Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pedia > Infectious Diseases > Flashcards

Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Approximately 80% of blood cultures that will be positive are identified at

A

1st 24 hr from incubation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Persistence of IgM up months

A

Hepatitis A

West Nile Virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

T lymphocyte independent vaccines

A

poor immune responses in children < 2 y/o

short term immunity

absence of an enhanced or booster response on repeat exposure to the antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Rotavirus vaccine should NOT be initiated in infants OLDER than

A

15 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The final dose of rotavirus vaccine must be administered no later than

A

8 mo of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The MC adverse reaction to IM immunoglobulins

A

pain at injection site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Hepatitis A prophylaxis

A

IMIg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Toxoid - modified bacterial toxin that is made non toxic and is able to induce active immune response against toxins

TOXOID VACCINE

A

Tetanus

Diphtheria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Minimum age for the last dose of Hep B vaccine

A

24 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Vaccines CONTRAINDICATED in patients with X-LINKED AGAMMAGLOBULINEMIA

A

oral polio
smallpox
live attenuated influenza
BCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Vaccine CONTRAINDICATED in patient with CHRONIC RENAL DISEASE

A

live attenuated influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Oral rehydration is the mainstay of treatment for pediatric traveler diarrhea and the DOC is

A

Macrolide (Azithromycin)

Ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Endogenous pyrogens

A

cytokines
IL 1and IL 6
TNF a
IFN B and Y

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Drugs that are known to cause fever

A

Vancomycin
Allopurinol
Amphotericin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Palpebral Conjunctivitis

A 
measles
coxsackie virus
TB
infectious mononucleosis
lymphogranulomavenereum or cat scratch disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Bulbar Conjunctivitis

A

Kawasaki disease

Leptospirosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Types of Fever

A

INTERMITTENT FEVER
*exaggerated circadian rhythm that includes a period of normal temp on most days

SEPTIC OR HECTIC FEVER
*extremely wide fluctuations

SUSTAINED FEVER
*persistent and does not vary by > 0.5 C/day

REMITTENT FEVER
*persistent and varies by > 0.5 C/day

RELAPSING FEVER
*febrile periods that separated by intervals of normal temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Relative Bradycardia

A

Typhoid Fever
Leptospirosis
Brucellosis
Drug fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The MC serious bacterial infection in INFANT aged 1 -3 mo

A

Pyelonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Neutropenia is defined as an absolute neutrophil count of less than

A

1000 cells/mm3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Caused by defects in the chain of integrin which is required for the normal process of neutrophil aggregation and attachment to endothelial surfaces

A

LEUKOCYTE ADHESION DEFICIENCY

neutrophilia
recurrent bacterial infection
(-) pus formation
delayed umbilical cord separation
survival usually < 10 years 
slow healing ulcers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Penicillins are DOC for the ff pediatric infections

A

Group A and B Streptococcus

Treponema pallidum

Listeria monocytogenes

N. meningitidis (meningococcemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Metronidazole may increase the levels pf the ff drugs

A

Warfarin
Phenytoin
Lithium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Toxic Shock Syndrome

A

fever
hypotension
erythematous rash w/ subsequent desquamation of the hands and feet
multisystem involvement – vomiting, diarrhea, myalgias, nonfocal neurologic abnormalities, conjunctival hyperemia and strawberry tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Major Criteria for Staphylococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome

A

acute fever > 38.8
hypotension
rash (erythroderma with convalescent desquamation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Minor Criteria for Staphylococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome

A 
mucous membrane inflammation
vomiting, diarrhea
liver abnormalities
renal abnormalities
muscle abnormalities
CNS abnormalities
thrombocytopenia
27
Q

Children at increased risk of PNEUMOCOCCAL INFECTION

A 
SCD
deficiencies in humoral (B cell) and complement mediated immunity
HIV infection
malignancies - leukemia, lymphoma
chronic heart,lung or renal disease
CSF leak
cochlear implants
28
Q

Pharyngeal strains associated with glomerulonephritis skin strains

A

M types 45, 55, 57 and 60

29
Q

Pharyngeal strains associated with acute rheumatic fever

A

M types 1,3,5,6,18 and 29

30
Q

Acute Rheumatic Carditis usually presents as

A

Cardiac murmurs

Tachycardia

31
Q

DOC for Sydenham Chorea

A

Phenobarbital

Haloperidol or Chlorpromazine

32
Q

To prevent 1st attack of ARF after GAS pharyngitis antibiotic therapy should be instituted before

A

9th day of illness

33
Q

The MC clinical manifestation of meningococcal infection

A

Asymptomatic carriage of the organism in the nasopharynx

34
Q

The MC complication of acute severe meningococcal septicemia

A

Focal Skin Infarction – LOWER LIMBS – substantial scarring

35
Q

All patients who are presumed or proven to have gonorrhea should be evaluated for

A

concurrent syphilis
hepatitis B
HIV
C. trachomatis infection

36
Q

The MC etiology of joint and bone infection in young children

A

Kingella kingae

37
Q

The most important clinical manifestation of M. catarrhalis infection in CHILDREN

A

Otitis Media

38
Q

The MC reason for which children receive antibiotics

A

Otitis Media

39
Q

Preferable antibiotics in NEONATE with PERTUSSIS

A

Azithromycin

40
Q

Severe complications of pertussis and usual causes of deaths

A

PULMONARY HPN - request for 2D echo

SECONDARY BACTERIAL PNEUMONIA

41
Q

Common Clinical Feature of Typhoid Fever in Children

A 
high grade fever - 95%
coated tongue - 76%
anorexia - 70%
vomiting - 39%
hepatomegaly - 37%
diarrhea - 36%
toxicity - 29%
abdominal pain - 21%
splenomegaly - 17%
constipation - 7%
headache - 4%
jaundice - 2%
obtundation - 2%
ileus - 1%
intestinal perforation - 0.5 %
42
Q

Person with which blood group are at INCREASED risk of developing SEVERE CHOLERA

A

Blood group O

43
Q

SEIZURE in cholera is d.t.

A

HYPOGLYCEMIA

44
Q

The MC late onset complications of Campylobacter jejuni

A

GUILLAIN BARRE SYNDROME

REACTIVE ARTHRIS

45
Q

Produces fever, abdominal pain that MIMIC appendicitis and diarrhea

A

Yersinia enterolitica

46
Q

Most often associated with MESENTERIC LYMPHADENITIS

A

Yersinia pseudotuberculosis

47
Q

Patients with conditions leading to IRON OVERLOAD are at HIGHER risk of developing infections with

A

YERSINIA

48
Q

Antibiotics that shoul be AVOIDED in patients with BOTULISM

A

AMINOGLYCOSIDES - may potentiate the blocking action of botulinum toxin at the NMJ

49
Q

Worsening of ACNE im adolescent female on anti TB drugs is caused by

A

ISONIAZID

50
Q

Ideal agent for treating fungal UTI

A

Fluconazole

51
Q

Antiviral the BLOCKS M2 PROTEIN CHANNEL

A

aMantadine

52
Q

Hallmark of the 2nd stage of SSPE

A

massive myoclonus

53
Q

4th stage of SSPE

A

loss of critical centers – support breathing, HR and BP

54
Q

The MC finding among infants with Congenital Rubella Syndrome

A

Nerve Deafness

55
Q

The MC complication of mumps

A

Meningitis

56
Q

HSV infection of fingers or toes

A

Herpes Whitlow

57
Q

The MCC of recurrent aseptic meningitis (Mollaret meningitis)

A

HSV

58
Q

Infectious Mononucleosis

A

generalized lymphadenopathy (90%)
splenomegaly (50%)
hepatomegaly (10%)

epitrochlear lymphadenopathy
palatal petechiae (junction of the hard and soft palate(
59
Q

The MC long term sequelae associated with congenital CMV infection

A

Hearing loss

60
Q

Typically the first sign of infection in infants with RSV

A

RHINORRHEA

61
Q

Free living amebas that cause human amebic meningoencephalitis

A

Naegleria
Acanthamoeba
Balamuthia
Sappinia

62
Q

The leading protozoa cause of diarrhea in children worldwide

A

Cryptosporidium

63
Q

The MCC of death in KALAAZAR

A

Secondary bacterial infections

64
Q

HFMD is one of the more distinctive rash syndromes most frequently caused by

A

Coxsackievirus A16

Enterovirus 17

Pedia (63 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions