to measure rate of respiration and R. Q. is:
a) auxanometer
b) potometer
c) respirometer
d) manometer
c) respirometer
Anoxygenic photosynthesis is characteristic of:
a) Rhodospirillum
b) Spirogyra
c) Clamydomonas
d) Ulva
a) Rhodospirillum
Oxygenic photosynthesis occurs in:
a) Oscillatoria
b) Rhodospirillum
c) Chlorobium
d) Chromatium
a) Oscillatoria
Stroma in the chloroplasts of higher plant contains:
a) light-dependent reaction enzymes
b) ribosomes
c) chlorophyll
d) light-independent reaction enzymes
d) light-independent reaction enzymes
Emerson’s enhancement effect and Red drop have been instrumental in the discovery of:
a) photophosphorylation and cyclic electron transport
b) oxidative phosphorylation
c) photophosphorylation and non-cyclic electron transport
d) two photosystems operating simultaneously
d) two photosystems operating simultaneously
Chromatophores take part in:
a) movement
b) respiration
c) photosynthesis
d) growth
c) photosynthesis
Which fractions of the visible spectrum of solar radiations are primarily absorbed by carotenoids of higher plants?
a) B & G
b) G & R
c) R & V
d) V & B
d) V & B
Chlorophyll a molecule at its carbon atom 3 of the pyrrole ring II has one of the following:
a) carboxylic group
b) magnesium
c) aldehyde group
d) methyl group
d) methyl group
Chlorophyll a occurs in:
a) all photosynthetic autotrophs
b) in all higher plants
c) all oxygen liberating autotrophs
d) all plants except fungi
c) all oxygen liberating autotrophs
The size of chlorophyll molecule is:
head ____ x ____ Å
tail ____ Å
head: 15 x 15 Å
tail: 20 Å
Ferredoxin is a constituent of:
a) PS I
b) PS II
c) Hill reaction
d) P680
a) PS I
Stamens in flowers of Gloriosa and Petunia are polyandrous. T or F?
True
Polyandrous = having large and indefinite number of stamens
In dicot stems, a new cambium originates from cells of pericycle at the time of secondary growth. T or F?
False
Symbiotic nitrogen fixers occur in free-living state also in soil. T or F?
True
Both photophosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation involve uphill transport of protons across the membrane. T or F?
False
In photosystem I, the first electron acceptor is:
a) an iron-sulphur protein
b) ferredoxin
c) cytochrome
d) plastocyanin
a) an iron-sulphur protein
Which pigment system is inactivated in red drop?
PS II
A photosynthesising plant is releasing 18O more than the normal. The plant must have been supplied with
a) O3
b) H2O with 18O
c) CO2 with 18O
d) C6H12O6 with 18O
b) H2O with 18O
Which of the following organisms is correctly matched with its 3 characteristics?
a) Pea: C3 pathway, endospermic seed, vexillary aestivation
b) Tomato: twisted aestivation, axile placentation, berry
c) Onion: bulb, imbricate aestivation, axile placentation
d) Maize: C3 pathway, closed vascular bundles, scutellum
c) Onion: bulb, imbricate aestivation, axile placentation
What will be the number of Calvin cycles to generate one molecule of hexose?
6
CAM helps the plants in:
a) conserving water
b) secondary growth
c) disease resistance
d) reproduction
a) conserving water
The C4 plants are photosynthetically more efficient than C3 plants because
a) the CO2 efflux is not prevented
b) they have more chloroplasts
c) the CO2 compensation point is more
d) CO2 generated during photorespiration is trapped and recycled through PEP carboxylase
b) they have more chloroplasts
As compared to a C3 plant, how many additional molecules of ATP are needed for net production of one molecule of hexose sugar by C4 plants?
a) Two
b) Six
c) Twelve
d) Zero
c) Twelve
Photosynthesis in C4 plants is relatively less limited by atmospheric CO2 levels because
a) effective pumping of CO2 into bundle sheath cells
b) RuBisCO in C4 plants has higher affinity for CO2
c) four carbon acids are the primary initial CO2 fixation products
d) the primary fixation of CO2 is mediated via PEP carboxylase
d) the primary fixation of CO2 is mediated via PEP carboxylase
Stomata of CAM plants
a) are always open
b) open during the day and close at night
c) open during the night and close during the day
d) never open
c) open during the night and close during the day
The oxygenation activity of RuBisCO enzyme in photorespiration leads to the formation of ___ molecule of ___-C compound
1 molecule, 3-C compound
The correct sequence of cell organelles during photorespiration is:
a) chloroplast, Golgi-bodies, mitochondria
b) chloroplast, rough ER, dictyosomes
c) chloroplast, mitochondria, peroxisome
d) chloroplast, vacuole, peroxisome
c) chloroplast, mitochondria, peroxisome
During photorespiration, the oxygen consuming reaction(s) occur in
a) stroma of chloroplasts
b) stroma of chloroplasts and mitochondria
c) stroma of chloroplasts and peroxisomes
d) grana of chloroplasts and peroxisomes
c) stroma of chloroplasts and peroxisomes
The substrate for photorespiration is
a) phosphoglyceric acid
b) glycolate
c) serine
d) glycine
b) glycolate
At a temperature above 35°C
a) rate of photosynthesis will decline earlier than that of respiration
b) rate of respiration will decline earlier than that of photosynthesis
c) there is no fixed pattern
d) both decline simultaneously
a) rate of photosynthesis will decline earlier than that of respiration
Senescence as an active developmental cellular process in the growth and functioning of a flowering plant, is indicated in
a) annual plants
b) floral parts
c) vessels and tracheid differentiation
d) leaf abscission
c) vessels and tracheid differentiation
The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field is:
a) IBA
b) IAA
c) NAA
d) 2,4-D
d) 2,4-D
The Avena curvature is used for bioassay of:
a) IAA
b) ethylene
c) ABA
d) GA3
a) IAA
Auxin can be bioassayed by
a) potometer
b) lettuce hypocotyl elongation
c) Avena coleoptile curvature
d) hydroponics
c) Avena coleoptile curvature
During seed germination, its stored food is mobilized by:
a) ABA
b) gibberellin
c) ethylene
d) cytokinin
b) gibberellin
The pineapple which under natural condition is difficult to blossom has been made to produce fruits throughout the year by the application of:
a) NAA, 2,4-D
b) Phenyl acetic acid
c) Cytokinin
d) IAA, IBA
a) NAA, 2,4-D
One of the commonly used plant growth hormone in tea plantations is:
a) ethylene
b) abscisic acid
c) zeatin
d) indole-3-acetic acid
d) indole-3-acetic acid
Root development is promoted by:
a) abscisic acid
b) auxin
c) gibberellin
d) ethylene
d) ethylene
Which one of the following is a derivative of carotenoids?
