Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

EV ACVD Study > General Bacteria fun facts (virulence factors, unique characteristics) > Flashcards

General Bacteria fun facts (virulence factors, unique characteristics) Flashcards

1
Q

Which virulence factors allow for adhesion to fibronectin and vitronectin

A

*Protein A
*Techoic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

3 mechanisms of bacterial gene transfer

A

1) Transduction
-Bacteriophage
2) Conjugation
-Sex pili to share plasmid
3) Transformation
-Uptake of DNA from lysed bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a biofilm? How do bacteria survive in it?

A

Aggregate of bacteria with a polymer matrix

Has water channels within to disseminate O2 and nutrients?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What makes the cell wall of mycobacteria special

A

NO cell wall!

They have a plasma membrane

Do not pick up gram stain, variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the benefit of a peptidoglycan layer for Gram + bacteria

A

Resist heat and dessication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

List superantigens

A

Staph enerotoxins A, B, C, D (SE-B)

Toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1)

Protein A (avoids complement binding by FcR; upregulates KC adhesion mc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Staphyloferrins function

A

Lyse RBC
Use the iron for growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

CHIPS protein function

A

Evade C5a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

SCIN function

A

Staph complement inhibitor protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Virulence factors of Streptococcus

A

*M protein (inhibits phagocytosis)
*Streptolysin O

S equi: ELISA for M protein for Strangles/Purpua hemorrhagic diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Virulence factors of Pseudomonas

A

*Biofilm
-Increases MIC
-In 40% of OE isolates
-Quorum sensing, slime, plasmid exchange

*Pyocyanin
-Pigment, proinflammatory

*Elastase
-Cleaves collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Virulence factors of Nocardia

A

*Thick peptidoglycan layer (heat, dessication resistance)
*Superoxide dismutase
*Catalase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Virulence mechanism of Mycobacteria

A

*Intracellular: Block fusion of lysosome in macrophage

Prevents MHC2 expression

*No cell wall, so resistant to B-lactams
*Can act as a SUPER ANTIGEN- strong T cell response
*Can vary surface antigens to avoid immune identification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Function of coagulase

A

Converts fibrinogen to fibrin (clot scaffold)
-Tissue invasion
-Microabscesses
-Protection from granulocytes

Indicator of pathogenicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

BlaZ gene

A

In Staphylococcus

Encodes for beta lactamase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which Streptococcus are more pathogenic: alpha or beta hemolytic

A

Beta: lysis RBCs

Alpha are commensals on MM and skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Bacteria that can cause:
-Necrotizing Fasciitis and Myositis
-Toxic Shock Syndrome

A

Streptococcus canis!

-M Protein: antiphagocytic, destroys C3 convertase

-Proteases: help spread through fascial planes and into muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which Mycobacteria causes conjunctivitis in cats

A

*Mycoplasma felis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

T or F: detection of Mycoplasma in lungs of dogs is diagnostic for infection

A

False. Mycoplasma is a commensal in respiratory tract of dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What do Mycoplasma colonies look like on culture plate

A

Fried eggs!

Central zone of growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Treatments for mycoplasma

A

BACTERIOSTATIC – long duration of tx

Macrolides, clindamycin, FQs, tetracyclines, chpc, aminoglycosides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Streptococcus that causes mastitis in cows

A

S. agalactiae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What do superantigens bind to induce a massive inflammatory response

A

MHC cl II and TCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which antibiotic can TRIGGER Toxic Shock Syndrome

A

Fluoroquinolones.

Can trigger more expression of superantigen TSST-1 by S. canis!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Best treatment for Toxic Shock Syndrome

A

Clindamycin

-Inhibits M protein synthesis
-Suppresses LPS-induced TNF production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Age, Inciting incident for Toxic Shock Syndrome

A

<1 year old

Bite wound, URI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Best antibiotic for Enterococcus

Worst antibiotic for Enterococcus

A

Best = ampicillin, penicillin

Worst = TMS (even if S in vitro. can bypass folic acid synthesis blockade)

Luckily, rarely pathogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Doppleganger for Enterococcus

A

Streptococcus

Both cocci, grow in chains. Enterococcus less pathogenic than Strep. Some sp of strep have been reclassified as Enterococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Where does Rhodococcus equi invade?

A

Lymphatics, macrophages

Facultative intracellular bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Virulence factor that allows Rhodococcus equi to persist inside macrophages

A

VapA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Clinical signs in CATS with Rhodococcus equi infections

A

Abscesses! Check FIV/FeLV

(Horses = pyogranulomatous pneumonia.

Cows/Pigs = pyogranulomatous lymphadenitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Treatment Rhodococcus equi

A

Erythromycin/ Clarithromycin + rifampin
–> lipophilic drugs to penetrate cell wall

Surgical excision + drainage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What’s special about Listeria monocytogenase

A

Facultative intracellular gram + rod in MACROPHAGES

Escapes humoral immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What type of immune response is important for clearing Listeria monocytogenes

A

Cell mediated

It’s hiding in macrophages, where Ig can’t find it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What virulence factor allows Listeria monocytogenes to be phagocytosed by macrophages

A

Internalin

=induces phagocytosis by KCs, then pushes pseudopod projections out to be ingested by macrophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What enables Listeria monocytogenes to escape host cell killing

A

Listeriolysin O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Where in the body can Listeria monocytogenes be found

A

GI, CNS, placenta

Form intestinal inflammation, fever, v+, abscesses

–> die from septicemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How do animals get Listeria monocytogenes

A

Ingestion of contamination food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Causative agent of Anthrax

A

Bacillus anthracis

Large, gram +, aerobic, spore-forming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What induces Bacillus anthracis to produce spores

A

Exposure to atmospheric O2

(Spores are NOT produced in intact carcasses!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Bacillus anthracis on cytology

A

String of box cars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Virulence factor for Bacillus anthracis

A

Thick capsule to avoid phagocytosis (plasmid pX02)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Stains to ID Bacillus anthracis

A

Methylene blue, Giemsa stain

Pick up polypeptide capsule around organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Clinical sign of Bacillus anthracis

A

Swelling of the head and neck

GI, inhalation, cutaneous forms

*Acute hemorrhagic gastroenteritis
*Black eschar if cutaneous exposure (cut)
*Pulmonary nodules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How do animals develop Bacillus anthracis

A

Eat grass contaminated with spores; Eat infected meat –> GI signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is unique about Bacillus anthracis carcuses

A

No rigor mortis, blood oozing from orifices is non-clotting.

DO NOT NECROPSY

47
Q

Most common bacteria in cat bite wound abscesses?

A

Pasteurella multocida

48
Q

Why do cats readily develop abscesses

A

More elastic skin– seals over contaminated puncture wound sites

49
Q

Other names for Botryomycosis

A

-Bacteria pseudomycetoma
-Cutaneous bacterial granuloma

50
Q

Clinical lesions of botryomycosis

A

Nodules with draining tracts

(Distal extremities, cervical region, ventral abdomen in cats)

Yellow-white tissue grains (like Actinomyces, Nocardia!) = bacteria + immunoglobulin + fibrin

51
Q

Most common causative agent for botryomycosis

A

S. pseudintermedius

52
Q

What stain will highlight the Splendore-Hoeppli reaction (antigen-antibody complexes, complement, major basic protein from eos)

53
Q

Treatment for botryomycosis

A

Surgical removal + drainage

> 4 months systemic antibiotic tx

54
Q

How do dogs become infected by Brucella canis

A

Penetrating mucous membranes (oral, vagina, conjunctiva)

Infectious material = placenta, semen, urine, feces, nasal/ocular secretions

55
Q

Clinical signs of Brucella canis

A

*Testicular enlargement, scrotal dermatitis
*Pyogranulomatous dermatitis
*Dry, lustrous hair coat

56
Q

What should you be aware of when interacting with dogs with Brucella canis

A

Zoonotic, reportable!

