Exam 1 Review Flashcards
5.27.24 exam
A patient presents w/ R shoulder pain w/ (+) sulcus sign.
The finding would MOST likely be present in which of the following medical conditions?
a) Early-onset Alzheimers
b) Rupture of the biceps tendon
c) CVA
d) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
c) CVA
CVA - weakness / paralysis -> flaccid shoulder & positive sulcus sign
Hip flx 3+
Hip ext 3
Knee flx 3+
knee ext 3+
Ankle DF 2
Ankle inv & ev 1
sensation is intact & no abnormal tone noted
Which orthoses is most appropriate?
Plastic articulating AFO
Adequate hip & knee strength to allow for AFO
Plastic is appropriate since sensation is intact
Articulating joint allows for improved biomechanics during gait
What is a metal upright AFO typically prescribed for?
Fluctuating tone
Sensory deficits
Review appropriate shoe modifications for hallux valgus
High & wide toe box
Medial support
Decreased heel height
Contoured posterior counter
What common symptom can help distinguish between the acute vs chronic phase of adhesive capsulitis?
Night pain - common during acute phase, but NOT during chronic phase
Shoulder Abduction Test
What does this assess?
Describe how to perform
What is a positive test?
If suspecting a post-surgical infection, what steps should be taken?
immediate consultation with the referring physician
Does NOT warrant an ER visit
What is contract-relax stretching most appropriate for?
Muscle hypertonicity or spasms
What is meant by “unremarkable” post-op progression?
Everything has been going fine & they’re doing great
Describe each of the following primitive reflexes:
Moro
Galant
Landau
Asymmetrical Tonic Neck Reflex
Symmetrical Tonic Neck Reflex
Tonic Labyrinthe
Sucking
Rooting
Palmar Grasp
Plantar Grasp
Stepping / walking
Following a CVA, which direction does an individual displaying “pusher syndrome” typically “push” / lean?
Active pushing toward the hemiplegic side (opposite side of the lesion)
“Weak on L, push to L”
Describe the Stages of Motor Control
1) Mobility
a. The ability to initiate movement through a functional ROM
2) Stability
a. The ability to maintain a position or posture through cocontraction & tonic holding around a joint
3) Controlled mobility
a. The ability to move within a WB position or rotate around a long axis
4) Skill
a. The ability to consistently perform functional tasks and manipulate the envt
Describe the Stages of Motor Learning
1) Cognitive
2) Associative
3) Autonomous
In a patient w/ C5 SCI, what muscles would most likely be able to utilize while performing transfers?
a) Brachioradialis
b) Pronator teres
c) ECRB
d) Lats
a) Brachioradialis (nerves roots C5-6)
Describe the scaling for rating sitting balance
Normal
- Sit unsupported, move in and out of the BOS, and accept maximal challenge w/o LOB
Good
- Sit unsupported, move in and out of the BOS
- Accept some challenge w/o LOB
Fair
- Maintain balance in sitting unsupported
- Cannot accept any challenge or go outside of their BOS w/o LOB
Poor
- Unable to maintain their balance in sitting w/o external support
Following a CVA, if you want to facilitate elbow extension in a patient w/ hemiplegia, what motion would you want to perform? Why?
Head turn towards the affected side
To elicit ATNR
What congenital defects are common in infants w/ Down syndrome? How can these impact motor development?
Congenital heart defects
Can delay gross motor development beyond the 6-12 months delay already associated w/ Down Syndrome
may require additional hospitalizations & surgeries
Describe potential causes of each of the following lung sounds
Pleural friction rub
Decreased breath sounds
Crackles or rales
Pleural friction rub - pleural effusion
Decreased breath sounds - pulmonary fibrosis
Crackles or rales - impaired secretion clearance
patient in an acute care setting w/ a hematologic disorder. What test shoulder be monitored on a daily basis to ensure patient safety w/ PT?
Complete blood count
What all does a complete blood count include?
RBC count
WBC count
Platelets
Hemoglobin
Hematocrit
How quickly should the pressure be released when obtaining a BP measurement?
2-3 mmhg per sec
How high should you inflate the BP cuff when measuring BP?
20 mmHg above the estimated SBP
1 MET = ?
What is the typical aerobic capacity for men & women in METs?
Highly trained men & women?
1 MET = amount of oxygen consumed at rest
maximal aerobic capacity = 8-12 METs
Highly trained = 15-20 METs
What should be done if clear drainage is leaking from a pin site following a fracture w/ external fixation?
Use a gauze pad to absorb the drainage & continue w/ exercise session
Clear drainage from a pin site w/ external fixation is normal
Describe the appropriate positioning for postural drainage of the R middle lob
1/4 turn from supine to L side
Foot of bed elevated 12 in
Percussion performed over the R chest between the axilla & R nipple
An acute burn produces _______metabolism. What can this lead to?
Hypermetabolism
Increased O2 consumption
Increased minute ventilation
Increased core body temp
Describe atrial flutter vs atrial fibrillation
Atrial flutter
- Rapid atrial tachycardia
- Rapid rate -> decreased filling time of the ventricles -> decreased stroke volume
A-fib
- Erratic electrical conductivity within the atria
A-flutter - heart beats fast, but in a regular rhythm
A-fib - heart beats fast, but the rhythm is irregular
