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Stuff I Get Wrong > General 3 > Flashcards

General 3 Flashcards

1
Q

describe a hyperacute graft rejections

A

antibody mediated type II HSN reaction

preformed IgG ab in the recipient that are directed against the host

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2
Q

describe the different types of pleural effusions and thier mechanics

in decompensated heart failure, what happens

A

hydrostatic pressure increases and lymphatic flow increases to compensat,e, but can’t keep up so you get fluid backed up into lungs

vascular permability doens’t change neither does oncotic pressure

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3
Q

which step in the CAC is thiamine dependent?

A

aKG to sCOa

aKG dehydrogenase complex is thiamine dependent

a KeG depends on THIAMINE (like an alcoholic depends on a KEG and needs THIAMINE)

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4
Q

in newborns, juandice is commone becasue of what?

A

increased bilirubin production and enterhoepatic circulation but decreased conjugations

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5
Q

restrictive cardiomyopathy due to amyloid deposition can cause what manifestations?

A

dialted left atrium from blow back of blood

thickened left ventricle and impaired relaxation

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6
Q

Turner Moasicism (XO/XX) is a result of what time of mosaicism?

A

somatic mosaicism

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7
Q

absence by itself gets treated with

absense with tonic clonic gets treated with?

A

ethosuxaminde

valporic acid

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8
Q

bicornate uterus, messed up tubes and renal ageneisis sounds like

A

falure of lateral fusion of the paramesonephros

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9
Q

What are the hormone levels in kleinfelters?

A

increased LH and FSH

increased estradiol (loss of feedback inhibtion)

low testosterone

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10
Q

what is the most common risk factor for calcium stones in adults?

A

hypercalciuria (with normal serum ca)

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11
Q

a bacterial infection is more likely when accompanied by pus and lymphadenopathy. what is causing the LAD

A

increased germinal centerrs (not paracortical)

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12
Q

bronchophany is heard when?

can you feel crepitus with a PTX?

A

over more solid consolidations (not PTX)

yes

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13
Q

what is the cause of sick sinus syndrome?

A

age related change in the right atrial wall at the SA node,

sinus pause and then a junctional beat with dropped p wave on eckg

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14
Q

nitrates effect which vessel?

A

vens and cause venodilations

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15
Q

in Conn syndrome (adrenal cortical adenoma), renin will be

in secondary hyperaldosteronism, renin will be

A

low

high

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16
Q

know testosterone levels with age

A

total andd free decrease

SHBG increases

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17
Q

what type of hernia is assox with Downs?

A

umbilical hernia, protursion worse with crying

caused by incomplete closure of umbilical ring/abdominal musculature

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18
Q

what type of bacteria can cause nonpurulent cellulitis?

purlent cellulitis is caused by

A

beta hemolytic streptococci (includes strep pyogenes)

staph aurues

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19
Q

randomizing groups causes what?

A

causes them to be balanced and fairly similar in qualities

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20
Q

what should be expected in a young person with viral prodrome and now s/s of heart dailrue?

A

decompensated dilated cardiomyopathy from viral myocarditiis

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21
Q

What are the s/s of s typhi

A

fever (woth pulse/fever dissoz)

rose spots, abominal pain, HSM, Gi bleed, perforation

get from food/water in developing country

replciates in macropahges (not the same as samonella )

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22
Q

nitrates do what to LV?

A

reduce LV end diastolic pressure, reduce preload

increase peripheral vascular capacitance

decreases SVR

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23
Q

femoral nck fractures are at risk of osteonecorsis due to what vessel?

A

medail femoral circumflex

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24
Q

what drygs should be avoided in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

there is an assox LVOT so any drug that decreases preload or SVR should be avoided

incldues dihidyro CCB, nitro/nitrates, and ACEi as well as diuretics

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25
Q

will shingles (VZV) have intranuclear inclusions

A

yes, Tzank

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26
Q

a1 antitrypsin def is asociaed with what acinar emphysema

A

PANacinar becaise A1 affects the whole lung

centroacinar assox with Cmoking (smoking)

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27
Q

what muscle attaches to the greater trochanter?

A

glut medi

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28
Q

what is more common in a complete mole, 46XX or 46Xy

A

46XX is more common in complete mole

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29
Q

pancytopenia with a dry tap think

A

its a TRAP

hairry cell leukemia

lymphocytes with hair like (cytoplasmic) prkoectinos

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30
Q

what will be seen on hist with rheumatic fever?

A

aschokoff

antichosw bodies

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31
Q

what increases in the amniotic fluid as gestational age increases?

A

phosphytidlcholine-used to make surfactant

sphingomyelin levels stay fairly constant

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32
Q

what is the mutation in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

what is the mutation in idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

beta myosin heavy chain or miosin binding chain C

TTN gene, titin

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33
Q

how does epinephrine help prevent mast cell histamine release ?

A

EPi binds to mast cells and inhibits degranulation and histamine release

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34
Q

add to last minute list

A
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35
Q

what is the treatement for recurrent HSV?

A

daily valcyclovir

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36
Q

what does a tzank test look like in HSV?

A
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37
Q

what type of cells are synpotphysin positive?

A

neurons, neuroectorderm and neuroendocrine

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38
Q

low fecal elastase will be seen when?

A

in pancreatic insuffiencicny/chronic oancreaitis

associated with exocrine pancreatic function

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39
Q

what common complication of subarachnoid hemorrhage occurs 3-12 days later and via what mechanism?

A

cerebral vascular vasospasm leading to ischemia and focal deficits

prevent with CCB increases vasodilation, reduces amount of ischemia and vsospasom

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40
Q

WPW conduction can be described as

A

AV conduction bypassing the AV node

or AV reentrant tachycardia type of SVT

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41
Q

what are the three Ds of botulism?

A

diplopia, dysphagia, dysphonia

alters the CMAP

9electrical activity of the muscles)

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42
Q

HBV can cause what in the liver

A

hepatocellular carcinoma (large yellowy lesions)

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43
Q

collagen binds to integrin via what connector?

A

fibronectin

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44
Q

what are some common withdrawal sx of amphetamines?

A

hyperphagia

hypersomnia

depression

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45
Q

countertransferance is what?

A

consists of a docs unconcious or concious reaction towrad a patient based on based personal experiences

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46
Q

what is the smear of a macrocytic anemia look like

A

due to imapaired dna synthesis

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47
Q

what is the function of TPO?

A

catalyzies the oxidation of iodine

iodination of thyroglobulin

coupling reactino between two iodinized tyrosineresidues

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48
Q

what nerve follows the spermatic cord and can be damaged during inguinal reapir leading to allodynia, burning and pain in the genitals and medial thigh?

A

ilioingional

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49
Q

differentiate HCM and normal physiologic adaptation to exercise

A

adaptation: eccentric hypertrophy wiht enlarged cavity and small amount of concentric hypertrophy with increased LV wall thicknes

HCM: concentric thickness withd decreased cavity space and poor blood supply

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50
Q

idk this

A
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51
Q

if someone has a mi and now they are bradycardic, what to do?

A

atropine to inccrease vagal tone and HR

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52
Q

in a PTX with low BP, is it becasue of pressure on the heart or pressure on the IVC?

A

pressure on the IVC decreasing return to the hrat

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53
Q

postprandial epigastric pain and food averson and weight loss is consistent with what in the setting of atherosclerosis?

A

chronic mesenteric ischeima

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54
Q

what is pierre robin sequence?

A
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55
Q

know trisomy 13

A
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56
Q

know the EMs

A
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57
Q

in hypovolemic states, what are the levels of these hormones:

vassopresin

NE

angII

endothelin 1

A

all increased

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58
Q

know henoch shonlein pupura

A
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59
Q

what are the s.s of hydrocephalus?

A
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60
Q

Hep D can’t infect someone unless Hep B is there to do what?

A

coat the viral protein (like a trojan horse)

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61
Q

what kind of vaccine is the pnenuomoccaly?

A

polysacharide vacine (23)

or a conjugate vacine

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62
Q

what horome is eelvated in narcolepsy?

A

hypocretin 1 and 2 (orexin a and b)

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63
Q

how does prazole’s work?

A
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64
Q

what are the two biggest risks for adenocarcinoma?

A

obesity and gerd

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65
Q

tips on AKI

A

low urine Na indicates to low FeNa

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66
Q

silicosis makes someome more at risk of TB ebcasuse of what?

A

impaired macrophage function

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67
Q

what classes of diabetes drugs causes hypoglymcea?

A

insulin secretagogues

  • meglitindines
  • sulfonurea
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68
Q

b12 def has elevated levels of what?

A

methymalonic acid and homocysteine

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69
Q

remember struvite/staghorn stones from protteus orklebsielia will have what pH in the urine?

A

high pH (like 8)

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70
Q

add to last minute list

A
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71
Q

wat is the timeline post MI for complications and what are they?

A
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72
Q

increasing estorgen increases waht thyroid homrone?

A

TBG which decreases free T4 and T3

this causes a decrease in TSH which in turns raises t4 and t3 again

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73
Q

prostacyclin (inhibits or excites) platelet aggregation

A

inhibits

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74
Q

th1 vs th2

A
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75
Q

left and right gonadal artery come off of what

A

aorta

only the veins do left renal for left gonadal

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76
Q

high altitude causes

A

resp alkalosis

renal H excretion decreases

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77
Q

bone mets

A
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78
Q

putamen hemoorhage is likely form what vessels?

A

lenticulostriate

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79
Q

what kind of regurgitation can occur after pacemaker placement

A

tricuspid valve regurg leading to right heart failure if it is severe enough

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80
Q

apiration pneumonititis (of gastric acid) leads to

aspiration pneumonia (of oropharygneal bacteria)

A

really acute onset, within hours, damage to alveoli

leads to weeks of pneumonia symptoms, foul smelling sputum, etc

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81
Q

febrile neutropenia occurs when neutrophils are less than what?

A

<500

more suscpetible to aspergillus

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82
Q

patients with severe emphysema will have what acid base abnormality?

A

chronic respiratry acidosus with metabolic compensation

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83
Q

auer rods in APML have what chemical in them?

A

myeloperoxidase

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84
Q

isotype switching occurs where

A

in the germinal centers

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85
Q

in those with RA, rapid ETT intubmation can cause what problem?

A

cervical subluxation :(

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86
Q

cutaneous neurofibromas are derived from which cell?

A

neural crest (made up of mostly schwann cells)

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87
Q

what does a southwestern blot do?

A

substance detected: DNA binding protein

type of probe: dsDNA

(c-Jun and c-Fos are nucelar transcription factors that bind to DNA)

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88
Q

what protein assox with cr. 21 and down’s syndrome is thought to speed up early onset demenita?

A

APP (amylpoid precurosr protein)

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89
Q

what is the initial management for transposition of the great arteries?

A

rostaglandin infusion to maintain PDA

atrial spetostomy to enlarge/maintain PFO

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90
Q

many african forms of malaria are chloriquine resistant. What is teh treatment

also what do the trophozites look like in ring form?

A

atorvoqoune-progunil

or artemisins

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91
Q

among e coli strains that cause neonatal meningitis, what is the likely virulence facotir?

A

K1 capsular antigen

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92
Q

lung infections with crytococcus neoformans is usually

in those with hiv, what other sx can be seen?

A

asymptomatic

meningoencphalitis and may have symptomatic lung infection

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93
Q

know the abx resistance mecahnisms

A
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94
Q

in status epilepticus, after the loreazepam, what is given?

what is the moa?

A

phenytoin or fosphenytoin

inhibits Na channels

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95
Q

MRSA specs

A

grows on oxacillin agar and has MECA gene which codes for PBP2a which has a low affinity for beta lactams, there fore oxaccilin, methicilin, and the cephalosporins, are NOT effective

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96
Q

normally, Low BP would mean high vasopressin to try to compensate, but in sepsis???

A

vasopressin is low

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97
Q

AAA is caused by

A

chronic transumural inflammation

(cystic medial necrosis-marfan’s)

(focal initmal tear-aortic dissection)

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98
Q

muscarinic agonists will incresaes release of what?

A

NO

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99
Q

in vWF def, what are plt levels, PT and PTT?

A

all normal, but PTT can be prolonged

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100
Q

in graft versus host, is it the graft’s T cells or B cells that cause the probel,

A

T cells

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101
Q

testes, glans penis and cutaneous portion of posterior calf drain into

scrote drains into

A

paraaortic nodes

superficial inguinal

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102
Q

neutropenic fever increases the risk of what infections

A

infection from your own flroa

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103
Q

PAH pathogenesis

A

smooth muscle hyperplasia in the vascularture

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104
Q

in Dubin Johnson syndrome, is the issue conjugation or excretion?

A

defect in excretion of bilirubin gluconurides

105
Q

Pt’s with MG are resistant/overly sensitive to depolarizing agents (rocuronium, vecuronium)?

Pt’s with MG are resistnat/overly sensitive to nondepolarizing agents (succ)?

A

EXREMTLY senstiive

RESISTANT

106
Q

pharmacokinetic equations

A
107
Q

what’s an aortic dissection look like?

wht is the most risky thing to cause it?

A

hypertension not smoking

108
Q

3rd degree av blocks look like

why?

A

complete loss of QRS

degeneration of the AV node

109
Q

multiple small nondestructive masses attached to the edges of the mitral valve leaflets

A

assox with underlying malignnancy NBTE

110
Q

S4 is described as

A

Presystolic, late diastolic

assox with LV hypertrophy

111
Q

global ischemia as visualized as several wedge shaped infartcts all over can be cuased by

A

hypotension

112
Q

what is the cause of heritdary fructose intolerance, potentially fatal?

A

aldolase B deficiency

113
Q

if it sounds like cobalamin def but he’s alcoholic, what us it?

A

thiamine def/ (dry beri beri with cardio effects and neurpathy)

114
Q

MCA occlusions sx?

A

contralateral hemisensory and hemiparesis loss over upper extrem and face

115
Q

which E coli virulence factor caues sepsis?

A

Lipid A

116
Q

in left dominnat ciruclation, the PDA origiantes from

A

LCx

gives off AV nodal

117
Q

how does pleural fluid move?

A

in thru intercostal vessels out thru parietal plural lymphatic vessels

118
Q

in Bells palsy, is the forehead affected?

A

yes (peripheral nerve lesion, lmn)

opposite in stroke

119
Q

spastic bladder and bladder hypertonia is common in

A

MS patients after getting an UMN lesion

120
Q

is capillary wedge pressure normal in ARDS?

A

yes

121
Q

can aortic dissections cause tamponade?

A

yes

122
Q

where do most cardiac myxomas oringate?

A

left atrium

123
Q

respiration curve for normal vs copd

A
124
Q

metolazone is what drug class?

A

thiazide

can help potentiate loop diuretics and increase Na delivery to the DCT

125
Q

what endogenous hormone is similar to opioids

A

ACTH-idk y UW is confusing me

derived from POMC, like b-endorphin and MSH

126
Q

Edwards syndrome

A
127
Q

where is uric acid most lilely to precipitate in the kidneys?

A

in the CD due to low pH

128
Q

what drug can be used in hypertensive emergency?

A

Fendolopam (d1r agonist)

leads to renal vasodilation, incresaed perfusion and natrieuresis

129
Q

the median nerve travels between which landmarks

A

humeral and ulnar heads of the pronator teres m

130
Q

a hard mass with high cholesterol causing SBO, what could it be?

A

obstructing gll stone (gallstone ileus)

can find pnuemobilia

131
Q

what is teh cause of black gallstones?

A

supersaturation of bilirubin due to increased bilirubin prodcution or altered enterohepatic circulation

132
Q

what does cryptococcal encephalitis look like?

A
133
Q

what is the lung function in an obese person with restrictive lung dz (due to the obesitY)

A

FEV1, FVC, ERV and TLC are all decreased

RV normal

134
Q

someones got hypoparathyroidism from iatrogenic remocal, what is the treatment

A

calcitriol

(cincacelt is for 2nd hyperparathyroidism)

135
Q

whats a weird thing about ankylosing spondyltiis?

A

restricrted chest movement/expansion

136
Q

in DIC, Protein C, fibrinogen and VII are all

A

depleted bc they are all being used to make and break clots

137
Q

what are the PTH levels in mulriple myeloma?

A

PTH is decreased

urinary Ca in increased (due to low OTH)

1, 25 vit D is decreased (due to low PTH)

PTHRP is normla

138
Q

hypoketotic hypoglycemia with sz is

A

MCAD def

medium chain acylcoa dehydrogenase def.

139
Q

mmuscle weaknes,s hypoketotic hypoglycemia, cardiomyopathy and elevated muscle triglycerides (no sZ) is what?

A

rimary carnitine def.

140
Q

arteriolar vasodilaters can cause what side effect?

A

na and fliud retention

141
Q

this is hy?

A
142
Q

which of these is a tumor suppresor gene?

A

p53, lof would mean cancer

143
Q

a common side effect of penicillimine is

A

neprhotic syndrome due to membranous nephropathy

144
Q

PAY attnetion to clues about situs inversus eps if it sounds like CF because its acually

A

kartagner syndrome with defective dynein arm

145
Q
A
146
Q

if a COPDer gets a drop in RR after O2 supplementatioln, why?

A

a rapid rise in PaO2 which reduces peripheral chemoreceptor stimulation (which is the carotid body)

147
Q

PV loop for exercise

A
148
Q

PV loop for digoxin or increased afterload/increased contractiliy

A
149
Q

calcified nodules in lungs ln and spleen

A

histoplasmosis

150
Q

minimal change diseases causes plamsa oncotic pressure to increase or decerased?

A

decrease

151
Q

wrinkles in aging is assox with a decrese in

A

collagen fibril production

152
Q

busrelein is a what?

give with biculatamide why?

A

GNRH analogue that continualsiy pulses to decrease GnRH receptor, lowering LH and androgen production

to block the acticity of the angrogens on the tumor cell (if there is an initial increasE)

153
Q

DNa polymerase 1 functions to (3-5’ activity)

A

removes mismatch base pairs

154
Q

know

A
155
Q

HSV can cause what ss/

test how

A

ulcers and painful inguinopathy

tzank and PCR

156
Q
A
157
Q

tubular necrosis will have what findings?

intersitlay nephritis

A

ischemia, red casts, not pyruria

drugs, wbc

158
Q

intention to treat analyisis includes all pts even those that are

A

noncompliant

159
Q

what is the process of gluconeogenesis ?

A
160
Q

how is uv damage repaired?

A

thimidine dimers are repaired with nucleotide excision repair

this is the process of endonuclease nicking of damaged DNA strands

161
Q

in this question stem, the patient had been in an MVA and had a laparatomy for bleeding. You were supposed to assume what?

now he’s septic with strep pneumo, and dies. Why?

A

that he had a splenic lac that rquired removal

unable to clear systemic bacteria due to asplenia. asplenics should be vaccinated from encapsulated bacteria including strep pneumo, h flu, n menitigittsi

162
Q

benzo overdose elads to what metabolic derangement?

A

acute respiratoruy acidosis from hypoventiliation

A-a gradient will be normal

163
Q

what is systemic mastocytosis>

A

mast cell proliferation all over

leads to pruritis, hypotension, urticaria and excessive gastric acid secretion

164
Q

monoclonal ab can cause what side effect 7-10 days later?

A

serum sickness, with rash, fibrotic necrosis and neutrophilic infiltration of the bv

type 3 hsn which will decrese C3 levels ab-ag complex deposition and complement activation

165
Q

thiaizides do what to Ca?

A

increase Ca reabsoprtion

(loops increase urinary Ca excretion)

166
Q

pertussis is g+ or g -?

A

g-!!

167
Q

paradoxical emboli usually occur thru which type of shunt?

if no abn is seen on echo, what is it?

what manual test can help prove a PFO?

A

r-l shunt

PFO

release phase of valsalva

168
Q

in a pt with exertional dyspnea and cough with lymphocytes predominant BAL, what is the issue?

A

hypersensitivity pneumonitis

169
Q

how does HLA genetics work?

A

1/4 chance of being an identical match with a sibling

170
Q

PPIs inhbit absorption of

increase absorption of

A

Ca, Iron, Mg, and B12

dietary fats in those taking pancreatic enzymes

171
Q

what are the s/s pf TTP?

pathogenesis?

A

hemolytic anemia with elevated LDH and decreased hatpglobin, schistocytes on smear

increased bleeding time with normal PT/PTT

may have renal failure, fever, neuro

acquired or hereditary defect in ADAMS13 level leading to uncleaved vWf mutlimers which causes PLT trapping and activation

172
Q

damage where will cause a contralateral pure sensory deficit storke?

A

ventral posterior thalamus (may have gait issues if senory loss is severe enough)

173
Q

if you think they have sicke cell and they are sick with no hints as to what it could be, what are the go tos?

A

h flu, strep pneumo, n menigitis

174
Q

biliary atresia manifests with what symptoms?

A

dark urine

acholic stools

elevated direct bilirubin, elevated GGt

175
Q

pt’s with renal function so severely decreased that htey need dialysis could manifest with what bleeding disorder?

A

qualitative plt disorder due to acumulation of uremic toxins leading to prolonged bleeding time with no change in PT/PTT or PLT

(uremic plt dysfunction)

176
Q

DEFECT IN UMP syntehtase leasd to

A

orotic aciduria

elevated urinary ortoic acid

megaloblastic anemia

physicla and mental retardation

suplpment with uridine

177
Q

what does myeloblastic leukemia look like?

A
178
Q

family hx of colon and endometrial/ovarian cancer think what gene mutation (had it right first and changed it!!)

A

MSH1, 6, MLH2, PMS2

179
Q

divertica can bleed and cause painless hematochezia due to what?

A

disruption of the vasa recta

180
Q

middle aged women with granulomatous destruction of intralobar bile ducts

A

primary biliary colangitis (PBC-women)

181
Q

what is the major virulence factor of H flu?

A

polysaccharide capsule amde of PRP (polyribsotyle phosphate) that inbitits phagocytosis and complement by binding to factor H

182
Q

what two electrolyte abnormalities can cause vacular calcifications?

A

hypercalcemia and or hyperphosphatemia

other things: inflammation, atherosclerosis

183
Q

focal sz with impaired awareness and olfactory hallucinations or GI distress usually oritingate where?

A

mesial temporal region: hippocampus, amygdala, parahippocampal gyrus

often due to hippocampal sclerosis from febriel sz in childhod

184
Q

what is the most specific ab for Graves?

A

thyroptropin (TSH) receptor antbiody

thyroglobulin ab are less specific and more for hypo than hyper

185
Q

signet ring carcinoma (type of gastric adenomacarcinoma) can look like this

A
186
Q

What might a plasma cell neoplasm look like?

A
187
Q

Resistant to change when Protein c is added, probably means what?

A

Factor V leiden mutation

188
Q

mitral regurgitaiton on a catheterization tracing

A
189
Q

brown stones are formed by what?

A

b-gluconurnidase from bacteria (e coli) or helminths {(c. sinesis)

functions to increase amount of unconjugated bilirubin

can also happen in hemolytic anemia

190
Q

describes the findings and treatment of arsenic poisoning?

A

garlic smell, watery diarrhea, QT prlongation

from pesticides, wells, wood

treat with dimercaperol, DMSA

191
Q

during trauma with hemorrhage, why is glucose elevated?

A

increased hepatic glucose production, increased gluconeogensis

increased release of cytosol and cytokines, catecholamines

also happens in sepsis and hypoxia

192
Q

decrease in HGb and increase in bilirubin after drug treatment what might be?

A

drug induced immune mediated hemolytic anemia

193
Q

EPO stimulating agents like erythropoeitin, darbepoietin alfa, have what side effect?

A

wirsen hypertension

194
Q

this is a proto oncogene? (more likely to be acticated in cancer genes)

these are antioncogenes (more likel to be inactivated in cancer genes)

A

KRAS

APC, BRCA, TP53, RB

195
Q

what class of antiarhtymics blocks K efflux

A

amiodaraone, sotoolol, dofetilidie

class III

196
Q

treatment of HCV with DAAs (sofosbuvir and ledipavir) what is the MOA?

A

inhibit viral genome replciation and assembly

197
Q

what does clear cell carcinoma of the kidney look like gorrly?

where does it originate from?

A

usually the PCT

198
Q

what is hypertrophic osteoarthropathy?

A

painful bone growth, arthropathy, clubbing fingers, enlarged peristeuim in the setting of adenocarcinoma

199
Q

exertional heat stroke can trigger what terrifying bleeding/clotting condition

A

DIC

alos apparently you can be sweating during heat storke lol

200
Q

in liver cirrhosis causing ascites, what is the volume, urine Na and ADH?

A

total body volume is increased

ADH is increased

urine Na is low

201
Q

does your diastolic bp change during exercise

A

apparently not (unchanged or a slight decrease)

but systolic p and pp do increase

202
Q

what does the maltese cross look like on babesios?

A
203
Q

in chronic aortic regurgitation, the compensatory eccentric cardiohypertrophy leads to what mechanism to maintain CO?

A

increased stroke volume

204
Q

renal artery stenosis causing prerenal azotemia is suspected when what drug has been started?

Prerenal azotemia can also occur after starting pt on what

A

ACEi

diuretic

205
Q

what drugs can cause drug-induced lupus?

A

hydralazine

procainimide

isonizid

minicylcine

quininide

206
Q

treating triglyceride induced panceatits with insulin triggers what receptors?

A

upregulating lipoprotein lipase which hydrolyzes TGD into chylomicrons and VLDL

reduces HSL to supress the release of fatty acids

207
Q

knwo tha pathays

A
208
Q

what is the pathogeneis of hydradenitis supperativa

A

obstruction of folliculopilosebacious units

209
Q

what is teh pathogensis of calcific aortic valve disease

A

differentiation of valve fibroblasts into osteoblast-like cells

usually due to atherosclerosis and endothelial cell dysfunction

210
Q

what nreves will be injured in anterlateral displacement of the humerus ?

anteromedial

A

radial n

median n

211
Q

what section is the CAAT in?

A

promoter

212
Q

what is an imporant electorlyte when determing the cause of metabolic alkalaosis?

A

cl

213
Q

what deposits will you see in medullary tho=yoid cancer?

A

amyloid! in nests or sheets of polygonal or spindle shapes

214
Q

in facial nerve palsy/injury, what happens to tears?

A

decreased tear oroduction

215
Q

wht is the most benign common liver tumor?

whats it look like?

A

cavernous hemangioma

216
Q

where does PTH help decrease the reabsorption of Ph/

A

in the PCT

217
Q

elastin is so bendy ebcause of

A

lysin interchain cross linking

218
Q

what is synthesized in the RER ribosomes

A

integral proteins, membrane proteins

cytsol proteins-free ribosomes

219
Q

prior to starting SLGT1 inhibitors, what must be checked?

A

CRT, as an estimate of GFR since the efficacy of the drug depends on it

220
Q

describe pemphigus vulgaris

A

erosions of the skin and mucosa with painful flaccid bullae

worse with rubbing-Nikolsky sign

ab against desmoglein

221
Q

natural history of diabetic glomerulopathy

A
222
Q

what does tenofovir inudced renal injury look like

A

AKI (elevated crt, water retention) and or

PCT dysfunction phosphatirua, glucosirua, proteinuria

223
Q

nice lil review

A
224
Q

what must be supplmented in phenylektonuria?

A

tyrosine

can’t turn phen into tyr

225
Q

more biochem shite

A
226
Q

what do kemmelstiel-wilson noduels look like?

A

aka nodular sclerosis

in diabetics

227
Q

what are the stool contents in vibrio diarhea?

A

some mucus and no erythrocytes or leukocytes

228
Q

trigeminal neuralgia is treated with

what is the MOA

A

carbemazipine

blocks Na current on many levels

229
Q

what hormone can stimulate prolactin

A

TRH

230
Q

tell me about an S3

A

sudden stop of blood thru the left ventricle

normal in youths, pathological after 40

may indicate mitral regrug, aortic regurg, dilated cardiomio

occasionally present in pregnancy or thyrotoxicosis

suggests eccentric hypertrophy

231
Q

heart failure can cause pleural effusion taht is (transudative or exudative) in nature?

A

transudative

low protein, low LDH

232
Q

hemodynamic changes in mitral regurg

A
233
Q

what are some s/s of PDA?

A

clubbing and cyanosis of the LE

decrease in postductal o2 saturation

starts as L-R shunt but can turn into L-R shunt via eisenger

234
Q

how do EGFR ab help in cancer therapy?

A

they are selective for the cancer cells only so only the ccner cells take up the durg

235
Q

whsat type of kidney disease is seen in rhabdo?

what in the urine

A

acute tubular necrosis

granular casts

236
Q

elastase are in neurophils and what else

A

macrophages (alveolar)

237
Q

pancreatic tumors (like ZE syndrome) are found in what MEN?

what else should be checked for?

A

MEN 1

1’ hyperparathyroidism (assx nephrocalcinosis)

pituitary tumors (vision changes, prolacin levels)

238
Q

struma ovarri is from what tpye of cell

A

germ cell! (germy struma ovarii)

carries thyroid tissue derived from endoderm

239
Q

child with mediastinal mast and lots of blast cells?

A

ptobably T-aLL

240
Q

blunt aortic injury usually occurs where?

A

at the aortic isthmnus

241
Q

what is a complication of viral pericarditis?

A

pericardial effusion

tachycardia, electrical alternans, dyspnea, low voltage qrs

242
Q

type A dissections normall occur near the

type B dissections normally occur nea the

A

sinotubular junction

left subclavian a

243
Q

a lung infection and we are told that the cell mediators are Th1, INFy and IL2

waht is the most likly pathogen?

A

legionelle

intracelular, requires cell mediated immunity

244
Q

in atrial fibrillation, what sets the pace of ventricular depolarization?

A

th AV node refractory period

245
Q

where does malaria lie dormant?

A

in the liver

246
Q

an arrangement in which a payor pays a fixed predetermined fee per pt for all required medical services is termed

A

capitation

payment structure underlying HMOs

247
Q

ETOH based cleansers kill how?

A

disrupt the lipid bilayer

248
Q

Pt’s who receive total parenteral nutrition are at risk of gallstones because

those with ileum resections are at increased risk becasue

A

lack of CCK secretion resulting in biliary stasis

there is disruption in the enterohepatic circulation of bile acids leading to inadequate solubilization of biliary cholesterol and formation of cholesterol chrystals

249
Q

what is more likkely to cause cataracts, prednisone or hydroxychloroquine?

A

predinsome

250
Q

what is the MOA of PCKS9 inhibitor evolucomab

A

decreases LDL R degredation by lysosomes

251
Q

what cells are resonsible for the findings in systemic sclerosis?

A

vascular endothelial cells

T cells

derma fibroblasts

252
Q

MSUD patients may benefit from supplementation of waht

A

thiamine

required cofactros for branched a chain a ketoacid dehydrogenase: thimaine, lipoate CoA, FAD, NAD

(tender loving care for nancy)

253
Q

what intracellular component will be increwased after exposure to phospholipase c?

A

Ca (part of the DAG pathway)

254
Q

what two factors help make blood vessels

A

VEGF

FGF

255
Q

what is the mode?

A

most frequently observed number in a dataset

256
Q

in LV eccentric hypertrophy and heart failure, what will the EF be?

what will the compliance be?

A

EF decreases

compliance increases

257
Q

digoxin slows AV node conduction by

A

increasing parasympathetic tone

but can’t really do that during exercise

258
Q

what does the marrow look like in aplastic anemia

A

fibrsos and fat

Stuff I Get Wrong (34 decks)

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