57
Q

Causative agent of Glanders in horses

A

Burkholderia mallei

ZOONOTIC, REPORTABLE

58
Q

Clinical lesions of Burkholderia mallei

A

“Farcy”

Ulcerating SQ nodules along lymphatics on distal limbs

Respiratory signs

59
Q

Causative agent of Plague

A

Yersinia pestis

ZOONOTIC, REPORTABLE

60
Q

Lifecycle of Yersinia pestis

A

Flea-rodent-flea

C. felis is a poor vector; usually in rodents!

61
Q

Season of Yersinia pestis infection

A

March-October, when high flea burden

62
Q

Clinical signs of Yersinia pestis

A

*Bubonic
*Pneumonic
*Septicemic

-Lymph nodes will abscess and drain
-Necrotic stomatitis
-Facial ulceration

63
Q

Tularemia causative agent

A

Francisella tularensis

ZOONOTIC, REPORTABLE

64
Q

How is Francisella tularensis spread

A

Tick bite

-Wood tick (Dermacentor andersoni)
-American dog tick (Dermacentor variabilis)
-Pacific Coast tick (Dermacentor occidentalis)
-Lone Star tick (Amblyomma americanum)

65
Q

Where does Tularemia affect in the body? Clinical lesions

A

Intracellular macrophages

SQ draining abscesses, icterus, panleukopenia

RABBITS, CATS&raquo_space;>dogs

66
Q

Actinomyces vs Nocardia: affected signalment

A

Actinomyces: young adult hunting dogs w/ grass awns; cats = pyothorax&raquo_space;> bite abscesses. NOT immunosuppressed

Norcardia: IMMUNOCOMPROMISED; fight wounds in cats

67
Q

Actinomyces vs Nocardia: O2

A

Actinomyces: Facultative, obligate anaerobe

Nocardia: Aerobe

68
Q

Actinomyces vs Nocardia: ease of culture

A

Actinomyces: Not easily cultured

Nocardia: usually cultured

69
Q

Actinomyces vs Nocardia: Coinfections?

A

Actinomyces: usually! Strep, mycobacterium

Nocardia: usually a sole isolate

70
Q

Actinomyces vs Nocardia: acid fast (Fite-Faraco, Ziehl-Neelson)

A

Actinomyces: NON-acid fast

Nocardia: PARTIALLY acid fast

71
Q

Actinomyces vs Nocardia: beading

A

Actinomyces: slight beading

Nocardia: marked beading

72
Q

Actinomyces vs Nocardia: cytology

A

Actinomyces: Mixed bacteria. Filamentous. Dense mats of bacteria

Nocardia: Long, branching bacteria in single or loose aggregates. Few mats

73
Q

Actinomyces vs Nocardia: mortality

A

Actinomyces: low

Nocardia: moderate-high

74
Q

Actinomyces vs Nocardia: treatment

A

Actinomyces: penicillin

Nocardia: TMS

75
Q

Actinomyces vs Nocardia: gram, branching, beading

A

Both are gram +, filamentous, w/beads….

76
Q

What comprises a Splendore Hoeppli reaction

A

Antigen-antibody complexes, complement, major basic protein from eos

77
Q

T or F: Actinomyces is a commensal

78
Q

Species of Nocardia most common in dogs in the Western USA

A

Nocardia nova

79
Q

If you have a pet with Nocardia, what should you look out for

A

Underlying immunosuppression

Cyclosporine, neoplasia

Not all cats are immunosuppressed

80
Q

Predisposed sex for Nocardia in cats

A

Male (bite wounds)

Retroviral status, steroid therapy

81
Q

What virulence factor do anaerobic bacteria NOT have, making them unable to break down ROS

A

Superoxide dismutase
Catalase

82
Q

What is different about GSD to cause GSD pyoderma

A

Increased CD8+
Decreased CD4+, CD21+ lymphocytes

Exaggerated response to Staph; inappropriate release of Cytokines

83
Q

Treatment of Post Grooming Furunculosis

A

Fluoroquinolones

Usually due to Pseudomonas sp

84
Q

T or F: Mycobacteria are + acid fast staining

A

True

High mycolic acid lipid content in cell wall holds the acid!

85
Q

Mycobacteria virulence factors to cause host granulomatous response (aka Tubercles)

A

Cord factor
waxD

86
Q

Gold standard for diagnosis of Slow Growing Mycobacteria

87
Q

Species most susceptible to Mycobacteria avium complex

A

Poultry, swine&raquo_space; dogs, cats

Transmitted from feces of birds, consumption of infected birds

88
Q

Causative agents of “Feline Leprosy”

A

Mycobacterium lepraemurium (related to M avium)

89
Q

Clinical lesions of Mycobacterium lepraemurium in cats

A

SC and cutaneous nodules

Limbs/scrotum of young, male cats!!

painless, firm

90
Q

Most reliable way to diagnose Mycobacterium lepraemurium

A

PCR

Fastidious to grow on culture

91
Q

Treatment for Mycobacterium lepraemurium

A

Surgical excision +
clofazimine, clarithromycin, rifampin

92
Q

Cause of canine leproid granuloma

A

Novel mycobacterial organism

Likely related to M simiae

93
Q

Breeds predisposed to Canine Leproid Granuloma

A

Short coated breeds (Boxers >50% of cases)

94
Q

Transmission of Canine Leproid Granuloma

A

Fly bites

Pinnae, head > paws

95
Q

Cytology of Canine Leproid Granuloma

A

Negative staining bacilli in histiocytes

96
Q

Treatment of Canine Leproid Granuloma

A

Spontaneous resolution in 1-2 months common

If persistent: Surgery
Rifampin, Clarithromycin, Doxycycline, Clofamizine x4-8w

97
Q

Most common clinical sign for Rapidly Growing Mycobacteria

A

Panniculitis

98
Q

Most common species causing Mycobacterial panniculitis in the USA

A

Mycobacteria fortuitum

99
Q

Body site most commonly affected by Mycobacteria fortuitum

A

Inguinal fat pad

Triglycerides help organism survive

100
Q

Clinical lesions Mycobacteria fortuitum

A

Cats: circumscribed plaques/nodules –> draining tracts w/lymphatic fluid
(2’ bite/penetrating wounds!)

Dogs: nonhealing wound

101
Q

Labwork finding from chronic granulomatous disease

A

Hypercalcemia

102
Q

What is different about Rapidly Growing Mycobacterium (like M fortuitum) than Slow Growing forms (leprosy)

A

Rapidly Growing is gram positive (slow is non-gram staining)

Rapidly Growing is not as acid-fast as slow growing

103
Q

Gold standard culture for Rapidly Growing Mycobacteria

A

Broth microdilution

104
Q

From within macrophages, what cell does Mycobacteria activate

A

NK cells (directly or via IL-12)

NK cells then produce IFN gamma to activate more macrophages

105
Q

Which media should be used to grow Mycobacteria

A

Egg enrichment media (Lowenstein-Jensen)

Agar-based media (Middlebrook)

106
Q

T or F: Mycobacterium lepraemurium (feline leprosy) is zoonotic

107
Q

Medium for Mycobacterium lepraemurium culture

A

Ogawas egg yolk medium

108
Q

Clinical sign of Rickettsia Rickettsii (RMSF)

A

Fever, epistaxis, infarct, sloughing/necrosis of scrotum

Fibrinous and necrotizing vasculitis

109
Q

Vector for Baronella hensalae (cat scratch fever); if not spread by a cat bite/scratch

A

Fleas! C felis

Lesions:
*Dog ear tip vasculitis
*Panniculitis and nodular skin diseases

110
Q

Causes of Burkholderia cepacia complex

A

NOT commensal; infection in immunocompromised animals

From CsA/Keto, Westies

Draining tracts/ulcers

Tx: TMS, Marbo

111
Q

Cause of melioidosis

A

Burkholderia pseudomallei

Reportable
Possible zoonosis
Nodular disease in dogs/cats

112
Q

L-form bacteria

A

Partially cell wall deficient

Penetrating wounds

113
Q

Strain of MRSA important in horses

EV ACVD Study (52 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions