Horse + LA Infectious dz (NAVDF Layne, Rosenkrantz) Flashcards

1
Q

“Summer rash”
“Saddle sores”
“Sweating eczema”

A

Staphylococcal folliculitis

More common in summer; in areas that tack rubs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What can owners do to minimize risk of Staph infection

A

Rinse/bathe horses after being worked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Most common Staphylococcus species in horse pyodera

A

S. aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Staph species you may find in horse pyoderma

A

*S. aureus

*S pseudintermedius
*S hyicus hyicus
*S delphini

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Staph species on healthy horse skin

A

CoNS
*S xylosus
*S lentus
*S epidermidiis
*S hemolyticus
*S capitis
*S sciuri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Most common MRSA lineages in horses

A

CC398 is increasing prevalence –> from equine hospitals!
(also common in swine)

CC8 is decreasing prevalence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

T or F: humans with MRSA often have CC398 (equine hospital type)

A

False. Rarely causes infections in humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

T or F: Epidermic human MRSA from human hospitals has been found to cause nosocomial infections in horses (ST22, ST225)

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Risk factors for MRSA in horses

A

*Hospitalization
*Preventative penicillin use
*Ceftiofur
*Aminoglycosides

*Exposure to previously colonized horses
*Antibiotics within 30 days
*Admission to neonatal ICU, hospital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Main antibiotic used for MRSA in horses

A

TMS, then doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Main antibiotics for MSSA in horses

A

Procaine penicillin, gentamicin, ceftoifur, cephalexin, chloramphenicol, rifampin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

T or F: empiric enrofloxacin is a fair choice for horse pyoderma

A

False. Likely to induce resistance, MRSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Most common species of Staphylococcal pyoderma in food animals

A

S aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Staphylococcus isolated from goat skin

A

S aureus
S hemolyticus
S warneri
S epidermidis
S chromogenes
S caprae
S hyicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Staphylococcus isolated from cow skin

A

S aureus
S chromogenes
S hyicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Staphylococcus isolated from sheep skin

A

S aureus
S xylosus
S epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Staphylococcus isolated from pig skin

A

S aureus
S hyicus
S chromogenes
S sciuri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What bacteria are considered normal commensals in most food animals

A

S aureus
S hyicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Most common colonization sites of staphylococcus in food animals

A

Udders, tears, nasal/oral/perineal mucous membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Primary causes for secondary bacterial infections in food animals

A

*Stress from parturition/lactation
*Poor nutrition
*Overcrowding
*Transport
*Poor hygiene
*Coarse feed or bedding
*External, Internal parasitism
*Systemic illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which food animal more commonly develops impetigo

A

Dairy cows– as lesions are most common on tears/udder.

Milking equipment, lack of sanitization = predisposing factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Predisposing factors for impetigo Staph pyoderma in dairy cows

A

Milking equipment, lack of sanitization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where is impetigo staph pyoderma most common on the body of large animals

A

Teats/udders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Can impetigo on teats lead to mammillitis or mastitis?

A

Debatable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where is folliculitis most common on farm animals

A

Anywhere, but sparsely haired regions are more common

-Periocular
-Muzzle
-Ventral abdomen
-Medial thighs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

“Udder rot”
“Udder cleft dermatitis”
“Flexural, udder seborrhea”
“Necrotic dermatitis”

A

Udder dermatitis 2’ Fusobacterium, Trueperella, Treponemes&raquo_space; Staphylococcus

NOT usually 2’ Staphylococcus, but clinically overlaps with Staph intertrigo.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Are small or large animal veterinary staff more likely to be nasal carriers of MRSA

A

Large animal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

T or F: food animals are a reservoir of MRSA for human infection

A

True.

Zoonosis to hand dermatitis on dairy workers, skin wounds on pig farmers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the Sequence Type of MRSA that is associated with swine&raquo_space; calves, chicken, dogs, horses, pigs, rats, humans

A

ST 398

Relatively non-host specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Topical therapies for superficial, local pyoderma in food animals

A

*Chlorhexidine
*Povidone-iodine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Concern with systemic antibiotics in food animals

A

Legal issues if going into food supply

Base on C&S if you are going to do this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Other name for “Greasy pig disease”

A

Exudative epidermitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Age of pigs with EE

A

Suckling or recently weaned pigs. Age 4 days to 6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

T or F: Most cases of EE are severe

A

False. Usually mild. But CAN have extensive morbidity/mortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Body regions on piglets where EE begins

A

Axillae, groin

Reddish/copper skin discoloration w/ thin scales

Then pustules on lips, nose, tongue, coronary band

Progresses to widespread greasy brown exudate w/oral erosions and ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Clinical lesions of exudative epidermitis in piglets, advanced disease

A

*Widespread greasy brown exudate
*Oral erosions and ulcers
*Coronary band, heel erosions/ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What sign of acantholysis will be present on abdominal skin

A

Positive Nikolsky sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What non-cutaneous sign can be caused by Staphylococcus hyicus in pigs

A

Septic arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Cause of death from exudative epidermitis in piglets

A

Anorexia, dehydration

Lesions are PAINFUL (not pruritic. Not pyrexic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Exfoliative toxins that cause exudative epidermitis

A

*Exh A, B, C, D
*SHETA, SHETB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Target of Exh A, B, C, D & SHETA, SHETB

A

DSG-1

–> acantholytic kertinocytes

Digest it DSG-1. Similar to Scalded Skin Syndrome in humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

T or F: Staphylococcus hyicus is a commensal in pig skin

A

True.

Abrasions/trauma or co-infection with Porcine Circovirus type 2 or porcine parvovirus may predispose piglet to EE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Predisposing factors of piglets to EE

A

*Abrasions/trauma
*Co-infection with Porcine Circovirus type 2 or porcine parvovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Reportable vesicular lesions in pigs DDx

A

*Foot and mouth disease
*Swine vesicular disease
*Vesicular stomatitis
*Vesicular exanthema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which antibiotics are Staphylococcus hyicus commonly resistant to

A

*Ceftiofur (71%)
*Penicillin G (97%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How is exudative epidermitis best managed

A

Prevention: hygiene husbandry, no crowding, needle teeth

Treatment: Topical and systemic help. Use C&S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae (shape, gram, O2)

A

Gram positive
Facultative anaerobic
Rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Where in the body is Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae a commensal bacteria on many mammals

A

Oral, tonsillar

(Outdoor, unvaccinated pigs&raquo_space; dog, marine mammals)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

3 forms of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

A

1) Subacute = classic diamond skin disease
-Erythematous papules, wheals on throat, neck, pinnae, abdomen, thighs –> rhomboid plaques –> necrotic in center

2) Acute = fever, lameness, anorexia + purpural skin discoloration of jowls, abdomen, pinnae, legs

3) Chronic = ulceration, necrosis of pinnae, tail, feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Clinical lesions of classic diamond skin disease

A

-Erythematous papules, wheals on throat, neck, pinnae, abdomen, thighs –> rhomboid plaques –> necrotic in center

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Differential for Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

A

Actinobacillus suis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the issue with culturing Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

A

It is slow growing– so may need PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Treatment for Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

A

Ampicillin, amoxicillin

FQs in small animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

T or F: Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae is zoonotic

A

TRUE

Human infections are minor, self limiting. Bright red/purple swellings on hands/fingers where they touched the animal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How to prevent Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

A

Commercial vaccine available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Dermatophilus congolensis (shape, gram, O2)

A

Gram positive
Facultative anaerobe cocci actinomycete

TWO MORPHOLOGIES!
1) Filamentous hyphae
2) Motile zoospores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How do Dermatophilus congolensis hyphae branch

A

Both transverse and longitudinal separation –> packets of coccoid cells, aka Railroad tracks!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the infectious stage of Dermatophilus congolensis

A

Ovoid Zoospores!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

“Rain rot”
“Rain scald”
“Mud fever”
“Lumpy wool”
“Strawberry foot rot”
“Strerothricosis”

Causative agent

A

Dermatophilus congolensis

Strawberry foot rot can also be Parapox virus in sheep

60
Q

Transmission of Dermatophilus congolensis

A

Infected crusts in the environment

Also insect bites

61
Q

Climate that facilitates Dermatophilus congolensis

A

Warm, humid environments

62
Q

Animals most likely to be affected by Dermatophilus congolensis

A

*Horses
*Cattle
*Sheep
*Goats
*Camelids

LESS likely to affect swine (housed inside)

63
Q

Clinical lesions of Dermatophilus congolensis

A

“Paintbrush crusts”: large crusts containing exudated matted hairs with thick purulent green underlying debris

Tufted papules, pustules
If severe: Edema, fever, lymphadenopathy

64
Q

How to get a cytology sample of dry Dermatophilus congolensis

A

*Soak crust in saline, mince with a scalpel, spread on a slide and let it dry

65
Q

Concern with culturing Dermatophilus congolensis

A

*Needs carbon dioxide
*Slow growth

66
Q

Treatment Dermatophilus congolensis

A

*Move to dry pasture, or shelter from rain
*Remove crusts (careful of environmental contamination)
*Topical: lime sulfur, chlorhexidine
*TMS, penicillins

67
Q

T or F: Dermatophilus congolensis is zoonotic

A

TRUE

Lesions on humans’ hands, arms. Painful erythematous papules/nodules

68
Q

Causes of abscesses in large animals

A

*Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
*Actinomyces bovis
*Actinobacillus ligieresii
*Atypical mycobacteria

*Truperella pyogenic
*Nocardia
*Streptococcus
*Fusobacterium

69
Q

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis (shape, gram, O2)

A

Gram positive
Facultative anaerobe

Coccoid, club, or rod shapes (single or clusters)

Few in number

70
Q

Cause of caseous lymphadenitis in small ruminants and cattle

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

71
Q

Cause of ulcerative lymphangitis in small ruminants, cattle, horses

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

72
Q

Clinical signs of Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

A

SC nodules, granulomas, draining abscesses

Occur at site of wound, fly strike, moisture

73
Q

Vector of Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

A

Fly strike, wound, excess moisture

74
Q

Cause of “Lumpy Jaw”

A

Actinomyces bovis

75
Q

Cause of Actinomyces bovis

A

Oral trauma –> firm swelling over mandible

76
Q

Clinical signs of Actinomyces bovis

A

Nodule over mandible –> ulcerates, drains

May contain “sulfur granules” = white/yellow granules

77
Q

Which ruminant bacteria can cause white/yellow sulfur granules

A

Actinomyces bovis (Lumpy jaw)

Also Actinobacillus lignieressi (wooden tongue)

78
Q

Actinomyces bovis (shape, gram, O2)

A

Gram positive
Anaerobe!
Filaments, V/Y/T forms

79
Q

Diagnosis of Actinomyces bovis

A

Anaerobic culture for a long time (slow growth)

80
Q

Histopath of Actinomyces bovis

A

Splendore-Hoeppli (brightly eosinophilic aggregates in a capsule) with internal mycelial fragments, rosette of peripheral club-shaped structures. Held together by protein-polysaccharide capsule (prevents phagocytosis)

81
Q

Causative agent of “Wooden Tongue”

A

Actinobacillus lignieresii

82
Q

T or F: Actinobacillus lignieresii is an oral/rumen commensal

A

True

83
Q

What is the most common clinical presentation of Actinobacillus lignieresii

A

Firm, ulcerated nodules/abscesses in the mouth, jaw, neck

Discharge “sulfur granules”

84
Q

Actinobacillus lignieresii (shape, gram)

A

Gram negative
Coccobacillus, rod

85
Q

Where do atypical mycobacteria come from

A

Environment

Infection is rare

86
Q

Cause of atypical mycobacterial infection

A

Traumatic incolulation, host immunocompromise

87
Q

Which species of mycobacteria can infect large animals

A

M kansaii
M ulcerans

88
Q

Clinical lesions of atypical mycobacteria in food animals

A

SC nodules
Ulcerative lymphangitis
Swollen limb
Corded lymphatics

89
Q

Diagnosis of atypical mycobacteria

A

Acid fast rods on cytology or histopath

Difficult to culture. PCR is good

+ on tuberculin test if affected

90
Q

“Farcy” causative agent

A

Mycobacteria senegalese

In Africa, Asia, S America.

Systemic organ infection –> death

91
Q

Most common dermatophyte in sheep, goats, cows, camelids

A

Trichophyton verrucosum

92
Q

Most common dermatophyte in pigs

A

Nannizzia nanum (previously M nanum)

93
Q

What needs to be added to DTM for Trichophyton verrucosum

A

Thiamine (100%), inositol (80%)

94
Q

What needs to be added to DTM for Tricophyton equinum

A

Niacin

95
Q

Who is this

A

Nannizia nanum (pigs)

96
Q

T or F: dermatophyte vaccine exists for cows outside the USA

A

True

But disease usually self-limiting in 3-4 months for healthy cpws

97
Q

Causative organism for Contagious Viral Pustular Dermatitis

A

Parapoxvirus
Orf
Contagious echthyma
Farmyard Pox

98
Q

Species affected by Orf (parapoxvirus)

A

Sheep, goats, camelids

99
Q

Age of animals affected by Orf (parapoxvirus)

A

Young. 2-4 months old

Self limiting. High morbidity, low mortality

100
Q

How does Orf (parapoxvirus) spread

A

From skin abrasions on mouth

To teats when nursing

101
Q

T or F: Orf (Parapoxvirus) is zoonotic

A

True

(Also, Pseudopox in cows causes Milkers Nodules. Orf looks similar. Depends on if contact is sheep vs cow!)

102
Q

Cause for feline cowpox

A

“Cowpox”
Orthopoxvirus

Endemic in Europe, Asia

103
Q

Reservoir for Cowpox

A

Rodents. Cats contract this from hunting rodents near cow farms. Resolves w/o treatment within 2 months.

Rarely causes disease in cattle. DOES cause disease in cats!, humans

104
Q

Causative agent for teat fibropapilloma in cows

A

BPV-1

105
Q

Causative agent for head/neck/shoulder fibropapilloma in cows

A

BPV-2

106
Q

Causative agent for “atypical warts”. Flat. Do not regress. In cows

A

BPV-3

107
Q

Causative agent for “Rice grain” warts on teats in cows. All ages. Do not regress

A

BPV-5

108
Q

Causative agent for for branching warts on teats that leave ulcers underneath in cows

A

BPV-6

109
Q

What is unique about BPV-4 and Brackenfern

A

Infection of brackenfern plant interacts with BPV-4, resulting in urinary cancer!

110
Q

2 forms of ovine papillomavirus: age and body distribution for each

A

1) Filiform squamous papilloma: young sheep. lower legs

2) Fibropapillomavirus: Adult sheep. Face, pinnae, legs, teats.

111
Q

Which ruminants are predisposed to Trichophyton verrucosum

A

-Indoor animals
-“Show” animals. “Club lamb fungus” bc 4H lambs get it more; handled more!

