Genetics, Genomics, and Human Variation Flashcards

1
Q

A 39 year old woman comes to the physician as she has just learned that she is pregnant. She is offered standard G-banded karyotype, analysis as a prenatal test. Which of the following genetic abnormalities would this best be helpful to establish a diagnosis?
A. a 500,000 bp deletion in a chromosomal
B. trisomy
C. a substitution mutation
D. a frameshift mutation
E. gene duplications

A

Trisomy

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2
Q

Which of the following describes a human acrocentric chromosome?

A

A chromosome that possesses repetitive rRNA sequences on one end.

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3
Q

Cells are being studied by light microscopy, and mitiotic spindle fibers attached to the chromosomes are observed. What is the name of this attachment site?

A

Centromere

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4
Q

A teenage female patient is affected with beta-thalassemia. Molecular diagnosis of her beta-globin genes identifies a mutation that removes the 100 nucleotides immediately preceding the start site for transcription. What beta-blogin regulatory elements is most likely removed by this deletion?

A

CAAT & TATA boxes

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5
Q

A G-band karyotype confirmed Down syndrome in a 2 year old female patient. Of the choices below, what is most descriptive of the karyotype of this patient?

A

47, XX

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6
Q

Cells are being studied by light microscopy, and mitiotic spindle fibers attached to the chromosomes are observed. What is the name of this attachment site?

A

Centromere

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7
Q

A scientist is studying a nuclear gene (POLG) which encodes DNA polymerase-gamma. This gene functions to replicate the mitochondrial genome in a human cell. What part of this gene is not transcribed?

A

The promoter

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8
Q

A 7 year old boy with a rare form of renal distal tubule acidosis is brought to the physicians. Cells are biopsied and cultured from the patient to facilitate molecular studies. Genetic testing shows a predicted pathogenic mutation thought to affect splicing. The mRNA for the gene is analyzed and it is found that it is larger than the normal form of that transcript. Which of the following would most likely cause aberration?

A

Mutation of splice donor site of intron 1

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9
Q

The human X-chromosome has more than a thousand protein coding genes on it, and the Y chromosome has only a handful. To maintain balanced gene expression between the sexes:
A. One X-chromosome is deactivated
B. Gene expression from the Y-chromosome is increased
C. Gene expression from each X chromosome in a normal female expresses half
D. The X-chromosome has a lot of genes, but they are not expressed

A

One X-chromosome is deactivated

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10
Q

SNP

A

Single Nucleotide polymorphism: relatively common single base pair change which is found in approximately one in a thousand base pairs.

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11
Q

CNV

A

Copy Number Variant: Describes changes in copy number but does not apply to polymorphic sites such as the SSR, and the VNTR.

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12
Q

LINE/SINE

A

Long Interspaced Nuclear Elements/Short Interspersed Nuclear Elements. Highly repetitive DNA sequences that are found interspersed throughout the genome. The long ones can create their own reverse transcriptase so that they can make copies of themselves, and propagate in the genome. The short ones have the ability to hijack reverse transcriptase from some other source, and they are also able to propagate in the genome

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13
Q

SSR

A

Simple Sequence Repeat. A highly polymorphic sequence that consists of di, tri, or tetra nucleotides repeated tandemly in the genome

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14
Q

VNTR

A

Variable Number Tandem Repeat. These are tandem repeats that are bigger than the SSR, but less than 100s or 1,000s of base pairs. These are polymorphic, but not a variable as the SSR.

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15
Q

LCR

A

Low copy Repeat. These can be quite large (1,000 bp and bigger) and are found in only a few places in the genome, and they are usually very similar between individuals. General rule: the shorter the repeat sequence, the more variability it is likely to have.

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16
Q

A cytoskeletal component requires ATP for its polymerization and contains subunits that are observed to undergo treadmilling. That cytoskeletal component is a/an:

A

Actin filaments require ATP for polymerization, and subunits undergo treadmilling as they make their way through an F-actin polymer. Intermediate filaments have stable structures and do not undergo dynamic assembly or disassembly processes. Keratin is a type of intermediate filament. Microtubules are composed of tubulin heterodimers. They require GTP for their polymerization. Additions and subtractions of tubulin from microtubules occur from the same end of the structure.

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17
Q

A 4-year old boy presents in the clinic with signs and symptoms of muscular dystrophy. Testing reveals a small deletion in the dys gene and no functional dystrophin protein. Owing to this defect, which of the following cytoskeletal components is unable to stably bind to the basal lamina in skeletal muscle cells?

A

Actin Filaments

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18
Q

A vesicle within a cell must be transported to another region of the cell along the microtubules. Which of the following proteins may be involved in catalyzing this transport?
A. Dystrophin
B. Kinesin
C. Myosin
D. Spectrin
E. Vimentin

A

Kinesin

19
Q

Actin Polymerization may function to control or regulate

A

Changes in the physical state of the cytosol.
-Actin polymerization controls the physical state of the cytosol and the transition from gel to sol.

20
Q

A 17 year-old male is evaluated for slowly progressive muscle weakness in his pelvis and legs. Several large deletions are found in a gene that encodes an actin-binding protein, resulting in a partially functional protein. This patient is most likely affected with:

A

Becker muscular dystrophy.

21
Q

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

A

Is caused by inherited defects in fibrillary collagen with excessively stretchy skin and hyperextendable joints characteristic of most forms.

22
Q

Pemphigus vulgaris

A

Characterized by mouth sores, occurs from a disruption of cadherin-mediated cell adhesions

23
Q

Marfan syndrome

A

Involves mutation in fibrillin-1, a protein essential for maintenance of elastic fibers, with pathology observed in eyes, skeletal system, and the aorta.

24
Q

A 24 year old female patient diagnosed with Hodgkin disease is treated with combination chemotherapy. Her drug regimen includes Velban, known to inhibit microtubule formation. Therefore, which of the following processes will be altered/impaired by Velban?

A

Formation of the mitotic spindle with arrest of malignant cells in mitosis

25
Q

A cytosolic cellular structure with two subunits is observed to assemble and disassemble and to bind to mRNA and to associate, at times, with endoplasmic reticulum. The most likely identity of this structure is a/an

A

Ribosome

26
Q

A single membrane-enclosed organelle is observed to be in close proximity to the plasma membrane. It appears to surround newly modified proteins in membrane-enclosed structures. The most likely identity of this organelle is:

A

Golgi complex

27
Q

A membrane-enclosed intracellular structure is observed to release a protein through a pore into the cytosol. Following this release, biochemical reactions take place and result in the cell’s death by apoptosis. The most likely identity of this intracellular structure is:

A

Mitochondria

28
Q

An organelle with DNA, distinct from genomic, chromosomal DNA and ribosomes is believed to have originally been a single-celled independent organism engulfed by ancestral eukaryotic cells. This organelle is:

A

A mitochondrion

29
Q

Nuclear lamina is composed mainly of:

A

Intermediate filaments

30
Q

An organelle is bounded by a single membrane and contains hydrolytic enzymes that were synthesized on free ribosomes. From which structure was this organelle derived?

A

Endoplasmic reticulum
-The organelle described is a peroxisome, which is derived from regions of the endoplasmic reticulum, and not from regions of the Golgi complex, which form lysosomes. Mitochondria and nuclei do not directly give rise to the structures of other organelles.

31
Q

Heterochromatin

A

Densely packed or compacted regions of chromatin. Transcription is inhibited in heterochromatin because the DNA is packaged so tightly that it is inaccessible to the proteins responsible for RNA transcription

32
Q

Euchromatin

A

Less densely compacted chromatin regions in a transcriptionally active nucleus

33
Q

Trinucleotide Repeat Diseases

A

Kennedy: CAG
Huntington: CAG
Fragile X: CGG
Myotonic Dystrophy: CTG

34
Q

Modification of histone proteins by acetylation will:
A. Add methyl groups to the regulatory region of the target genes.
B. Increase the condensation of chromatin
C. Increase the affinity of histones for DNA
D. Increase the transcription of target genes
E. Inhibit RNA polymerase activity

A

D. Increase the transcription of target genes

35
Q

Which of the following statements regarding histone proteins is CORRECT?
A. Histone proteins contain large amounts of acidic amino acid residues
B. Histone proteins are important to stabilize the single-stranded DNA
C. Histones constitute three times the mass of DNA within the nucleus
D. Nuclear DNA associates with histone proteins to form chromatin

A

D. Nuclear DNA associates with histone proteins to form chromatin

36
Q

Topoisomerase I

A

This form of topoisomerase catalyzes breaks in only one strand of the double-stranded DNA, allowing unwinding of the broken strand and then rejoining of the broken ends by catalyzing the formation of new phosphodiester bonds

37
Q

Topoisomerase II

A

Catalyzes breaks in both strands of the double-stranded DNA, allowing both strands of the double-stranded DNA to unwind, and then catalyzes the formation of new phosphodiester bonds

38
Q

Defective DNA mismatch repair can result in the development of:

A

Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer.

39
Q

A 6 year old male patient presents with photosensitivity and multiple skin tumors. Which of the following types of DNA damage most likely accounts for his condition?
A. Double-strand DNA damage
B. Deaminated cytosines
C. Mismatched base pairs
D. Thymine dimers
E. Depurinated DNA

A

Thymine Dimers

40
Q

Treatment of cycling cells with a topoisomerase II inhibitor, such as doxorubicin, will result directly in:
A. A decrease in the time needed for DNA to replicate.
B. A decreased number of errors during replication of DNA
C. Lengthening of the ends of chromosomes
D. Removal of torsion from replicating DNA
e. The cleavage of replicating DNA into smaller fragments

A

The cleavage of replicating DNA into smaller fragments.

41
Q

Streptomycin

A

Inhibits initiation and causes misreading

42
Q

Tetracycline

A

Binds to the 30S subunit and inhibits the binding of aminoacyl-tRNAs

43
Q

Erythromycin

A

Binds to the 50S subunit and inhibits translocation.