a) Indole-3-acetic acid
b) Giberellic acid
c) Abscisic acid
d) Indole butyric acid
c) Abscisic acid
Coconut milk factor is
a) an auxin
b) a gibberellin
c) abscisic acid
d) cytokinin
d) cytokinin
Plants deficient of element zinc, show its effect on the biosynthesis of plant growth hormone: ___________
auxin
Differentiation of shoot is controlled by high __________ : __________ ratio
high cytokinin : auxin ratio
Which of the following prevents the fall of fruits?
a) GA3
b) NAA
c) Ethylene
d) Zeatin
b) NAA
Which hormone breaks dormancy of potato tuber?
a) Gibberellin
b) IAA
c) ABA
d) Zeatin
Gibberellin
A plant hormone for inducing morphogenesis in plant tissue culture is: _______________
cytokinins
Which combination of gases is suitable for fruit ripening?
a) 80% CH4 and 20% CO2
b) 80% CO2 and 20% O2
c) 80% C2H4 and 20% CO2
d) 80% CO2 and 20% CH2
c) 80% C2H4 and 20% CO2
Which one among the following chemicals is used for causing defoliation of forest trees?
a) Malic hydrazide
b) 2,4-D
c) Amo-1618
d) Phosphon D
b) 2,4-D
Gibberelic acid induces flowering in ____-day plants under _____-day conditions
long, short
The movement of auxin is largely ____________
basipetal
The regulator which retards ageing/senescence of plant parts is:
cytokinin
Klinostat is employed in the study of:
a) osmosis
b) growth movements
c) photosynthesis
d) respiration
b) growth movements
Cytokinins
a) promote abscission
b) influence water movement
c) help retain chlorophyll
d) inhibit protoplasmic streaming
c) help retain chlorophyll
Mowing grass lawn facilitates better maintenance because
a) wounding stimulates regeneration
b) removal of apical dominance and stimulation of intercalary meristem
c) removal of apical dominance
d) removal of apical dominance and promotion of lateral meristem
b) removal of apical dominance and stimulation of intercalary meristem
Gibberellins promote:
a) seed germination
b) seed dormancy
c) leaf fall
d) root elongation
a) seed germination
The site of perception of light in plants during photoperiodism is:
a) leaf
b) shoot apex
c) stem
d) axillary bud
leaf
Photoperiodism was first characterised in:
a) tobacco
b) potato
c) tomato
d) cotton
a) tobacco
Which one of the following hormones can replace vernalisation?
a) Auxin
b) Cytokinin
c) Gibberellins
d) Ethylene
c) Gibberellins
An enzyme that can stimulate germination of barley seeds is: ___________
α-amylase
A baby boy aged 2 years - which teeth are absent?
Pre-molars
Which cells of Crypts of Lieberkuhn secrete antibacterial lysozyme?
Paneth cells
Which hormones do stimulate the production of pancreatic juice and bicarbonate?
Cholecystokinin and secretin
For its activity, carboxypeeptidase requires:
a) zinc
b) iron
c) niacin
d) copper
zinc
One of the constituents of the pancreatic juice which is poured into the duodenum in humans is:
a) trypsinogen
b) chymotrypsin
c) trypsin
d) enterokinase
a) trypsinogen
Secretin and cholecystokinin are digestive hormones. They are secreted in ______________
duodenum
Duodenum has characteristic Brunner’s gland which secrete two hormones called:
secretin and cholecystokinin
Which part of the body secretes the hormone secretin?
Duodenum
The layer of cells that secrete enamel of tooth is:
ameloblast
A polysaccharide which is synthesized and stored in liver cells is:
a) arabinose
b) glycogen
c) lactose
d) galactose
b) glycogen
Kupffer’s cells occur in:
a) spleen b) kidney c) brain d) liver
d) liver
Pancreas produces _________ digestive enzyme(s) and _______ hormone(s). How many?
3, 2
Pancreatic juice and hormones of pancreas are produced by ________ (same / different) cells
different
Secretin stimulates production of ___________
pancreatic juice
Which of the following gastric cells indirectly help in erythropoiesis?
a) chief cells
b) mucous cells
c) goblet cells
d) parietal cells
d) parietal cells
In the stomach, gastric acid is secreted by the __________ cells
parietal cells
Gastric juice of infants contains:
a) pepsinogen, lipase, rennin
b) amylase, rennin, pepsinogen
c) maltase, pepsinogen, rennin
d) nuclease, pepsinogen, lipase
a) pepsinogen, lipase, rennin
The initial step in the digestion of milk in humans is carried out by:
a) lipase
b) trypsin
c) rennin
d) pepsin
d) pepsin
If for some reason the parietal cells of the gut epithelium become partially non-functional, what is likely to happen?
a) the pancreatic enzymes and specially the trypsin and lipase will not work efficiently
b) the pH of stomach will fall abruptly
c) steapsin will be more effective
d) proteins will not be adequately hydrolysed by pepsin into proteoses and peptones
d) proteins will not be adequately hydrolysed by pepsin into proteoses and peptones
In the absence of HCl secretion, inactive ___________ in the gastric glands is not converted into __________
pepsinogen,
active enzyme pepsin
Hydrolytic enzymes which act on low pH are called as:
a) proteases
b) alpha-amylases
c) hydrolases
d) peroxidases
a) proteases
What is common among amylase, rennin and trypsin?
They are all proteins
Most of the fat digestion occurs in the ______________
small intestine
Where is protein digestion accomplished?
Ileum
Emulsification of fat is carried out by
a) bile pigments
b) bile salts
c) HCl
d) pancreatic juice
b) bile salts
Release of pancreatic juice is stimulated by ____________ and ________________
cholecystokinin, secretin
Carrier ions like Na+ facilitate the absorption of substances like:
a) amino acids and glucose
b) glucose and fatty acids
c) fatty acids and glycerol
d) fructose and some amino acids
a) amino acids and glucose
Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some air always remains in the lungs which can never be expelled because ________________
there is a negative intrapleural pressure pulling at the lung walls
Reduction in pH of blood will
a) decrease the affinity of haemoglobin with oxygen
b) release bicarbonate ions by the liver
c) reduce the heartbeat rate
d) reduce the blood supply to the brain
a) decrease the affinity of haemoglobin with oxygen
The haemoglobin of a human fetus has _________ (higher/lower/same) affinity for oxygen as/than that of an adult
higher
At high altitude, the RBCs in the human blood will _________ (increase / decrease) in __________ (number / size)
increase in number
Although much CO2 is carried in blood yet blood does not become acidic, because:
in CO2 transport, blood buffers play an important role
When you hold your breath what gas changes in blood would first lead to the urge to breathe?
Rising CO2 concentration
Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disorder?
a) Anthracis
b) Silicosis
c) Botulism
d) Emphysema
b) Silicosis
Asthma may be attributed to:
a) inflammation of the trachea
b) acculumation of fluid in the lungs
c) bacterial infection of the lungs
d) allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs
d) allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs
Blood analysis of patient reveals unusually high quantity of carboxyhaemoglobin. Patient has been inhaling polluted air containing unusually high content of:
carbon monoxide
Serum differs from blood in lacking __________
clotting factors
Which statement is true for WBCs?
a) non-nucleated
b) in deficiency, cancer is caused
c) manufactured in thymus
d) can squeeze through blood capillaries
d) can squeeze through blood capillaries
Which is the principal cation in the plasma of the blood?
Sodium
The life span of human WBC is approximately
less than 10 days
Vitamin K is required for:
a) change of prothrombin into thrombin
b) synthesis of prothrombin
c) change of fibrinogen to fibrin
d) formation of thromboplastin
b) synthesis of prothrombin
Carbonic anhydrase occurs in:
a) lymphocytes
b) blood plasma
c) RBCs
d) leucocytes
c) RBCs
Removal of calcium from freshly collected blood would
a) cause delayed clotting
b) prevent clotting
c) cause immediate clotting
d) prevent destruction of haemoglobin
b) prevent clotting
Which one engulfs pathogens rapidly?
a) acidophils
b) monocytes
c) basophils
d) neutrophils
d) neutrophils
Compared to blood our lymph has:
a) plasma without proteins
b) more WBCs and no RBCs
c) more RBCs and less WBCs
d) no plasma
b) more WBCs and no RBCs
Stroke volume = ?
End diastolic volume - end systolic volume
Blood pressure in the mammalian aorta is maximum during ___________
systole of left ventricle
Which of the following has an open circulatory system?
a) Octopus
b) Pheretima
c) Periplaneta
d) Hirudinaria
c) Periplaneta
The neurogenic heart is characteristic feature of
a) humans
b) arthropods
c) rabbits
d) rats
b) arthropods
Blood pressure in pulmonary artery is:
a) more than that in the pulmonary vein
b) less than that in vena cavae
c) same as that in the aorta
d) more than that in the carotid
a) more than that in the pulmonary vein
In mammals which blood vessel would normally carry the largest amount of urea?
a) Hepatic vein
b) Hepatic portal vein
c) Renal vein
d) Dorsal aorta
a) Hepatic vein
Which vertebrate organ receives only oxygenated blood?
Spleen
In veins, valves are present to check backwards flow of blood flowing at __________ pressure
low
Blood capillaries are made of:
a) endothelium, connective tissue and muscle fibres
b) endothelium and muscle fibres
c) endothelium and connective tissue
d) endothelium only
d) endothelium only
Wall of blood capillary is formed of _________ cells
endothelial
In a man abducens nerve is injured. Which one of the following functions will be affected?
a) Movement of the eyeball
b) Movement of the tongue
c) Swallowing
d) Movement of the neck
a) Movement of the eyeball
Abducens - 6th cranial nerve - innervates the external rectus of eyeball
Injury to vagus nerve in humans is not likely to affect:
a) tongue movements
b) gastrointestinal movements
c) pancreatic secretion
d) cardiac movements
a) tongue movements
Hypoglossal nerve innervates muscles of tongue;
Vagus nerve innervates larynx, trachea, oesophagus, stomach, lungs, heart and intestines. It is a mixed nerve and controls visceral sensations/movements
Which cranial nerve has the highest number of branches?
a) Vagus nerve
b) Trigeminal nerve
c) Facial nerve
d) None of these
b) Trigeminal nerve
largest - 5th cranial nerve - 3 branches
Sympathetic nervous system induces:
a) secretion of digestive juices
b) heart beat
c) secretion of saliva
d) all of these
b) heart beat
Quickens rate/force of heart beat, inhibits secretion of saliva and gastric juice
The vagus nerve is the cranial nerve numbering:
a) 7
b) 5
c) 10
d) 9
c) 10
The sympathetic nerves in mammals arise from:
a) sacral nerves
b) 3rd, 7th, 9th and 10th cranial nerves
c) thoraco-lumbar nerves
d) cervical nerves
c) thoraco-lumbar nerves
Vagus nerve is:
a) X
b) IX
c) VII
d) V
a) X
One function of parasympathetic nervous system is:
a) contraction of hair muscles
b) stimulation of sweat glands
c) acceleration of heart beat
d) constriction of pupil
d) constriction of pupil
Parasym is opposite to sym => If sym. accelerates an action, parasym. slows it down.
parasyn => constrict pupil, slow down heart beat, dilate blood vessels, lower arterial BP, quicken peristaltic movements, contract the urinary bladder
Which of the following cranial nerves can regulate heart beat?
a) X
b) IX
c) VIII
d) VII
a) X
Nissl’s bodies are mainly composed of:
a) proteins and lipids
b) DNA and RNA
c) nucleic acids and SER
d) free ribosomes and RER
d) free ribosomes and RER
Mylein sheath is produced by Schwann cells and _______________
oligodendrocytes
The most abundant intracellular cation is:
a) H+
b) K+
c) Na+
d) Ca++
b) K+
Alzheimer’s disease in humans is associated with the deficiency of _________________
acetylcholine
During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the action potential results from the movement of:
a) K+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid
b) Na+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
c) K+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
d) Na+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid
b) Na+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
Which of the following does not act as a neurotransmitter?
a) Cortisone
b) Acetylecholine
c) Epinephrine
d) Norepinephrine
a) Cortisone
Parkinson’s disease is caused by degeneration of brain neurons that are involved in movement control and make use of neurotransmitter _______________
c) dopamine
What used to be described as Nissl’s granules in a nerve cell are now identified as:
a) cell metabolites
b) fat granules
c) ribosomes
d) mitochondria
c) ribosomes
The Nissl’s granules of nerve cells are made up of: __________
ribosome
Which of the following regions of the brain is incorrectly paired with its function?
a) Corpus callosum - communication between left and right cerebral cortices
b) Cerebrum - calculation and contemplation
c) Medulla oblongata - homeostatic control
d) Cerebellum - language comprehension
d) Cerebellum - language comprehension
Third ventricle of brain is aka:
a) metacoel
b) rhinocoel
c) paracoel
d) diacoel
d) diacoel
rhinocoel - 1st ventricle
paracoel - 2nd
diacoel - 3rd
metacoel - 4th
Destruction of the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord would result in loss of:
a) commissural impulses
b) integrating impulses
c) sensory impulses
d) voluntary motor impulses
d) voluntary motor impulses
Ivan Pavlov performed experiments on:
a) simple reflexes
b) conditioned reflexes
c) cardiac reflexes
d) origin of life
b) conditioned reflexes
Cornea consists of dense matrix of collagen and is the most sensitive portion of the eye. T or F?
True
Cornea is an external, transparent and protective proteinacious covering of the eye ball. T or F?
False
Cornea consists of dense connective tissue of elastin and can repair itself. T or F?
False
Cornea is convex, transparent layer which is highly vascularised? T or F?
False
Photoreceptors in the human eye are depolarised during darkness and become hyperpolarised in response to the light stimulus. T or F?
True
Which part of the human ear plays no role in hearing as such but is otherwise very much required?
a) Eustachian tube
b) Organ of corti
c) Vestibular apparatus
d) Ear Ossicles
c) Vestibular apparatus
When we migrate from dark to light, we fail to see for sometime but after a time visibility becomes normal. It is an example of ______________.
Adaptation
Retina is most sensitive at:
a) optic disc
b) periphery
c) macula lutea
d) fovea centralis
d) fovea centralis
Iris is part of:
a) sclerotic
b) choroid
c) choroid and retina
d) sclerotic and choroid
d) sclerotic and choroid
The outer edge of iris is attached to sclera
Hypersecretion of growth hormone (GH) in adults does not cause further increase in height, because
a) epiphyseal plates close after adolescence
b) bones loose their sensitivity to GH in adults
c) muscle fibres do not grow in size after birth
d) growth hormone becomes inactive in adults
a) epiphyseal plates close after adolescence
Which of the following pairs of hormones are not antagonistic (having opposite effects) to each other?
a) Aldosterone, Atrial Natriuretic Factor
b) Relaxin, Inhibin
c) Parathormone, Calcitonin
d) Insulin, Glucagon
b) Relaxin, Inhibin
Which one of the following hormones is not involved in sugar metabolism?
a) Insulin
d) Glucagon
c) Cortisol
d) Aldosterone
d) Aldosterone
Nor-epinephrine:
i) is released by sympathetic fibers
ii) is released by parasympathetic fibers
iii) increases the heart rate
iv) decreases blood pressure
Which of the above are correct?
i) is released by sympathetic fibers
iii) increases the heart rate
Toxic agents present in food which interfere with thyroxine synthesis lead to the development of:
a) toxic goitre
b) cretinism
c) simple goitre
d) tyrotoxicosis
c) simple goitre
A health disorder that results from the deficiency of thyroxine in adults and characterised by (i) low metabolic rate (ii) increase in body weight and (iii) tendency to retain water in tissues is:
a) simple goitre
b) myxoedema
c) cretinism
d) hypothyroidism
b) myxoedema
Which of the following causes dilation of blood vessels, increased oxygen consumption and glucogenesis?
a) Glucagon
b) ACTH
c) Insulin
d) Adrenaline
d) Adrenaline
Which of the following correctly matches a hormone with a disease resulting from its deficiency?
a) luteinising hormone - failure of ovulation
b) insulin - diabetes insipidus
c) thyroxine - tetany
d) parathyroid hormone - diabetes mellitus
a) luteinising hormone - failure of ovulation
Which of the following correctly matches a hormone with a disease resulting from its deficiency?
a) relaxin - gigantism
b) prolactin - cretinism
c) parathyroid hormone - tetany
d) insulin - diabetes insipidus
c) parathyroid hormone - tetany
Acromegaly is caused by:
a) excess of STH
b) excess of thyroxine
c) deficiency of thyroxine
d) excess of adrenaline
a) excess of STH - somatotrophic hormone, released by anterior pituitary after adolescence
Adrenaline directly affects:
a) SA node
b) Beta cells of Langerhans
c) dorsal root of spinal nerve
d) epithelial cells of stomach
a) SA node
Which set is similar?
a) Corpus luteum - Graafian follicles
b) Sebum - Sweat
c) Bundle of His - Pace maker
d) Vitamin B7 - Niacin
a) Corpus luteum - Graafian follicles
Which gland secretes odorous secretion in mammals?
a) Bartholins
b) Prostrate
c) Anal gland
d) Liver
c) Anal gland
The contraction of gall bladder is due to:
a) cholecystokinin
b) enterogastrone
c) gastrin
d) secretin
a) cholecystokinin
Gastric secretion is stopped by hormone:
a) enterogasterone
b) gastrin
c) pancreozymin
d) cholecystokinin
a) enterogasterone
The amino acid tryptophan is the precursor for synthesis of:
a) estrogen and progesterone
b) cortisol and cortisone
c) melatonin and serotonin
d) thyroxine and triiodothyronine
c) melatonin and serotonin
Which of the following best illustrates “feedback” in development?
a) Tissue X secretes RNA which changes the development of tissue Y
b) As tissue X develops, it secretes enzymes that inhibit the development of tissue Y
c) As tissue X develops, it secretes something that induces tissue Y to develop
d) As tissue X develops, it secretes something that slows down the growth of tissue Y
c) As tissue X develops, it secretes something that induces tissue Y to develop
What is correct to say about the hormone action in humans?
a) Glucagon is secreted by B-cells of islets of Langerhans and stimulates glycogenolysis
b) Secretion of thymosins is stimulated with aging
c) In females, FSH first binds with specific receptors on ovarian cell membrane
d) FSH stimulates the secretion of estrogen and progesterone
c) In females, FSH first binds with specific receptors on ovarian cell membrane
Which of the following is not a secondary messenger?
a) cAMP
b) cGMP
c) Calcium
d) Sodium
d) Sodium
Hormones thyroxine, adrenaline and the pigment melanin are formed from:
a) tyrosine
b) proline
c) tryptophan
d) glycine
a) tyrosine
Which one of the following endocrine glands stores its secretion in the extracellular space before discharging it into the blood?
a) Testis
b) Thyroid
c) Pancreas
d) Adrenal
b) Thyroid
Gemmae are present in:
(1) Mosses
(2) Pteridophytes
(3) Some Gymnosperms
(4) Some Liverworts
(4) Some Liverworts
Which of the following algae produce Carrageen ?
(1) Green algae
(2) Brown algae
(3) Red algae
(4) Blue-green algae
(3) Red algae
Which of the following plants is monoecious ?
(1) Carica papaya
(2) Chara
(3) Marchantia polymorpha
(4) Cycas circinalis
(2) Chara
Which of the following is not an application of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) ?
(1) Molecular diagnosis
(2) Gene amplification
(3) Purification of isolated protein
(4) Detection of gene mutation
(3) Purification of isolated protein
Which of the following algae contains mannitol as reserve food material ?
(1) Ectocarpus
(2) Gracilaria
(3) Volvox
(4) Ulothrix
(1) Ectocarpus
During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out :
(1) RNA
(2) DNA
(3) Histones
(4) Polysaccharides
(2) DNA
Diadelphous stamens are found in :
(1) China rose
(2) Citrus
(3) Pea
(4) China rose and citrus
(3) Pea
Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) ?
(1) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
(2) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
(3) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
(4) Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
(1) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
- Identify the correct statement.
(1) In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate
is added to the 3’ end of hnRNA.
(2) RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to terminate the process of transcription in
bacteria.
(3) The coding strand in a transcription unit is
copied to an mRNA.
(4) Split gene arrangement is characteristic of
prokaryotes.
(2) RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to terminate the process of transcription in
bacteria.
- What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in eukaryotes ?
(1) Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
(2) Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
(3) Transcribes precursor of mRNA
(4) Transcribes only snRNAs
(2) Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
In some members of which of the following pairs of families, pollen grains retain their viability for months after release ?
(1) Poaceae ; Rosaceae
(2) Poaceae ; Leguminosae
(3) Poaceae ; Solanaceae
(4) Rosaceae ; Leguminosae
(4) Rosaceae ; Leguminosae
Match the following:
a) Denitrification
b) Conversion of ammonia to nitrate
c) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate
d) Conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia
Nitrococcus - Rhizobium - Thiobacillus - Nitrobacter
a) Denitrification - Nitrococcus
b) Conversion of ammonia to nitrate - Rhizobium
c) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate - Thiobacillus
d) Conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia - Nitrobacter
Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of cells, followed by its detection using autoradiography because :
(1) mutated gene partially appears on a photographic film.
(2) mutated gene completely and clearly appears on a photographic film.
(3) mutated gene does not appear on a photographic film as the probe has no complimentarity with it.
(4) mutated gene does not appear on photographic film as the probe has complimentarity with it.
(3) mutated gene does not appear on a photographic film as the probe has no complimentarity with it.
DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as :
(1) Satellite DNA
(2) Repetitive DNA
(3) Single nucleotides
(4) Polymorphic DNA
(2) Repetitive DNA
Which one of the following organisms bears hollow and pneumatic long bones ?
(1) Neophron
(2) Hemidactylus
(3) Macropus
(4) Ornithorhynchus
(1) Neophron
Which of the following characteristics is incorrect with respect to cockroach ?
(1) A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction of midgut and hind gut.
(2) Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by the mouth parts.
(3) In females, 7th-9th sterna together form a genital pouch.
(4) 10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a pair of anal cerci.
(1) A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction of midgut and hind gut.
Match the following:
a) Metamerism
b) Canal system
c) Comb plates
d) Cnidoblasts
Coelenterata - Ctenophora - Annelida - Porifera
a) Metamerism - Annelida
b) Canal system - Porifera
c) Comb plates - Ctenophora
d) Cnidoblasts - Coelenterata
Which of the following statements wrongly represents the nature of smooth muscle ?
(1) These muscle have no striations
(2) They are involuntary muscles
(3) Communication among the cells is performed by intercalated discs
(4) These muscles are present in the wall of blood vessels
(3) Communication among the cells is performed by intercalated discs
Match the following:
a) Physalia
b) Limulus
c) Ancyclostoma
d) Pinctada
Pearl oyster - Portugese Man of War - Living fossil - Hookworm
a) Physalia - Portugese Man of War
b) Limulus - Living fossil
c) Ancyclostoma - Hookworm
d) Pinctada - Pearl oyster
Which of the following is not an objective of Biofortification in crops ?
(1) Improve protein content
(2) Improve resistance to diseases
(3) Improve vitamin content
(4) Improve micronutrient and mineral content
(2) Improve resistance to diseases
Read the following statements.
(a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
(b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals.
(c) Round worms have organ-system level of body organization.
(d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion.
(e) Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms.
Which of these are correct?
(b), (c) and (e) are correct
Identify the incorrect pair.
(1) Alkaloids - Codeine
(2) Toxin - Abrin
(3) Lectins - Concanavalin A
(4) Drugs - Ricin
(4) Drugs - Ricin
The centriole undergoes duplication during :
(1) S-phase
(2) Prophase
(3) Metaphase
(4) G2 phase
(1) S-phase
Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present on :
(1) Corona radiata
(2) Vitelline membrane
(3) Perivitelline space
(4) Zona pellucida
(4) Zona pellucida
Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans ?
(1) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
(2) Synthesis of prostaglandins
(3) Release of Oxytocin
(4) Release of Prolactin
(4) Release of Prolactin
The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into :
(1) Dysfunction of Immune system
(2) Parkinson’s disease
(3) Digestive disorder
(4) Addison’s disease
(1) Dysfunction of Immune system
Following are the statements about prostomium of earthworm.
(a) It serves as a covering for mouth.
(b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it can crawl.
(c) It is one of the sensory structures.
(d) It is the first body segment.
Which are correct?
(a), (b) and (c) are correct
Which of the following aspects is an exclusive characteristic of living things?
a) isolated metabolic reactions occur in vitro
b) increase in mass from inside only
c) perception of events happening in the environment and their memory
d) increase in mass by accumulation of material both on surface as well as internally
c) perception of events happening in the environment and their memory
Living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from non-living things on the basis of their ability for:
a) interaction with the environment and progressive evolution
b) reproduction
c) growth and movement
d) responsiveness to touch
d) responsiveness to touch
Biological organisation starts with:
a) cellular level
b) organismic level
c) atomic level
d) submicroscopic molecular level
d) submicroscopic molecular level
The common characteristics between tomato and potato will be maximum at the level of their:
a) family
b) order
c) division
d) genus
a) family
Species are considered as
a) real basic units of classification
b) lowest units of classification
c) artificial concept of human mind which cannot be defined in absolute terms
d) real units of classification devised by taxonomists
a) real basic units of classification
The term phylum was given by:
a) Cuvier
b) Haeckel
c) Theophrastus
d) Linnaeus
b) Haeckel
Static concept of species was put forward by:
a) de Candolle
b) Linnaeus
c) Theophrastus
d) Darwin
b) Linnaeus
Which one of the following is not a correct statement?
a) Museum has collection of photographs of plants and animals
b) Key is a taxonomic aid for identification of specimens
c) Herbarium houses dried, pressed and preserved plant specimens
d) Botanical gardens have collection of living plants for reference
a) Museum has collection of photographs of plants and animals
One of the most important functions of botanical gardens is that:
a) they provide a beautiful area for recreation
b) one can observe tropical plants there
c) they allow ex situ conservation of germplasm
d) they provide the natural habitat for wild life
c) they allow ex situ conservation of germplasm
In the five kingdom classification, Chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been included in:
a) protista
b) algae
c) plantae
d) monera
a) protista
In the five kingdom system, the main basis of classification is:
a) structure of nucleus
b) mode of nutrition
c) structure of cell wall
d) asexual reproduction
b) mode of nutrition
An important criterion for modern day classification is:
a) resemblances in morphology
b) anatomical and physiological traits
c) breeding habits
d) presence or absence of notochord
b) anatomical and physiological traits
Which of the following components provides sticky character to the bacterial cell?
a) Nuclear membrane
b) Plasma membrane
c) Glycocalyx
d) Cell wall
c) Glycocalyx
Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in:
a) cell membrane structure
b) mode of nutrition
c) cell shape
d) mode of reproduction
a) cell membrane structure
In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles the eukaryotic cell is:
a) plasma membrane
b) nucleus
c) ribosomes
d) cell wall
a) plasma membrane
Bacterial leaf blight of rice is caused by a species:
a) Alternaria
b) Erwinia
c) Xanthomonas
d) Pseudomonas
c) Xanthomonas
Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methano-bacterium exemplify archaebacteria that contain _________________ homologous to eukaryotic ___________
protein, core histones
Which of the following statement about mycoplasma is wrong?
a) they are pleomorphic
b) they are sensitive to penicillin
c) they cause diseases in plants
d) they are also called PPLO
b) they are sensitive to penicillin
Curing of tea leaves is brought about by activity of:
a) fungi
b) bacteria
c) mycorrhiza
d) viruses
b) bacteria
Frankia can fix nitrogen in the free living state. T or F?
False
For retting of jute the fermenting microbe used is:
a) methanophilic bacteria
b) butyric acid bacteria
c) Helicobacter pylori
d) Streptococcus lactin
b) butyric acid bacteria
Basophilic prokarotes:
a) grow and multiply in very deep marine sediments
b) occur in water containing high concentrations of barium hydroxide
c) readily grow and divide in sea water enriched in any soluble salt of barium
d) grow slowly in highly alkaline frozen lakes at high altitudes.
a) grow and multiply in very deep marine sediments
Which statement is correct for bacterial transduction?
a) transfer of some genes from one bacteria to another bacteria through virus
b) transfer of genes from one bacteria to another bacteria by conjugation
c) bacteria obtained its DNA directly from mother cell
d) bacteria obtained DNA from other external source
a) transfer of some genes from one bacteria to another bacteria through virus
Organisms which obtain energy by oxidation of reduced inorganic compounds are called ______________
chemoautotrophs
Difference in Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria is due to
a) cell wall
b) cell membrane
c) ribosome
d) cytoplasm
a) cell wall
Transfer of genetic information one bacterium to another in the transduction process is through:
a) bacteriophages released from the donor bacterial strain
b) another bacterium having special organ for conjugation
c) physical contact between donor and recipient strains
d) conjugation between opposite strain bacterium
a) bacteriophages released from the donor bacterial strain
DNA of E.coli is _________ (double/single) stranded and __________ (linear / circular)
DS and circular
Main role of bacteria in the carbon cycle involves:
a) chemosynthesis
b) digestion or breakdown of organic compounds
c) photosynthesis
d) assimilation of nitrogenous compounds
b) digestion or breakdown of organic compounds
A few organisms are known to grow and multiply at temperatures of 100-105° C. They belong to:
a) thermophilic sulphur bacteria
b) hot spring blue-green algae
c) methanogenic archaebacteria
d) marine archaebacteria
a) thermophilic sulphur bacteria
The hereditary material present in the bacterium E. coli is:
a) single stranded DNA
b) double stranded DNA
c) DNA
d) RNA
b) double stranded DNA
Azotobacter and Bacillus polymyxa are the examples of:
a) pathogenic bacteria
b) decomposers
c) symbiotic N2 fixer
d) non-symbiotic N2 fixer
d) non-symbiotic N2 fixer
What are the sex organs provided in some bacteria?
a) Sex pili
b) Plasmid
c) Circular DNA
d) Gametes
a) Sex pili
Which type of DNA is found in bacteria?
a) circular free DNA
b) membrane bound DNA
c) Straight DNA
d) Helical DNA
a) circular free DNA
Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in:
a) using flagella for locomotion
b) having a contractile vacuole for removing excess water
c) using pseudopodia for capturing prey
d) having 2 types of nuclei
d) having 2 types of nuclei
Auxospores and hormogonia are formed respectively by?
several diatoms, few cyanobacteria
In which of the following animals dimorphic nucleus is found?
a) amoeba proteus
b) trypanosoma gambiense
c) plasmodium vivax
d) paramecium caudatum
d) paramecium caudatum
Trypanosoma belongs to class
a) sarcodina
b) zooflagellata
c) ciliata
d) sporozoa
b) zooflagellata
flagellated protozoans
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a) yeasts have filamentous bodies with long thread like hyphae
b) morels and truffles are edible delicacies
c) Claviceps is a source of many alkaloids and LSD
d) Conidia are produced exogenously and ascospores endogenously
a) yeasts have filamentous bodies with long thread like hyphae
After karyogamy, followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in
a) neurospora
b) Alternaria
c) Agaricus
d) Saccharomyces
c) Agaricus
Which of the following fungi contains hallucinogens?
a) Morchella esculenta
b) Amanita muscaria
c) Neurospora sp.
d) Ustilago sp.
b) Amanita muscaria
Which of the following is true for fungi?
a) they lack a rigid cell wall
b) they are heterotrophs
c) they lack nuclear membrane
d) they are phagotrophs
b) they are heterotrophs
Single-celled eukaryotes are included in:
a) protista
b) fungi
c) archaea
d) monera
a) protista
Membrane-bound organelles are absent in
a) Saccharomyces
b) Streptococcus
c) Clamydomonas
d) Plasmodium
b) Streptococcus
Which is the wrong pairing for disease and causal organism?
a) black rust of wheat - Puccinia graminis
b) loose smut of wheat - Ustilago nuda
c) Root knot of vegetables - Meloidogyne sp.
d) Late blight of potato - Alternaria solani
d) Late blight of potato - Alternaria solani
Which pair of the following belongs to basidiomycetes?
a) puffballs and Claviceps
b) Peziza and stink horns
c) Morchella and mushrooms
d) Birds nest fungi and puffballs
d) Birds nest fungi and puffballs
Which fungal disease spreads by seeds and flowers?
Loose smut of wheat
Select the wrong statement:
a) Cell wall is present in members of fungi and plantae
b) Mushrooms belong to basidiomycetes
c) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in sporozoans
d) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell in all kingdoms except monera
c) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in sporozoans
Absorptive heterotrophic nutrition is exhibited by:
a) algae
b) fungi
c) bryophytes
d) pteridophytes
c) bryophytes
Select the wrong statement
a) The term ‘contagium vivum fluidum’ was coined by M W Beijerinck
b) Mosaic disease in tobacco and AIDS in human being are caused by viruses
c) The viroids were discovered by DJ Ivanowsky
d) WM Stanley showed that viruses could be crystallized
c) The viroids were discovered by DJ Ivanowsky
Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand and capsomeres?
a) Polio virus
b) Tobacco mosaic virus
c) Measles virus
d) Retrovirus
b) Tobacco mosaic virus
Viruses have
a) DNA enclosed in a protein coat
b) prokaryotic nucleus
c) single chromosome
d) both DNA and RNA
a) DNA enclosed in a protein coat
Which statement is wrong for viruses?
a) All are parasites
b) All of them have helical symmetry
c) They have ability to synthesize nucleic acids and proteins
d) Antibiotics have no effect on them
b) All of them have helical symmetry
TO Diener discovered a
a) free infectious DNA
b) infectious protein
c) bacteriophage
d) free infectious RNA
d) free infectious RNA
There exists a close association between the alga and fungus within a lichen. The fungus
a) provides protection, anchorage and absorption for the algae
b) provides food for the alga
c) fixes the atmospheric nitrogen for the alga
d) releases oxygen for the alga
a) provides protection, anchorage and absorption for the algae
Tracheids differ from other tracheary elements in
a) having casparian strips
b) being imperforate
c) lacking nucleus
d) being lignified
b) being imperforate
Gymnosperms are also called soft wood spermatophytes because they lack:
a) cambium
b) phloem fibres
c) thick-walled tracheids
d) xylem fibres
d) xylem fibres
Vessels are found in:
a) all angiosperms and some gymnosperms
b) most angiosperms and few gymnosperms
c) all angiosperms, all gymnosperms and some pteridophyta
d) all pteridophyta
b) most angiosperms and few gymnosperms
Death of protoplasm is pre-requisite for a vital function like:
a) transport of sap
b) transport of food
c) absorption of water
d) gaseous exchange
a) transport of sap
Root hair develop from the region of:
a) elongation
b) root cap
c) meristematic activity
d) maturation
d) maturation
The annular and spirally thickened conducting elements generally develop in the protoxylem when the root or stem is:
a) elongating
b) widening
c) differentiating
d) maturing
c) differentiating
Passage cells are thin walled cells found in:
a) phloem elements that serve as entry points for substance for transport to other plant parts
b) testa of seeds to enable emergence of growing embryonic axis during seed germination
c) central region of style through which the pollen tube grows towards the ovary
d) endodermis of roots facilitating rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle
d) endodermis of roots facilitating rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle
A plant bears fruit, has a column of vascular tissue and a tap root system. This plant is a:
a) angiosperm and dicot
b) gymnosperm and dicot
c) angiosperm and monocot
d) gymnosperm and monocot
a) angiosperm and dicot
A narrow layer of thin walled cells found between phloem/bark and wood of a dicot is:
a) cork cambium
b) vascular cambium
c) endodermis
d) pericycle
b) vascular cambium
Monocot leaves possess:
a) intercalary meristem
b) lateral meristem
c) apical meristem
d) mass meristem
a) intercalary meristem
Pith and cortex do not differentiate in:
a) monocot stem
b) dicot stem
c) monocot root
d) dicot root
a) monocot stem
Interfascicular cambium develops from the cells of:
a) endodermis
b) pericycle
c) medullary rays
d) xylem parenchyma
c) medullary rays
Vascular tissues in flowering plants develop from:
a) periblem
b) dermatogen
c) phellogen
d) plerome
d) plerome
For a critical study of secondary growth in plants, which one of the following pairs is suitable?
a) teak and pine
b) deodar and fern
c) wheat and maiden hair fern
d) sugarcane and sunflower
a) teak and pine
Nitrogenous waste in malphigian tubules moves into:
a) haemocoel
b) intestine
c) vacuole
d) duodenum
intestine
Epithelial tissues are of:
a) 3 types: squamous, cuboidal, columnar
b) 4 types: squamous, cuboidal, columnar and ciliated
c) 2 types: simple and compound
d) 3 types: simple, cuboidal, columnar
c) 2 types: simple and compound
Transverse canals that connect Havarsian canals are called ____________
Volkmann’s canals
Epithelial tissue with thin flat cells appearing like packed tiles occurs on:
a) inner lining of cheeks
b) inner lining of stomach
c) inner lining of fallopian tubes
d) outer surface of ovary
a) inner lining of cheeks
Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statements:
a) Entire heart is made up of cardiac muscle
b) A specialised cardiac musculature called the nodal tissue is also distributed in the heart
c) Walls of ventricles are much thicker than that of atria
d) Left ventricle gives rise to right systemic aorta which supplies oxygenated blood to whole body
d) Left ventricle gives rise to right systemic aorta which supplies oxygenated blood to whole body
Which of the following features is not present in periplaneta americana?
a) Schizocoelom as body cavity
b) Indeterminate and radial cleavage during embryonic development
c) Exoskeleton composed of N-acetyl glucosamine
d) Metamerically segmented body
b) Indeterminate and radial cleavage during embryonic development
- determinate and spiral cleavage
“Post-mitotic phase” of the cell in which active synthesis of RNA and proteins takes place is?
G-1 phase
Chromosomes are least condensed during:
a) telophase
b) metaphase
c) interphase
d) anaphase
c) interphase
The centriole begins to move towards opposite poles of the cell in:
a) prophase
b) metaphase
c) anaphase
d) telophase
a) prophase
Chromosomes exhibit high level of coiling at which phase of karyokinesis?
a) Prophase
b) Metaphase
c) Telophase
d) Interphase
c) Telophase
IN karyokinesis!!
Microtubules from opp poles of spindle get attached to kinetochores of sister chromatids during:
a) Anaphase II
b) Prophase II
c) Metaphase II
d) Metaphase I
c) Metaphase II
The term meiosis was coined by:
a) Farmer and Moore
b) Flemming
c) Blackman
d) Robertson
a) Farmer and Moore
A somatic cell has just completed S phase of its cell cycle as compared to gamete of the same species, it has ___x the number of chromosomes and ___x the amount of DNA
two, 4