112
Q

Colloquial names for Actinomyces vs Actinobacillus in cows

A

Actinomyces (gram +): lumpy jaw

Actinobacillus (gram -): wooden tongue

113
Q

Which type of immune response can be detrimental to clearance of BOTH pythium and Leishmania

A

Th2

114
Q

Where are the viral inclusions for Papillomavirus

A

Intracytoplasmic

(Also for herpes)

115
Q

3 Oncogenes for Papillomavirus (and how they affect the immune system)

A

E5:
-Downregulate MHC cl I (immune evasion)
-Decreased gap junctions (KC separate from neighbors)
-Interacts with PDGF (more mitosis)

E6:
-Downregulate p53 (which usually holds cell cycle in G1-S)

E7:
-Cell transformation, pRb phosphorylation

116
Q

Which Papillomavirus gene is the target of the SA vaccine

A

L1 (Capsid structure)

117
Q

Causative agent of Equine Sarcoids

A

BPV1
BPV2

118
Q

Causative agent of Feline Sarcoids

A

BPV14

119
Q

Horses most likely to develop Dermatophytosis

A

Young or immunosuppressed

Hot, moist, humid environments

120
Q

Season where Dermatophytosis is more common in horses

A

Fall/winter

121
Q

Body region of Malassezia dermatitis in horses

A

*Caudal intermammary
*Tail head
*Prepuce

122
Q

Most common Malassezia sp in Equines

A

*Malassezia furfur
*M slooffiae
*M obtusa
*M globosa
*M restricta

123
Q

Swinepox vector

A

Haematopinus suis: ventrum, thighs, udder, teat, vulva

Mosquito: face, pinnae, dorsum

124
Q

Bovine leukemia virus clinical signs

A

70% = asymptomatic
1-5% develop B cell lymphoma

Many have immunosuppression
Many have reduced milk production

125
Q

EHV3 disease

A

Herpes Coital Exanthema

Ulcers –> smooth, white scars

Avoid breeding until clear (~3 weeks)

126
Q

Cow with respiratory signs and pustular vulvovaginitis

A

BHV1

Infectious pustular vulvovaginitis or balanoposthitis

127
Q

Are antivirals (acyclovir, famcyclovir) virocidal or virostatic

A

Virostatic
Only disinfectants are virocidal

128
Q

MOA of acyclovir

A

Nucleoside analog. Replaces GTP in DNA synthesis

Herpesvirus specific

129
Q

Adverse effects of acyclovir

A

Hepatotoxic, nephrotoxic (if pre-existing renal dz), bone marrow suppression

130
Q

Cow

Causative agent?

A

Rice grain warts

BPV5

131
Q

Cow

Causative agent?

A

BPV2

Neck, neck, shoulder fibropapilloma in young cows

132
Q

Cow

Causative agent?

A

BPV3

Atypical warts. Any location, any age
Do not spontaneously regress

133
Q

Cow
Causative agent?

A

BPV6

Conical papillomas on tears

134
Q

Clinical signs of BPV 1

A

Fibropapilloma on teats, penis of young cows

135
Q

What mediates regression of papillomavirus

A

T cell mediated

Antibodies help prevent recurrence, but do not clear active infection

136
Q

Causative agent of equine aural plaques

A

Papillomavirus
Dyoita PV or Dyorho PV
(NOT the usual delta papillomavirus)

Benign, insect vector

137
Q

Location of EcPV1 papillomas

A

Face, legs in young horses

138
Q

Location of EcPV2 papillomas

A

Genital

Often progress to SCC

139
Q

Equine sarcoid vector

A

Black fly vector

140
Q

Equine sarcoid predisposed breeds

A

Quarter horse
Arabian
Appaloosa

141
Q

Risk factor for equine sarcoid

A

Certain ELA haplotypes

142
Q

Vesicular stomatitis vector

A

Insects: Black fly, Culicoides, Sandfly

143
Q

Vesicular stomatitis clinical signs

A

Ulcers, vesicle –> lips, coronary band, teats

Equids&raquo_space; bovine, camelid > Others

144
Q

Risk factor for vesicular stomatitis

A

Close to H2O
(Insect vector)

145
Q

T or F: Vesicular stomatitis is reportable

A

True. Can’t be clinically distinguished from Foot and Mouth disease

Zoonotic!